BOOKLET No. 416562 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO TBC : 24/ECPIT TEST BOOKLET SERIES Roll No. [3 [0 [6 [J [1/91 9[4 SESSION : FORENOON GENERAL STUDIES PAPER I ‘Time Allowed : 2 Hours] {Maximum Marks : 200 . INSTRUCTIONS 1 IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided at the top. DO NOT, write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4 This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English, Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to marl on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the respons which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item, You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided All items carry equal marks. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your ‘Admission Certificate. 8 After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9, Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. @ There are four alternatives for the answers to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (i) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question, (ii) Ifa question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. 11. No marks shall be awarded for scrapped question(s). 12, Incase of any discrepancy found in English and Hindi Version in this paper, the English Version may be treated as correct and final. 13. CARRYING AND USE OF ELECTRONICICOMMUNICATION DEVICES INEXAMINATION HALL IS NOT ALLOWED. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO ‘Note : Hindi version of the instructions is printed on the back cover of this Booklet, and: api a a wen wa ofan & fea ys HR oe 1 noe P.T.O.Podu form of shifting cultivation is popular in which of the following states of India ? (A) Odisha B) (©) Kerala ©) Assam Chhattisgarh i Gd a Gg eo ne F fefatad 4 a fea wt A chair & ? (A) sitfem @) (©) ea @) to Caiapels are the skilled workers of : (A) Polymer Industry (@®) (C) Drug Industry @) free are afte t : (A) Weise seit F (B) (C) staf sett # @) Lyons is a major industrial town of : (A) France @) (C) Germany © ari we yer stehfirs wee & : (A) ae ®) (©) wit @) TBC : 24/ECP/—B 2 ara wears Glass Industry Ceramics Industry wien seit F ort fat ain A Spain Italy 444. Given below are two statements : Statement I: Escurial is a famous structure of France. Statement II : Brandenburg Gate is a famous structure of Jerusalem. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from _ the options given below : (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect (@) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct a a wer fea me: wat: wet wie a vfs dee F1 war We: aeart te Seas at un wee dee 21 wiffafer seri $ om K Ae fee we fact a waa shat on a Ga aia: (A) #47 1 sik wer at wa = (B) Ha I att war 1 Sh ae & (C) war 1 we & ait HFT Tee ©) HH Led at we wae TBC : 24/ECPA—B 3 P.TO.® 5. . Given below are two statements : Statement I: Patsari river is a small tributary of Tons river. Statement II : Patsari river originates near Kharapather in Shimla district. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (©) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect ©) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct AM a wer fea me: watt: wet deat at od wae a 8) wert I: wert a frre fra S Goren S oe a freer 31 affetad seri S ore A fee Ty free Fa waa sea TR aT GT aia: : (A) wer I ait wer I eH at (@) wr I ak wert St aed = (OC) wer Lae @ ok HIF Tat ©) =m 17a tok oH wa E TBC : 24/ECP/I—B 40 6. Given below are two statements : Statement I : Bara Shigri glacier was first surveyed by Walker and Poscoe in 1906. Statement II : Bara Shigri is the largest glacier in the state of Himachal Pradesh. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct a d sen fea me: wet: aia feet rarer a weet aR 1906 H ata she cieat gra wear fear 7a al weet IL: are ferret ferraes ven TT HT TAS eT TARR Td siffatas eet S ore we a faq my faact A a wae shar TR aT Ge pitta: (A) wer 1 atk wer IL art wet = (B) wer 1 aR we LL SHH ea F (© wr 1 wae ae BR Tea () er 17a tok we we TBC : 24/ECP/I—B 5. PEG.© 7. ~~ Arrange the following states of India from highest to lowest flood prone area + (@) Bihar (2) Punjab (8) Rajasthan (4) Uttar Pradesh Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (2), (4), (D, (8) (B) (4), @), @), 3) (C) (4), (8), (2), (D ) (2, (8), 2), 4) ona & frafafan od sere & apae ag wurfia Ga S ore He rahe aif: () fer (2) ‘ra @) WRIA (4) sit eT aR fem frac Fa wt a aa sa: (A) (2), (4), (), 8) (B) (4), @, 2), @) (©) @, @), 2), @ ©) @), @), @, @ 8. Arrange the following centres of cotton textile industry in India from north to south : (1) Phagwara (2) Cuttack (3) Guntur (4) Tirupati Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (2), (2), (8), (4) ®) ,@), @, @ (©) (2), (4), (D, @) ®) @, @), @, 4 ara a gf ger sir & frefafen Ssh A om a cfm fem A orate wifey: QQ) wrart Q), wee @) ie 4) fareafa 4a fume fact Ha ad on a Tie aif: (A) (D, 2, @), 4) ®) (), 3), 2), @) (©) 2), 4), @, @) ©) @), (8), (2), TBC : 24/ECP/AI—B i 69. 10. Arrange the following countries of Europe from East to West : (1) Ukraine (2) Belgium (3) Poland (4) Germany Choose the correct answer from the options given below : * (A) (D, (8), @), (2) (B) (2), (8), @,@ (C) Q), (2), ), (3) @) (2), (4), GD, (3) qin & frafefaa ext at gd a viva ot sik cafes aifra : Q) a (2) afer (3) this 4) wt a fea my fanedi Ha aa om HM Gaa wife : (A) @), (8), ),-) (B) (2), (3), (4), @) (C) @), 2), ), (3) (D) (2), (4), (1), (3) Consider the following statements : (1) Simlipal biosphere reserve is in Tamil Nadu. (2) Panna biosphere reserve is in Madhya Pradesh. (8) Bhadrak mangroves pertain to Odisha. (4) Gulf of Kutch is the largest mangrove of India. .Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (1) and (2) only (B) (1) and (4) only (C) (2) and (4) only ) (2) and (3) only Frafafed seri uw frax aifrt - () fefera antaa serise afierrg 4 fem 31 2) TT anf Seaisa ne yen Ff fea @1 (3) wae tht a day otter @ B1 (4) 3s a art 4 oa a waa set thts @ We feu me famed Fa we aR ar gra Fea: (A) Fat (1) sik (2) @®) aq (1) aR (4) (C) Baar (2) siz (4) (@) Faz (2) sik (3) TBC : 24/ECP/I—B 7 P.T.O.11. Consider the following statements : (1) Tel is a right bank tributary of Mahanadi- (2) The delta of the Godavari river is lobate type. (3) Bhima river originates from Raj Mahal Hills. (4) The Penganga river is 300 km long and rises from Sa Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (1) and (2) only (B) (4) and (8) only (©) (2) and (4) only (D) (1) and () only frafafaa seri a fra aif : () aa Ferdi at aie fear wt sere Ae TI (2) tread at ar Ser wfera gave (eae) We aI BI (3) iH = wre a vats 3 frre & (4) Him =a 300 Fert cist & sie wage vated a freed @ aa feu me feared 48 ad aK GIs aif: (A) Fat (1) sR (2) (B) #aai (1) 2K (3) (C) Fat (2) ir (4) (D) aa (1) aR (4) 12. Consider the following statements = (1) Essex city is famous for engineering works. tpura Hills. (2) Leeds city is famous for watches production. (3) Baku city is known for cutlery industry. (4) Abadan city is known for oil refinery. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (2) and (4) only (B) (3) and (4) only (C) (1) and (4) only ) (1) and (2) only frafafad seri 1 fran aif : QQ) Wee me Sita si SF fae ae oraz (2) diga wet ufsat S seer F fore vez 81 (3) ary, wet HI Feet sein F fae ae sa eT (4) sare we ta Me FS fee wT se F 4A fea me fact 43 wa aH a Ge shea: (A) Baa (2) sik (4) (B) Fae (3) sik (4) (C) Fae (1) ait (4) @) Fae (1) afk (2) TBC : 24/ECP/I—B , 80 13. Match List I with List II : List I List I (Glacier) (Range/Region) (@)_ Baltoro . @ Pir Panjal @®) Sonapani . (i). Kanchenjunga-Everest © Milam (iii) Karakoram @ Zemu (iv) | Kumaon-Garhwal Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @ 6 © @ A Gi) @» @ Ww) ®) @) W © wi (©) Gi) © @ Ww ) (ii) Ge) O W aa la ai 0 a from aif; wet 1 * ait 0 Care (rote) (@) aera @® he @) arr @) waria-wte © fram Ga) SRR @ 4 @) eard-rera am feq mm fase Fa wat oR a Gia aha: @ ® © @ (A) Gi) @) @ Ww) B) @) @ @ Gi © Gi) ® ww) w O) Wii) @) © W TBC : 24/ECP/A—B 9 . PTO.14. Match the forest cover i i sh area/type with their total area in Himachal Prades (2021) : List I List II Wensity/Total Forest Cover) (Area in sq. kms.) A (@) Very dense forest above @ 7,100 70 percent . (6) Moderate dense forest @) 5,180 40 to 70 percent (©) Open forest 10 percent (ii) 15,443 to 40 percent (d) Total forest cover (iv) 3,163 Choose the correct options : @ ® © @ (A) @) © @ Ww 8 © i w w © ® @ © ww ©) @ © Ww) wd ferraci yéa1 4 (2021) aresfea aa & vervaa a aR Gana S from wifes ; yet I at 1 (ae at aap) aa (wt fecititen) @ FHF (70% 3 aft) =) 7,100 | ) FETA GA FA (40%-70%) ——(ii)-_«5,180 © BW F 10%-40% (ii) 15,443 @ ee arate (@w) 3,163 ae feu ye fees 3a wat oR aw Gia aif : @ © © @ A @) © W@W W ® © dd w W © @ @ © wi O f © w@ ww " pBe + 24/BCP/I—B 1015. Match List I with List II : List I List II (City) (River) (@ Warsaw @ Vistula (®) Lisbon Gi) Tagus (© Hamburg (ii) Elbe @) Bristol (iv) Avon Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @ © © @ Ao @ Ww w B® w& @ @ © @) @ © i © ® Gd @ Ww aati a at 01 a from aie : ait wet (ate) re) (a) are @ fea (). fama Gi) te () wart (ii) WA @ fara We) a fea ny faaed 4 8 wat om a gre aif : @ ® © @ A @ Gi) Gi) @ B) @) G) @ @ (©) @ ww) @ Wi ©) @ Gi) Gi) We) TBC : 24/ECPA—B a P.T.O.16. Who described the Indian economy as “Bullock Cart Economy” ? (A) Granville Austin (B) Atul Kohli (©) Lloyd and Sussane Rudolph’ (D) Rajni Kothari fat nea aderen at Serre are sreleren"’ wer? (A) Frise ate (B) sige Feet (© was BH eaten (D) wt start 17. Council of Ministers’ size has been restricted to 15 percent of membership of Lok Sabha by which constitutional amendment ? (A) 91st Amendment (B) 92nd Amendment (C) 95th Amendment (D) 103rd Amendment few deere Beiter ant wPasieg at dear cite wn st weet ar 15 vied ae ‘wifa ate 2 (A) 914 die B) 924 tie (C) 954 Sener (D) 1034 aie 18. Who among the following was not a member of the Advisory Couneil for Himachal Pradesh which was constituted on Sept. 30, 1948 2 (A) Swami Purnanand (B) Mehta Avtar Chana (©) Lila Devi @) Satya Dev Bushahri 30 fareat 1948 a fen feerae 52a at TTR af H fey a an ae a ? = (A) ert wir (8) Aen sam de (C) cen et ©) 3 ey amet TBC : 24/ECP/I—B 1219. é) Given below are two statements : Statement I: Finance Minister is final authority to decide whether a bill is money bill or not. Statement II : In Indian system of ‘dyarchy’ was introduced by Government of India Act, 1985 during British period. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (A) Both. Statement I and Statement II are correct, @) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (©) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect ©) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct are a eer fume: wert: re fast feet 8 an sei eae sift Fede faa st wer €) wart I: afer sre 4 once aftfros, 1995 arr ame BM ere” see fear rn Sohiefan rh Somer AS fee Ped HR aD fe aoe ar aaa: (A) wr 1 ait ser 1 et we = @) FF 1 ak we 0 at ae = (© wr 1 wa & ait Ser aaa t ©) wr Tem % ok wer att TBC : 24/ECPA—B 13 P.T.O,20. Given below are two statements : i for temple Statement 1: B.R. Ambedkar started Vaikam Satyagrah in 1924 entry of untouchables. ‘i i i Party. Statement II : Jyotiba Phule was not associated with Republican i x from In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answe the options given below : (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect @) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct ae a war fq me: ST: ang Fae a wee ty atom. sizer 9 1904 H aaem ace ye frat Se TL: sara Gea fear wet & deifta at ay Sitefen wey F ome KFS Re me Femcdl A aad afar om aT IG wife: (A) wer 1 sit mer TT Soi we E (B) Fr 1 ak Se TW ei wea = (© wr Id tok wR ee OD) FH I ree & sit He we TBC : 24/ECPA—B 1421. Consider the following statements regaiding Panchayati Raj system in Himachal Pradesh. Statement I: In 1949, the Punjab Village Panchayat Act of 1939 was enforced and 132 panchayats were established in Himachal. Statement II: By the end of 1956, there were 466 Gram Panchayats and 26 Tehsil Panchayats in Himachal. Choose the correct option from the following : (A) Both statements are correct (B) Only statement I is correct (C) Only statement II is correct @) Both statements are incorrect feraa aa & verct wwe @ dite fe seri a free at : war: 1949 4 ta om darn sfutem, 1939 Ur] fa Ta AR 132 dary feraa 4 waft at ag) SoTL: 1956 % sia oH feet H 466 um dard sit 26 aed erat ey frafatad famed i a ad am afr : (A) St wer we & (B) fas wer 1 wat (C) fae wer I we ® (D) st wer wet ae TBC : 24/ECP/—B 15 é P.T.O.. . i Right to 22. Which of the following statements are correct. in relation to Rig! Information Act ? (1) This act came into force on 12 October 2005. (2) It repealed the Official Secret Act, 1923. (3) It replaced the Freedom of Information Act, 2002. (4) It does not protect freedom of expression ‘and speech under Article 19. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (2), (8), (4) ®) ©), @), @) (©) (8), @), @) ) (1) and (2) Frefotan 38 sre en Gans she ae we A wee? () ae afafay 12 seat, 2005 aa ary eT @ car wasia civtam afer, 1923 at fea ae fem (3) FR Ft aaa afer, 2002 a aaa fem) @ We SSE 19 Fae Sree a Sa A ro aA sen wer ae aca 1 aM Rum fect Fa at ae a Ga za; (A) (2), @), @ (B) (2), (2), @) (C) (3), 4), @) @) (1) GH (2) TBC : 24/ECPA—B 1623. 0 TBC ; 24/ECP/I—B 17 Consider the following statements : (1) Baba Kansi Ram was a great freedom fighter of Himachal Pradesh. (2) He was influenced by Gadar Party. (8) He took oath to wear Black Clothes till India gets independence. (4) He was given name of “Pahari Gandhi” by Sarojini Naidu. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (1) and (2) only (B) (2) and (8) only {C) (2) and (8) only @) (4) and (2) only Prfoten seri 1 fra aia: a) sear sieht oH fea sta FUE HER sie Barth a 2) Wem We 8 wafad ar @ FF we ct fe sa st sort ofa ae aa ae wen) @) SS Wort are A yeret aR am fea ae fe 71 fear Fa wa an a Gia se : (A) Bact (1) stk (2) . (B) Fae (2) sik (3) (C) Baa (1) ste (8) ) Haat (4).2hk (2) P.T.O.24. 0 Consider the following statements : @) Mandi was first state in Shimla Hill States in which Panchayati Raj Act was passed. @) During freedom movement Lala Lajpat Rai never visited Mandi. (3) Non-cooperation Movement did not start in Himachal Pradesh. @ Rajkumari Amrit Kaur from Shimla conducted Quit India Movement. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (4) @ and (2) only ®) (2) and (3) only (©) (8) and (4) only @) () and (1) only frefafad act a fran sited ; @M Foren feet edt gt eet oe at oe dart we SE Te ET (2) See Ser Fk ore UE Ta ah at ag sms @) sre oreo ferret wea 3 wey gt gs @ TREE age 3 fre 8a Ot ates werd = Wa feu 1 frac 4 a wet on wae we; (A) Sa (1) stk @) : a (B) Faq (2) sik (3) (©) Fae (8) ak 4) () Fae (4) aR (1) TBC ; 24/ECPA—B 18;25. Consider the following statements : @) Constitution amendment bill can Parliament, a (2) Centre and States have equal power to amend the constitution. (3) be introduced in any house of the Amendment in the seventh schedule requires the ratification by the legislatures of not less than half of the states. (4) Basic structure of the constitution can also be amended. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) @) and (3) only (B) (2) and (3) only (C) (4) and (1) only @) (2) and (4) only frefafen seri 1 fran aia ; @ waerrw deter fir dae & fae at wea Fae feo ot wea #1 @) Wes $ ater aw a Fx a wan afer we B @) fara erect orga A ofeas 8 on 8 athe ae Beery owe at eae wet 4) sae & ys ca Foot deter fear on aaa 21 ae fu my feared 48 ad aR a Ge a: (A) 4a (1) aR (3) (B) Fae (2) ik (3) (©) Fae @ ak a) () Fact (2) sik (4) TBC : 24/ECP/—B 19 P.T.O.26. Consider the following statements : af suptenia jginal jurisdiction Which of the following are included in the original jurisdi Court ? (DA dispute between Govt. of India and one or more states. (2) A dispute regarding elections to either House of Parliament. 0) (8) A dispute between Govt. of India and a Union Territory. (4) A dispute between two or more states. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (1) and (2) only (B) (2) and (3) only (©) @) and (4) only @) (8) and (4) only frofafed seri 3 fra aif Frfefaa 4 8 eh weioa =r & oniue ater ax Font & ? @ ORG weer sk UH at UH a sfes we BS mes fees * 2) Wag & fret ot wer 8 eifim gra S fae 3) Ara wR sk Saunier wen S yey faa @ 844 8 sfte wi Soe far AP fee me fect Fa wt on a gra sR 5 (A) ae (1) aft (2) B) Fae (2) ait (3) (©) Fae (1) ak (4) ) Fae (8) ait (4) TBC ; 24/ECP/I—B 2027. Consider the following statements : G TBC : 24/ECPA—B 21 (2) There is no mention of no-confidence motion in the Constitution of India. @) A motion of no-confidence can be introduced in any house of the Parliament. (3) A money bill can be tabled in either house of Parliament. (4) The President cannot return a money bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (D) and (2) only (B) (8) and (4) only (©) (2) and (4) only @) (2) and (3) only frofefar arin fran aif : qa aia & dun 9 steams vera a sede ag &) @) saree rea ee F fee ot wer A wea fear oT wea #1 (3) wr fate dag & fret st wen sega frat ot waa $1 @ west uF fda at che a & wafer 8g aa cher wei a fey my feared Fa we aT a yA sie; (A) Baer (1) afk (2) @) 47a @) at 4) (C) Baer (1) atk (4) @) Faq (2) atk (3) P.T.O,28. Match List I with List II : List I List II (@) Habeas Corpus Writ () Re-examining Lower Court ends by Superior Court (6) Mandamus Writ (i) Exercising Power under which . authority (©) Certiorari Writ (ii) Restricting officials to act (@) Quo Warranto Writ (jv) To produce in person Choose the correct answer from the options given below = @ 6) © @ A © @ w& Ww 8 @® © W® w& ©) @ Gd © W QO @ &® © W at ia aa 1 a fram aif : ait 1 aat @) Ft yaaa ae @ ates arenes gra Fre aera & feewre HI tea @) WRT @ ft wn 3 ain wa iT © war set Gi) afer at aria 1H Te @ afrarnpen ae @v) aa wr safer 4a Rene fact Fa wt aK wT Ga ss: @® © @ A @ @. & w ® @ © @ w& © @ ww @ & oO w® wm oO Ww TBC : 24/ECP/—B 2229. Match List I with List Ir : List I List II (Commissions) (Years of Establishment) (a) National Commission for Women _ ()._—«1953 (©) National Human Rights Commission (ii) 1992 (c) Kaka Kalelker Commission (iii) 2005 (@) National Commission for Protection (iv) 1993 of Child Rights Choose the correct answer from the options given below : © ®» © @ (A) @) @) @ Gi) ®) @® @W Gi) ww) ©) @ @ Ww @ ©) @& @ © Ww Tet | ar eet 8 fram ate: wat 1 wat 0 @rim) (rare are) (a) wa afeen sre @® 1953 () wes aaa sri @ 1992 © ar see ari (ii) 2005 @ Teh aa after Har sri) 1993 We fea me faacd J a at ar a Ge aif : “-@ ® © @ (A) @ ww) @ |G B® @ @ Wi w © dé) @ ww @ ©) &) Gi) © w& TBC : 24/ECP/I—B 23 P.T.O.80. Match the Members of Legislative Assembly of Part ‘C’ state of Himachal Pradesh from Mandi District (1952-56) with respective constituencies : List I List II (Name of the Members) (Name of the Constituency) (a) Gauri Prasad @ — Joginder Nagar (6) Karam Singh Thakur Gi) Karsog (©) Besar Ram (d) Rattan Singh (ii) Rewalsar (jv) Mahadev Select the correct choice : @ ©) © (A) Gi) ww) @ ® @® @ @ © @® WH ww) ©) @) Gi) Wi) Feat firct B (1952-56) * @a 8 fram aia: ate (aqeT wT ATA) (@) at vaR (&) FH fig arRT © Ra @ wi fie (d) @) @) (iii) @ ue a wer S fer wn weet a es fr aT Ge ar fq 1 fect 4 a edt ae a gia Sf: @ © © (A) Gi) Ww) @ ®) @ GH @ oOo @ w ©) ww) Gi) @ TBC : 24/ECPA—B at oO (ara a) @ stir ar @) Fein i) FearereR qv) FRRT @ @) (iv) Wii) @ 24$1. Till when the Indian government has extended the Pradhan Mantri Gharib Kalyan Anna Yojana ? (A) December 2026 (B) December 2027 (C) December 2028 D) December 2030 ARG WSR A WU Hal ade Sea a a at Ha TH aa fea e ? (A) fee 2026 (B) fedex 2027 (©) feta 2028 (D) fear 2030 32. Economic Growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if : (A) There is technical progress in the world economy (B) There is population growth in country X (C) There is capital formation in country X @) The volume of trade grows in the world economy aa X 9 otis fara atari wa 8 ea uaiec ake ; (A) fara srforsen 4 aerial wait & (B) ta X F wen Fst (C) aa x 4 et fram ©) fra adioraer F omar at arr wat & TBC : 24/ECP/—B 25 PTO.33. Suppose, the poverty line as mensured by Monthly Per Capita Expenditure is Rs. 1,000. MPCK (in Rs.) of 10 Households 1160 | 1050 | 1250 | 1300 1300 | 1350 | 1250 | 1400 Statement I : Head Count Ratio of State A is less than Head Count Ratio of State B. Statement II : Poverty Gap Ratio of State A is less than Poverty Gap Ratio of State B. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct aM tifa, after vit oafea ora gra Ard 7g att tar 1,000 wa @ || 10 aftera ar reg (TAH) WIA 1050 | 1250 | 1300 800 | 850 | 900 | 950 | 1200 | 1100 400 | 450 | 550 1350 | 1250 | 1400 wTaB war: WTA H Re See ATG Ws BS Re She aga A ar FB wea I: AA HI Teh sit HATA WT BS adel sit sqm a aE siffafar seri S ae «A fee Te ae Fe waa shar eR oI Ga sift: .34. Given below are two statements : Statement I ; Trickle Down Theory says that let business flourish, since their profits ultimately trickle down to lower income individuals. Statement II : Economic Theory predicts that inequality will increase during recessions and decline during economic booms. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect ©) Statement I is incorrect and Statement IJ is correct a a wer eu mE: wer: eee car att med tf rae SI wera &, aie STH PATAT gaa: FF a are aa S Ta eM Ta FI war Ol: satis fais ufaerart aca @ fe dt S dhs area sent sik sf ° see & dhe frrae sie sififafar seri $ ame x AA fe my feat Ha waa shar oR HT Ta wife: (A) war 1 at wer 1 i ae e (B) eer 1 ak wer I Ot Te F (© war 1 we & ok HIT ee D) wer Trea & ak He wee TBC : 24/ECPA—B 27 P.T.O.35. Given below are two statements : jdates have Statement I: As of December 2023, around 1.3 crore candida' received training under PMKVY. eure been Statement II : Out of these candidates around 60 lakh individuals have * placed. “ m In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer fro: the options given below : (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct @®) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect (@) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct ae Sf wer Ru mE: wet: fedex 2023 wH, IT 1.3 ats saiteatl A PMKVY @ cea weer wea fra @1 wer I: HF sical 4 8 arm 60 cre cafe at sted a ng e1 ifetad ert S ore wa fee Ty feet 4 8 aa shea a A wa” () wr 1 ait ear 0 ahi wa = By eer I stk wer 0 ahi ae = (C) or Lae ¢ oe we Tate @) Hr I wet & ak Se we TBC : 24/ECPA—B 2836. Given below are two statements : Statement I': The volume of E-way bill generation in India continues to grow steadily. Statement II : Rail freight traffic and port cargo traffic are growing at a healthy pace, In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect () Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct Wa od wer feu me: wr 1: ane #8 faa ater at a oman ae wt 21 wr i: Ya wre sara sit seeme srif area eer aft ag wT ‘Wifefar ser S orem se AS Ae ae fae | a wa far ow GA wi: (A) Ba 1 at He I St wet FE (@) war I ak Ger WI SH we (C) Her Lad @ ak Sar Tea D) Fer Ire t ak wer wae TBC : 24/ECP/—B 29 test PTO.37. Consider the following Health programmes and policy : (1) The National Health Policy (2) National Health Mission (NHM) (3) National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) (4) National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) With reference to the Health programmes and policy mentioned above, in terms of their starting year which one of the following is the correct order year ? Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (D, (8), 2), (4) B®) (D, 2), @), 4) (©) 2), ), @, @) ©) ©), (0, (), (2) Profefan crea aris ait ciel wz fran aia : Q) wets ware =f Q) Wea wares fier (ETA) (3) wea arin eres fie COMA) 4) wela wet crea fe (OETA) miffofad ara arian st “ff $ ae § od onfies a ae i Aafafaa 4a arm we wa wn aie? . ae fq 1m faec 4a wa om ao a aha : (A) @), @), @), 4 ®B) @), @, @), @ (©) (2), ), (, (3) @) (4), (1), (3), (2) TBC: 24/ECP/A—B 3038. What is the correct order of various social service schemes in India according " to year of origin ? @) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana @) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (8) Rashtriy Swasthya Bima Yojana @) National Social Assistance Scheme Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (D, @, (8), 4) ®B) ), (8), (a), @) © @, @,@, @) (2), (2), (4, (8) ne 4 fas ernie fer chemi a sofa a S agen wet wm ame? @) war at wow te @) een wate as (3) wegta care ste arora @ wea af wera aha We fee we frac 4 8 wet aK aI Ga Sth: - (A) (D, (2), @), @) (B) (4), (8), (1), @) ©) (4), (8), @), @) @) ©), 2), @, @) TBC : 24/ECP/A—B 31 P.T.O.39, With roferonce to tho stoady decline in the mortality rate over the years, consider tho following statemonts : (1) Control of epidemics such as cholera and smallpox (2) Expansion in incidence of malaria and tuberculosis (3) Contraction of education and docroased literacy (4) Improved sanitation and hygiene. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (2) and (4) only (B) (2) and (3) only (©) @) and (2) only (D) (2) and (4) only fot qo aa Foy 5270. Match List I with List II : List I List II (Scientist) (Country) (@) "Galileo @ =~ Germany (6) Hertz (@ England (ce) Robin Warren (iii) Italy (@) Edward Jenner @) Australia Choose the correct answer from the options given below : © ®© © @ A di) © Ww Ww 8) @ © WwW Ww) © Gi) &) © w ©) ® © ww w la Gt 08 fram ah ; wt “ton (aanFre) , ' (we) @) ARifeat ae .@ wt ®) ee @ re © ter at (ii) eet @ wad aK , (iv) arte Wr feu 1 freed Fa wt oR aw Ge aha ; @ © ©. @ ste (A) Gi) @ @) w B®) Gi) @ @. Ww) (C) Gi) @ @ WW . ® @ ® wd Ww F TBC : 24/ECP/I—B 53. Ra P.T.O.71. According to the latest Air Quality Report (2024) which Indian City emerged as the most polluted 7 (A) Guwahati (B) Saharsa (C) Begusarai (D) Kathar ad 2024 at arg yoam fend Sagan ana wr waa efit ME SITE 7 (A) Jaret ‘ (B) wer (C) Ayre ©) Fee Which position India got in EIU’s Democracy Index-2023 ? (A) 51st 72. (B) 65th (©) 41st @) 49th fonéq, S ates qasis-2023 J na Sata eI ea GT ? (A) 51a (B) 65a (C) 41af @) 49at 73. Who has been selected for the Bob Jones Award, the highest honour of the US Golf Association ? (A) Tiger Woods (B) Jack Nicklaus (C) Walter Hagen (@) Harry Vardon % We chew watftges & adher we ote ST Ree SF fee fa gar aT =? (A) ARR FER (B) ae frre (© at | ©) tas TBC : 24/ECPA—B 5474, Given below are two statements : Statement I: The Shinkun La tunnel is at an altitude ‘of 15,855 ft. Statement II : The length of Atal tunnel is about 6.02 km. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (C) Statement I is correct. and Statement II is incorrect @) Statement I is incorrect“and Statement. II-is:correct aa Gwe fe me: wert Regroa gir agaat i as wm: seat yin wt crane 6.02 fart. ie i . ; softfafan seri F sr wm ae fee 7 frac Fa aaa ofa aR a A wifra : (A) wee ot er 0 a we &... (B) we 1 ak wer 0 Ai wed F (© war 1 we tok we et ©) en 1 aea t ok or wee TBC : 24/ECP/—B : 55 PLO.“78. Given below are two statements : Statement I: Ram Mandir is designed in Maru-Gurjara sub-style. Statement If : Ram Mandir is designed by the Sompura Family of Ahmedabad. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct ARS wer fey me: wat: wa Het a area weet H feorer fae re 3 seer IL: wr Hee a srecrare & egT fa gre fone firm ret #1 Seite ser ame we AS fey om Red A eae oh sae aT GT aire: (A) @ 1 ik we 0 eri wet & (B) eer 1 ott wer 0 et ae = (©) wr 1 wt % ak we met ©) FH I reat oh Hea I wet & TBC : 24/ECPA—B 5676. Given below are two statements : Statem : ent I: Bab el-Mandeb strait off the tip of Yemen is a maritime choke point in Red Sea crisis. Statement II : Bab el-Mandeb strait forms the western entrance to the Red Sea. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (©) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect @) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct aa a a fq me: aI: aaa & RR few aa se ida TeeTENET oe IN Bae A TH TET sate fare % wert Wh: wa seta TSENG aT VARS wae a TAT saffafad wat S sree TAS Re me fact FS was oe SR HT GAs wife: a) we 1 ate we TH OE aie wer 0 SHH wea F © wise tok ea Tet po wai taka ra? @) ert P.T.O. TRC : 24/ECP/A—B BT77. Arrange the following Indian cricketers completing 1000 runs from youngest in age to eldest in’ager?'! 4 (1) Yashashvi Jaiswal (2) Ravi Shastri (8) Sachin Tendulkar (4) Kapil Dev Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (D, (2), (3), (4) - @) @), 4), 2, @ © , @), (2), (D “D) @, @, @, 4 ang 4 wad aH 8 ad TH 1000 7 FO aT Frataaa redial Rated wt TAFE wih : Bal siaye a Q) are srrearer 2) Wa wet (8) afar igre (4) afta t@ Ae fea my fared Aa wet aR a we athe: (A) (2), @), (8), (4) B) (8), ), @), () (C) ), (8), (2), @) ©) @), @), @), (4) 78. Arrange the. following National days in chronological order of their occurrence : (1) National Mathematics Day (2) _- National Science Day (3) National Youth Day (4) National Energy Conservation Day Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) @), @), 3), 4 B) -(2),@); (D, 4) (©) (3), @, 4), ©) (2), 4), (D, (3) frafafad usta feadl a ore wrergehie wr 4 craic sit. GQ) ween ea ”:S:*C«i) TS fa Rag (3) wea am fora (4) Tet sot team fay ae feu my fact Fa we aM HT Ga whe (A) (0), 2), @), @ (B) (2), (8), (), (4) ©) (3), 2), (4), D ©) @), 4), (, @) TBC : 24/ECP/—B 5879, Arrange the occurrence of the following Global Summits of 2024 in chronological order : (1) WTO (2) G7 (3) UN Convention on Biological Diversity (4) G20 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : A) (D, @), @), 4 ®) (2), (8), (4), © ©), @, @, (2) ©) ©), @), @), @) 2024 % frafafad aitan fret wert at sen A aengaiis wy A oraferr wife: @) seq a at (2) 37 (3) Sie fafren 1 dg we Set 4) sf20 ae faq me faaet 7 a wet om a gra aif: (A) (), 2), 3), @ (B) (2), (3), 4), @ ©) @), 4), D, (2 @) ), @, @), @) TBC : 24/ECP/I—B . 69 . P.T.O.80. Consider the following statements : (1) ‘Risa’ is a traditional tribal dress of Assam. (2) National Dolphin Research Centre was inaugurated at Patna. (3) Underwater metro rail service has been inaugurated in Kolkata. © (4) Satellite and Payload Technology Centée has been started at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh. Choose the correct answer from the options given below (A) (2) and (2) only (B) (8) and (4) only (©) () and (3).only’ @) (1) and (4) only frafefad ae a fran aif: () ‘far srr at aah onfzart dene 21 (2) wets Siesta Sx wr aus Ten H fever en Fr (3) aterarat 4 siscaret Fgh er Sar HT aqET Fe wT eI @ aig vee F siete A Ree sk Acie thirst Sz st ERs BH mt ‘ 4a fq me freett § a wd oR H GT FA: (A) Fae (1) 3ik (2) (B) Fat (8) ak (4) i (C) Baar (2) ak (3) (D) Saat (1) at (4) TBC } 24/ECPA—B 6081. Consider the following statements : (1) XPoSat will unravel the mysteries of black holes. (2) XPoSat has a cost more than $188 million. (3) XPoSat expected lifespan is two years. (4) XPoSat was launched from Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) () and (4) only (B) (2) and (3) only (©) (1) and (3) only @) (2) and (4) only frafafad seri fra aif: @) write aa tas wei 8 wef saeT (2) TERige st cima 188 afer ster & afte #1 (3) Wate or stare 2 ae a st Tee 4) watde @ sin wea S steerer 8 ats fern va aT fa fee 1a fat FS we SR aT ETE FAA: (A) ae (1) aie (4) (B) Fae (2) aK (8) (©) Baa (1) 3k (8) (D) Fae (2) att (4) TBC : 24/CP/—B 6 wis PEO.82. Consider the following statements : (1) The International Solar Alliance headquarters is located at Gurugram, Haryana. (2) Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure is located at New Delhi. (3). The International Solar Alliance was USA idea. (4) Quad has brought together India and Russia. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (D) and (2) only (B) (2) and (8) only “-) (8) and (4) only @) (4) and (4) only frafafad wait a fran sft cp seat aie rade ar yore etoron gem F feva 1 Q) caer vise ater aid S fre ade aE feet F feet G1 @) sate ae red ZU HT AR AT @) gas wea oh ea @ wt oi ees gt ta Re me freed a ae oR HG shea: (A) Faq (1) afk (2) (B) ae (2) HR (8) - (©) Fae (3) AR) @) Fa (1) ae) TBC : 24/ECP/I—B 6283. Consider the following statements : (D Computer scientist Hari Balakrishnan was awarded the 2023 Marconi Prize. 2) Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) raising day was revised in 2029, (3) The widest gap of Western Ghats is at Palakkad in Kerala. @ Flyash is a wanted burnt residue in coal thermal power plants of India. Choose the correct answer from the optic is given below : (A) (2) and (4) only (B) (1) and (4) only (C) (1) and (8) only : @) (2) and (3) only frfater ari 1 fran sit : q@ eeRt Safes ef arorgers. Ft 2023 a we aE ve frm eT @) Sata shetfrs qn za Conéueee.) a wre Raa aE 2022 4 (Q) waea 4 fear cit a1 77 (3) Bees TAS FI TSA (4) fren aeefns Seredt st ere 4a ku 7e feet Fa we TH A GA Fhe: (A) @, 2), @, @) B) (1), 4), @), @ ©) @), 4), @, ® D) 4), (D, @), 2 TBC : 24/ECPI—B_ 70@) Indian Association (2) Bombay Presidency Association 9) British Indian Association @) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha Choose the Correct answer from the opti: (A) (D, @), (4), (2) (C) (3), (, a, (2) ions given below : B) (3), (1), (2), (4) ®) (3), (4), (2), (1) she St een 8 Sy dro a mga emer athe Q Fer wher 2) ate tiga utters @) faiew gee wht @ oT arse an AS Req me feck #8 ad om go aie (A) ), (8), @, (2) (©) 8), (4), @, (2) ©) ©), 4, (, a) 94. Arrange the following rulers of Suket State’ in chronological order : (@ Bhimsen @) (B) (3), (D, (2), (4) Rudrasen (3) Ugrasen (4) Lakshmansen Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (2), (3), (4), : ®) ©), @), 0), (4) © @, @, @, @ ) (3), (4), (2), (4) ‘gis war & fefefer weal at gagER whe wie: QQ) dma 2) @) aR 4) Tee 8 fee me freed 78 we on a gaa sie (A) (2), (3), (4), (D ) (3), (2), (), (4) (C) (2), (, 3), @) (3), (D, (2), (4) TBC : 24/ECPA—B 71 P.T.O.95. Consider the following statements : (1) Paramhansa Mandali was established in Madras. (2) Alfred Webb was the first Englishman to become the President of Indian National Congress. (3) Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim to become the President of Indian National Congress. (4) The Indian National Congress did not participate in the Third Round Table Conference held in London. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (1) and (3) only (B) (2) and (3) only (C) (8) and (4) only (D) (1) and (4) only frafafad sari 7 fear vif : GQ) wags weet St earn war Hw ai Q) sabe aa, anda ude site S aes ar ae ved sis a1 (3) aged dees, uecta wet aia S oeay TA ars Tee Be Ay @) aera wea site 3 cea FH awh de eS wee Foam ag fen at 4a Rum fascit 3 a ad oe Hw Gia Fie: (a) Fae (2) 3k (3) (B) Fae (2) HR (3) (©) Haq (3) aR 4) @) aaa () aR) TBC : 24/ECP/A—B 7296. Consider the following statements : (1) In 1910, at Allahabad Session of Indian National Congress was “Jana- Gana-Mana” sung for the first time. (2) Swami Dayanand Saraswati had hoisted the ‘Pakhand Khandini Pataka’ at Allahabad in 1867 A.D. (3) The last Act was the Charter Act of 1853 for the East India Company. (4) The modern educated Indians also did not support the Revolt of 1857. Choose’the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (D and (2) only (B) (3) and (4) only (C) (2) and (8) only () (1) and (4) only frofatad ert wt fra aif : Q) anda eta site S 1910 + gererare areae A rect aR ST TT Ta at art car weet 3 oes aftet woe’ 1867 ¢ A rere A TERE i @) sifm afatrr se fea wert & fre 1953 a1 aE afeFem an (4) angtes fafa ened 9 st 1857 % faste a wes sei fem wa fq me Premed HS we sue wT GTA Fe: (A) aa (1) at 2) (B) Fae (3) sR 4) (c) Baer (2) fk 8) @) aaa (Dat @) P.T.O. TBC : 24/ECP/A—B %97. Consider the following statements : () The first Singh Sabha was founded in 1873 at Amritsar. (2) Gyan Singh was the first President of Singh Sabha. (3) Thakur Singh Sandhawalia was the first Secretary of Singh Sabha. (4) Khalsa College, Amritsar was established in the year 1892. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A) (D and (2) only ®) (@ and (3) only (©) (D and (4) only ©) (2) and (4) only Preteen eet ow fra sf Q) yam fae aon at ear 1873 4% aryrat Fes et (2) am fae, fiz om S weal oeay ay (3) arg fie werenieen fic wT Hwa wha 21 4) Green sas, spe st eat od 1892 4 eg et) 4 qm fame Fa wet om a ye aah: (A) Fae (1) sik (2) (B) Fae (1) sik (3) (©) #aet (1) ak (4) (@) ae (2) sik (4) TBC : 24/ECPA—B 1498, Match List I with List II ; List I List II (Governor General/Viceroy) (Major Events) (@) Lord Lansdowne (Establishment of High Court in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras () Lord Northbrook (ii) Indian Council Act of 1892 (©) Lord Dufferin (iii) Third’ Anglo-Burmese War (@)_ John Lawrence (iv) Kuka Movement in Punjab Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @ ® © @ A @® G@ © w ®) @) @ w@ @ © wi) w@) @ @ MO) @ Ww) Wi) @. atl an get 1 8 fram aie: ait 1 ‘ win (reat SERE/ATTERTA) (qe vem) @ wd are @ Fee, Fee, sare i ea aT St TT @ até wigs @ fer anfaa we ats 1892 ( até sai (ii) Ha Weal Ge @ wi ate @) trea 4 ag ariet 9 fee we fect Fa ae oe wT GT FHA: @ ® © @ “a @ @o w (@) Gi) @ @) @ (C) (ii) &) @ @ @) @ dw) Gi) @ TBC ; 24/BCP/I—B % Ther9. Match List I with List IT : List 1 List 11 (Association/Parties) (Formation Year) (a) Punjab Riyasati Praja Mandal @ 1906 (0) Adivasi Mahasabha di) 1936 (ec) Depressed Classes Mission (iii) 1928 (d) Independent Labour Party (iv) 1938 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @) @®) © @ (A) (ii) (wv) @ Gi) ®) @) Gi) w@ @ (C) @) Gi) @) @ @) Gi) @) @ Ww) wll a at 0 8 fam wie: at 1 wt 1 (aptifrer rei) (rer are) (a) ‘ra fered wt tsa @ 1906 (®) sufcaret mera (i) 1936 ©) fetes senha fer (ii) 1928 (d) Sfetse dat we (iv) 1938 a fea me fawedl 4 8 wa aR HI Ge Fifa : @ 6) © @ A) Gi) @) © W B) @ Gi) Ww) © () @) Gt @ @ (DD) @) @ @ Ww) TBC : 24/ECP/—B 76100. Match List 1 with List II ; List 1 (Newspaper/Magazine) (a) Amrit Bazar Patrika (b) (c) (d) Harish Chandra Magazine Bombay Chronicle Bharat Mitra List 11 (Publishing Year) 1913 1878 1868 1872 @ (i) (iii) @) Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @ ® © @ A Wi @&) © B we) Wi) w@ © () We) Gi) © w ©) Gi) @ @ Ww wit lw af 0 8 fram aia : air wit (Rararcas aPraT) (were a) @) sya aR TT @ 1918 (&) efereax Att @ 1878 (© ata RRA (iii) 1868 (@ ana fa (jv) 1872 LAS faq my famed FS we ee HI Ga se: @ ®» © @ (A) Gi) @) O @. B) ww) @@ W O (©) je) Gd) O ” ow @ Oo w ‘n te TBC : 24/ECP/A—BSPACE FOR ROUGH WORK weal ot & fot at TBC : 24/ECP/I—B 78aattaror gferarT SETA rye : 200 am : gala wr-wa I wars teat 80 Ga am omeah ag wheror qfeaer wierd a 7 wer ae A Te TTT TBC : 24/ECPIL waa : a We) & BEF Og ee ee ek E Bee FEE ve u e & Wich wee fh EL ae ld gary gt a LEK Ee eS bree *EyEr Ele &E =e Fle t E a 4 B PE woe & & Shp p Eeeee piece Fel brovebes beh gehie Elveg byt pevtele ll eee Gila ite we =EEETEE yee © bpsghe ERG? &pe pyeye He EEE beers peeegeeEtery EeBCETEF ebb waclypie: llepekteptrek er ete te Ee eee Fae bear E fly ie EE ve a peerthsrreiiy vinta a EEE BE rE PEs aE HT EES g vie F