REAL NUMBERS | CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1. Which of the following is a pair of co-primes?
a. (14, 35)
b. (18, 25)
c. (31,93)
d. (32, 62)

2. If a = (22×33×54) and b = (23×32×5) then HCF (a, b) = ?

a. 90
b. 180
c. 360
d. 540

3. HCF of (23×32×5), (22×33×52) and (24×3×53×7) is

a. 30
b. 48
c. 60
d. 105

4. LCM of (23×3×5) and (24×5×7) is

a. 40
b. 560
c. 1120
d. 1680

5. The HCF of two numbers is 27 and their LCM is 162. If one of the numbers is 54, what is the
other number?
a. 36
b. 45
c. 9
d. 81

6. The product of two numbers is 1600 and their HCF is 5. The LCM of the numbers is
a. 8000
b. 1600
c. 320
d. 1605

7. What is the largest number that divides each one of 1152 and 1664 exactly?
a. 32
 b. 64
c. 128
d. 256

8. What is the largest number that divides 70 and 125, leaving remainders 5 and 8 respectively?
a. 13
b. 9
c. 3
d. 585

9. What is the largest number that divides 245 and 1029, leaving the remainder 5 in each case?
a. 15
b. 16
c. 9
d. 5

1095
10. Simplest form of 1168
is
17
a. 26
25
b. 26
13
c. 16
15
d. 16

11. Euclid's division lemma states that for any positive integers a and b, there exist unique integers
q and r such that a = bq + r, where r must satisfy
a. 1 < r < b
b. 0 < r ≤ b
c. 0 ≤ r < b
d. 0 < r < b

12. A number when divided by 143 leaves 31 as remainder. What will be the remainder when the
same number is divided by 13?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 5
13. Which of the following is an irrational number?
22
a. 7
b. 3.1416
c. 3. 1416
d. 3.141141114 …

14. 𝜋 is
 a. an integer
b. a rational number
c. an irrational number
d. none of these
15. 2. 35 is an
a. an integer
b. a rational number
c. an irrational number
d. none of these

16. 2.13113111311113… is
a. an integer
b. a rational number
c. an irrational number
d. none of these

17. The number 3.24636363 … is

a. an integer
b. a rational number
c. an irrational number
d. none of these

18. Which of the following rational numbers is expressible as a terminating decimal?

124
a. 165
131
b. 30
2027
c. 625
1625
d. 462

37
19. The decimal expansion of the rational number 2
2 ×5
a. one decimal place
b. two decimal places
c. three decimal places
d. four decimal places

14753
20. The decimal expansion of the number 1250
will terminate after
a. one decimal place
b. two decimal places
c. three decimal places
d. four decimal places

21. The number 1.732 is

a. an irrational number
 b. a rational number
c. an integer
d. a whole number

22. a and b are two positive integers such that the least prime factor of a is 3 and the least
prime factor of b is 5. Then, the least prime factor of (a+b) is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 8

23. 2 is
a. a rational number
b. an irrational number
c. a terminating decimal
d. a non terminating repeating decimal

1
24. is
2
a. a fraction
b. a rational number
c. an irrational number
d. none of these

25. (2 + 2) is
a. an integer
b. a rational number
c. an irrational number
d. none of these

26. What is the least number that is divisible by all the natural numbers from 1 to 10 (both
inclusive)
a. 100
b. 1260
c. 2520
d. 5040
 POLYNOMIALS | CBSE 10
MCQS [1 Mark each]
1. Which of the following is a polynomial?
2
a. 𝑥 − 5𝑥 + 4 𝑥 + 3
3 1

b. 𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 + 1
1
c. 𝑥+
𝑥
2
d. 2𝑥 − 3 3𝑥 + 6

2. Which of the following is not a polynomial?

2
a. 3𝑥 − 2 3𝑥 + 5
2
b. 9𝑥 − 4𝑥 + 2
3 2 2 1
c. 2
𝑥 + 6𝑥 − 𝑥 − 8
2
3
d. 𝑥 + 𝑥

3. The zeros of the polynomial x2 - 2x - 3 are

a. -3, 1
b. -3, -1
c. 3, -1
d. 3, 1

2
4. The zeroes of the polynomial 𝑥 − 2𝑥 − 12 are
a. 2, − 2
b. 3 2, − 2 2
c. − 3 2, 2 2
d. 3 2, 2 2

2
5. The zeros of the polynomial 4𝑥 + 5 2𝑥 − 3 are
a. − 3 2, 2
2
b. − 3 2, 2
−3 2 2
c. 2
, 4
d. none of these

2 1
6. The zeros of the polynomial 𝑥 + 6
𝑥 − 2 are
a. -3, 4
 −3 4
b. 2
, 3
−4 3
c. 3
, 2
d. none of these
2 11𝑥 2
7. The zeros of the polynomial 7𝑥 − 3
− 3
are
2 −1
a. 3
, 7
2 −1
b. 7
, 3
−2 1
c. 3
, 7
d. none of these

8. The sum and the product of the zeros of a quadratic polynomial are 3 and -10 respectively.
The quadratic polynomial is
a. x2 - 3x + 10
b. x2 + 3x - 10
c. x2 - 3x - 10
d. x2 + 3x + 10

9. A quadratic polynomial whose zeros are 5 and -3, is

a. x2 + 2x - 15
b. x2 - 2x + 15
c. x2 - 2x - 15
d. none of these

3 −1
10. A quadratic polynomial whose zeros are 5
and 2
, is
2
a. 10x +x + 3
b. 10x2 + x - 3
c. 10x2 - x + 3
d. 10x2 - x - 3

11. The zeros of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 88x + 125 are

a. both positive
b. both negative
c. one positive and one negative
d. both equal

12. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the zeroes of x2 + 5x + 8 then the value of (𝛼 + 𝛽) is

a. 5
b. -5
c. 8
d. -8

13. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the zeros of 2x2 + 5x - 9 then the value of 𝛼𝛽 is

 −5
a. 2
5
b. 2
−9
c. 2
9
d. 2

14. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial kx2 + 3x + k is 2 then the value of k is
5
a. 6
−5
b. 6
6
c. 5
−6
d. 5

15. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial (k - 1)x2 + kx + 1 is -4, then the value of k is
−5
a. 4
5
b. 4
−4
c. 3
4
d. 3

16. If -2 and 3 are the zeros of the quadratic polynomial x2 + (a + 1)x + b then
a. a = -2, b = 6
b. a = 2, b = -6
c. a = -2, b = -6
d. a = 2, b = 6

17. If one zero of 3x2 + 8x + k be the reciprocal of the other then k = ?

a. 3
b. -3
1
c. 3
−1
d. 3

18. If the sum of the zeros of the quadratic polynomial kx2 + 2x + 3k is equal to the product of
its zeros then k = ?
1
a. 3
−1
b. 3
2
c. 3
−2
d. 3
19. If α, β are the zeros of the polynomial x2 + 6x + 2, then ( 1
α
+
1
β )= ?
a. 3
b. -3
c. 12
d. -12

20. If 𝛼, 𝛽, 𝛾 are the zeros of the polynomial x3 - 6x2 - x + 30, then (𝛼𝛽 + 𝛽𝛾 + 𝛾𝛼) = ?
a. -1
b. 1
c. -5
d. 30

21. If 𝛼, 𝛽, 𝛾 be the zeros of the polynomial 2x3 + x2 - 13x + 6, then 𝛼𝛽𝛾

a. -3
b. 3
−1
c. 2
−13
d. 2

22. If 𝛼, 𝛽, 𝛾 be the zeros of the polynomial p(x) such that (𝛼 + 𝛽 + 𝛾) = 3, (𝛼𝛽 + 𝛽𝛾 + 𝛾𝛼) = -10
and 𝛼𝛽𝛾 = -24, then p(x) =?
a. x3 + 3x2 - 10x + 24
b. x3 + 3x2 + 10x - 24
c. x3 - 3x2 - 10x + 24
d. none of these

23. If two of the zeros of the cubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d are 0, then the third zero is
−𝑏
a. 𝑎
𝑏
b. 𝑎
𝑐
c. 𝑎
−𝑑
d. 𝑎

24. If one of the zeros of the cubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is 0, then the product of other
two zeros are
−𝑐
a. 𝑎
𝑐
b. 𝑎
c. 0
−𝑏
d. 𝑎
 25. If one of the zeros of the cubic polynomial x3 + ax2 + bx + c is -1, then the product of the
other two zeros is
a. a - b - 1
b. b - a - 1
c. 1 - a + b
d. 1 + a - b

2 2 21
26. If 𝛼, 𝛽 be the zeros of the polynomial 2x2 + 5x + k such that α + β + αβ = 4
, then k =
?
a. 3
b. -3
c. -2
d. 2

27. On dividing a polynomial p(x) by a non-zero polynomial q(x), let g(x) be the quotient and
r(x) be the remainder, then p(x) = q(x).g(x) + r(x), where
a. r(x) = 0 always
b. deg r(x) < deg g(x) always
c. either r(x) = 0 or deg r(x) < deg g(x)
d. r(x) = g(x)

28. Which of the following is a true statement?

a. x2 + 5x - 3 is a linear polynomial
b. x2 + 4x - 1 is a binomial
c. x + 1 is a monomial
d. 5x3 is a monomial

PAIR OF LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO VARIABLES| CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1. If 2x + 3y = 12 and 3x - 2y = 5 then
(a) x = 2, y = 3
(b) x = 2, y = -3
(c) x = 3, y = 2
(d) x = 3, y = -2

2 1
2. If x - y = 2 and 𝑥+𝑦
= 5
then
(a) x = 4, y = 2
(b) x = 5, y = 3
(c) x = 6, y = 4
 (d) x = 7, y = 5

2𝑥 𝑦 1 𝑥 2𝑦
3. If 3
- 2 + 6 = 0 and 2
+ 3
= 3 then
(a) x = 2, y = 3
(b) x = -2, y = 3
(c) x = 2, y = -3
(d) x = -2, y = -3

1 2 3 1
4. If 𝑥
+ 𝑦 = 4 and 𝑦
- 𝑥
= 1 then
(a) x = 2, y = 3
(b) x = -2, y = 3
−1
(c) x = 2
,y=3
−1 1
(d) x = 2
,y= 3

2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 2 3𝑥 − 𝑦 + 1 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 1
5. If 5
= 3
= 6
then
(a) x = 1, y = 1
(b) x = -1, y = -1
(c) x = 1, y = 2
(d) x = 2, y = 1

3 2 9 4
6. If 𝑥+𝑦
+ 𝑥−𝑦
= 2 and 𝑥+𝑦
- 𝑥−𝑦
= 1 then
1 3
(a) x = 2
,y= 2
5 1
(b) x = 2
,y= 2
3 1
(c) x = 2
,y= 2
1 5
(d) x = 2
,y= 2

7. If 4x+6y=3xy and 8x+9y=5xy then

(a) x=2, y=3
(b) x=1, y=2
(c) x=3, y=4
(d) x=1, y=-1

8. If 29x+37y=103 and 37x+29y=95 then

(a) x=1, y=2
(b) x=2, y=1
(c) x=3, y=2
(d) x=2, y=3
9. If 2x + y = 2x - y = 8then the value of y is
1
(a) 2
3
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) None of these

2 3 1 1
10. If 𝑥
+ 𝑦
= 6 and 𝑥
+ 2𝑦
= 2 then
2
(a) x = 1, y = 3
2
(b) x = 3
,y=1
3
(c) x = 1, y = 2
3
(d) x = 2
,y=1

11. The system kx - y = 2 and 6x - 2y = 3 has a unique solution only when

(a) k = 0
(b) k ≠ 0
(c) k = 3
(d) k ≠ 3

12. The system x - 2y = 3 and 3x + ky = 1 has a unique solution only when

(a) k = -6
(b) k ≠ -6
(c) k = 0
(d) k ≠ 0

13. The system x+2y=3 and 5x+ky+7=0 has no solution, when

(a) k = 1
(b) k ≠ 10
−7
(c) k = 3
(d) k = -21

14. If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 2 and 2x + 5y + 1 = 0 are parallel then the value of k is
−5
(a) 4
2
(b) 5
3
(c) 2
15
(d) 4
15. For what value of k do the equations kx - 2y = 3 and 3x + y = 5 represent two lines
intersecting at a unique point?
(a) k=3
(b) k=-3
(c) k=6
(d) all real values except -6

16. The pair of equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and -3x - 6y + 1 = 0 has

(a) a unique solution
(b) exactly two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions
(d) no solution

17. The pair of equations 2x + 3y = 5 and 4x + 6y = 15 has

(a) a unique solution
(b) exactly two solutions
(c) infinitely many solution
(d) no solution

18. If a pair of linear equations is consistent than their graph lines will be
(a) parallel
(b) always coincident
(c) always intersecting
(d) intersecting or coincident

19. If a pair of linear equations is inconsistent then their graph lines will be
(a) parallel
(b) always coincident
(c) always intersecting
(d) intersecting or coincident

20. In a ΔABC, ∠C = 3 ∠B = 2 (∠A + ∠B), then ∠B = ?

(a) 20°
(b) 40°
(c) 60°
(d) 80°

21. In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, it is being given that ∠A = (x + y + 10) °, ∠B = (y + 20) °,

∠C = (x + y - 30)° and ∠D = (x + y)°. Then, ∠B = ?
(a) 70°
(b) 80°
(c) 100°
(d) 110°
22. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 15. The number obtained by interchanging
the digits exceeds the given number by 9. The number is
(a) 96
(b) 69
(c) 87
(d) 78

23. In a given fraction, if 1 is subtracted from the numerator and 2 is added to the denominator,
1
it becomes 2
.If 7 is subtracted from the numerator and 2 is subtracted from the
1
denominator, it becomes 3
. The fraction is
13
(a) 24
15
(b) 26
16
(c) 27
16
(d) 21

24. 5 years hence, the age of a man shall be 3 times the age of his son while 5 years earlier the
age of the man was 7 times the age of his son. The present age of the man is
(a) 45 years
(b) 50 years
(c) 47 years
(d) 40 years

25. The graphs of the equations 6x - 2y + 9 = 0 and 3x - y + 12 = 0 are two lines which are
(a) coincident
(b) parallel
(c) intersecting exactly at one point
(d) perpendicular to each other

26. The graphs of the equations 2x+3y-2=0 and x-2y-8=0 are two lines which are
(a) coincident
(b) parallel
(c) intersecting exactly at one point
(d) perpendicular to each other

24
27. The graphs of the equations 5x - 15 y = 8 and 3x - 9y = 5
are two lines which are
(a) coincident
(b) parallel
(c) intersecting exactly at one point
(d) perpendicular to each other
 QUADRATIC EQUATIONS | CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1. Which of the following is a quadratic equation?

a) x2 - 3 𝑥+ 2 = 0
1
b) x + 𝑥
= x2
1
c) x2 + 2 = x2
𝑥
d) 2x2 - 5x = (x - 1)2

2. Which of the following is a quadratic equation ?

(a) (x2 + 1) = (2 - x)2 + 3
(b) x3 - x2 = (x - 1)3
(c) 2x2 + 3 = (5 + x) (2x - 3)
(d) None of these
3. Which of the following is not a quadratic equation ?

a) 3x - x2 = x2 + 5
b) (x + 2)2 = 2(x2 - 5)
c) ( 2𝑥+ 3)2 = 2x2 + 6
d) (x - 1)2 = 3x2 + x -2

4. If x = 3 is a solution of the equation 3x2 + (k - 1)x + 9 = 0 then k =

a) 11
b) -11
c) 13
d) -13

5. If one root of the equation 2x2 +ax + 6 = 0 is 2 then a = 0

a) 7
b) -7
7
c) 2
7
d) - 2

6. The sum of the roots of the equation x2 - 6x + 2 = 0 is

a) 2
 b) -2
c) 6
d) -6

7. If the product of the roots of the equation x2 - 3x + k = 10 is -2 then the value of k is

a) -2
b) -8
c) 8
d) 12

8. The ratio of the sum and product of the roots of the equation 7x2 - 12x + 18 = 0 is
a) 7 : 12
b) 7 : 18
c) 3 : 2
d) 2 : 3

1
9. If one root of the equation 3x2 - 10x + 3 = 0 is 3
then the other root is
−1
a) 3
1
b) 3
c) -3
d) 3

10. If one root of 5x2 + 13x + k = 0 be the reciprocal of the other root then the value of k is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 5

11. If the sum of the roots of the equation kx2 + 2x + 3k = 0 is equal to their product then the
value of k is
1
a) 3
−1
b) 3
2
c) 3
−2
d) 3

12. The roots of a quadratic equation are 5 and -2, then the equation is
a) x2 - 3x + 10 = 0
b) x2 - 3x - 10 = 0
c) x2 + 3x - 10 = 0
d) x2 + 3x + 10 = 0
13. If the sum of the roots of a quadratic equation is 6 and their product is 6, the equation is
a) x2 - 6x + 6 = 0
b) x2 + 6x - 6 = 0
c) x2 - 6x - 6 = 0
d) x2 + 6x + 6 = 0

1 1
14. If 𝛼 and ꞵ are the roots of the equation 3x2 + 8x + 2 = 0 then ( 𝑎 + 𝑏
) -?
3
a) 8
2
b) 3
c) -4
d) 4

15. The roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 will be reciprocal of each other if
a) a = b
b) b = c
c) c = a
d) None of these

16. If the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 are equal then c = ?

−𝑏
a) 2𝑎
𝑏
b) 2𝑎
2
−𝑏
c) 4𝑎
2
𝑏
d) 4𝑎

17. If the equation 9x2 + 6kx + 4 = 0 has equal roots then k = ?

a) 1 ro 4
b) -2 or 4
c) 2 or -2
d) 0 only

18. If the equation x2 + 2(k + 2)x + 9k = 0 has equal roots then k = ?

a) 1 or 4
b) -1 or 4
c) 1 or -4
d) -1 or -4

19. If the equation 4x2 - 3kx + 1 = 0 has equal roots then k = ?

2
a) ± 3
 1
b) ± 3
3
c) ± 4
4
d) ± 3

20. The roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠0 are real and unequal, if (b2 - 4ac) is
a) >0
b) =0
c) <0
d) None of these

21. In the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, it is given that D = (b2 - 4ac) > 0. Then the roots of the
equation are
a) real and equal
b) real and unequal
c) imaginary
d) none of these

22. The roots of the equation 2x2 - 6x + 7 = 0 are

a) real, unequal and rational
b) real, unequal and irrational
c) real and equal
d) imaginary

23. The roots of the equation 2x2 - 6x + 3 = 0 are

a) real , unequal and rational
b) real, unequal and irrational
c) real and equal
d) imaginary

24. If the roots of 5x2 - kx + 1 = 0 are real and distinct then

a) -2 5 < k <2 5
b) k > 2 5 only
c) k < -2 5
d) either k > 2 5 or k < -2 5

25. If the equation x2 + 5kx + 16 = 0 has no real roots then

8
a) k > 5
−8
b) k < 5
−8 8
c) 5
<k< 5
d) None of these
26. If the equation x2 - kx + 1 = 0 has no real roots then
a) k <-2
b) k > 2
c) -2 < k < 2
d) None of these

27. For what values of k, the equation kx2 - 6x - 2 = 0 has real roots ?
−9
a) k ≤ 2
−9
b) k ≥ 2
c) k ≤ 2
d) None of these

1
28. The sum of a number and its reciprocal is 2 20
. The number is
5 4
a) 4
or 5
4 3
b) 3
or 4
5 6
c) 6
or 5
1
d) 6
or 6

29. The perimeter of a rectangle is 82 m and its area is 400 m2. The breadth of the rectangle is
clasa) 25 m
b) 20 m
c) 16 m
d) 9 m

30. The length of a rectangular field exceeds its breadth by 8 m and the area of the field is 240
m2. The breadth of the field is
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 12 m
d) 16 m

31. The roots of the quadratic equation 2x2 - x - 6 = 0 are

3
a) -2, 2
−3
b) 2, 2
−3
c) -2, 2
3
d) 2, 2
 ARITHMETIC PROGRESSIONS | CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1 1−𝑝 1−2𝑝
1. The common difference of the AP 𝑝
, 𝑝
, 𝑝
, . . . is
a) a
b) -p
c) -1
d) 1

1 1 − 3𝑏 1 − 6𝑏
2. The common difference of the AP 3
, 3
, 3
, . . .is
1
a) 3
−1
b) 3
c) b
d) -b

3. The next term of the AP 7, 28, 63, . . . is

a) 70
b) 84
c) 98
d) 112

4. If 4, 𝑥1, 𝑥2, 𝑥3, 28 are in AP then 𝑥3= ?

a) 19
b) 23
c) 22
d) cannot be determined

5. If the nth term of an AP is (2n + 1) then the sum of its first three terms is
a) 6n + 3
b) 25
c) 12
d) 21

2
6. The sum of first n terms of an AP is (3𝑛 + 6n). The common difference of the AP is
a) 6
b) 9
 c) 15
d) -3

2
7. The sum of the n terms of an AP is (5n - 𝑛 ). The nth terms of the AP is
a) (5 - 2n)
b) (6 - 2n)
c) (2n - 5)
d) (2n - 6)

2
8. The sum of first n terms of an AP is (4𝑛 + 2n). The nth terms of this AP is
a) (6n - 2)
b) (7n - 3)
c) (8n - 2)
d) (8n + 2)

9. The 7th term of an AP is -1 and its 16th term is 17. The nth term of AP is
a) (3n + 8)
b) (4n - 7)
c) (15 - 2n)
d) (2n - 15)

10. The 5th term of an AP is -3 and its common difference is -4. The sum of its first 10 terms is
a) 50
b) -50
c) 30
d) -30

11. The 5th term of an AP is 20 and the sum of its 7th and 11th terms is 64. The common
difference of the AP is
a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 2

12. The 13th term of an AP is 4 times its 3rd term. If its 5th terms is 16 then the sum of its first
ten terms is
a) 150
b) 175
c) 160
d) 135

13. An AP 5, 12, 19, . . . has 50 terms. Its last term is

a) 343
 b) 3453
c) 348
d) 362

14. The sum of first 20 odd natural number is

a) 100
b) 210
c) 400
d) 420

15. The sum of first 40 positive integers divisible by 6 is

a) 2460
b) 3640
c) 4920
d) 4860

16. How many two-digit numbers are divisible by 3?

a) 25
b) 30
c) 32
d) 36

17. How many three-digit numbers are divisible by 9?

a) 86
b) 90
c) 96
d) 100

18. What is the common difference of an AP in which 𝑎18 −𝑎14= 32?

a) 8
b) -8
c) 4
d) -4

19. If 𝑎𝑛denotes the nth terms of the AP 3, 8, 13, 18, . . . then what is the value of (𝑎30 − 𝑎20)?
a) 40
b) 36
c) 50
d) 56

20. Which term of the AP 72, 63, 54, . . . is 0?

𝑡ℎ
a) 8
 𝑡ℎ
b) 9
𝑡ℎ
c) 10
𝑡ℎ
d) 11

21. Which term of the AP 25, 20, 15, . . . is the first negative term ?
𝑡ℎ
a) 10
𝑡ℎ
b) 9
𝑡ℎ
c) 8
𝑡ℎ
d) 7

22. Which term of the AP 21, 42, 63, 84, . . . is 210?

𝑡ℎ
a) 9
𝑡ℎ
b) 10
𝑡ℎ
c) 11
𝑡ℎ
d) 12

23. What is 20th term from the end of the AP 3, 8, 13, . . . 253?
a) 163
b) 158
c) 153
d) 148

24. (5 + 13 + 21 + . . . + 181) = ?
a) 2476
b) 2337
c) 2219
d) 2139

25. The sum of first 16 terms of the AP 10, 6, 2, . . . is

a) 320
b) -320
c) -352
d) -400

26. How many terms of the AP 3, 7, 11, 15, . . . will make the sum 406?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 20
 𝑛𝑑 𝑡ℎ 𝑡ℎ
27. The 2 term of an AP is 13 and its 5 terms is 25. What is its 17 term ?
a) 69
b) 73
c) 77
d) 81

𝑡ℎ 𝑡ℎ
28. The 17 terms of an AP exceeds its 10 terms by 21. The common difference of the AP is
a) 3
b) 2
c) -3
d) -2

𝑡ℎ 𝑡ℎ
29. The 8 term of an AP is 17 and its 14 term is 29. The common difference of the AP is
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) -2

𝑡ℎ
30. The 7 term of an AP is 4 and its common difference is -4. What is its first term?
a) 16
b) 20
c) 24
d) 28

Triangles | CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1. A man goes 24 m due west and then 10 m due north. How far is he from the starting point?
a. 34 m
b. 17 m
c. 26 m
d. 28 m
2. Two poles of height 13 in and 7 m respectively stand vertically on a plane ground at a
distance of 8 m from each other. The distance between their tops is
a. 9 m
b. 10 m
c. 11 m
d. 12 m

3. A vertical stick 1.8 m long casts a shadow 45 cm long on the ground. At the same time,
what is the length of the shadow of a pole 6 m high?
a. 2.4 in
b. 1.35 m
c. 1.5 m
d. 13.5 m

4. A vertical pole 6 m long casts a shadow of length 3.6 m on the ground. What is the height of
a tower which casts a shadow of length 18 m at the same time?
a. 10.8 m
b. 28.8 m
c. 324 m
d. 30 m

5. The shadow of a 5-m-long stick is 2 m long. At the same time the length of the shadow of a
12.5-m-high tree (in m) is
a. 3.0
b. 3.5
c. 4.5
d. 5.0

6. A ladder 25 m long just reaches the top of a building 24 m high from the ground. What is
the distance of the foot of the ladder from the building?
a. 7 m
b. 14 m
c. 21 m
d. 24.5 m

7. In the given figure, O is a point inside a ∆MNP such that ∠MOP = 90°, OM = 16 cm and OP
= 12 cm. If MN = 21 cm and ∠NMP = 90° then NP = ?
a. 25 cm
b. 29 cm
c. 33 cm
d. 35 an
8. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 25 cm. The other two sides are such that one is 5 an
longer than the other. The lengths of these sides are
a. 10 cm, 15 cm
b. 15 cm, 20 cm
c. 12 cm, 17 cm
d. 13 cm, 18 cm

9. The height of an equilateral triangle having each side 12cm, is

a. 6 2 𝑐𝑚
b. 6 3 𝑐𝑚
c. 3 6 𝑐𝑚
d. 6 6 𝑐𝑚

10. ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB =AC = 13 cm and the length of altitude from A on BC
is 5 cm. Then, BC= ?
a. 12 cm
b. 16 cm
c. 18 cm
d. 24 cm

11. In a ∆ABC it is given that AB = 6 cm, AC = 8 cm and AD is the bisector of ∠A. Then, BD: DC
=?
a. 3 : 4
b. 9 : 16
c. 4 : 3
d. 3: 2

12. In a ∆ABC it is given that AD is the internal bisector of ∠A. If BD=4cm, DC=5cm and AB=6
cm, then AC= ?
a. 4.5 cm
b. 8 cm
c. 9 cm
d. 7.5 cm

13. In a ∆ABC, it is given that AD is the internal bisector of ∠A. If AB = 10 cm, AC = 14 cm and
BC = 6 cm, then CD = ?
a. 4.8 cm
b. 3.5 cm
c. 7 cm
d. 10.5 cm

14. In a triangle, the perpendicular from the vertex to the base bisects the base. The triangle is
 a. right-angled
b. isosceles
c. scalene
d. obtuse-angled

15. In an equilateral triangle ABC, if AD ⊥ BC then which of the following is true?

a. 2AB2=3AD2
b. 4AB2=3AD2
c. 3AB2=4AD2
d. 3AB2=2AD2

16. In a rhombus of side 10 cm, one of the diagonals is 12 cm long. The length of the second
diagonal is
a. 20 cm
b. 18 cm
c. 16 cm
d. 22 cm

17. The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 24 cm and 10 cm. The length of each side of
the rhombus is
a. 12 cm
b. 13 cm
c. 14 cm
d. 17 cm

18. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral divide each other proportionally then it is a

a. parallelogram
b. trapezium
c. rectangle
d. square

19. In the given figure, ABCD is a trapezium whose diagonals AC and BD intersect at O such
that OA=(3x-1) cm, OB=(2x+1)cm, OC=(5x-3)cm and OD=(6x-5)cm. Then, x=?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 2.5
d. 4

20. The line segments joining the midpoints of the adjacent sides of a quadrilateral form
a. a parallelogram
b. a rectangle
c. a square
d. a rhombus
21. If the bisector of an angle of a triangle bisects the opposite side them the triangle is
a. scalene
b. equilateral
c. isosceles
d. right-angled

𝐴𝐵 𝐵𝐷
22. In ∆ABC it is given that 𝐴𝐶
= 𝐷𝐶
. If ∠B = 70° and ∠C = 50° then ∠BAD = ?
a. 30°
b. 40°
c. 45°
d. 50°

23. In ∆ABC, DE ∥ BC so that AD = 2.4 cm, AE= 3.2 cm and EC = 4.8 cm. Then, AB =?
a. 3.6 cm
b. 6 cm
c. 6.4 cm
d. 7.2 cm

24. In a ∆ABC, if DE is drawn parallel to BC, cutting AB and AC at D and E respectively such that
AB = 7.2 cm, AC = 6.4 cm and AD = 4.5 cm. Then, AE =?
a. 5.4 cm
b. 4 cm
c. 3.6 cm
d. 3.2 cm

25. In ∆ABC, DE ∥ BC so that AD = (7x-4) cm, AE = (5x-2) cm, DB = (3x+4) cm and EC = 3x cm.
Then, we have
a. x = 3
b. x = 5
c. x = 4
d. x = 2.5

𝐴𝐷 3
26. In ∆ABC, DE || BC such that 𝐷𝐵
= 5
. If AC = 5.6 cm then AE = ?
a. 4.2 cm
b. 3.1 cm
c. 2.8 cm
d. 2.1 cm

27. ∆ABC ∼ ∆DEF and the perimeters of ∆ABC and ∆DEF are 30 cm and 18 cm respectively. If
BC = 9 cm then EF=?
a. 6.3 cm
b. 5.4 cm
 c. 7.2 cm
d. 4.5 cm

28. ∆ABC ∼ ∆DEF such that AB = 9.1 cm and DE = 6.5 cm. If the perimeter of ∆DEF is 25cm,
what is the perimeter of ∆ABC?
a. 35 cm
b. 28 cm
c. 42 cm
d. 40 cm

29. In ∆ABC, it is given that AB=9 cm, BC = 6cm and CA = 7.5 cm. Also, ∆DEF is given such that
EF = 8cm and ∆DEF ∼ ∆ABC. Then, perimeter of ∆DEF is
a. 22.5 cm
b. 25 cm
c. 27 cm
d. 30 cm

30. ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles such that D is the midpoint of BC. Ratio of the
areas of triangles ABC and BDE is
a. 1 : 2
b. 2 : 1
c. 1 : 4
d. 4 : 1

31. It is given that ∆ABC ∼ ∆DFE. If ∠A = 30°, ∠C=50°, AB = 5cm, AC = 8 cm and DF = 7.5 cm
then which of the following is true?
a. DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 50°
b. DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 100°
c. EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 100°
d. EF = 12 cm, ∠D = 30°

32. In the given figure, ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥ BC. Then,

a. BC·CD = BC2
b. AB·AC = BC2
c. BD·CD = AD2
d. AB·AC = AD2

33. In ∆ABC, AB = 6 3cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm. Then, ∠B is

a. 45°
b. 60°
c. 90°
d. 120°
 𝐴𝐵 𝐵𝐶
34. In ∆ABC and ∆DEF , it is given that 𝐷𝐸
= 𝐹𝐷
then
a. ∠B = ∠E
b. ∠A = ∠D
c. ∠B = ∠D
d. ∠A = ∠F

35. In ∆DEF and ∆PQR, it is given that ∠D = ∠Q and ∠R = ∠E, then which of the following is
not true
𝐸𝐹 𝐷𝐹
a. 𝑃𝑅
= 𝑃𝑄
𝐷𝐸 𝐸𝐹
b. 𝑃𝑄
= 𝑅𝑃
𝐷𝐸 𝐷𝐹
c. 𝑄𝑅
= 𝑃𝑄
𝐸𝐹 𝐷𝐸
d. 𝑅𝑃
= 𝑄𝑅

36. If ∆ABC ∼ ∆EDF and ∆ABC is not similar to ∆DEF then which of the following is not true?
a. BC·EF = AC·FD
b. AB·EF = AC·DE
c. BC·DE = AB·EF
d. BC·DE = AB·FD

37. In ∆ABC and ∆DEF, it is given that ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB = 3DE, then the two triangles
are
a. congruent but not similar
b. similar but not congruent
c. neither congruent nor similar
d. similar as well as congruent

𝐴𝐵 𝐵𝐶 𝐶𝐴
38. If in ∆ABC and ∆PQR, we have 𝑄𝑅
= 𝑃𝑅
= 𝑃𝑄
then
a. ∆PQR ∼ ∆CAB
b. ∆PQR ∼ ∆ABC
c. ∆CBA ∼ ∆PQR
d. ∆BCA ∼ ∆PQR

39. In the given figure, two line segments AC and BD intersect each other at the point P such
that PA = 6 cm, PB = 3 cm, PC = 2.5 cm, PD = 5 cm, ∠APB = 50° and ∠CDP=30° then
∠PBA=?

a. 50°
b. 30°
c. 60°
 d. 100°

40. Corresponding sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4 : 9. Areas of these triangles
are in the ratio
a. 2 : 3
b. 4 : 9
c. 9 : 4
d. 16 : 81

𝐵𝐶 2 𝑎𝑟(∆𝑃𝑄𝑅)
41. It is given that ∆ABC ∼ ∆PQR and 𝑄𝑅
= 3
then 𝑎𝑟(∆𝐴𝐵𝐶)
= ?
2
a. 3
3
b. 2
4
c. 9
9
d. 4

42. In an equilateral ∆ABC, D is the midpoint of AB and E is the midpoint of AC. Then, ar(∆ABC)
: ar(∆ADE)=?
a. 2 : 1
b. 4 : 1
c. 1 : 2
d. 1 : 4

𝐴𝐵 𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝐶 5
43. In ∆ABC and ∆DEF, we have 𝐷𝐸
= 𝐸𝐹
= 𝐷𝐹
= 7
, then ar(∆ABC) : ar(∆DEF) = ?
a. 5:7
b. 25 : 49
c. 49 : 25
d. 125 : 343

44. ∆ABC ∼ ∆DEF such that ar(∆ABC) = 36 cm2 and ar(∆DEF)=49 cm2. Then, the ratio of their
corresponding sides is
a. 36 : 49
b. 6 : 7
c. 7 : 6
d. 6: 7

45. Two isosceles triangles have their corresponding angles equal and their areas are in the
ratio 25:36. The ratio of their corresponding heights is
a. 25 : 36
b. 36 : 25
c. 5 : 6
d. 6 : 5
46. The line segments joining the midpoints of the sides of a triangle form four triangles, each
of which is
a. congruent to the original triangle
b. similar to the original triangle
c. an isosceles triangle
d. an equilateral triangle

𝑎𝑟(∆𝐴𝐵𝐶) 9
47. If ∆ABC ∼ ∆QRP, 𝑎𝑟(∆𝑃𝑄𝑅)
= 4
, AB = 18 cm and BC = 15 cm then PR = ?
a. 8 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 12 cm
20
d. 3
𝑐𝑚

48. In the given figure, O is the point of intersection of two chords AB and CD such that OB =
OD and ∠AOC=45°. Then, ∆OAC and ∆ODB are

a. equilateral and similar

b. equilateral but not similar
c. isosceles and similar
d. isosceles but not similar

49. In an isosceles ∆ABC, if AC = BC and AB2 = 2AC2 then ∠C =?

a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°

50. In ∆ABC, if AB = 16 cm, BC = 12 cm and AC = 20 cm, then ∆ABC is

a. acute-angled
b. right-angled
c. obtuse-angled
d. not possible

51. Which of the following is a true statement?

a. Two similar triangles are always congruent
b. Two figures are similar if they have the same shape and size
c. Two triangles are similar if their corresponding sides are proportional
 d. Two polygons are similar if their corresponding sides are proportional

52. Which of the following is a false statement?

a. If the areas of two similar triangles are equal then the triangles are congruent
b. The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of their
corresponding sides
c. The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of squares of their
corresponding medians
d. The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of squares of their
corresponding altitudes

COORDINATE GEOMETRY| CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1. The distance of the point P(-6, 8) from the origin is
a. 8
b. 2 7
c. 6
d. 10

2. The distance of the point (-3, 4) from x - axis is

a. 3
b. -3
c. 4
d. 5

3. The point on x-axis which is equidistant from points A(-1, 0) and B(5, 0) is
a. (0, 2)
b. (2, 0)
c. (3, 0)
d. (0, 3)

4. If R(5, 6) is the midpoint of the line segment AB joining the points A(6, 5) and B(4, y) they y
equals
a. 5
b. 7
c. 12
d. 6

5. If the point C(k, 4) divides the join of the points A(2, 6) and B(5, 1) in the ratio 2 : 3 then the
 value of k is
a. 16
28
b. 5
16
c. 5
8
d. 5
6. The perimeter of the triangle with vertices (0, 4), and (0, 0) and (3, 0) is
a. (7 + 5)
b. 5
c. 10
d. 12

7. If A(1, 3), B(-1, 2), C(2, 5) and D(x, 4) are the vertices of a llgm ABCD then the value of x is a
a. 3
b. 4
c. 0
3
d. 2

8. If the points A(x, 2), B(-3, -4) and C(7, -5) are collinear then the value of x is
a. -63
b. 63
c. 60
d. -60

9. The area of a triangle with vertices A(5, 0), B(8, 0) and C(8, 4) in square units is
a. 20
b. 12
c. 6
d. 16

10. The area of ABC with vertices A(a, 0), O(0, 0) and B(0, b) in square units is
a. ab
1
b. 2
ab
1 2 2
c. 2
𝑎𝑏
1 2
d. 2
𝑎

11. If 𝑃( , 4)is the mid point of the line segment origin the points A(-6, 5) and B(-2, 3) then
𝑎
2
the value of a is
a. -8
b. 3
 c. -4
d. 4

12. ABCD is a rectangle whose three vertices are B(4, 0), C(4, 3) and D(0, 3). The length of
one of its diagonals is
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 25

13. The coordinates of the point P dividing the line segment joining the points A(1, 3 and
B(4, 6) in the ratio 2 : 1 is
a. (2, 4)
b. (3, 5)
c. (4, 2)
d. (5, 3)
14. If the coordinates of one end of a diameter of a circle are (2, 3) and the coordinates of its
centre are (-2, 5), then the coordinates of the other end of the diameter are
a. (-6, 7)
b. (6, -7)
c. (4, 2)
d. (5, 3)

15. In the given figure P(5, -3) and Q(3, y) are the points of trisection of the line segment
joining A(7, -2) and B(1, -5). They y equals.
a. 2
b. 4
c. -4
−5
d. 2

16. THe midpoint of segment AB is P(0, 4). If the coordinates of B are (-2, 3), then the
coordinates A are
a. (2, 5)
b. (-2, -5)
c. (2, 9)
d. (-2, 11)

17. The point P which divides the line segment joining the points A(2, -5) and B(5, 2) in the
ratio 2 : 3 lies in the quadrant
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
18. If A(6, -7) and B(-1, -5) are two given points then the distance 2AB is
a. 13
b. 26
c. 169
d. 238

19. Which point on x-axis is equidistant from the points A(7, 6) and B(-3, 4)
a. (0, 4)
b. (-4, 0)
c. (3, 0)
d. (0, 3

20. The distance of P(3, 4) from the x-axis is

a. 3 units
b. 4 units
c. 5 units
d. 1 units

21. In what ratio does the x-axis divide the joint of A(2, -3) and B(5, 6) ?
a. 2 : 3
b. 3 : 5
c. 1 : 2
d. 2 : 1

22. In what ratio does the y-axis divide the joint of P(-4, 2) and Q(8, 3) ?
a. 3 : 1
b. 1 : 3
c. 2 : 1
d. 1 : 2

23. If P(-1, 1) is the midpoint of the line segment joining A(-3, b) and B(1, b + 4) then b = ?
a. 1
b. -1
c. 2
d. 0

24. The line 2x + y - 4 = 0 divides the line segment joining A(2, -2) and (3, 7) in the ratio
a. 2 : 5
 b. 2 : 9
c. 2 : 7
d. 2 : 3

25. If A(4, 2), B(6, 5) and C(1, 4) be the vertices of ∆ABC and AD is a median, then the
coordinates of D are
a. ( , 7)
5
2

b. (5, )
7
2

c. ( , )
7 9
2 2
d. None of these

26. If A(-1, 0), B(5, -2) and C(8, 2) are the vertices of a ∆ABC then then its centroid is
a. (12, 0)
b. (6, 0)
c. (0, 6)
d. (4, 0)

27. Two vertices of ∆ABC are A(-1, 4) and B(5, 2) and its centroid is G(0, -3). Then, the
coordinates of are
a. (4, 3)
b. (4, 15)
c. (-4, -15)
d. (-15, -4)

28. The points A(-4, 0), B(4, 0) and C(0, 3) are the vertices of a triangle, which is
a. Isosceles
b. Equilateral
c. Scalene
d. Right-angled

29. The point P(0, 6), Q(5, 3) and R(3, 1) are the vertices of a triangle, which is
a. Equilateral
b. Isosceles
c. Scalene
d. Right-angled

30. If the point A(2, 3), B(5, k) and C(6, 7) are collinear then
a. k = 4
b. k = 6
−3
c. k = 2
 11
d. k = 4

31. If the point A(1, 2), O(0, 0) and C(a, b) are collinear then
a. a = b
b. a = 2b
c. 2a = b
d. a + b = 0

32. The area of ∆ABC with vertices A(3, 0), B(7, 0) and C(8, 4) is
a. 14 sq units
b. 28 sq units
c. 8 sq units
d. 6 sq units

33. AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are A(0, 3), O(0, 0) and B(5, 0). The length of each
of its diagonals is
a. 5 units
b. 3 units
c. 4 units
d. 34units

34. If the distance between the points A(4, p) and B(1, 0) is 5 then
a. p = 4 only
b. p = -4 only
c. p = ± 4
d. p = 0

CIRCLES | CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1. The number of tangents that can be drawn from an external circle is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

2. In the given figure, RQ is a tangent to the circle with centre O. If SQ = 6 cm and

QR = 4 cm, then OR is equal to
a. 2.5 cm
b. 3 cm
 c. 5 cm
d. 8 cm

3. In a circle of radius 7cm, tangent PT is drawn from a point P such that PT = 24 cm. If 0 is
the centre of the circle, then length OP = ?
a. 80 cm
b. 28 cm
c. 25 cm
d. 18 cm

4. Which of the following pairs of lines in a circle cannot be parallel ?

a. Two chords
b. A chord and a tangent
c. Two tangents
d. Two diameters

5. The chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at its centre. The length of the
chord (in cm) is
5
a.
2

b. 5 2
c. 10 2
d. 10 3

6. In the given figure, PT is a tangent to the circle with centre O. If OT = 6 cm and

OP = 10 cm, then the length of tangent PT is
a. 8 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 12 cm
d. 16 cm

7. In the given figure, point P is 26 cm away from the centre O of a circle and the length PT of
the tangent drawn from P to the circle is 24 cm. Then, the radius of the circle is
a. 10 m
b. 12 m
c. 13 m
d. 15 m
8. PQ is a tangent to a circle with centre O at the point P. If ∆OPQ is an isosceles triangle, then
∠ OQP is equal to
a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°

9. In th given figure, AB and AC are tangents to the circle with centre O such that
∠BAC = 40°.
a. 80°
b. 100°
c. 120°
d. 140°

10. If a chord AB subtends an angle of 60° at the center of a circle, then the angle
between the tangents to the circle drawn from A and B is
a. 30°
b. 60°
c. 90°
d. 120°

11. In the given figure, O is the centre of two concentric circles of radii 6 cm and 10
cm. AB is a chord of outer circle which touches the inner circle. The length of
chord AB is
a. 8 cm
b. 14 cm
c. 16 cm
d. 136 cm

12. In the given figure, AB and AC are tangents to a circle with centre O and radius 8
cm. If OA = 17 cm, then the length of AC (in cm) is
a. 9
b. 15
c. 353
d. 25
13. In the given figure, O is the center of a circle, AOC is its diameter such that
∠ACB = 50°. If AT is the tangent to the circle at the point A then ∠BAT = ?
a. 40°
b. 50°
c. 60°
d. 65°

14. In the given figure, O is the center of a circle , PQ is a chord and PT is the tangent
at P. ∠POQ = 70°, then ∠TPQ is equal to
a. 35°
b. 45°
c. 55°
d. 70°

15. In the given figure, AT is a tangent to the circle with centere O such that OT = 4 cm
and ∠OTA = 30°. Then, AT = ?
a. 4 cm
b. 2 cm
c. 2 3cm
d. 4 3cm

16. If PA and PB are two tangents to a circle with center O such that ∠AOB = 110°
then ∠APB is equal to
a. 55°
b. 60°
c. 70°
d. 90°
17. In the given figure, the length of BC is
a. 7 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 14 cm
d. 15 cm

18. In the given figure, if ∠AOD = 135° then ∠BOC is equal to

a. 25°
b. 45°
c. 52.5°
d. 62.5°

19. In the given figure, O is the center of a circle and PT is the tangent to the circle. If
PQ is a chord such that ∠QPT = 50° then ∠POQ = ?
a. 100°
b. 90°
c. 80°
d. 75°

20. In the given figure, PA and PB are two tangents to the circle with centre O. If
∠APB = 60° then ∠OAB is
a. 15°
b. 30°
c. 60°
d. 90°

21. If two tangents inclined at an angle of 60° are drawn to a circle of radius 3 cm then
the length of each tangent is
a. 3 cm
3 3
b. 2
cm
 c. 3 3
d. 6 cm

22. In the given figure, PQ and PR are tangents to a circle with centre A. If ∠QPA = 27°
then ∠QAR equals
a. 63°
b. 117°
c. 126°
d. 153°

23. In the given figure, PA and PB are two tangents drawn from an external point P to
a circle with center C and radius 4 cm. If PA ⊥ PB, then the length of each tangent
is
a. 3 cm
b. 4 cm
c. 5 cm
d. 6 cm

24. If PA and pB are two tangents to a circle with centre O such that ∠APB = 80°.
Then, ∠AOP = ?
a. 40°
b. 50°
c. 60°
d. 70°

25. In the given figure, Q is the centre of the circle. AB is the tangent to the circle at
the point P. If ∠APQ = 58° then the measure of ∠PQB is
a. 32°
b. 58°
c. 122°
d. 132°

26. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. AB is the tangent to the circle at
the point P. If ∠PAO = 30° then ∠CPA + ∠ACp is equal to
a. 60°
 b. 90°
c. 120°
d. 150°

27. In the given figure, PQ is a tangent to a circle with centre O. A is the point of
contact. If ∠PAB = 67°, then the measure of °AQB is
a. 73°
b. 64°
c. 53°
d. 44°

28. In the given figure, two circle touch each other at C and AB is a tangent to both
the circles. The measure of ∠ABC is
a. 45°
b. 60°
c. 90°
d. 120°

29. O is the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. At a distance of 13 cm from O, a point P

is taken. From this point, two tangents PQ and PR are drawn to the circle. Then,
the area of quad. PQOR is
2
a. 60 𝑐𝑚
2
b. 32.5 𝑐𝑚
2
c. 65 𝑐𝑚
2
d. 30 𝑐𝑚
30. In the given figure, PQR is a tangent to the circle at Q, whose centre is O and AB is
a chord parallel to PR such that ∠BQR = 70°. Then, ∠AQB = ?
a. 20°
b. 35°
c. 40°
d. 45°

31. The length of the tangent from an external point P to a circle of radius 5 cm is 1
 cm. The distance of the point from the centre of the circle is
a. 8 cm
b. 104cm
c. 12 cm
d. 125cm

32. In the given figure, O is the center of a circle, BOA is its diameter and the tangent
at the point P meets BA extended at T. If ∠PBO = 30° then, ∠PTA = ?
a. 60°
b. 30°
c. 15°
d. 45°

33. In the given figure, a circle touches the side DF and ∆EDF at H and touches ED
and EF produced at K and M respectively. If EK = 9 cm then the perimeter of ∆EDF
is
a. 9 cm
b. 12 cm
c. 13.5 cm
d. 18 cm

34. To draw a pair of tangents to a circle, which are inclined to each other at an angle
of 45°, we have to draw tangents at th ended points o those two radii, the angle
between which is
a. 105°
b. 135°
c. 140°
d. 145°
35. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle; PQL and PRM are the tangents at the
points Q and R respectively and S is a point on the circle such that ∠SQL = 50°
and ∠SRM = 60°. Then ∠QSR = ?
a. 40°
b. 50°
c. 60°
d. 70°
36. In the given figure, a triangle PQR is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 6 cm
such that the segments QT and TR into which QR is divided by the point of
contact T, are of lengths 12 cm and 9 cm respectively. If the area of
2
∆PQR = 189 𝑐𝑚 then the length of PQ is
a. 17.5 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 22.5 cm
d. 25 cm

37. In the given figure, QR is a common tangent to the given circles, touching
externally at the point T. The tangent at T meets QR at P. If PT = 3.8 cm then the
length of QR is
a. 1.9 m
b. 3.8 m
c. 5.7 m
d. 7.6 m

38. In the given figure, quad. ABCD is circumscribed, touching the circle at P, Q, R
and S. If AP = 5 cm, BC = 7 cm and CS = 3 cm, the length AB = ?
a. 9 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 12 cm
d. 8 cm

39. In the given figure, quad. ABCD is circumscribed, touching the circle at P, Q, R
and S. If AP = 6cm, BP = 5 cm, CQ = 3cm and DR = 4 cm then perimeter of quad.
ABCD is
a. 18 cm
b. 27 cm
c. 36 cm
d. 32 cm
40. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle, Ab is a chord and AT is the tangent
at A. If ∠AOB = 100° then ∠BAT is equal to
a. 40°
b. 50°
c. 90°
d. 100°

41. In a right triangle ABC, right-angled at B, BC = 12 cm and AB = 5 cm. The radius of

the circle inscribed in the triangle is
a. 1 cm
b. 2 cm
c. 3 cm
d. 4 cm

42. In the given figure, a circle is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD touching its sides
Ab, BC, CD and AD at P, Q, R and S respectively. If the radius of the circle is 10
cm, BC = 38 cm, PB = 27 cm and AD ⊥ CD then the length of CD is
a. 11 cm
b. 15 cm
c. 20 cm
d. 21 cm

43. In the given figure, ∆ABC is right-angled at B such that BC = 6 cm and AB = 8 cm.
A circle with centre O has been inscribed inside the triangle. OP ⊥ Ab, OQ ⊥ BC
and OR ⊥ AC. If OP = OQ = OR - x cm then x = ?
a. 2 cm
b. 2.5 cm
c. 3 cm
d. 3.5 cm
44. Quadrilateral ABCD is circumscribed to a circle. If AB = 6 cm, BC = 7 cm, and
CD = 4 cm then the length of AD is
a. 3 cm
b. 4 cm
c. 6 cm
d. 7 cm

45. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the given circle such that PA = 5 cm
and ∠APB = 60°. The length of chord AB is
a. 5 2cm
b. 5 cm
c. 5 3cm
d. 7.5 cm

46. In the given figure, DE and DF are tangents from an external point D to a circle
with centre A. If DE = 5 cm and DE ⊥ DF then the radius of the circle is
a. 3 cm
b. 4 cm
c. 5 cm
d. 6 cm

47. In the given figure, three circles with centres A, B, C respectively touch each other
externally. If AB = 5 cm, BC = 7 cm and CA = 6 cm then the radius o the circle with
centre A is
a. 1.5 cm
b. 2 cm
c. 2.5 cm
d. 3 cm
48. In the given figure, AP, AQ and BC are tangents to te circle. If AB = 5 cm, AC = 6
cm and BC = 4 cm then the length of AP is
a. 15 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 9 cm
d. 7.5 cm
 49. In the given figure, O is the centre of two concentric circles of radii 5 cm and 3 cm.
From an external point P tangents PA and PB are drawn to these circles. If PA = 12
cm then PB is equal to
a. 5 2cm
b. 3 5cm
c. 4 10cm
d. 5 10cm

50. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. If a point P lies inside a circle, no tangent can be drawn to the circle, passing
through P.
b. If a point P lies on the circle, then one and only one tangent can be drawn to the
circle at P.
c. If a point P lies outside the circle, then only two tangents can be drawn to the
circle from P.
d. A circle can have more than two parallel tangents, parallel to a given line.

51. Which of the following statements is not true ?

a. A tangent to a circle intersects the circle exactly at one point.
b. The point common to the circle and its tangent is called the point of contact.
c. The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius of the circle
through the point of contact.
d. A straight line can meet a circle at one point only

52. Which of the following statements is not true

a. A line which intersects a circle in two points, is called a secant of the circle.
b. A line intersecting a circle at one point only, is called a tangent to the circle
c. The point at which a line touches the circle, is called the point of contact.
d. A tangent to the circle can be drawn from a point inside the circle.

Introduction to Trigonometry | CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

𝑠𝑒𝑐30°
1. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 30°
=?
2
a.
3
3
b. 2

c. 3
 d. 1

𝑡𝑎𝑛35° 𝑐𝑜𝑡78°
2. 𝑐𝑜𝑡 55°
+ 𝑡𝑎𝑛 12°
=?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. None of these

3. tan 10° tan 15° tan 75° tan 80° = ?

a. 3
1
b.
3
c. -1
d. 1

4. tan 5° tan 25° tan 30° tan 65° tan 85° = ?

a. 3
1
b.
3
c. -1
d. None of these

5. cot 1° cos 2° cos 3° ___ cos 180° = ?

a. -1
b. 1
c. 0
1
d. 2

2 2
2𝑠𝑖𝑛 63 °+ 1 + 2𝑠𝑖𝑛 27°
6. 2 2
3𝑐𝑜𝑠 − 2 + 3𝑐𝑜𝑠 73°
3
a. 2
2
b. 3
c. 2
d. 3
7. sin 47° cos 43° + cos 47° sin 43° = ?
a. sin 4°
b. cos 4°
c. 1
d. 0

8. sec 70° sin 20° + cos 20° cosec 70° = ?

a. 0
 b. 1
c. -1
d. 2

0
9. If sin 3A = cos(A - 10 ) and 3A is acute than ∠A = ?
a. 35°
b. 25°
c. 20°
d. 45°

0
10. If sec 4A = cosec(A - 10 ) and 4A is acute then ∠A = ?
a. 20°
b. 30°
c. 40°
d. 50°

11. If A and B are acute angles such that sin A = cos B then (A + B) = ?
a. 45°
b. 60°
c. 90°
d. 180°

12. If cos(𝛼 + 𝛽) = 0 then sin(𝛼 - 𝛽) = ?

a. sin 𝛼
b. cos 𝛽
c. sin 2𝛼
d. cos 2𝛽

13. sin(45° + 𝜃) - cos(45° - 𝜃) = ?

a. 2 sin 𝜃
b. 2 cos 𝜃
c. 0
d. 1

2 2
14. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 10°- 𝑐𝑜𝑡 80°= ?
a. 1
b. 0
3
c. 2
1
d. 2
 2 2
15. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 57°- 𝑡𝑎𝑛 33°= ?
a. 0
b. 1
c. -1
d. 2

2 2 2
2𝑡𝑎𝑛 30° 𝑠𝑒𝑐 52° 𝑠𝑖𝑛 38°
16. 2 2 =?
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 70° − 𝑡𝑎𝑛 20°
a. 2
1
b. 2
2
c. 3
3
d. 2

{ }
2 2
(𝑠𝑖𝑛 22° + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 68° 2
17. 2 2 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 63° + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 63° 𝑠𝑖𝑛 27° = ?
(𝑐𝑜𝑠 22° + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 68°
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

𝑐𝑜𝑡(90° − 𝜃). 𝑠𝑖𝑛(90° − 𝜃) 𝑐𝑜𝑡 40° 2 2

18. 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
+ 𝑡𝑎𝑛 50°
- (𝑐𝑜𝑠 20° + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 70°)= ?
a. 0
b. 1
c. -1
d. None of these

𝑐𝑜𝑠 38° 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 52°

19. 𝑡𝑎𝑛 18° 𝑡𝑎𝑛 35° 𝑡𝑎𝑛 60° 𝑡𝑎𝑛 72° 𝑡𝑎𝑛 55°
=?
a. 3
1
b. 3
1
c.
3
2
d.
3

20. If 2 sin 2𝜃 = 3then 𝜃 = ?

 a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°

21. If 2cos 3𝜃 = 1 then 𝜃 = ?

a. 10°
b. 15°
c. 20°
d. 30°

22. If 3 tan 2𝜃 - 3 = 0 then 𝜃 = ?

a. 15°
b. 30°
c. 45°
d. 60°

23. If tan x = 3cot x then x = ?

a. 45°
b. 60°
c. 30°
d. 15°

24. If x tan 45° cos 60° = sin 60° cot 60° then x = ?
a. 1
1
b. 2
1
c.
3

d. 3

2 2
25. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛 45° − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 30° = x sin 45° cos 45° then x = ?
a. 2
b. -2
1
c. 2
−1
d. 1

2
26. 𝑠𝑒𝑐 60° − 1= ?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 0
27. (cos 0° + sin 30° + sin 45°) (sin 90° + cos 60° - cos 45°) = ?
5
a. 6
5
b. 8
3
c. 5
7
d. 4

2 2 2
28. 𝑠𝑖𝑛 30° + 4𝑐𝑜𝑡 45° −𝑠𝑒𝑐 60°= ?
a. 0
1
b. 4
c. 4
d. 1

2 2 2
29. 3𝑐𝑜𝑠 60° + 2𝑐𝑜𝑡 30° − 5𝑠𝑖𝑛 45°= ?
13
a. 6
17
b. 4
c. 1
d. 4

2 2 2 1 2 2
30. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 30° 𝑐𝑜𝑠 45° + 4𝑠𝑒𝑐 60° + 2
𝑐𝑜𝑠 90° − 2𝑡𝑎𝑛 60° = ?
73
a. 8
75
b. 8
81
c. 8
83
d. 8

31. If cosec𝜃 = 10 then sec𝜃 = ?

3
a.
10
10
b. 3
1
c.
10
2
d.
10

8
32. If tan𝜃 = 15
then cosec 𝜃 = ?
17
a. 8
 8
b. 17
17
c. 15
15
d. 17

𝑎
33. If sin 𝜃 = 𝑏
then cos 𝜃 = ?
𝑏
a. 2 2
𝑏 −𝑎
2 2
𝑏 −𝑎
b. 𝑏
𝑎
c. 2 2
𝑏 −𝑎
𝑏
d. 𝑎

34. If tan 𝜃 = 3 then sec 𝜃 = ?

2
a.
3
3
b. 2
1
c. 2
d. 2

25
35. If sec 𝜃 = 7
then sin 𝜃 = ?
7
a. 24
24
b. 7
24
c. 25
d. None of these

1
36. If sin 𝜃 = 2
then cot 𝜃 = ?
1
a.
3

b. 3
3
c. 2
d. 1

4
37. If sin 𝜃 = 5
then cot 𝜃 = ?
 3
a. 4
4
b. 3
3
c. 5
5
d. 3

3
38. If 3x = cosec 𝜃 and 𝑥 = cot 𝜃 then 3 𝑥 − ( 2 1
2
𝑥 )= ?
1
a. 27
1
b. 81
1
c. 3
1
d. 9

2
39. If 2x = sec A and 𝑥 = tea A then 2 𝑥 − ( 2
𝑥
1
2 )= ?
1
a. 2
1
b. 4
1
c. 8
1
d. 16

4
40. If tan 𝜃 = 3
then (sin 𝜃 + cos 𝜃) = ?
7
a. 3
7
b. 4
7
c. 5
5
d. 7

2 2
41. If (tan 𝜃 + cot 𝜃) = 5 then (𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝜃) = ?
a. 27
b. 25
c. 24
d. 23

5 2 2
42. If (cos 𝜃 + sec 𝜃) = 2
then (𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃) = ?
 21
a. 4
17
b. 4
29
c. 4
33
d. 4

2 2
1 (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃 − 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃)
43. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃 = then 2 2 =?
7 (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃)
−2
a. 3
−3
b. 4
2
c. 3
3
d. 4

(7 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃− 3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃)
44. If 7 tan 𝜃 = 4 then (7 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 + 3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃)
=?
1
a. 7
5
b. 7
3
c. 7
5
d. 14

(5 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 + 3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃)
45. If 3 tcot 𝜃 = 4 then (5 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 − 3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃)
=?
1
a. 3
b. 3
1
c. 9
d. 9

2 (𝑎 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 − 𝑏 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃)
46. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃 = 1
𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 (𝑎 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 + 𝑏 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃)
=?
2 2
a. ( 2 2)
𝑎 +𝑏
(𝑎 − 𝑏 )
2 2
b. ( 2 2)
𝑎 −𝑏
(𝑎 + 𝑏 )
2
𝑎
c. 2 2
(𝑎 −𝑏 )
 2
𝑏
d. 2 2
(𝑎 −𝑏 )
2 2 4
47. If sin A + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 A = 1 then 𝑐𝑜𝑠 A + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 A = ?
1
a. 2
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

2 2 4
48. If cos A + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 A = 1 then 𝑠𝑖𝑛 A + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 A = ?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3

1 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴
49. 1 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴
=?
a. sec A + tan A
b. sec A - tan A
c. sec A tan A
d. None of these

1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴
50. 1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴
=?
a. cosec A - cot A
b. cosec A + cot A
c. cosec A cot A
d. None of these

𝑎 (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃)
51. If tan 𝜃 = 𝑏
then (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃)
=?
𝑎+𝑏
a. 𝑎−𝑏
𝑎−𝑏
b. 𝑎+𝑏
𝑏+𝑎
c. 𝑏−𝑎
𝑏−𝑎
d. 𝑏+𝑎

2
52. (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝜃) = ?
1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃
a. 1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃
 1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃
b. 1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃
1 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃
c. 1 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃
d. None of these

53. (sec A + tan A) (1 - sin A) = ?

a. sin A
b. cos A
c. sec A
d. cosec A

Some Applications of Trigonometry | CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1. If the height of a vertical pole is equal to the length of its shadow on the ground,
the sun is
a. 0°
b. 30°
c. 45°
d. 60°

2. If the height of a vertical pole is 3times the length of its shadow on the ground
then the angle of elevation of the sun at that time is
a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d.75°

3. If the length of the shadow of a tower is 3time its height then the angle of
elevation of the sun is
a. 45°
b. 30°
c. 60°
d.90°

4. If a pole 12 m high casts a shadow4 3m long on the ground then the sun’s
elevation is
a. 60°
b. 45°
c. 30°
 d.90°

5. The shadow of a 5-m-long stick is 2 m long. At the same time, the length of the
shadow of a 12.5-m-high tree is
a. 3 m
b. 3.5 m
c. 4.5 m
d. 5 m

6. A ladder makes an angle of 60° with the ground when placed against a wall. If the
foot of the ladder is 2 m away from the wall, the length of ladder is
4
a. m
3

b. 4 3m
c. 2 2m
d. 4 m

7. A ladder 15 m long just reaches the top of a vertical wall. If the ladder makes an
angle of 60° with the wall then the height of the wall is
a. 15 3m
15 3𝑚
b. 2
15
c. 2
m
d. 15 m

8. From a point on the ground, 30 m away from the foot of a tower the angle of
elevation of the top of the tower is 30°. The height of the tower is
a. 30 m
b. 10 3m
c. 10 m
d. 30 3m

9. The angle of depression of a car parked on the road from the top of a 150-m-high
tower is 30°. The distance of the car from the tower is
a. 50 3m
b. 150 3m
c. 150 2m
d. 75 m
10. A kite is flying at a height of 30 m from the ground. The length of string from the
kite to the ground is 60 m. Assuming that there is no slack in the string, the angle
of elevation of the kite at the ground is
a. 45°
b. 30°
c. 60°
d. 90°

11. From the top of a cliff 20 m high, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is
found to be equal to the angle of depression of the foot of the tower. The height of
the tower is
a. 20 m
b. 40 m
c. 60 m
d. 80 m

12. If a 1-5-m-tall girl stands at a distance of 3 m from a lamp post and casts a shadow
of length 4.5 m on the ground, then the height of the lamp post is
a. 1.5 m
b. 2 m
c. 2.5 m
d. 2.8 m

13. The length of the shadow of a tower standing on level ground is found to be 2x
meters longer when the sun’s elevation is 30° then when it was 45°. The height of
the tower is
a. (2 3𝑥)m
b. (3 2𝑥)m
c. ( 3 − 1) 𝑥 m
d. ( 3 + 1) 𝑥 m

14. The lengths of a vertical rod and its shadow are in the ratio 1 : 3 the angle of
elevation of the sun is
a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°
15. A pole casts a shadow of length 2 3m on the ground when the sun’s elevation is
60°, the height of the pole is
a. 4 3m
b. 6 m
c. 12 m
d. 3 m

16. In the given figure, a tower AB is 20 m high and BC, its shadow on the ground is
20 3m long. The sun’s altitude is
a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. None of these

17. The tops of two towers of heights x and y, standing on a level ground subtend
angles of 30° and 60° respectively at the centre of the line joining their feet. Then,
x : y is
a. 1 : 2
b. 2 : 1
c. 1 : 3
d. 3 : 1

18. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground 30 m away
from the foot of the tower is 30°. The height of the tower is
a. 30 m
b. 10 3m
c. 20 m
d. 10 3m

19. The string of a kite is 100 m long and it makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal.
If there is no slack in the string, the height of the kite from the ground is
a. 50 3m
b. 100 3m
c. 50 2m
d. 100 m
20. If the angles of elevation of the top of a twoer from two points at distance a snd b
from the base and in the same straight line with it are complementary then the
height of the tower is
𝑎
a. 𝑏

b. 𝑎𝑏
c. 𝑎 + 𝑏
d. 𝑎 − 𝑏

21. On the level ground, the angle of elevation of a tower is 30°. On moving 20 m
nearer, the angle of elevation is 60°. The height of the tower is
a. 10 m
b. 10 3m
c. 15 m
d. 20 m

22. In a rectangle, the angle between a diagonal and a side is 30° and the length of
this diagonal is 8 cm. The area of the rectangle is,
2
a. 16 𝑐𝑚
16 2
b. 𝑐𝑚
3
2
c. 16 3𝑐𝑚
2
d. 8 3𝑐𝑚

23. From the top of a hill, the angles of depression of two consecutive km stones due
east are found to be 30° and 45°. The height of the hill is
1
a. 2
( 3 − 1)km
1
b. 2
( 3 + 1)km
c. ( 3 − 1)km
d. ( 3 + 1)km

24. If the elevation of the sun changes from 30° to 60° then the difference between the
lengths of shadows of a pole 15 m high, is
a. 7.5 m
b. 15 m
c. 10 3m
 d. 5 3m

25. An observer 1.5 m tall is 28.5 m away from a tower and the angle of elevation of
the tip of the tower from the eye of the observer is 45°. The height of the tower is
a. 27 m
b. 30 m
c. 28.5 m
d. None of these

AREAS RELATED TO CIRCLES | CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1. The number of tangents that can be drawn from an external circle is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

2. The area of a circle is 49𝜋 cm2. Its circumference is

a. 7𝜋 cm
b. 14𝜋 cm
c. 21𝜋 cm
d. 28𝜋 cm

3. The difference between the circumference and radius of a circle is 37 cm. The area
of the circle is
a. 111 cm2
b. 184 cm2
c. 154 cm2
d. 259 cm2

4. The perimeter of a circular field is 242 m. The area of the field is

a. 9317 m2
b. 18634 m2
c. 4658.5 m2
d. none of these

5. On increasing the diameter of a circle by 40%, its area will be increased by

a. 40%
b. 80%
 c. 96%
d. 82%

6. On decreasing the radius of circle by 30%, its area is decreased by

a. 30%
b. 60%
c. 45%
d. none of these

7. The area of a square is the same as the area of a circle. Their perimeters are in the
ratio
a. 1 : 1
b. 2 : 𝜋
c. 𝜋 : 2
d. √𝜋 : 2

8. The circumference of a circle is equal to the circumferences of two circle having

diameters 36 cm and 20 cm. The radius of the new circle is
a. 16 cm
b. 28 cm
c. 42 cm
d. 56 cm

9. The area of a circle is equal to the sum of the areas of two circles of radii 24 cm
and 7 cm. The diameter of the new circle is
a. 25 cm
b. 31 cm
c. 50 cm
d. 62 cm

10. If the perimeter of a square is equal to the circumference of a circle then the ratio
of their areas is
a. 4 : 𝜋
b. 𝜋 : 4
c. 𝜋 : 7
d. 7: 𝜋

11. If the sum of the areas of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the area of a
circle of radius R then
a. R1 + R2 = R
b. R1 + R2 < R
c. R12 + R22 < R2
d. R12 + R22 = R2
12. If the sum of the circumferences of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the
circumference of a radius R then
a. R1 + R2 = R
b. R1 + R2 > R
c. R1 + R2 < R2
d. none of these

13. If the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a square are equal then
a. area of the circle = area of the square
b. (area of the circle) > (area of the square)
c. (area of the circle) < (area of the square)
d. none of these

14. The radii of two concentric circles are 19 cm and 16 cm respectively. The area of
the ring enclosed by these circle is
a. 320 cm2
b. 330 cm2
c. 332 cm2
d. 340 cm2

15. The areas of two concentric circles are 1386 cm2 and 962.5 cm2. The width of the
ring is
a. 2.8 cm
b. 3.5 cm
c. 4.2 cm
d. 3.8 cm

16. The circumferences of two circles are in the ratio 3:4. The ratio of their areas is
a. 3 : 4
b. 4 : 3
c. 9 : 16
d. 16 : 9

17. The area of two circles is in the ratio 9:4. The ratio of their circumference is
a. 3 : 2
b. 4 : 9
c. 2 : 3
d. 81 : 16

18. The radius of a wheel is 0.25 m. How many revolutions will it make in covering
11 km?
a. 2800
 b. 4000
c. 5500
d. 7000

19. The diameter of a wheel is 40 cm. How many revolutions will it make in covering
176 m?
a. 140
b. 150
c. 160
d. 166

20. In making 1000 revolutions, a wheel covers 88 km. The diameter of the wheel is
a. 14 m
b. 24 m
c. 28 m
d. 40 m

21. The area of a sector of angle θ° of a circle with radius R is

22. The length of an arc of a sector of angle θ° of a circle with radius R is

23. The length of the minute hand of a clock is 21 cm. The area swept by the minute
hand in 10 minutes is
 a. 231 cm2
b. 210 cm2
c. 126 cm2
d. 252 cm2

24. A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends right angles at the centre. The area of
the minor segment
(given,𝜋 = 3.14) is
a. 32.5 cm2
b. 34.5 cm2
c. 28.5 cm2
d. 30.5 cm2

25. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angles of 60° at the centre. The
length of the arc is
a. 21 cm
b. 22 cm
c. 18.16 cm
d. 23.5 cm

26. In a circle of radius 14 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 120° at the centre. If √3 =
1.73 then the area of the segment of the circle is
a. 120.56 cm2
b. 124.63 cm2
c. 118.24 cm2
d. 130.57 cm2

Surface Areas & Volumes | CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1. A cylindrical pencil sharpened at one edge is the

combination of
a. a cylinder and a cone
b. a cylinder and frustum of a cone
c. cylinder and a hemisphere
d. two cylinders
2. A shuttlecock used for playing badminton is the combination of
a. cylinder and a hemisphere
b. frustum of a cone and a hemisphere
c. a cone and a hemisphere
d. a cylinder and a sphere

3. A funnel is the combination of

a. a cylinder and a cone
b. a cylinder and a hemisphere
c. a cylinder and frustum of a cone
d. a cone and a hemisphere

4. A surahi is a combination of
a. a sphere and a cylinder
b. a hemisphere and a cylinder
c. a cylinder and a cone
d. two hemispheres Surahi
5. The shape of a glass (tumbler) is usually in the form of
a. a cylinder
b. frustum of a cone
c. a cone
d. a sphere Glass

6. The shape of a gill in the gilli-danda game is a combination of

a. a cone and a cylinder
b. two cylinders Gilli
c. two cones and a cylinder
d. two cylinders and a cone

7. A plumbline (sahul) is the combination of

a. hemisphere and a cone
b. a cylinder and a cone
c. a cylinder and frustum of a cone
d. a cylinder and a sphere Plumbline

8. A cone is cut by a plane parallel to its base and the upper part is removed. The part that is left
over is called
a. a cone
 b. a sphere
c. a cylinder
d. frustum of a cone

9. During conversion of a solid from one shape to another, the volume of the new shape will
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. remain unaltered
d. be doubled

10. In a right circular cone, the cross section made by a plane parallel to the base is a
a. Sphere
b. Hemisphere
c. Circle
d. a semicircle

11. A solid piece of iron in the form of a cuboid of dimensions (cccm) is moulded to form a solid
sphere. The radius of the sphere is
a. 19 cm
b. 21 cm
c. 23 cm
d. 25 cm

12. The radius (in cm) of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out from a cube of edge 4.2
cm is
a. 2.1
b. 4.2
c. 8.4
d. 1.05

13. A metallic solid sphere of radius 9 cm is melted to form a solid cylinder of radius 9 cm. The
height of the cylinder is
a. 12 cm
b. 18 cm
c. 36 cm
d. 96 cm

14. A rectangular sheet of paper 40 cm × 22 cm, is rolled to form a hollow cylinder of height 40 cm.
The radius of the cylinder (in cm) is,
a. 3.5
b. 7
 c. 80/7
d. 5

15. The number of solid spheres, each of diameter 6 cm, that can be made by melting a solid metal
cylinder of height 45 cm and diameter 4 cm, is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

16. The surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio 16 : 9. The ratio of their volumes is
a. 64 : 27
b. 16:9
c. 4 :3
d. 163 : 93

17. If the surface area of a sphere is 616 cm2, its diameter (in cm) is
a. 7
b. 14
c. 28
d. 56

18. If the radius of a sphere becomes 3 times then its volume will become
a. 3 times
b. 6 times
c. 9 times
d. 27 times

19. If the height of a bucket in the shape of frustum of a cone is 16 cm and the diameters of its two
circular ends are 40 cm and 16 cm then its slant height is
a. 20 cm
b. 12√5 cm
c. 8√13 cm
d. 16 cm

20. A sphere of diameter 18 cm is dropped into a cylindrical vessel of diameter 36 cm, partly filled
with water. If the sphere is completely submerged then the water level rises by
a. 3 cm
b. 4 cm
c. 5 cm
d. 6 cm

21. A solid right circular cone is cut into two parts at the middle of its height by a plane parallel to
its base. The ratio of the volume of the smaller cone to the whole cone is
a. 1 : 2
b. 1 : 4
 c. 1 : 6
d. 1 : 8

22. The radii of the circular ends of a bucket of height 40 cm are 24 cm and 15 cm. The slant height
(in cm) of the bucket is
a. 41
b. 43
c. 49
d. 51

23. A solid is hemispherical at the bottom and conical (of same radius) above it. If the surface areas
of the two parts are equal then the ratio of its radius and the slant height of the conical part is
a. 1 : 2
b. 2 : 1
c. 1 : 4
d. 4 : 1

24. If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved, keeping the height the same, then
the ratio of the volume of the cylinder thus obtained to the volume of original cylinder is
a. 1 : 2
b. 2 : 1
c. 1 : 4
d. 4: 1

25. A cubical ice-cream brick of edge 22 cm is to be distributed among some children by filling
ice-cream cones of radius 2 cm and height 7 cm up to its brim. How many children will get the
ice-cream cones?
a. 163
b. 263
c. 363
d. 463

26. A mason constructs a wall of dimensions (270 cm × 300 cm × 350 cm) with bricks, each of size
(22.5 cm × 11.25 cm × 8.75 cm) and it is assumed 1/8 that space is covered by the mortar.
Number of bricks used to construct the wall is
a. 11000
b. 11100
c. 11200
d. 11300

27. Twelve solid spheres of the same size are made by melting a solid metallic cylinder of base
diameter 2 cm and height 16 cm. The diameter of each sphere is
a. 2 cm
b. 3 cm
c. 4 cm
d. 6 cm
28. The diameters of two circular ends of a bucket are 44 cm and 24 cm, and the height of the
bucket is 35 cm. The capacity of the bucket is
a. 31.7 litres
b. 32.7 litres
c. 33.7 litres
d. 34.7 litres

29. The slant height of a bucket is 45 cm and the radii of its top and bottom are 28 cm and 7 cm
respectively. The curved surface area of the bucket is
a. 4953 cm2
b. 4952 cm2
c. 4951 cm2
d. 4950 cm2

30. The volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 64:27. The ratio of their surface area is
a. 9:16
b. 16:9
c. 3:4
d. 4:3

31. A hollow cube of internal edge 22 cm is filled with spherical marbles of diameter 0.5 cm and 1/8
space of the cube remains unfilled. Number of marbles required is
a. 142296
b. 142396
c. 142496
d. 142596

32. A metallic spherical shell of internal and external diameters 4 cm and 8 cm respectively, is
melted and recast into the form of a cone of base diameter 8 cm. The height of the cone is
a. 12 cm
b. 14 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 8 cm

33. A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder of diameter 0.5 cm with two hemispheres stuck
to each of its ends. The length of the entire capsule is 2 cm. The capacity of the capsule is
a. 0.33 cm3
b. 0.34 cm3
c. 0.35 cm3
d. 0.36 cm3

34. The length of the longest pole that can be kept in a room (12 m × 9 m × 8 m) is
a. 29 m
b. 21 m
c. 19 m
 d. 17 m

35. The length of the diagonal of a cube is 6, √3 cm. Its total surface area is
a. 144 cm2
b. 216 cm2
c. 180 cm2
d. 108 cm2

36. The volume of a cube is 2744 cm3. Its surface area is

a. 196 cm2
b. 1176 cm2
c. 784 cm2
d. 588 cm2

37. The total surface area of a cube is 864 cm2. Its volume is
a. 3456 cm3
b. 432 cm3
c. 1728 cm3
d. 3456 cm3

38. How many bricks each measuring (25 cm × 11.25 cm × 6 cm) will be required to construct a wall
(8 m × 6 m × 22.5 cm)?
a. 8000
b. 6400
c. 4800
d. 7200

39. The area of the base of a rectangular tank is 6500 cm2 and the volume of water contained in it is
2.6 m3. The depth of water in the tank is.
a. 3.5 m
b. 4 m
c. 5 m
d. 8 m

40. The volume of a wall, 5 times as high as it is broad and 8 times as long as it is high, is 12.8 m3.
The breadth of the wall is
a. 30 cm
b. 40 cm
c. 22.5 cm
d. 25 cm

41. If the areas of three adjacent faces of a cuboid are x, y, z respectively then the volume of the
cuboid is
a. xyz
b. 2xyz
c. √xyz
 d. 3√xyz

42. The sum of length, breadth and height of a cuboid is 19 cm and its diagonal is 5√5 cm. Its
surface area is
a. 361 cm2
b. 125 cm2
c. 236 cm2
d. 486 cm2

43. If each edge of a cube is increased by 50%, the percentage increase in the surface area is
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 100%
d. 125%

44. How many bags of grain can be stored in a cuboidal granary (8 m × 6 m × 3 m), if each bag
occupies a space of 0.64 m3?
a. 8256
b. 90
c. 212
d. 225

45. A cube of side 6 cm is cut into a number of cubes each of side 2 cm. The number of cubes
formed is
a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
d. 27

46. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of the water that falls on 2 hectares of ground, is
a. 100 m3
b. 10 m3
c. 1000 m3
d. 10000 m3

47. Two cubes have their volumes in the ratio 1: 27. The ratio of their surface areas is
a. 1 : 3
b. 1 : 8
c. 1 : 9
d. 1 : 18

48. The diameter of the base of a cylinder is 4 cm and its height is 14 cm. The volume of the
cylinder is
a. 176 cm3
b. 196 cm3
c. 276 cm3
 d. 352 cm3

49. The diameter of a cylinder is 28 cm and its height is 20 cm. The total surface area of the
cylinder is
a. 2993 cm2
b. 2992 cm2
c. 2292 cm2
d. 2229 cm2

50. The height of a cylinder is 14 cm and its curved surface area is 264 cm2. The volume of the
cylinder is
a. 308 cm3
b. 396 cm3
c. 1232 cm3
d. 1848 cm3

51. The curved surface area of a cylinder is 1760 cm2 and its base radius is 14 cm. The height of the
cylinder is
a. 10 cm
b. 15 cm
c. 20 cm
d. 40 cm

52. The ratio of the total surface area to the lateral surface area of a cylinder with base radius 80 cm
and height 20 cm is
a. 2 :1
b. 3:1
c. 4:1
d. 5:1

53. The curved surface area of a cylindrical pillar is 264 m2 and its volume is 924 m3. The height of
the pillar is
a. 4 m
b. 5 m
c. 6 m
d. 7 m

54. The ratio between the radius of the base and the height of the cylinder is 2 : 3. If its volume is
1617 cm3, the total surface area of the cylinder is
a. 308 cm2
b. 462 cm2
c. 540 cm2
d. 770 cm2

55. The radii of two cylinders are in the ratio 2:3 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 3. The ratio of
their volumes is
 a. 27 : 20
b. 20 : 27
c. 4 :9
d. 9:4

56. Two circular cylinders of equal volume have their heights in the ratio 1:2. The ratio of their radii
is
a. 1 : √2
b. √2 : 1
c. 1 : 2
d. 1 : 4

57. The radius of the base of a cone is 5 cm and its height is 12 cm. Its curved surface area is
a. 60𝜋 cm2
b. 65𝜋 cm2
c. 30𝜋 cm2
d. None of these

58. The diameter of the base of a cone is 42 cm and its volume is 12936 cm3. Its height is
a. 28 cm
b. 21 cm
c. 35 cm
d. 14 cm

59. The area of the base of a right circular cone is 154 cm2 and its height is 14 cm. Its curved
surface area is
a. 154√5 cm2
b. 154√7 cm2
c. 77√7 cm2
d. 77√5 cm2

60. On increasing each of the radius of the base and the height of a cone by 20% its volume will be
increased by
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 72.8%

61. The radii of the base of a cylinder and a cone are in the ratio
3 : 4. If they have their heights in the ratio 2 : 3, the ratio between their volumes is
a. 9 :8
b. 3:4
c. 8 :9
d. 4 : 3
62. A metallic cylinder of radius 8 cm and height 2 cm is melted and converted into a right circular
cone of height 6 cm. The radius of the base of this cone is
a. 4 cm
b. 5 cm
c. 6 cm
d. 8 cm

63. The height of a conical tent is 14 m and its floor area is

346.5 m2. How much canvas, 1.1 m wide, will be required for it?
a. 490 m
b. 525 m
c. 665 m
d. 860 m

64. The diameter of a sphere is 14 cm. Its volume is

a. 1428 cm3
b. 1439 cm3
c. 1437 1/3 cm3
d. 1440 cm3

65. The ratio between the volumes of two spheres is 8: 27. What is the ratio between their surface
areas?
a. 2:3
b. 4:5
c. 5:6
d. 4: 9

66. A hollow metallic sphere with external diameter 8 cm and internal diameter 4 cm is melted and
moulded into a cone having base radius 8 cm. The height of the cone is
a. 12 cm
b. 14 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 18 cm

67. A metallic cone having base radius 2.1 cm and height 8.4 cm is melted and moulded into a
sphere. The radius of the sphere is
a. 2.1 cm
b. 1.05 cm
c. 1.5 cm
d. 2 cm

68. The volume of a hemisphere is 19404 cm3. The total surface area of the hemisphere is
a. 4158 cm2
b. 16632 cm2
c. 8316 cm2
d. 3696 cm2
 69. The surface area of a sphere is 154 cm2. The volume of the sphere is all
a. 179 2/3 cm2
b. 359 1/3 cm2
c. 1437 1/3 cm2
d. None of these

70. The total surface area of a hemisphere of radius 7 cm is

a. (588 𝜋) cm2
b. (392 𝜋) cm2
c. (147 𝜋) cm2
d. (598 𝜋) cm2

71. The circular ends of a bucket are of radii 35 cm and 14 cm and the height of the bucket is 40
cm. Its volume is
a. 60060 cm3
b. 80080 cm3
c. 70040 cm3
d. 80160 cm3

72. If the radii of the ends of a bucket are 5 cm and 15 cm and it is 24 cm high then its surface area
is
a. 1815.3 cm2
b. 1711.3 cm2
c. 2025.3 cm2
d. 2360 cm2

73. A circus tent is cylindrical to a height of 4 m and conical above it. If its diameter is 105 m and its
slant height is 40 m, the total area of canvas required is
a. 1760 m2
b. 2640 m2
c. 3960 m2
d. 7920 m2

Statistics| CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?

(a) Mean
(b) Mode
(c) Median
(d) Range
2. Which of the following cannot be determined graphically?
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) None of these

3. Which of the following measures of central tendency is influenced by extreme values?

(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) None of these

4. The mode of a frequency distribution is obtained graphically from

(a) a frequency curve
(b) a frequency polygon
(c) a histogram
(d) an ogive

5. The median of a frequency distribution is found graphically with the help of

(a) a histogram
(b) a frequency curve
(c) a frequency polygon
(d) ogives

6. The cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the

(a) mean
(b) median
(c) mode
(d) all of these

7. The abscissa of the point of intersection of the Less Than Type and of the More Than Type
cumulative frequency curves of a grouped data gives its
(a) mean
(b) median
(c) mode
(d) none of these

8. If xi’s are the midpoints of the class intervals of a grouped data, fi’s are the
corresponding frequencies and 𝑥 is the mean then fi’s are the corresponding

frequencies and 𝑥 is the mean then ∑ 𝑓𝑖(𝑥𝑖 − 𝑥) = ?

(a) 1
 (b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 2

9. For finding the mean by using the formula,

Σ𝑓𝑖𝑢𝑖
𝑥 = 𝐴 + ℎ⎛ Σ𝑓𝑖
⎞, we have ui = ?
⎝ ⎠

(𝐴 − 𝑥𝑖)
(a) ℎ
(𝑥𝑖− 𝐴)
(b) ℎ
(𝐴 + 𝑥𝑖)
(c) ℎ
(d) h(xi - A)

Σ𝑓𝑖 𝑑𝑖

10. In the formula, 𝑥 = {𝐴 + Σ𝑓𝑖

}for finding the mean of the grounded data, the di’s are the

derivations from A of
(a) Lower limits of the classes
(b) upper limits of the classes
(c) midpoints of the classes
(d) none of these

11. While computing the mean of the grouped data, we assume that the frequencies are
(a) evenly distributed over the classes
(b) centred at the class marks of the classes
(c) centred at the lower limits of the classes
(d) centred at the upper limits of the classes

12. The relation between mean, mode and median is

(a) mode = (3 ⨯ mean) - (2 ⨯ median)
(b) mode = (3 ⨯ median) - (2 ⨯ mean)
(c) median = (3 ⨯ mean) - (2 ⨯ mode)
(d) mean = (3 ⨯ median) - (2 ⨯ mode)

13. If the 'less than type' ogive and 'more than type' ogive intersect each other at (20.5, 15.5)
then the median of the given data is
(a) 5.5
(b) 15.5
(c) 20.5
(d) 36.0
14. Consider the frequency distribution of the height of 60 students of a class:
Height (in cm) No. of Students Cumulative Frequency

150-155 16 16

155-160 12 28

160-165 9 37

165-170 7 44

170-175 10 54

175-180 6 60

The sum of the lower limit of the modal class and the upper limit of the median class is
(a) 310
(b) 315
(c) 320
(d) 330

15. Consider the following frequency distribution :

Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60

Frequency 3 9 15 30 18 5

The modal class is

(a) 10-20
(b) 20-30
(c) 30-40
(d) 50-60

16. Mode =?
⎰ (𝑓𝑘−1− 𝑓𝑘) ⎱
(a) 𝑥𝑘 + ℎ.
⎱ 𝑘 𝑘−1 𝑘+1 ⎰
(2𝑓 − 𝑓 − 𝑓 )

⎰ (𝑓𝑘 − 𝑓𝑘−1) ⎱
(b) 𝑥𝑘 + ℎ.
⎱ (2𝑓𝑘 − 𝑓𝑘−1− 𝑓𝑘+1 ) ⎰
⎰ (𝑓𝑘 − 𝑓𝑘 − 1) ⎱
(c) 𝑥𝑘 + ℎ.
⎱ (𝑓𝑘 −2 𝑓𝑘−1− 𝑓𝑘+1 ) ⎰
 ⎰ (𝑓𝑘 − 𝑓𝑘 − 1) ⎱
(d) 𝑥𝑘 + ℎ.
⎱ (𝑓𝑘 − 𝑓𝑘−1− 2 𝑓𝑘+1 ) ⎰

17. Median = ?
𝑁
⎰ −𝑐𝑓 ⎱
(a) 𝐼 + ℎ ｘ 2 𝑓 }
⎱ ⎰
𝑁
⎰ 𝑐𝑓− ⎱
(b) 𝐼 + ℎ ｘ 𝑓 2
⎱ ⎰
𝑁
⎰ −𝑐𝑓 ⎱
(c) 𝐼 − ℎ ｘ 2 𝑓
⎱ ⎰
(d) None of these

18. If the mean and median of a set of numbers are 8.9 and 9 respectively then the mode will
be
(a) 7.2
(b) 8.2
(c) 9.2
(d) 10.2

19. Look at the frequency distribution table given below:

Class interval 35-45 45-55 55-65 65-75

Frequency 8 12 20 10

The median of the above distribution is

(a) 56.5
(b) 57.5
(c) 58.5
(d) 59

20. Consider the following table :

Class interval 10-14 14-18 18-22 22-26 26-30

Frequency 5 11 16 25 19

The mode of the above data is

(a) 23.5
(b) 24
(c) 24.4
(d) 25
21. The mean and mode of a frequency distribution are 28 and 16 respectively. The median is
(a) 22
(b) 23.5
(c) 24
(d) 24.5

22. The median and mode of a frequency distribution are 26 and 29 respectively. The mean is
(a) 27.5
(b) 24.5
(c) 28.4
(d) 25.8

23. For a symmetrical frequency distribution, we have

(a) mean < mode < median
(b) mean > mode > median
(c) mean = mode = median
1
(d) 𝑚𝑜𝑑𝑒 = 2
(𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 + 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑛)

24. Look at the cumulative frequency distribution table given below :

Monthly income Number of families

More than Rs.10000 100

More than Rs.14000 85

More than Rs.18000 69

More than Rs.20000 50

More than Rs.25000 37

More than Rs.30000 15

Number of families having income range 20000 to 25000 is
(a) 19
(b) 16
(c) 13
(d) 22

25. The median of first 8 prime numbers is

(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 13
26. The mean of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than
zero?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 10
(d) 19

27. If the median of the data 4, 7, x - 1, x - 3, 16, 25, written in ascending order, is 13 then x is
equal to
(a) 13
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 16

28. The mean of 2, 7, 6 and x is 5 and the mean of 18, 1, 6, x and y is 10.
What is the value of y?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 30

Probability| CBSE 10

MCQS [1 Mark each]

1. The number of tangents that can be drawn from an external circle is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

1. If P(E) denotes the probability of an event E then

a. P(E)< 0
b. P(E) > 1
c. 0 ≤ P(E) ≤1
d. -1≤ P(E) ≤ 1

2. If the probability of occurrence of an event is p then the probability of

non-happening of this event is
3. What is the probability of an impossible event?

4. What is the probability of a sure event?

5. Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?

6. A number is selected at random from the numbers 1 to 30. What is the probability
that the selected number is a prime number?
7. The probability that a number selected at random from the numbers 1,2,3,….15 is
a multiple of 4, is

8. A box contains cards numbered 6 to 50.A card is drawn at random from the box.
The probability that draw card has a number which is a perfect square is

9. A box contains 90 discs, numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random
from the box, the probability that it bears prime number less than 23 is
10. Cards bearing numbers 2, 3, 4…, 11 are kept in a bag. A card is drawn at random
from the bag. The probability of getting a card with a prime number is

11. One ticket is drawn at random from a bag containing tickets numbered 1 to 40.
The probability that the selected ticket has a number, which is a multiple of 7, is

12. Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?

13. If the probability of winning a game is 0.4 then the probability of losing it, is

14. If an event cannot occur then its probability is

15. There are 20 tickets numbered as 1, 2, 3…., 20 respectively. One ticket is drawn at
random. What is the probability that the number on the ticket drawn is a multiple
of 5?

16. There are 25 tickets numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4…., 25 respectively. One ticket is drawn
at random. What is the probability that the number on the ticket drawn is a
multiple of 3 or 5?
17. Card, each market with one of the numbers 6, 7, 8, …, 15, are placed in a box and
mixed thoroughly. One card is drawn at random from the box. What is the
probability of getting a card with number less than 10?

18. A die is thrown once. The probability of getting an even number is

19. The probability of throwing a number greater than 2 with a fair die is

20. A die is thrown once. The probability of getting an odd number greater than 3 is
21. A die is thrown once. The probability of getting a prime number is

22. Two dice are thrown together. The probability of getting the same number on both
dice is

23. The probability of getting 2 heads, when two coins are tossed, is

24. Two dice are thrown together. The probability of getting a doublet is
25. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting at most
one head?

26. Three coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting exactly
two heads?

27. In a lottery, there are 8 prizes and 16 blanks. What is the probability of getting a
prize?

28. In a lottery, there are 6 prizes and 24 blacks. What is the probability of not getting
a prize?
29. A box contains 3 blue, 2 white and 4 red marbles. If a marble is drawn at random
from the box, what is the probability that it will not be a white marble?

30. A bag contains 4 red and 6 black balls. A ball is taken out of the bag at random.
What is the probability of getting a black ball?

31. A bag contains 8 red, 2 black and 5 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What
is the probability that the ball drawn is not black?
32. A bag contains 3 white, 4 red and 5 black balls. One ball is drawn at random. What
is the probability that the ball drawn is neither black nor white?

33. A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. What is the
probability of getting a black king?

34. From a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, one card is drawn at random. What is the
probability of getting a queen?

35. One card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. What is the
probability of getting a face card?
36. One card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. What is the
probability of getting a black face card?

37. One card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. What is the
probability of getting a 6?