Pre-Samiksha All India Open Mock Test – 1 (PAPER II – Solution)

Directions for following 4 items :-

Read the three passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer should be based on the
passages only

Passage – 1
As a poet, Kabir transcended many of the divisions that existed in India. He can be celebrated as
Dalit hero or as a Brahmin. Kabir and the KabirPanth are accepted as a part of Hinduism. A large
corpus of his poems is included in the Guru Granth Sahib. His presence in Indian Islamic
thought, Qawwali singing and architecture has also been well documented. Nineteenth century
missionaries noted the similarity of his thoughts to Christianity. His indebtedness to Buddhist
Siddhas has been a subject of scholarship in the last century. Jain poets emulated his style, so
much so that the 17th century Anandghan was dubbed as the ―Jain Kabir.

Q1. The passage seems to argue that

A. Kabir’s thoughts are reflected in almost all major religions in India.
B. Kabir supported different religions at different phases of his life.
C. Kabir denounced untouchability and favoured equality among different castes.
D. Kabir’s presence in Indian Islamic thought is more prominent as compared to other religions.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is correct. Throughout the passage it can be seen that the author is explaining how
Kabir‘s thoughts have been incorporated by various religions in India. For example, he is
celebrated as a Dalit hero or a Brahmin. His poems which reflected his thoughts are included in
Guru Granth Sahib (Sikhs). Similar connection with other religions like Christianity, Jainism and
Islam is also established in the passage. Option B is incorrect. The passage only explains how
Kabir‘s thoughts have been included in various religions around India. It nowhere mentions
whether Kabir supported any religion or not. Hence, this statement is not correct. Option C is
incorrect. Though the passage mentions in the beginning, ―He can be celebrated as Dalit hero
or as a Brahmin, it cannot be conclusively established that Kabir advocated equality between
different castes. Also there is no mention of untouchability in the passage. Hence, this
statement is not correct. Option D is incorrect. The passage mentions the presence of Kabir's
thoughts in Islam through the statement, ―His presence in Indian Islamic thought, Qawwali
singing and architecture has also been well documented. But, the passage does not argue that
his presence in Islamic thought is more prominent than that in other religions.

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Passage – 2
Insurance companies keep propagating that installation of antitheft devices reduces the risk of
automobile theft. However, data released by police shows that the automobiles which are
equipped with antitheft devices are more likely to be stolen in comparison to those which are
not equipped with any antitheft device.
Q2. What is the most logical conclusion that can be made from the passage given above?
A. Expensive cars are stolen more often than the cheap cars.
B. Thieves steel those cars which have antitheft devices installed in them.
C. Antitheft devices do not work as a deterrent to the automobile thieves.
D. Antitheft devices are primarily installed in those areas where automobile theft is rampant.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Option (a) is incorrect as there is no relation of expensive and cheap automobiles
highlighted in the passage. The observation is about automobiles. Option (b) is incorrect as it
defies the logic that thieves like to steal those automobiles which are equipped with antitheft
devices. Option (c) is a correct because it explains how automobiles with antitheft are still being
stolen because the device are proving ineffective. Option (d) is incorrect because the passage
does not discuss this point ( of installation of device , area-wise) anywhere.

Passage – 3
Poverty caused by health expenditure has doubled in India in the past 15 years. A recent study
claims that out-of-pocket health expenditure in India accounts for nearly 7 per cent of
household expenses. Diseases like cancer are most damaging to a family‘s finances. In the
absence of health and social security nets, cancers, particularly the ones that offer a chance of
cure, can be financially debilitating for a family. It has been established the world over that
poverty is a risk factor for cancer causation. But equally true is the fact that in countries like
ours, cancer (treatment) is an important risk factor for tipping the balance, especially for
families that live on the edge of absolute poverty. So not only does poverty cause cancer,
cancer also causes poverty, at least in India.

Q3. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be
derived from the above passage?
A. Poverty is the major cause of cancer worldwide.
B. Major cause of poverty in India is high out-of-pocket health expenditure.
C. Providing social security benefits to all can reduce the chances of people falling into poverty
due to health expenditure.

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D. Poverty in India has doubled in the past 15 years.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement A is incorrect. According to the passage, ―It has been established the world over
that poverty is a risk factor for cancer causation. This statement means that worldwide it has
been established that one of the risk factors that lead to cancer is poverty, but this does not
mean that poverty itself is a MAJOR cause of cancer worldwide. The percentage of people
getting cancer due to poverty might be very low among the total number of people getting
cancer worldwide. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
Statement B is incorrect. The passage, in the beginning, says that poverty caused by health
expenditure has doubled in the past 15 years, and also out of pocket expenditure is high in
India. But out of the total population living under poverty, those facing poverty due to health
expenditure may be low or high. Hence, statement in option B is not the correct inference.
Statement C is correct. Throughout the passage, the author is emphasizing that health
expenditure is pushing people into poverty in India. Especially the expenditure on costly
treatments like cancer has a major impact on family expenses. Also, the statement, ―In the
absence of health and social security nets, cancers, particularly the ones that offer a chance of
cure, can be financially debilitating for a family clarifies that absence of social security benefits
is a major cause of higher health expenses. Hence, it can be inferred that adequate provision of
social security benefits can reduce chances of people falling into poverty due to health
expenditure.
Statement D is incorrect. First statement of the passage says, ―Poverty caused by health
expenditure has doubled in India in the past 15 years. Now, this poverty caused by health
expenditure is one of the many ways in which people fall into poverty. Though the poverty
caused by health expenditure has doubled, the overall poverty in India might have increased or
decreased in the past 15 years, and this has not been clarified in the passage. Hence, this
inference is incorrect.

Q4. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
Assumption 1: Public health expenditure in India is relatively lower than required.
Assumption 2: Poverty and cancer form a kind of vicious cycle in India.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:

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Statement 1 is correct. The passage mentions that, ―Poverty caused by health expenditure has
doubled in India in the past 15 years. A recent study claims that out-of-pocket health
expenditure in India accounts for nearly 7 per cent of household expenses. Since poverty is
being caused by health expenditure, that means the government is not adequately paying for
the health expenditure. Also, out of pocket expenditure means that the person has to bear the
expenses on his own as the government is not paying for it. Even the last sentence, ―So not
only does poverty cause cancer, cancer also causes poverty, at least in India indicates that
public health expenditure is relatively low because the expenses on cancer treatment is pushing
people into poverty. Statement 2 is also correct. The passage states that all over the world it
has been established that poverty is one of the causes of cancer, but in the case of India, cancer
also is one of the causes of poverty. It is due to various reasons like out of pocket expenditure
on health, lack of social security benefits etc. Finally, the last statement of the passage further
emphasizes this fact - ―So not only does poverty cause cancer, cancer also causes poverty, at
least in India.

Q5. What is the maximum number of identical pieces a cube can be cut into by 6 cuts?
A. 12
B. 36
C. 18
D. 27
Answer: D
Explanation:
The six cuts are distributed 2 along each perpendicular plane trebling the number of pieces
each time. Hence, 3 × 3 × 3 = 27 pieces.

Q6. Number 252 when divided by a two digit number "𝑎𝑏" gives remainder 0 and
quotient"𝑏𝑎". Then 𝑎 × 𝑏 is :
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
𝑎𝑏 × 𝑏𝑎 = 252
Do factorization of 252 , such possible value is 12 x 21
So, a = 1 b = 2
So ,ab = 2

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Q7.3 men and 4 boys can earn 756 in 7 days. 11 men and 13 boys can earn 3008 in 8 days. In
what time will 7 men with 9 boys earn 2480?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let 1 man’s 1 day earning be Rs. m, and 1 boy’s 1 day earning be Rs. b
So, 3m + 4b = 756/7 in 1 day
So, 3m+4b = 108
Similarly , 11m+13b = 3008/8
We get 2 equations ,
3m + 4b = 108
11m + 13b = 376

Now, solving these we get

b = Rs. 12
m = Rs. 20
so, 7m + 9b in 1 day earn 7x20 + 9x12 = 140 + 108 = 248
thus, in 1 day they earn 248 rs
in 10 days they earn Rs.2480

Q8. A and B can do a piece of work in 30 and 40 days respectively. They began the work
together, but A left after some days and B finished the remaining work in 12 days. After how
many days did A leave?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let work be 120 units
A does 120/30 units in 1 day
So, A does 4 units in 1 day
B does 120/40 = 3 units in 1 day.
So in the last 12 days B did 12 x 3 = 36 units
Thus , A and B together did 120 – 36 = 84 units

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A and B together do 4 + 3 = 7 units in 1 day
So, 84 units they will do in 84/7 = 12 days
Thus, A left after 12 days

Q9.Find the number of zeros at the end of the result 3 × 6 × 9 × 12 × 15 × ......... × 99 × 102.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 7
D. 10
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let , 𝑁 = 3 × 6 × 9 × 12 × 15 × . . . . . . . . .× 99 × 102
These are 34 terms,
Taking 3 common from all the terms we get
𝑁 = 334 (1 × 2 × 3 … × 34) = 334 × 34!
So, 334 , will not give any zeroes are zero is formed by 2 and 5
Thus, we have to find number of zeroes in 34!
34 6
Which is [ 5 ] + [5] = 6 + 1 = 7

Q10.Find the 33 rd term of the sequence: 3, 8, 9, 13, 15, 18, 21, 23…
A. 93
B. 99
C. 105
D. 83

Answer: B
Explanation:
This sequence is a combination of two sequences
1st is , 3 , 9 , 15 , 21 , …. ( occupying odd positions in the given sequence )
2nd is 8 , 13 , 18 , 23 , ….( occupying even positions in the given sequence )
The 33rd term of the given sequence would be the 17th term of the 1st sequence 3, 9, 15, 21 ….
The 17th term of the sequence would be :- 𝑎 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑
Here , 𝑎 = 𝑓𝑖𝑟𝑠𝑡 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚 = 3 , 𝑛 = 17 , 𝑑 = 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑛 𝑑𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 6
So, 𝑎17 = 3 + 6 × 16 = 99.

Directions for following 4 items :-

Read the three passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer should be based on the
passages only

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Passage -1
What is still holding India back from achieving large scale global academic excellence which is
commensurate with our intellectual heritage and calibre? Beyond blaming the government and
the bureaucracy, the usual suspects, it is important to look inward and ask whether our
academics display an adequate ethical commitment to excellence. It is rarely appreciated that
excellence is an ethical issue. We think of it as something arising from people of calibre coupled
with sufficient resources. But how do successful nations spot such people and resources and
enable them to achieve their potential? The answer: there is a sincere and stated commitment
to cultivating excellence as a goal. Contrasting this with the academic ethos in India raises
uncomfortable questions.

Q11. What is the main idea that we can infer from the passage?
A. Indian Government and the bureaucracy are not responsible for poor achievements in terms
of global academic excellence in India.
B. By prioritizing excellence as an ethical issue, Indian academics will certainly achieve large-
scale global excellence.
C. Only people of calibre coupled with sufficient resources can achieve global academic
excellence.
D. India’s academic ethos seems to lack sincere and stated commitment to cultivating
excellence as a goal.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Option D is correct. The last part of the passage states, ―...how do successful nations spot such
people and resources and enable them to achieve their potential? The answer: there is a
sincere and stated commitment to cultivating excellence as a goal. Contrasting this with the
academic ethos in India raises uncomfortable questions.‖ It means that sincere and stated
commitment to cultivate excellence as a goal plays an important role in achieving academic
excellence, and Indian academic ethos lacks it. This is one of the reasons why India has not
been able to achieve large-scale global academic excellence. Option D effectively captures the
intent of the author.

Q12. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Institutes of higher education in India fare poorly in the world rankings as compared to all
institutes of successful nations.
2. Indian academics with calibre, but lack of resources, are not able to achieve academic
excellence.

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Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage only talks about the poor performance of India in terms
of global academic excellence. From this we cannot assume that Indian higher education
institutes, in general, perform poorer than ALL institutes of successful nations. It would be an
extreme generalisation.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage states, ―We think of it (excellence) as something arising
from people of calibre coupled with sufficient resources. The passage only talks about the
prevailing perception in India that excellence arises from people with calibre and access to
resources. However, the answer statement talks about those with calibre but lack of resource,
which is not touched upon by the passage

Passage – 2
Four major traits of academic imperialism are worth noting. First, it is marked by exploitation,
where the subjugator wants to dominate and monopolize resources and people, both physically
and mentally. The second trait is the ideological rationalization for this subjugation, where the
subjugator constructs myths and ideologies of superiority and invincibility, in order to justify
their dominance. Third is the condition of tutelage where the subjugator determines and exacts
from the subjugated group and regards themselves as a ‘protector’ or as a group who are more
civilized than the rest. Finally, the subjugated groups can only assume a junior and secondary
role, and conformity and submission are expected of them.

Q13.With reference to above passage following assumptions have been made:

1. The objective of academic imperialism is to improve the quality of academics.
2. The objective of academic imperialism is to establish superiority of subjugator.
3. Academic imperialism functions as a system of control that perpetuates inequality.
Which of the assumptions are valid?
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All of the above

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Answer: B
Explanation:
Statements 2 and 3 can be the assumptions. Statement 1 can’t be assumptions. To understand
this, imagine can the assumption of India’s colonization by British can be to improve the quality
of live(s) of Indians or (in) India. Statements 2 and 3 can be the assumptions

Passage-3
We have heard a good deal in recent years about the declining importance of the two major
political parties. It is the mass media, we are told, that decide the outcome of elections, not the
power of the parties. But it is worth noting that no independent or third-party candidate has
won any important election in recent years, and in the last nationwide campaign, the two major
parties raised and spent more money than ever before in support of their candidates and
platforms. It seems clear that reports of the imminent demise of the two-party system are
premature at best.

Q14. With reference to above passage, following assumptions have been made:
A. The amount of money raised and spent by a political party is one valid criterion for judging
the influence of the party.
B. A significant increase in the number of third-party candidates would be evidence of a decline
in the importance of the two major parties.
C. The two-party system has contributed significantly to the stability of the American political
structure.
D. The mass media tend to favor an independent or third-party candidate over a candidate
from one of the two major parties.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The fact is that it is observed that two political parties have lost their importance to a great deal
and then the author argues that these two political parties have spent a great deal of money in
the campaigns... so it could be that these two parties have lost their importance is still at
premature stage. The author is assuming here that success / influence of the party is
determined by the amount of money spent. So option (a) is the best answer.

Q15. When we multiply a certain two-digit number by the sum of its digits, 405 is achieved. If
you multiply the number written in reverse order of the same digits by the sum of the digits, we
get 486. Find the number.
A. 81

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B. 45
C. 36
D. 54
Answer: B
Explanation:
Method - I
Using options is the best approach to solve the question :-
45 is the number , when multiplied by sum of its digits = 9
45 x 9 = 405
And 54 x 9 = 486
Method – II
Let the number be 10𝑥 + 𝑦 , sum of digits = (𝑥 + 𝑦)
So we get two equations
(10𝑥 + 𝑦)(𝑥 + 𝑦) = 405 & (10𝑦 + 𝑥)(𝑥 + 𝑦) = 486
Subtract the two equations :-
(𝑥 + 𝑦)(10𝑦 + 𝑥 − 10𝑥 − 𝑦) = 81
(𝑥 + 𝑦)(9𝑦 − 9𝑥) = 81
(𝑦 + 𝑥)(𝑦 − 𝑥) = 9
9 can be written as 1 x 9 & 3 x 3 ( we want 𝑥 & 𝑦 to be natural number )
Only 1 x 9 can satisfy the equation
𝑦+𝑥 =9 ; 𝑦−𝑥 =1
Solving these we get 𝑦 = 5 , 𝑥 = 4
So, number will be 10𝑥 + 𝑦 = 45

Q16. 450 litres of a mixture of milk and water contain the milk and water in the ratio 9 : 1 . How
much water should be added to get a new mixture containing milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1 ?
A. 54
B. 90
C. 45
D. 63
Answer: B
Explanation:

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In such questions we have to consider the quantity that remains constant.
9
Milk earlier = 10 × 45 = 405
After adding water quantity of milk remains same but ratio changes
3
So, 4 𝑜𝑓 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 405
405
New = 3
× 4 = 135 × 4 = 540
New quantity = 540
Old quantity = 450
So water added = 540 – 450 = 90 L

Q17. If ′𝑝′ be a prime number, then 𝑝2 + 1can not have its unit digit equal to
A. 3
B. 9
C. 7
D. all of these

Answer: D
Explanation:
p is a prime so its units digit can be :- 2 , 3 , 5 , 7 , 9 , 1
( as it can either be odd or if it is even then only 2 is possible )
Hence unit digit of 𝑝2 can be :- 4 , 9 , 5 , 9 , 1 , 1
(squaring all possible values of 𝑝 to find unit digit )
So 𝑝2 + 1 , unit digit can be (4 + 1), (9 + 1), (5 + 1), (1 + 1) = 5 , 0 , 6 , 2

Q18. A number when divided by 14 leaves a remainder of 8, but when the same number is
divided by 7, it will leave the remainder :
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1

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D. can’t be determined
Answer: C
Explanation:
14 is divisible by 7 .
So simply divide the remainder 8 by 7
Hence 8 / 7 , remainder = 1

Q19. The four digit smallest positive number which when divided by 4, 5, 6 or 7, it always leaves
the remainder as 3 :
A. 1000
B. 1257
C. 1263
D. 1683
Answer: C
Explanation:
Method 1 :- using options .
Method 2 :- LCM of 4 , 5 , 6 , 7 = 420
Now , smallest 4 digit number divisible by 4 , 5 , 6 , 7 = 420 x 3 = 1260
But we want remainder 3 .
So 1260 + 3 = 1263

Q20. A six digit number ‘abcabc’ such that a ,b,c ∈N then which is the most correct statement :
A. It is divisible by 91
B. It can be divided by 143
C. It is divisible by 6
D. Only (a) and (b) are correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
abcabc = abc x 1001
1001 is divisible by 7 , 11 , 13
So, (a) is correct (b) is correct (c) is incorrect
Hence , option (d)

Directions for following 3 items :-

Read the three passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer should be based on the
passages only

Passage 1 :-

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A new study suggests that thick crustal plugs and weakened mineral grains may explain a range
of relatively speedy moves among tectonic plates around the world, from Hawaii to East Timor.
Traditionally, scientists believed that all tectonic plates were pulled by subducting slabs—which
resulted from the colder, top boundary layer of the Earth's rocky surface becoming heavy and
sinking slowly into the deeper mantle. Yet that process does not account for sudden plate
shifts. Such abrupt movement requires that slabs detach from their plates, but doing this
quickly is difficult since the slabs should be too cold and stiff to detach. According to the study,
there are additional factors at work. Thick crust from continents or oceanic plateau is swept
into the subduction zone, plugging it up and prompting the slab to break off. The detachment
process is then accelerated when mineral grains in the necking slab start to shrink, causing the
slab to weaken rapidly. The result is tectonic plates that abruptly shift horizontally, or
continents suddenly bobbing up.

Q21. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Our understanding of the movement of tectonic plates is evolving.
2. Our planet is probably most distinctly marked by the fact that it has plate tectonics.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Assumption is an unstated or hidden fact which supports the conclusion or arguments made in
the passage. Statement 1 is a valid assumption. It is evident from the first two lines of the
passage which talks about thick crustal plugs and weakened mineral grains. Their effects, acting
together, may explain a range of relatively speedy moves among tectonic plates around the
world. These findings are in addition to what geophysicists traditionally believed. Thus, it can be
said that our understanding of the movement of tectonic plates is evolving and is in no way
perfect or complete. Statement 2 is invalid as the passage nowhere engages in a comparative
analysis with other planets

Passage 2 :-
Child labour has a direct impact on the economic development of a country. At the micro level,
child labour might increase the household income in the short run. However, in the long run it
might perpetuate household poverty as children sent to work do not acquire sufficient
education and skills, and miss the opportunity for enhancing productivity, thus compromising
on future earning capacity. Furthermore, child labour competes with the wages of the adults

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creating an environment of low wages and unemployment among adults, and affecting the
growth of the economy. A holistic child rights approach has to be adopted to address issues
such as prevention, development, protection and participation of children with a special focus
on girl children.

Q22. The above passage seems to imply that

1. Child labour leads to erosion of human capital accumulation.
2. Child labour can be a source of financial support to a household.
3. Child labour is less a phenomenon of poverty than that of social attitudes and sensibilities.
4. Child labour affects girls more than boys, fuelling long-term gender imbalances, only in
education though.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The passage says ―…in the long run it might perpetuate household
poverty as children sent to work do not acquire sufficient education, skills and miss the
opportunity for enhancing productivity... It implies that child labour will be an obstacle in
acquisition of skills, education and capacity building which would affect their productive
capacity and earning potential - that means adverse impact on human capital accumulation.
Statement 2 is also correct. It is evident from this line: ―At the micro level, child labour might
increase the household income in the short run. Hence, child labour can act as financial support
to a household, though momentarily. Statement 3 is incorrect as passage talks about the
economic impact of child labour. It does not say anything about people‘s attitude towards child
labour. Statement 4 is also incorrect. Last line of the passage underlines the need for special
focus on girl children. This can imply that a girl child suffers more due to prevalence of child
labour. However, this answer option talks about gender imbalances ONLY in the education
sector, which is incorrect. This imbalance can be in the economic and other social sectors as
well.

Passage 3 :-
Historians reckon that the two Asian giants, India and China, have had roughly equal economies
for much of their history. Only since the 1990s, when China began its daring, deep-seated
economic reforms, has it raced ahead. Its nominal GDP is now five times India‘s. If India were to

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sustain its GDP growth per person of 7%—about its average for the past two decades—to 2030,
it would barely have got to where China is today. And even that may prove ambitious.

Q23. The above passage seems to imply that

1. If India maintains GDP growth per person of 7% till 2030, it will be at par with the Chinese
economy in 2030.
2. The major reason for Indian economy lagging behind Chinese economy is the difference in
scale of economic reforms in the two countries.
3. India will not be able to overtake China in terms of GDP growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage states that even if India maintains 7% growth, by 2030 it
will only reach where China is today (2020); it would still be lagging behind the size of Chinese
economy of 2030. These projections are made based on the current growth rates of China and
India. Hence, it is incorrect to say that both economies would be at par with each other in 2030.
Statement 2 is correct. It is mentioned: ―India and China have had roughly equal economies
for much of their history. Only since the 1990s, when China began its daring, deep-seated
economic reforms, has it raced ahead. Its nominal GDP is now five times India‘s.‖ It implies that
China‘s economic reforms have been more widespread as compared to India. Hence,
widespread economic reforms in China are a major reason why its economy is much ahead of
India‘s. Statement 3 is incorrect. The passage says that a continuous 7% growth rate till 2030
may take India to the level where China is today, but achieving this growth level is also very
difficult. This does not mean that it is impossible for India to overtake China

Q24. fill in the blanks in this sequence that follows a certain pattern c_bba_cab_ac_ab_ac .
A. b, c, b, a, c
B. c, a, b, c, b
C. a, c, c, b, c
D. a, c, b, c, b
Answer: D
Explanation:
The sequence is made of 18 letters.
Thus it is likely that the pattern repeats itself after either 2 , 3 , 6 or 9 digits

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Thus the pattern in the sequence is “cabbac”.
Thus , we have to fill the blanks with a , c , b , c , b. option D
This can also be verified using options, which is an ideal approach in most of such questions.

Q25. A and B enter into a partnership for a year. A contributes Rs. 1500 and B Rs. 2000. After 4
months, they admit C, who contributes Rs. 2250. If B withdraws his contribution after 9 months,
how would they share a profit of Rs. 900 at the end of the year?
A. 200 , 300 , 400
B. 200 , 350 , 350
C. 300, 200 , 400
D. 300 , 300 , 300
Answer: D
Explanation:
A’s share : B’s share : C’s share = 1500 × 12 : 2000 × 9 : 2250 × 8 = 18000 : 18000 : 18000 = 1 : 1 :
1.
Thus, share is Rs. 300 each

Q26. Raja gives 30% of his salary to his mother, 40% of the remaining salary he invests in an
insurance scheme and PPF in the ratio of 4 : 3 and the remaining he keeps in his bank account.
If the difference between the amount he gives to his mother and that he invests in insurance
scheme is 8400, how much is Raja’s salary?
A. 60,000
B. 62,000
C. 64,000
D. 65,000
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Q27. If the length and breadth of a rectangle are changed by + 20% and − 10%. What is the
percentage change in perimeter of rectangle?
A. 8%
B. 10.8%
C. 20%
D. cannot be determined
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let 100 𝑙 = length and 100 𝑏 = breadth
Perimeter earlier = 2(100𝑙 + 100𝑏)
Perimeter now = 2(120𝑙 + 90𝑏)
2(20𝑙−10𝑏)
Percentage change = 2(100𝑙+100𝑏) × 100
This cannot be solved until we have value of 𝑙 & 𝑏.

Q28. In a class of 80 students 25 passed in maths and history, 25 passed in history and English,
20 passed in maths and English. 10 student passed in all the three subjects.
If no student failed in all three subjects, what is the total number of students who passed in
maths only, history only and English only?
A. 50
B. 30
C. 25
D. can’t be determined
Answer: B
Explanation:

20
maths english
10

10
15 15 25
0 failed 25 history
in all
three
Maths only history only English only = 80 – 10 – 10 – 15 – 15 = 30

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Q29. B is 3 years older than A and B is also 3 years younger than C. 3 years hence, the
respective ratio between the ages of A and C will be 4 : 5. What is the sum of the present ages
of A, B and C ?
A. 48 years
B. 56 years
C. 63 years
D. 72 years
Answer: D
Explanation:

Q30. The cost of tiling a rectangular room is Rs. 6,448 at the rate of 62 per square ft. The length
of the room is 6 ft less than the side of a square room whose area is 361 square ft. What is the
breadth of the rectangular room?
A. 8 ft
B. 13 ft
C. 7 ft
D. 9 ft
Answer: A
Explanation:

Directions for following 4items :-

Read the three passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer should be based on the
passages only

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Passage - 1
To prevent some conflicts of interest, the parliament could prohibit high-level government
officials from accepting positions as head of important institutions for three years after such
officials leave government service. One such official concluded, however, that such a
prohibition would be unfortunate because it would prevent high-level government officials
from earning a livelihood for three years.

Q31. With reference to above passage, following assumptions have been made:
A. Laws should not restrict the behavior of former government officials.
B. Head of government institutes are typically people who have previously been high-level
government officials.
C. Low-level government officials do not often become head of important institutions
when they leave government service.
D. High-level government officials who leave government service are capable of earning a
livelihood as heads of some important institutes.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect as it does not logically connect the argument of high ranking official. The
argument of the official is that high ranking officials will be deprived of their livelihood. This
means that he is of the opinion that these high ranking officials cannot earn their livelihood
otherwise and this is the only option that they have. Hence, option (d) is the best choice.

Passage – 2
People migrate from uncomfortable areas to comfortable areas. This is natural because
everyone wants to live in comfort. Before the coming of modern industry there were
agricultural societies everywhere, and India was a paradise for these because agriculture
requires level land, fertile soil, plenty of water for irrigation and so on, which were in
abundance in India. Why should anybody living in India migrate to, say, Afghanistan, which has
a harsh terrain, rocky and mountainous and covered with snow for several months in a year
when one cannot grow any crop? Hence, almost all immigrants and invasions came from
outside into India.

Q32. On the basis of above passage the following assumptions have been made:
1. There is not a single instance of migration from India to Afghanistan.
2. Search for a comfortable life is the sole push factor behind migration.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 only

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B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is an invalid assumption. The paragraph says, ―Why should anybody living in India
migrate to, say, Afghanistan, which has a harsh terrain, rocky and mountainous and covered
with snow for several months in a year when one cannot grow any crop? Author intends to
highlight the broader pattern of migration by mentioning the difficult lifestyle in Afghanistan.
This does not mean there is NO migration from India to Afghanistan AT ALL.
Statement 2 is also invalid. The passage begins by saying, ―People migrate from uncomfortable
areas to comfortable areas. Again, the author underlines the broader aspects of migration. This
does not mean search for a comfortable life is the ONLY reason why people migrate. There can
be other compelling reasons pushing/pulling people to leave their native place.

Q33. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?
A. Migration is a natural phenomenon that was once driven by bare necessities.
B. Geography of a region shapes the world view and attitude of people.
C. Majority of the people living in India are descendants of immigrants.
D. Pre-Dravidian aborigines, the ancestors of the contemporary tribes, were the original
inhabitants of India
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is correct. As per the passage – This is natural because everyone wants to live in
comfort. Before coming of modern industry there were agricultural societies everywhere, and
India was a paradise for these. It lets us to assume that migration is a natural phenomenon that
was once driven by bare necessities, e.g. food, water etc. Option B is incorrect. The passage
mentions that India was endowed with fertile soil, water and level fields that supported
agriculture. People did not feel the need to migrate. Also, most of the invasions were from
outside. But this does not mean that invading mentality did not develop among Indians. So, we
cannot say whether geography of a region has an impact on the world view and attitude of
people or not. Moreover, this inference regarding psychology will be rather far-fetched in
reference to the given passage. Option C is incorrect. The paragraph supports the fact that a
number of communities have migrated to India overtime, attracted by its favourable living
conditions. However, it doesn‘t support the fact that a majority of people living in India are
descendants of immigrants. Option D is incorrect. Paragraph doesn‘t touch upon any tribal or

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racial group as mentioned in this statement. Hence, this statement is beyond the scope of this
passage.

Passage – 3
The framers of the Indian Constitution have thought well in advance and ensured to provide
adequate and mandatory provisions in the Constitution of India to provide justice in all aspects
of life, equality in status, social security and economic/financial safeguards to the weaker
sections of the society. The successive governments have recognised the social and economic
imperatives for broader financial inclusion and have made significant policy changes from time
to time by finding innovative ways to bring the poor at par with the rest of the society. The
successive Governments in India have also made essential amendments to the constitution and
brought legislative framework to ensure social and economic safeguards to the deprived
sections of the society.

Q34. In the context of India, which of the following best reflects the critical message of the
passage?
A. Establishment of social justice is an unfinished agenda and government is working
continuously for it.
B. Considering the kind of diversity in India, the idea of social justice is an elusive dream for
the government.
C. Social justice cannot be implemented as the definition keeps on changing and
government has to make changes continuously.
D. Governments lack political will to implement strong policy initiatives to ensure social
justice in India.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The critical message of the passage is that the successive governments of India are working
continuously to establish social justice in India. As the things progressed, the governments are
making necessary changes well. Option (b) is incorrect as it says that we can’t establish social
justice in India (elusive dream). Option (c) is incorrect as it says that the definition of social
justice is changing. This is not correct. Option (d) is incorrect as there is no mention that
government lacks political will. So, option (a) is the best choice.

Q35. The questions below consist of a question followed by two statements labelled as (1) and
(2). You have to decide if these statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Question:- How many people heard my joke?

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Statement (1) I told the joke to 3 friends, each of whom repeated it to 4 friends who did not tell
anybody else.

Statement (2) No one heard the joke twice.

A. if statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.

B. if statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (1) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.

C. if you can get the answer from (1) and (2) together although neither statement by itself
suffices.

D. if statement (1) alone is sufficient and statement (2), too, alone is sufficient

Answer: C
Explanation:
It seems that only statement (1) is sufficient to give the answer but friends may be common.
Thus, statement (2) is necessary to eliminate the common persons. Thus, both the statements
are needed. Our answer is C.

Q36. Three CSAT classes A, B and C take a test. The average score of students of class A is 20.
The average score of students of class B is 24. The average score of class C is 36. The average
score of class A and B is 23 and the average score of class B and C is 30. Then the average score
of classes A, B and C is
A. 25.60
B. 26.24
C. 28.57
D. none of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
let students in classes A , B , C be x , y and z
so, average of A & B is 23
thus,
20𝑥 + 24𝑦
= 23
𝑥+𝑦
20𝑥 + 24 𝑦 = 23 𝑥 + 23 𝑦
3𝑥 = 𝑦
Similarly , for B and C

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 24𝑦 + 36𝑧
= 30
𝑦+𝑧
24𝑦 + 36𝑧 = 30 𝑦 + 30 𝑧
𝑦=𝑧
Thus ,3𝑥 = 𝑦 = 𝑧
20𝑥+24𝑦+36𝑧 20𝑥+24×3𝑥+36×3𝑥 20𝑥+72𝑥+108𝑥 200𝑥
Now for average of all 3 :- 𝑥+𝑦+𝑧
= = = = 28.57
𝑥+3𝑥+3𝑥 7𝑥 7𝑥

Q37. How many times are the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at right angles during
their motion from 1.00 p.m. to 10.00 p.m.?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 18
D. 16
Answer: D
Explanation:
The duration from 1.00 p.m. to 10.00 p.m. is 9 hours and during each of these 9 hours the
hands of the clock are at right angles twice. So, required number = 9 × 2 = 18
Subtract 2 , one for 2- 4 and other for 8 – 10. So 18 – 2 = 16.
Because between 2 , 4 clock makes right angle 3 times.
The right angle made by clock at 3:00 pm is common for both 2 – 3 and 3 – 4
Similarly between 8 , 10 clock makes right angle 3 times.
The right angle made by clock at 9:00 pm is common for both 8 – 9 and 9 – 10
Similar question has been asked in UPSC with respect to hands of clock coinciding each other
from 10:00 a.m. to 0 2:00 p.m.

Q38. Among A, B, C, D and E, E is taller than D but not as fat as D. C is taller than A but shorter
than B. A is fatter than D but not as fat as B. E is thinner than C who is thinner than D. E is
shorter than A. Who is the most thin person?
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. E
Answer: D
Explanation:
In these questions, two rankings; one related with height and another with the figure of
persons are given. On the basis of the given information, these are ranked in descending order
as below: Height B-C-А-E-D Figure B-A-D-C-E, person E is the most thin person

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Q39. consider the following including the Question and the statement:
P # Q means P is the father of Q
P + Q means P is the mother of Q
P – Q means P is the brother of Q
P * Q means P is the sister of Q
Question :- If A + B # C – D, then A is D’s ____________.
A. Sister
B. Grandfather
C. Grandmother
D. Father
Answer: C
Explanation:
A + B # C – D converts to A is the mother of B, B is the father of C, C is the brother of D. Thus, A
is D’s grandmother.

Q40. In each of the following questions, find the relationship that can definitely be deduced on
the basis of relations given. The symbols used to define the relationship are as follows.
@ means ‘greater than’
# means ‘less than’
$ means ‘not equal to’
% means ‘equal to’
If it is given that, 3 M % 2 N and N % 3 O, then:
A. O@M
B. M#O
C. 2O%M
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
3M%2N is 3M = 2N.
N%3O is N = 3O
From above two information
3M = 2(3O) so, M = 2O , this, M%2O.

Directions for following 3 items :-

Read the three passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer should be based on the
passages only

Passage – 1

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Leopards have become our shadows, our quasicompanion animals. They have no choice. The
two great leopard population centres, sub-Saharan Africa and the subcontinent of India, are
among the most populous regions in the world. Human expansion has already cost leopards an
estimated 66 percent of their range in Africa and 85 percent in Eurasia, with most of the loss
occurring over the past five decades. In many areas the only place left to survive is side by side
with humans.

Q41. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Humans and leopards are living side by side peacefully in Africa and Eurasia.
2. Humans are responsible for the habitat loss of leopards.
3. Leopards are found only in sub-Saharan Africa and the subcontinent of India.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage mentions, ―Leopards have become our shadows, our
quasicompanion animals. They have no choice. From these statements we can safely assume
that in Africa and Eurasia, Leopards and Humans are living side by side. But, there is no clarity
on whether they are living peacefully. In fact, the sentence ―They have no choice hints
otherwise. Statement 2 is correct. The passage mentions that human expansion has already
cost leopards an estimated 66 percent of their range in Africa and 85 percent in Eurasia. Hence,
humans are responsible for their habitat loss, due to which they have to now live side by side
with humans. Statement 3 is incorrect. The passage mentions that two great leopard
population centres are in subSaharan Africa and the subcontinent of India, but there can be
small populations of leopards in other regions as well. Hence, the assumption given in this
statement is incorrect.

Passage – 2
The balance between the rights of animals and their use in biomedical research is a delicate
issue with huge societal implications. The debate over whether and how scientists should use
animal models has been inflammatory, and the opposing viewpoints are difficult to reconcile
with. Many animal-rights activists call for nothing less than the total abolition of all research
involving animals. Conversely, many scientists insist that some experiments require the use of
animals and want to minimize regulation, arguing that it would impede their research.

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Q42. On the basis of above passage the following assumptions have been made:
1. In contemporary times, animal experimentation is an essential component of biomedical
research.
2. A significant portion of the laboratory animals used each year are involved not in research
but in testing.
3. The use of animals in biomedical research has enhanced scientific knowledge, and has
accrued benefits to human health.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is a valid assumption. The way animal rights activists and those advocating the use
of animals for scientific research are engaged in inflammatory debates makes it clear that as of
now animal experimentation is an essential component of biomedical research. It has been
objectively given in the statement that at present animals are essentially used in the
laboratories for research and testing purposes. Statement 2 is not a valid assumption. The
intent of the passage is not to distinguish between research and testing, so far as use of animals
in the biomedical industry is concerned. Author clearly mentions how animal rights activists are
against any form of involvement of animals in the industry. Statement 3 is a valid assumption.
The passage clearly indicates via the first and the last sentences that use of animals for
scientific purposes greatly helps in development of scientific knowledge having huge societal
implications.

Passage –3
India has successfully eliminated diseases like small pox, guineaworm, neonatal tetanus and
polio, and effectively controlled many communicable diseases like leprosy, malaria, filariasis,
kalaazar and progressing well towards ending tuberculosis by 2025. Deaths due to infectious
and communicable diseases have also been significantly reduced. The challenge is to overcome
the growing incidence of non-communicable and lifestyle diseases like cancer, diabetes, chronic
kidney diseases, cardiovascular diseases, chronic lung diseases and mental health disorders
etc., as well as to achieve the universal health coverage with indigenous, affordable and cost-
effective innovations.

Q43. Which of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference that can be
made from the passage given above?

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A. The causes of disease that we know today will change significantly in the coming decades.
B. The menace of disease and their treatment of going to be much bigger than what we have seen.
C. Lifestyle and non-communicable diseases will be more prevalent and more hard to eliminate.
D. Humanity will continuously suffer from one problem or another.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Options (b) is incorrect as they are comparing situations in small or big terms. This cannot be inferred
from the passage.
Option (a) is incorrect because we are not talking about change in causes of diseases in the passage.
Option (c) is correct because “growing incidence of non-communicable diseases ”
Option (d) is a very generalized statement and is not necessarily true as we have limited knowledge from
the passage. Option (c) presents the inference correctly.

Q44. A sum of money will double itself in 16 years at simple interest at an yearly rate of:-
A. 10.50%
B. 9.75%
C. 12.25
D. 6.25%
Answer: D
Explanation:
Initial amount = P
After 16 years amount = 2P
So, interest = 2P – P = P , after 16 years
𝑃𝑟16
Thus, =𝑃
100
100
𝑟= = 6.25%
16

Q45. A forester wants to plant 44 apple trees, 66 banana trees and 110 mango trees in equal
rows (in terms of number of trees). Also, he wants to make distinct rows of trees (i.e. only one
type of tree in one row). The number of rows (minimum) that are required are:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 10
D. 11
Answer: C
Explanation:
HCF ( 44 , 66 , 110) = 22
So, maximum 22 plants in each row

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So, number of rows = 44/22 + 66/22 + 110/22 = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10

Q46. There are statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III, IV. You have to take
the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts
and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the given statements
Statements:
(i) All Roses are Vegetables.
(ii) Some vegetables are flowers
Conclusion
I. Some Vegetables are Roses.
II. Some flowers are Roses.
III. Some Roses are Vegetables.
IV. All flowers being roses is a possibility
A. All conclusions follow.
B. Only I and II follow.
C. None of the conclusions follow.
D. Only I, III and IV follow.
Answer: D
Explanation:
All roses are vegetables so , some vegetables are roses .thus, I follows
Some flowers are roses is no necessarily true
Some Roses are Vegetables is true because all roses are vegetables
All flowers being rose is a possibility .

Q47. In how many ways can 7 Indians, 5 Pakistanis and 6 Dutch be seated in a row so that all
persons of the same nationality sit together?
A. 3!
B. 7!5!6!
C. 3!.7!.5!.6!
D. 182
Answer: C
Explanation:
We need to assume that the 7 Indians are 1 person, so also for the 6 Dutch and the 5 Pakistanis.
These 3 groups of people can be arranged amongst themselves in 3! ways. Also, within
themselves the 7 Indians the 6 Dutch and the 5 Pakistanis can be arranged in 7!, 6! And 5! ways
respectively. Thus, the answer is 3! × 7! × 6! × 5!.

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Q48. In how many ways five chocolates can be chosen from an unlimited number of Cadbury,
Five-star, and Perk chocolates?
A. 81
B. 243
C. 25
D. 125
Answer: B
Explanation:
For each selection there are 3 ways of doing it. Thus, there are a total of 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 243.
Hence, Option (b) is correct.

Q49. 4th April, 1988 was Monday. What day of the week was it on 6th November 1987?
A. Tuesday
B. Sunday
C. Friday
D. Saturday
Answer: C
Explanation:
Number of odd days between 6th November, 1987 and 4th April, 1988. = (30- 6) days of
November 1987 + 31 days of December 1987 + 31 days of January 1988+ 29 days of February
1988 + 31 days of March 1988 + 4 days of April 1988.
= {(30 - 6)+ 31} + (31+ 29+ 31+ 4) =24+ 31+ 31+ 29+ 31+ 4=150 = 21 weeks + 3 days = 3 odd days
So, 6th November, 1987 will be three days backward from Monday ..Required day is Friday.

Q50. What should be the values of 𝑎 and 𝑏 such that 1𝑎8𝑏 is divisible by 2, 3, 4, 6, 7 and 8?
A. a = 3, b = 5
B. a = 4, b =2
C. a = 6, b = 0
D. None of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
In order for 1a8b to be divisible by 2, b should be 2, 4, 6, 8 or 0.
Since, 1a 8b is divisible by 4, the number formed by the last two digits i.e. 8b should be divisible
by 4.
So, b must be 0, 4 or 8. Since, the number is 'divisible by 3 i.e. 9+ a + b should be divisible by 3.
As, 9 is already divisible by 3, you can say that (a + b) ought to be divisible by 3.

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So, the possible pairs of (a, b) are (3, 0), (6, 0), (9, 0), (2, 4),(5, 4), (8, 4), (1, 8), (4, 8) and (7, 8).
There is no need to check whether the number is divisible by 6, since any number divisible by
both 2 and 3 will be divisible by 6.
To be divisible by 8, the number formed by the last three digits i.e. a8b should be divisible by 8.
Of the above possible pairs, only the pairs (6, 0), (5, 4) and (4, 8) satisfy this criteria. (. 680, 584
and 488 are divisible by 8)
Now, substitute the above 3 pairs of a and b and see which of those is divisible by 7.
Hence, a = 6 and b = 0.

Directions for following 3 items :-

Read the three passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer should be based on the
passages only

Passage – 1
Clearly the development of a nation is intimately linked with understanding and application of
science and technology by its people. It has sometimes been argued that the application of
technology by itself can contribute to growth. This is certainly true as an abstract proposition,
but fails in practice. Witness the state of development and social structure of countries of the
Middle East, where for decades resources of oil have been exploited with the most
sophisticated technology. History has demonstrated that the real social and economic fruits of
technology go to those who apply them through understanding. Therefore a significant number
of citizens of every developing country must understand the ways of modern science and of the
technology that flows from it.

Q51. With reference to the above passage, which of the following can be inferred?
A. Countries of Middle East couldn’t use their national resources for their economic and social
development as they lacked understanding of technology.
B. Those countries where due attention is paid on research and development will be at the
forefront to lead the world.
C. Science and technology has been the bedrock of growth of civilization and those who lead in
science and technology lead the world.
D. Different countries choose different models of development and for this they use different
tools.

Answer: A
Explanation:

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Option (a) is the best choice as it captures the essence of the passage as highlighted by the
example of Middle East countries in the passage. Option (b) is incorrect as the focus of the
passage is use of resources in social and economic development and not the leadership of the
world. By the same logic, we can eliminate option c as well. Option (d) is a generalized
statement and cannot be inferred from the passage.

Passage 2
India has registered a sustained economic growth in the last few years. But it still faces a huge
economic loss due to poor hygiene and sanitation. Inadequate sanitation poses serious issues
for economic growth of the country by manifesting itself in the form of poor health, death,
losses in education and overall productivity and well-being of its people. According to the
World Bank, India loses 6.4 per cent of GDP annually because of this particular reason.
Perceiving this, the government of India has launched Swachh Bharat Mission on 15th August
2014, from the ramparts of the Red Fort and set a target to build a clean and open defecation
free India by 2019, the 150th birth anniversary year of Mahatma Gandhi, as a befitting tribute.

Q52. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the passage above?
A. Health is a right of an individual and the government is focusing on Swachh Bharat
Mission to implement the same.
B. Investment in health and wellness of an individual brings recurring benefits to the
economy.
C. In order to maintain economic growth and reduce losses to the GDP, investment in
health and sanitation is required.
D. Mahatma Gandhi wanted to make India clean and open defecation free and this is the
guiding principal of Swachh Bharat Mission.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect as it brings health as a right of an individual. The passage does not focus
on that. Option (b) is a close option, but it focusses on enhanced benefits of health of the
citizen for the economy. Option (c) is the correct answer as it infers from the passage itself. It
focusses maintaining growth and reducing losses to GDP as the primary reason for focusing on
Swachh Bharat Mission. Option (d) is incorrect as it focusses on Mahatma Gandhi’s vision more
than on anything else.

Q53. With reference to the above passage, following assumptions have been made:
1. Health of the citizens was neglected by the previous governments.
2. Health is the most important factor to increase productivity of people.

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Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement-1 is incorrect as we cannot assume that the previous governments didn’t attention
to health of citizens. Statement-2 is incorrect as health is an important factor but it cannot be
classified as the most important factor.

Q54. From the options given below, select which of the statement is correct :-
Given = (732)22 + (936)33 , then ,
i) 𝑥is divisible by 2
ii) 𝑥 is divisible by 3
iii) 𝑥 is divisible by 5
A. (i) and (ii) only
B. (i) and (iii) only
C. (ii) and (iii) only
D. (i) , (ii) and (iii)
Answer: D
Explanation:
𝑥 = (732)22 + (936)33
Since both terms are even thus their sum will also be even and thus divisible by 2
Since both terms are divisible by 3 because 7 + 3 + 2 = 12 & 9 + 3 + 6 = 18 ,
So their sum will also be divisible by 3
Unit digit of (732)22 + (936)33 = 22 + 6 = 4 + 6 = 10 . thus sum will be divisible by 5 .
So option D

Q55. Each item is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the
following instructions.
Is the natural number 𝑦 greater than 4?
A. 2𝑦 is a factor of 8
B. 24 is a factor of 𝑦
A. If the question can be answered by first statement (statement A) alone but not by the
second statement (statement B) alone.
B. If the question can be answered by second statement (statement B) alone but not by
the first statement (statement A) alone.

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C. If the question can be answered by using either statement alone, but cannot be
answered using the statements together.
D. If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
using either statement alone.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using statement A, factors of 8 = 8 , 4 , 2 , 1
So y can be 4 , 2 , 1 . Thus, y is not greater than 4 , hence the question can be answered
Using statement B, 24 is a factor of y , thus, Y can be 24 , 48 and so on…
Thus y is greater than 4 .hence the question can be answered. Using each statement alone but
cannot be answered using both statements together.

Q56. A rat runs 20m in certain direction and then turns to right, runs 10m then again turns to
right, runs 9m and then turns to left, runs 5m and then again turns to left, runs 12m and
finally turns to left and runs 6m, during this 6m he observed that he was running in the north
direction. In which direction was he initially running ?

A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

Answer: A

Explanation:
The movements of the rat from A to G are as shown in Figure.

The direction compass for this is like :-

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 E

N S

GF is the final direction which is north ,

He was running in AB direction initially , which is East direction.

Q57. A child is looking for his father. He went 90 metres in the East before turning to his right.
He went 20 metres before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle's place 30
metres from this point. His father was not there. From here he went 100 metres to the North
before meeting his father in a street How far did the son meet his father from the starting point
?
A. 80 metres
B. 100 metres
C. 140 metres
D. 260 metres
Answer: B
Explanation:

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58. Statement : Few shops on this road have neon lights, but they all have signboards.
Conclusions :
1. Some shops have either signboards or neon lights.
2. Some shops have both signboards and neon lights.
3. Some shops have no neon lights.
4. Some shops have no signboards.
The conclusion(s) correctly drawn is/are :
A. 1 alone
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 alone
D. 2 and 3
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Conclusion (1) is incorrect because all shops have signboards.
Conclusion (2) is correct because some shops may have both
Conclusion (3) is correct because few shops have neon lights which means that there are shops
who do not have neon lights
Conclusion (4) is incorrect because all have signboards

Q59. The questions below consist of a question followed by two statements labelled as (1) and
(2). You have to decide if these statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Question :-
What is the value of 𝑥 + 𝑦?
Statement - (1) 𝑥 – 2𝑦 = 5
Statement - (2) 𝑥 2 − 25 = 4𝑥𝑦 − 4𝑦 2
A. if statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
B. if statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (1) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
C. if you can get the answer from (1) and (2) together although neither statement by itself
suffices.
D. if you cannot get the answer from statements (1) and (2) together.
Answer: D
Explanation:
For two variables we need two statements
Solving statement 2
𝑥 2 − 25 = 4𝑥𝑦 − 4𝑦 2
𝑥 2 + (2𝑦)2 − 2(𝑥. 2𝑦) = (5)2
(𝑥 − 2𝑦)2 = (5)2
Thus, statement (1) and statement (2) will be the same
Hence, question cannot be solved .

Q60. The questions below consist of a question followed by two statements labelled as (1) and
(2). You have to decide if these statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Question :-𝑥 and 𝑦 are two natural numbers, Is 𝑥 greater than 𝑦?
Statement - (1) 𝑥 is a multiple of 𝑦.
𝑥 𝑦
Statement - (2) 6 = 3
A. If statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.

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B. If statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (1) alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
C. If you can get the answer from (1) and (2) together although neither statement by itself
suffices.
D. If you cannot get the answer from statements (1) and (2) together.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Using (1) :- If x is a multiple of y , it can be 𝑥 = 𝑦 × 1 . so,𝑥 can be equal to 𝑦 also and greater
than 𝑦 as well. Thus, we cannot answer.
𝑥 𝑦
Using (2) :- 6 = ⇒ 𝑥 = 2𝑦 .
3
Since 𝑥 & 𝑦 are natural numbers , for any value of 𝑦 , 𝑥 = 2𝑦 , thus 𝑥 > 𝑦
So , (B) is the answer

Directions for following 3 items :-

Read the three passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer should be based on the
passages only

Passage 1
We are in the midst of a significant transformation regarding the way we make products,
thanks to the digitisation of manufacturing. This transition is so compelling that it is being called
Industry 4.0 to represent the fourth revolution that has occurred in manufacturing. Industry 4.0
is signalling a change in the traditional manufacturing landscape. Also known as the Fourth
Industrial Revolution, Industry 4.0 encompasses three technological trends driving this
transformation: connectivity, intelligence and flexible automation. This automation creates a
manufacturing system whereby the machines in factories are augmented with wireless
connectivity and sensors to monitor and visualise an entire production process and make
autonomous decisions

Q61. With reference to the above passage, following assumptions have been made:
1. The idea of manufacturing is going to be very different from what we have understood so far.
2. The focus of manufacturing is to become automated and helps in customization through
intelligence.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as it captures the idea of the passage. Statement 2 is almost correct
except for the fact that also brings in customization as well. This is beyond the score of the
passage.

Passage 2
The pandemic has interestingly reconnected as well as alienated the world in a strange manner.
People are stuck wherever they are, and nations are trying to help each other in form of
vaccines, equipment, and aid. The enemy, this time, is common for the entire humanity. Given
the way, it is unpredictable, unforgiving, and mutating, there is no other way to come out of
this enormous situation unless equity, equality, and collective will is demonstrated by the
governments and nations across the world.

Q62. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the passage given above?
1. Most of the nations were caught off guard by the consequences of the pandemic.
2. Humanity has not seen more catastrophic occurrence than the pandemic.
3. Countries cannot fight the pandemic in isolation and they need to collaborate.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 Only
C. 2 and 3 Only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
It is clearly mentioned that the pandemic is unpredictable in nature and hence, statement-1 can
be inferred. Statement-2 cannot be inferred as we cannot infer that pandemic is the most
catastrophic. Statement-3 is something which is clearly suggested in the passage.

Passage 3
Water stress is being experienced across the world with increased spells of drought,
desertification, and inequitable access to water. Assured availability of potable water is vital for
human development. Sustainable Development Goal-6, of ensuring access to water and
sanitation for all, involves reaching to people who lack basic services and improving
accessibility. For water management to be sustainable, it has to be planned with a people
centric strategy that encourages and ensures their participation.

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Q63. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the passage given above?
1. Water stress/scarcity is primarily a man-made problem and it can be solved by consolidated
efforts of humanity.
2. Sustainable development goals will solve the issue of water stress as it has moral and legal
force.
3. People’s involvement in the water management planning will make plans more practical and
executable.
Select the best answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect as there is no reference of water scarcity being a man made problem in the
passage. Statement 2 is incorrect as there is no reference of legality of the sustainable development
goals. Statement 3 is the most logical and rational inference that we can draw

Q64. A question is asked followed by three statements. You have to study the question and all
the statements given and decide which information provided in the statement(s) is/are
sufficient to answer the question.
What will be the sum of the ages of father and the son after 5 yr?
I. Father's present age is twice son's present age.
II. After 10 yr, the ratio of father's age to the son's age will become 12: 7.
III. 5 yr ago, the difference between the father's age and son's age was equal to son's present
age.
A. I or II
B. I or III
C. II or III
D. Any two of the three
Answer: D
Explanation:

There are two variables and three distinct equation.

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We need only any two equations amongst them to find the variable. So, any two of the three

Q65. The question given below is followed by two statements numbered I and II. Decide
whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Give
answer accordingly:
Question: - Amongst five students A, B, C, D and E who got the maximum marks?
Statement I - D got more than A and C.
Statement II - B got less than E but more than D.
A. if the Statement I alone is sufficient to provide the answer
B. if the Statement Il alone is sufficient to provide the answer
C. if both the statements are required to provide the answer
D. if neither Statement I nor Il is sufficient to provide the answer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement I D> A and D> C but there is no information about other students. So, Statement I
alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Statement II :- E > B> D, again there is no
information about other students. So, Statement Il alone is also not sufficient to answer the
question. Combining the two statements, E>B>D> A and C, so E got the maximum marks.

Q66. The question given below is followed by two statements numbered I and II. Decide
whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Give
answer accordingly:
Question: - A toy was initially listed at a price to give the shopkeeper 20% profit of the
wholesale cost. What is the wholesale cost?
Statement I- After reducing the listed price by 10%, the toy sold for a profit of Rs. 10.
Statement II - The toy sold for Rs.50.
A. if the Statement I alone is sufficient to provide the answer
B. if the Statement Il alone is sufficient to provide the answer
C. if both the statements are required to provide the answer
D. if neither Statement I nor Il is sufficient to provide the answer
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Q67. I have 77 sweets and I want to distribute them equally among 24 students. After each of
the student got maximum integral sweets, how many sweets are left with me?
A. 8
B. 5
C. 1
D. None of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
we have to divide 77 by 24 = 16
So ,77 = (72 )3 × 7 = (49)3 × 7
So, divide (49)3 × 7 𝑏𝑦 16
Remainder = (1)3 × 7 = 7
Option (d) none of these

Q68. The question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the
following instructions.
Question :- A sum of Rs 215 is distributed among three persons A, B and C. Who gets the least?
Statement I :- A gets 2/3rd of what (B + C) are getting.
Statement II :- B gets 1/5th of what (A + C) are getting.
A. If the question can be answered by first statement (statement A) alone but not by the
second statement (statement B) alone.
B. If the question can be answered by second statement (statement B) alone but not by
the first statement (statement A) alone.
C. If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
D. If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
using either statement alone.
Answer: D
Explanation:
2 1
𝐴 = (𝐵 + 𝐶)& 𝐵 = (𝐴 + 𝐶)
3 5

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 3𝐴 = 2𝐵 + 2𝐶 & 5𝐵 = 𝐴 + 𝐶
𝐶 = 5𝐵 − 𝐴 𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝐼
3𝐴 = 2𝐵 + 10 𝐵 − 2𝐴
12
5𝐴 = 12 𝐵 , 𝑠𝑜 , 𝐴 = 𝐵
5
Thus 𝐴 > 𝐵
12 13 12
Now, 𝐶 = 5𝐵 − 𝐴 = 5𝐵 − 𝐵= 𝐵> 𝐵
5 5 5
So ,𝐶 > 𝐴 > 𝐵
Thus B gets the least hence option (d)

Q69. There are 5 members in a delegation which is to be sent abroad. The total no. of members
is 10. In how many ways can the selection be made so that a particular member is always
included.
A. 10𝐶1 × 9𝐶4
𝐵. 9𝐶4
𝐶. 9𝐶5
𝐷. 10𝐶1 × 9𝐶5

Answer: B
Explanation:
One member that has to be selected , keeping that member fixed. We are now left with 9
members out of whom we have to select 4 .so , 9𝐶4

Q70. A question is asked followed by three statements. You have to study the question and all
the statements given and decide whether any information provided in the statement(s) is/are
sufficient to answer the question.
What is a three-digit number having each digit different from the other?
I. Each of the digits of the given number is a multiple of 3.
II. The digit in the unit’s place is 50% less than that in the hundred’s place.
III. Sum of digits is 18.
A. All I, II and III
B. Only I and II
C. Only II and III
D. Question can’t be answered even with the information in all three statements.
Answer: B
Explanation:

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If we consider , II and III
Then we get two cases 693 and 684 .
Thus, option B will be our answer .

Directions for following 2items :-

Read the three passages and answer the items that follow. Your answer should be based on the
passages only

Passage :- 1
Terrorism has a very real and direct impact on human rights, with devastating consequences for
the enjoyment of the right to life, liberty and physical integrity of victims. In addition to these
individual costs, terrorism can destabilize governments, undermine civil society, jeopardize
peace and security, and threaten social and economic development. All of these also have a
real impact on the enjoyment of human rights.

Q71. The above passage implies that

1. The human cost of terrorism has been felt around the globe.
2. Governments around the world seem incapable to fight the menace of terrorism.
3. Measures adopted by States to counter terrorism have themselves often posed serious
challenges to human rights and the rule of law.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is a valid assumption. It is evident from the sentences like ―…direct impact on
human rights and ―…terrorism can destabilize Governments, undermine civil society,
jeopardize peace and security that the menace of terrorism is threatening the global peace and
its human cost is being felt around the globe. Statement 2 is an invalid assumption. It is
mentioned in the passage that terrorism has been destabilizing governments and undermining

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the civil societies, but nowhere it has touched upon the ability or inability of the government to
fight the menace of terrorism. Statement 3 is also an invalid assumption. Passage talks about
the impact of terrorism on human rights, global peace, functioning of governments etc. So,
whether counter-terror measures adopted by state infringe upon human rights and the rule of
law or not is beyond the scope of the passage.

Passage 2
Today human society stands at an important crossroad. The path that we take hereon will not
only determine our well-being but also that of the generations who will inhabit our planet after
us. The imbalances between our greed and necessities have led to grave ecological imbalances.
We can either accept this, go ahead with things as if it is business as usual, or we can take
corrective actions.

Q72. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by
the above passage?
A. To restore ecological balances, we will have to drastically change our lifestyle and live on
bare minimum necessities for a while.
B. Our greed has caused irreparable damage to the ecology.
C. The adverse impacts of climate change would be felt more acutely by our future
generations.
D. We need to restore the ecological imbalances by ensuring sustainable development.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect. The passage does mention about the need to change things in the
following statement, ―We can either accept this, go ahead with things as if it is business as
usual, or we can take corrective actions. Also, there is a mention about balance between greed
and necessities, but the author nowhere emphasizes that humans should live on bare
minimum‘. He only talks about doing away with our greed. Hence this statement is not the
crucial message the author wants to convey. Option B is incorrect. The last statement says,
―We can either accept this, go ahead with things as if it is business as usual, or we can take
CORRECTIVE actions. Hence, there is still a scope for repairing the ecology. It would be incorrect
to say that the damage is not repairable. Option C is incorrect. The passage says that the
actions we take would impact the wellbeing of future generations as well. There is no
comparative analysis of the impact of ecological imbalances across generations. Option D is
correct. The second statement in the passage mentions, ―The path that we take hereon will
not only determine our well-being but also that of the generations who will inhabit our planet
after us. This statement clearly emphasizes the need for sustainable development, which is
defined as, development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability

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of future generations to meet their own needs‘. Hence, option D is the most appropriate
message that is being conveyed by the passage.

Q73. The question is given followed by two statement I and II. Consider the question and
statements.
Question:
What is the average height of the class?
Statement (I)
Average height of the class decreases by 1 cm if we exclude the tallest person of the class
whose height is 56 cm.
Statement (II)
Average height of the class increases by 1 cm if we exclude the shortest person of the class
whose height is 42 cm.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above question and statements ?
A. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
C. Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question
D. Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
Answer: C
Explanation:

Q74. A, B, C, D, E and F are six persons who have to be

accommodated on three chairs and three benches
in such a way that E takes a chair, A and D sit on
the bench and C does not sit on the same type of
furniture as B and F sit. Who will occupy the
three chairs?

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A. E, B and C
B. F, B and D
C. E, B and F
D. E, C and F
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is given that 3 persons sit on chairs and 3 sit on benches. A and D sit on benches and B and F
sit on the same type of furniture, so B and F are on chairs. As it is given that C cannot sit on the
same type of furniture as B and F are sitting, so E, B and F will occupy the three chairs. If all the
given data is considered, then the seating arrangement can be as follows.
Chairs B F E
Benches A D C

Q75. If A”B means add B to A,

A’B implies subtract B from A,
A@ B implies divide A by B,
A*B means multiply A with B.
If a train travels with a speed of S1 from point A to B and returns with a speed of S2 .
The average speed will be represented using the above explained notations?
A. (2*S1”S2 )/(S1”S2 )
B. (2*S1 *S2 )/(S1”S2 )
C. (2*S1”S2 )/(S1 ’S2 )
D. (2*S1@S2 )/(S1 ’S2 )
Answer: B
Explanation:
We know that the formula for average speed is given by
2S1S2 /(S1 + S2 )
Hence the correct option is (b).

Q76. If M means greater than

N means equal to
O means not less than
P means less than
Q means not equal to
and R means not greater than
If yPz, zNa and aOx, then which of the following is true?
A. yMx
B. yPx

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C. yOx
D. none of these
Answer: D
Explanation:
yPz means that y is less than z and zNa means z = a.
and aOx means a is not less than x ,
means a ≥ x.
so , 𝑦 < 𝑧 = 𝑎 ≥ 𝑥
thu, we cannot define a relation between 𝑦 & 𝑥
So, Option (d) is correct.

Q77. If the code of 'ABSENT' is 'ZYHVMG', then code for 'PRESENT' is

A. KIHVHGM
B. KIVHVMG
C. KITMHMG
D. GKITYTL
Answer: B
Explanation:

Q78. If “KAMAL” Is written as “21413” then “MAHAL” can be written as :-

A. 48113
B. 41813
C. 41831
D. 38141
Answer: B
Explanation:

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Q79. Complete the following series :- 34, 18, 10, 6, 4,
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Each term is divided by 2 and then 1 is added .
Next term will be 4/2 = 2
2+1=3

Q80. The question has a main statement, followed by four statements labelled P, Q, R, and S. Choose the ordered
pair of statements, where the first statement implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent
with the main statement.
Statement :- 𝐼 𝑤𝑒𝑎𝑟 𝑎 𝑐𝑎𝑝 𝑒𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑦 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝐼 𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑦.
(P) I played.
(Q) I didn’t play.
(R) I wore a cap.
(S) I didn’t wear a cap.
A. QS
B. RP
C. SQ
D. PS
Answer: C
Explanation:
I wore a cap every time I play means that if I played then I play with a cap on.
Thus, If I didn’t wear a cap means , I was not playing because if I would’ve been playing then I
would’ve worn a cap.

2nd Floor, 45 Pusa Road, Opp. Metro Pillar 128, Karol Bagh, New Delhi-110005
Ph: 08062961200, 08062961201 | Email: [email protected]
So, SQ

2nd Floor, 45 Pusa Road, Opp. Metro Pillar 128, Karol Bagh, New Delhi-110005
Ph: 08062961200, 08062961201 | Email: [email protected]