LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2025-26

MOCK CLAT 25

TR ID.

(In Figures)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 120

1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader 10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy response Sheet.
has to be detached and taken by the 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for
candidates. shading the circles. Indicate only the most
2. In case of any discrepancy in the question appropriate answer by shading from the
booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for options provided. The answer circle should be
replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. shaded completely without leaving any space.
Do not use the previous OMR response Sheet 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected
for a fresh booklet so obtained. on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have
3. Candidates will not be given a second blank to take necessary precautions before marking
OMR response Sheet under any circumstance. the appropriate circle.
Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card
carefully. duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be to be produced at the time of Admission.
sought on the Questions Paper 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is not fold.
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate the space provided on the OMR response
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examination. provided on the OMR response Sheet.
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No.,
prosecuted. and sign in the space/column provided in the
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law attendance sheet.
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response
multiple Choice Questions. Sheet to the invigilator after the examination.
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks OMR response Sheet other than the details
will be deducted for every wrong answer or required and in the spaces provided for.
where candidates have marked more than one
response.
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CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-52 9
Legal Reasoning 53-84 15
Logical Reasoning 85-108 26
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 33

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SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): Young boys who are in our homes, our neighbourhoods, our classrooms, and out of whom
we expect the world are sensitive young people, dealing with emotions they find hard to grapple with. Do we
pause to read or listen or sing to them as they grow up? Are we "raising" them or are we failing them, if we do
not? As a teacher with nearly 18 years of experience in schools in Ranchi, Kolkata, and Delhi, I have taught boys
and girls from the age group of 11 to 17 years. I have seen generations transition from boys to men. The odyssey
of emotional growth is never easy.
My first challenge was in 1998, as an eager-eyed teacher stepping into a gallery of rowdy Class 11 students in a
school in Ranchi, where the boys rudely demanded my "introduction". They preferred to be taught in Hindi,
notwithstanding the fact that I was being paid to teach English. They, not me, ruled the classroom. My 23-year-
old self soon figured out that if one did not snatch their attention in the first five minutes, nothing would be
taught or learnt. The school principal, a former English teacher himself, understood my frustration and said,
"Madam, God has not created anybody without talent. You have, in your possession, a treasure from across the
world."
He meant the world of literature. A timeless route into young hearts and minds with the least hurdle appeared to
be poetry. Men going into war were known to carry poetry books with them. I hoped the "experiment" would
work. The sound of the words, the rhythm of the verses, and the lyricism of language (Urdu, Hindi or English)
did magically open pathways ― to libraries, to bookshops, to friends' bookshelves, or dusty gullies with second-
hand book or magazine stalls. Slowly, but surely, a few started striding into class with a poem or a song and read
it out or simply talk. A class could begin with a Jagjit Singh ghazal or a latest Euphoria hit, with the loud fists-
on-desk rhythm of back-benchers that can never be replicated. And on one occasion, a Class 5 boy sang 'Dashing
Through the Snow' in sun-beaten May.
The principal, who had served for years in a Sainik School, encouraged my efforts. He presented me with a tape
recorder to play music in class and the freedom to teach students a song or two in English. Though I spent just
two years in that school, the boys started reaching out whenever they found the time to sing a song, read aloud
a poem or nazm or talk about a film they had watched. The boys I taught nurtured a genuine love for Urdu
couplets or shayari, and some wrote in their spare time all this without any encouragement.
It was, however, the era of "tough love" which meant a reproach was believed to be the cure for most things.
Teachers and parents would tear down the efforts of these young boys with hurtful comments about how they
were only to win the attention of girls. It was no surprise then that we adults were always viewed with suspicion
and the boys had their own "secret societies". Then there was the usual complaint, "Teachers like girls more,
they are biased." Newspaper headlines screaming 'Girls outshine boys in the Board' were furnished as proof.
Confronting such allegations proved to be tricky. Given an opportunity to express their feelings without being
judged, these very same boys seemed more open to ideas or engagement.
1. What does the narrator imply about the emotional development of young boys?
(a) Boys naturally develop emotional maturity as they grow older.
(b) Boys struggle with emotions due to an inherent lack of emotional intelligence.
(c) Boys experience emotional turmoil that is often overlooked or misunderstood.
(d) Boys are emotionally resilient and require minimal guidance.
2. What role did poetry play in the narrator’s approach to teaching?
(a) It opened emotional and intellectual pathways for the students.
(b) It provided a disciplinary tool for managing the classroom.
(c) It helped the narrator conform to students' expectations.
(d) It distracted students from traditional academic learning.
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3. Which of the following best captures the narrator’s tone throughout the passage?
(a) Disillusioned and bitter (b) Reflective and empathetic
(c) Dismissive and ironic (d) Detached and analytical
4. Which of the following best reflects the author’s view on the impact of music and literature in classrooms?
(a) They serve as distractions from real academic goals.
(b) They are outdated methods with little relevance today.
(c) They should only be used as occasional rewards for good behavior.
(d) They are crucial tools for emotional and intellectual engagement.
5. What does the narrator suggest about traditional forms of discipline in schools during her early teaching years?
(a) They were effective in producing well-behaved, high-performing students.
(b) They were emotionally supportive but academically rigid.
(c) They often suppressed emotional growth and led to student distrust.
(d) They empowered students to form stronger bonds with teachers.
6. What does the word “odyssey” in the sentence “The odyssey of emotional growth is never easy” most likely
mean?
(a) A simple and linear path
(b) A long, complex, and transformative journey
(c) A dull and repetitive experience
(d) A predictable cycle of challenges
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): In August, a month after the emergency was declared, the sociologist Joe Elder was sent
by his fellow Quakers on a fact-finding mission to India. He met many people; JP’s followers, Congress
politicians and the prime minister. He found himself ‘decreasingly prone to condemn one side or the other’.JP
had erred in launching a mass movement without a cadre of disciplined, non-violent volunteers. His ideas had
‘struck many as naive, untested, or unconvincing’. His movement’s credibility was weakened by the presence
within it of extremists of left and right. On the other hand, the prime minister had clearly overreacted in imposing
the emergency. This had created fear in the minds of the people, and undermined the democratic process and
democratic institutions.
As Elder’s account suggests, the emergency was a script jointly authored by JP and Mrs. Gandhi. Both had
shown too little faith in representative institutions: JP by asking for the premature dismissal of elected
governments, Mrs. Gandhi by jailing legally elected members of Parliament and legislative assemblies. Neither
properly appreciated the role of the state in a modern democracy. JP wished simply for the state to disappear, for
the police and army to ‘disobey immoral orders’. On the other hand, Mrs. Gandhi sought to make the state’s
functionaries ultimately dependent on the will of a single person at the helm.
The clash was made poignant by the fact that the adversaries had once been friends, bound by ties of history and
tradition and by intimate personal relationships stretching across generations. One does not know how Mrs.
Gandhi felt about jailing JP. We do know that her staff had deeply ambivalent feelings. The prime minister’s
Information Adviser, H. Y. Sharada Prasad, was an old patriot and freedom-fighter himself. He had been jailed
in 1942, in the same Quit India campaign that first made JP a national figure. Unlike Joe Elder, he could not
bring himself to admit that the prime minister had overreacted. Yet, as he wrote to a friend, he grieved that a
man like JP, ‘at a moment of crucial ethical importance, decide[d] that RSS and CPM are more acceptable than
the Congress. This is an excursion in reasoning that I have not been able to understand, much less excuse. I can
only console myself with the thought that he would not have been so desperate if [his wife] Prabhavatiji had
been alive.’

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Also unhappy about JP’s incarceration was the economist P. N. Dhar, who had succeeded P. N. Haksar as the
prime minister’s principal secretary. He sent several emissaries to JP to see whether a conciliation could be
effected, with prisoners released and the emergency lifted, in time for the next parliamentary elections, due in
early 1976. The emissaries found JP willing to negotiate. A flood in his native Bihar had made him impatient to
go and work among the sufferers. Talk that his irresponsibility had caused the emergency had reached his ears.
He said he had no desire to revive the popular movement, but when elections were called would ask for a
combined front to oppose the Congress, and canvass for its candidates.
7. What does the narrator imply about Joe Elder’s overall assessment of the Emergency and the political actors
involved?
(a) Elder completely sympathized with JP’s ideological purity.
(b) Elder grew increasingly supportive of Mrs. Gandhi’s firm leadership.
(c) Elder recognized faults on both sides and adopted a more balanced view.
(d) Elder’s view remained consistently critical of the Emergency throughout.
8. What can be inferred about the nature of the Emergency from the perspective of P.N. Dhar?
(a) He sought a resolution that would end the Emergency amicably.
(b) He viewed JP’s incarceration as necessary and justified.
(c) He strongly supported Mrs. Gandhi’s hardline stance.
(d) He believed elections should be indefinitely postponed.
9. Which of the following best captures the narrator’s view on the Emergency’s origins?
(a) It was solely the result of authoritarian overreach by Mrs. Gandhi.
(b) It was a necessary action taken to preserve democratic order.
(c) It emerged from JP's idealistic, yet strategically flawed, movement.
(d) It was the result of failures on both sides to respect democratic institutions.
10. What does the phrase “bound by ties of history and tradition” in reference to JP and Mrs. Gandhi imply?
(a) They shared a legacy of enmity.
(b) They belonged to different ideological traditions.
(c) They had once shared close personal and political affiliations.
(d) They had both led opposing movements during independence.
11. Which of the following statements contains a grammatical error?
(a) JP had erred in launching a mass movement without a cadre of disciplined volunteers.
(b) She grieved that a man like JP decide that RSS and CPM are more acceptable.
(c) He said he had no desire to revive the popular movement.
(d) The emissaries found JP willing to negotiate.
12. What reasoning does the narrator suggest may have driven JP’s controversial political alliances?
(a) He believed the Congress party was no longer politically relevant.
(b) He prioritized defeating the Congress over ideological alignment.
(c) He viewed the RSS and CPM as morally superior to Congress.
(d) He was manipulated by his political emissaries into forming alliances.
Passage (Q.13-Q.18): At its peak, the “in love” experience is euphoric. We are emotionally obsessed with each
other. We go to sleep thinking of one another. When we rise that person is the first thought on our minds. We
long to be together. Spending time together is like playing in the anteroom of heaven. The person who is “in
love” has the illusion that his beloved is perfect. We have been led to believe that if we are really in love, it will
last forever. We will always have the wonderful feelings that we have at this moment.

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Unfortunately, the eternality of the “in love” experience is fiction, not fact. Dr. Dorothy Tennov, a psychologist,
has done long-range studies on the in-love phenomenon. After studying scores of couples, she concluded that
the average life span of a romantic obsession is two years. If it is a secretive love affair, it may last a little longer.
Eventually, however, we all descend from the clouds and plant our feet on earth again. Our eyes are opened, and
we see the warts of the other person.
The bad information was the idea that the “in love” obsession would last forever. We should have known better.
A casual observation should have taught us that if people remained obsessed, we would all be in serious trouble.
Why? Because people who are “in love” lose interest in other pursuits. That is why we call it “obsession.” Such
obsession gives us the false sense that our egocentric attitudes have been eradicated and we have become sort of
a Mother Teresa, willing to give anything for the benefit of our lover. The reason we can do that so freely is that
we sincerely believe that our lover feels the same way toward us.
Once the experience of falling in love has run its natural course (remember, the average in-love experience lasts
two years), we will return to the world of reality and begin to assert ourselves. He will express his desires, but
his desires will be different from hers. They are two individuals. Their minds have not melded together, and their
emotions mingled only briefly in the ocean of love. Now the waves of reality begin to separate them. They fall
out of love, and at that point either they withdraw, separate, divorce, and set off in search of a new in-love
experience.
Some researchers, among them psychiatrist M. Scott Peck and psychologist Dorothy Tennov, have concluded
that the in-love experience should not be called “love” at all. Dr. Tennov coined the word limerance for the in-
love experience in order to distinguish that experience from what she considers real love. Dr. Peck concludes
that the falling-in-love experience is not real love for three reasons. First, falling in love is not an act of the will
or a conscious choice. No matter how much we may want to fall in love, we cannot make it happen.
Second, falling in love is not real love because it is effortless. Whatever we do in the in-love state requires little
discipline or conscious effort on our part. Third, one who is “in love” is not genuinely interested in fostering the
personal growth of the other person. “If we have any purpose in mind when we fall in love it is to terminate our
own loneliness and perhaps ensure this result through marriage.”
13. What does the narrator suggest about the long-term sustainability of the “in love” experience?
(a) It is a permanent emotional state that evolves into deeper intimacy.
(b) It is a transient emotional obsession that eventually fades.
(c) It can be maintained indefinitely with mutual effort.
(d) It is only lost in cases of incompatible personalities.
14. What is the meaning of the word “illusion” as used in the sentence “The person who is ‘in love’ has the illusion
that his beloved is perfect”?
(a) Misconception (b) Dream (c) Fantasy (d) Lie
15. What does the narrator imply about society’s portrayal of romantic love?
(a) It rightly emphasizes the enduring nature of love.
(b) It promotes healthy expectations around intimacy.
(c) It misleads people into believing love is permanent euphoria.
(d) It discourages romantic attachment due to obsession risks.
16. Why does the narrator reference Mother Teresa in the context of being “in love”?
(a) To suggest that romantic love fosters genuine altruism.
(b) To illustrate how people mistakenly believe they are selfless in love.
(c) To highlight religious devotion as a model for romantic commitment.
(d) To show that love naturally leads to humanitarian behavior.
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17. According to the narrator, what is one major flaw in the idea that falling in love is real love?
(a) It relies too heavily on verbal communication.
(b) It distracts people from career and society.
(c) It is primarily based on physical attraction.
(d) It requires no conscious decision or personal discipline.
18. What can be inferred about the narrator’s perspective on relationships after the in-love phase ends?
(a) Most relationships strengthen through rational communication.
(b) Relationships must be constantly recharged through obsession.
(c) Couples often struggle when reality returns, and many separate.
(d) Relationships are sustained only through marriage and tradition.
Passage (Q.19-Q.24): We are led to forget the dominating misery of other times in part by the grace of literature,
poetry, romance, and legend, which celebrate those who lived well and forget those who lived in the silence of
poverty. The eras of misery have been mythologized and may even be remembered as golden ages of pastoral
simplicity. They were not.
Economists speak of a “lump fallacy” or “physical fallacy” in which a finite amount of wealth has existed since
the beginning of time, like a lode of gold, and people have been fighting over how to divide it up ever since.
Among the brainchildren of the Enlightenment is the realization that wealth is created. It is created primarily by
knowledge and cooperation: networks of people arrange matter into improbable but useful configurations and
combine the fruits of their ingenuity and labor. The corollary, just as radical, is that we can figure out how to
make more of it.
A millennium after the year 1 CE, the world was barely richer than it was at the time of Jesus. It took another
half-millennium for income to double. Some regions enjoyed spurts now and again, but they did not lead to
sustained, cumulative growth. Starting in the 19th century, the increments turned into leaps and bounds. Between
1820 and 1900, the world’s income tripled. It tripled again in a bit more than fifty years. It took only twenty-five
years for it to triple again, and another thirty-three years to triple yet another time. The Gross World Product
today has grown almost a hundredfold since the Industrial Revolution was in place in 1820, and almost two
hundredfold from the start of the Enlightenment in the 18th century.
The applied scientists would not have been motivated to apply their ingenuity to ease the pains of everyday life,
and their gadgets would have remained in their labs and garages, were it not for two other innovations. One was
the development of institutions that lubricated the exchange of goods, services, and ideas—the dynamic singled
out by Adam Smith as the generator of wealth. A lot of institutions have to be in place for these and the millions
of other anonymous transactions that make up a modern economy to be consummated so easily.
The third innovation, after science and institutions, was a change in values: an endorsement of what the economic
historian Deirdre McCloskey calls bourgeois virtue. Aristocratic, religious, and martial cultures have always
looked down on commerce as tawdry and venal. But in 18th-century England and the Netherlands, commerce
came to be seen as moral and uplifting.
John Rawls’s thought experiment for defining a just society: specify a world in which you would agree to be
incarnated as a random citizen from behind a veil of ignorance as to that citizen’s circumstances. A world with
a higher percentage of long-lived, healthy, well-fed, well-off people is a world in which one would prefer to play
the lottery of birth.
Most surprises in history are unpleasant surprises, but this news came as a pleasant shock even to the optimists.
In 2000 the United Nations laid out eight Millennium Development Goals, their starting lines backdated to 1990.
At the time, cynical observers of that underperforming organization dismissed the targets as aspirational

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boilerplate. Cut the global poverty rate in half, lifting a billion people out of poverty, in twenty-five years? Yeah,
yeah. But the world reached the goal five years ahead of schedule.
19. What does the author imply about the role of literature in our perception of historical misery?
(a) Literature documents both the glory and suffering of the past with equal balance.
(b) Literature exaggerates the material conditions of historical elites.
(c) Literature was only accessible to the wealthy and privileged in history.
(d) Literature distracts us from the widespread suffering of past eras.
20. What can be inferred from the author's reference to the Millennium Development Goals?
(a) They were widely considered achievable from the start.
(b) They were intentionally designed to be vague and unmeasurable.
(c) They were unexpectedly achieved early, showing progress in global poverty reduction.
(d) They failed to make a measurable impact despite international effort.
21. What does the author view as the most significant insight of the Enlightenment regarding wealth?
(a) That wealth can be created through knowledge and cooperation.
(b) That wealth is finite and must be redistributed fairly.
(c) That poverty is a permanent feature of all societies.
(d) That gold and physical assets are the only reliable sources of wealth.
22. Which of the following best explains the author’s use of the phrase “anonymous transactions that make up a
modern economy”?
(a) To emphasize the lack of personal engagement in economic activity
(b) To illustrate how institutional frameworks enable widespread commerce
(c) To criticize the impersonality of modern economic systems
(d) To explain why commerce has become less efficient in modern times
23. The word “mythologized” in the sentence “The eras of misery have been mythologized…” most nearly means:
(a) Idealized (b) Overanalyzed (c) Debunked (d) Historicized
24. According to the passage, what was the role of changing social values in economic progress?
(a) They reduced interest in aristocratic and religious life.
(b) They led to increased agricultural production.
(c) They legitimized commerce and entrepreneurship as morally acceptable.
(d) They replaced science as the main driver of innovation.

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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Directions (Q.25-Q.52): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.30): Gene editing enables precise changes to the DNA of living organisms using engineered
enzymes, especially nucleases. The breakthrough CRISPR-Cas9 system, discovered in 2012, revolutionized gene
editing by allowing targeted DNA modifications with high precision and efficiency. Unlike earlier tools like zinc
finger nucleases (ZFNs) and TALENs, which relied on complex protein-DNA interactions, CRISPR-Cas9 uses
RNA to guide the Cas9 enzyme to specific DNA sites, making it easier to design and more versatile.
CRISPR was derived from a bacterial immune system and functions through guide RNAs that direct the Cas9
enzyme to make double-stranded cuts in DNA, allowing the removal or insertion of specific sequences. Later,
Cpf-1 emerged as a variant with certain advantages, such as producing staggered cuts and requiring only one
guide RNA.
Gene editing has wide applications—from creating genetically modified crops and animals to treating diseases
in animal models. It has also enabled the removal of HIV from cells and corrected genetic errors in diseased
mice.
However, the technology has raised significant ethical and social concerns, especially regarding human use.
Debates intensified after reports of gene-editing experiments on human embryos and the 2018 announcement of
the first gene-edited babies in China, edited to resist HIV. These developments sparked global discussions about
the risks, regulation, and future of human genetic engineering.
25. What is the main function of the Cas9 enzyme in the CRISPR system?
(a) To repair protein structures
(b) To replicate RNA
(c) To cut double-stranded DNA at targeted locations
(d) To bind to ribosomes for protein synthesis
26. What does DNA stand for?
(a) Deoxyribonucleic Acid (b) Dynamic Nucleus Arrangement
(c) Double Nucleic Algorithm (d) Deoxynuclear Atom
27. What guides the Cas9 enzyme to the right spot on the DNA?
(a) A laser beam (b) A protein marker
(c) A strand of guide RNA (d) A magnetic field
28. Why was the discovery of Cpf-1 considered an advancement over Cas9?
(a) It works only in bacteria.
(b) It requires no guide RNA.
(c) It allows for staggered DNA cuts and greater control.
(d) It replaces the need for CRISPR.
29. What is the primary goal of gene editing?
(a) To enhance desirable traits like hair or eye color in organisms
(b) To change human fingerprints
(c) To make specific changes in the DNA of organisms
(d) To copy DNA exactly as it is
30. According to the passage, what prompted a renewed ethical debate about human gene editing?
(a) Discovery of plant gene mutation.
(b) Use of CRISPR to make glow-in-the-dark animals.

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(c) Announcement of the birth of gene-edited babies in China.

(d) Use of gene editing to cure cancer.
Passage (Q.31-Q.36): True development goes beyond economic growth—it includes empowerment, inclusion,
and dignity. Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) embody this vision by reserving 33–50% of seats for women,
ensuring their political representation at the grassroots. However, a key challenge persists: proxy leadership,
where male relatives dominate the roles of elected women sarpanches.
This issue stems from patriarchal norms, limited education, lack of institutional support, and weak training
systems. While male involvement is framed as assistance, it often sidelines women's authority. The case of
Chhavi Rajawat, India’s first MBA sarpanch, showcases the potential of true female leadership. Her election
through a reserved seat in 2010 and re-election on a general seat in 2015 highlights what is possible when women
are empowered—but her story remains rare.
To address this, structured capacity-building programs are essential. A successful model in Jharkhand trained
panchayat leaders in planning, budgeting, digital skills, and conflict resolution—including AI tools like
ChatGPT. Such training should be mandatory and continue quarterly for at least two years post-election.
To support independent leadership, women sarpanches should receive smartphones, transport facilities, and
technical aides. Whistleblower mechanisms can help curb proxy practices, provided they include safeguards.
Adding government officials to panchayat WhatsApp groups can enhance real-time accountability and support.
"Reforms must ensure better pay, education, tech access, and support so women sarpanches lead independently—
addressing healthcare, education, and welfare, and transforming PRIs into engines of real, inclusive governance."
31. Which of the following best describes 'proxy leadership' as discussed in the passage?
(a) Appointment of male sarpanches in place of women
(b) Delegating responsibilities to trained staff
(c) Male relatives exercising control over elected women leaders
(d) Women leaders operating without institutional support
32. Which real-life example illustrates successful women leadership in local governance?
(a) Chhavi Rajawat’s MBA degree and international seminars
(b) Droupadi Murmu's presidential election campaign
(c) Chhavi Rajawat’s election and re-election as sarpanch
(d) Indira Gandhi’s national leadership during the Emergency
33. What measure is proposed to reduce dependency on male family members in governance?
(a) Reducing the number of panchayat meetings
(b) Providing women leaders with smartphones and technical aides
(c) Cancelling women’s seat reservations
(d) Increasing election campaigning duration
34. According to the passage, what specific area of focus is expected to increase when women sarpanches lead
independently in PRIs?
(a) Foreign aid to rural India (b) Education, healthcare, and welfare
(c) Urban migration rates (d) Rural tax collection
35. What constitutional mechanism primarily supports the political participation of women in Panchayati Raj
Institutions?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy (b) Article 243D of the Constitution
(c) Article 370 of the Constitution (d) Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution

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36. Which constitutional value is most closely promoted by women’s participation in local governance?
(a) Liberty (b) Fraternity (c) Equality (d) Sovereignty
Passage (Q.37-Q.42): The United States' H-1B visa program, which allows companies to hire skilled foreign
professionals in fields like technology, engineering, and healthcare, has once again become the subject of
political scrutiny. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), under the Trump administration,
has warned employers against illegal hiring practices that discriminate against American workers in favor of
foreign labor. According to EEOC’s acting chair Andrea Lucas, such practices violate Title VII of federal law,
contributing not only to the displacement of domestic workers but also to what she calls the abuse of the U.S.
legal immigration system.
Lucas emphasized that many companies allegedly prefer visa holders and migrant workers due to factors such
as lower wage expectations, perceived compliance, and fewer demands regarding labor rights. These practices
have led to lawsuits, such as the one against Meta Platforms, which is accused of systematically favoring visa
holders to cut costs. The EEOC’s firm stance has raised concerns within the immigrant community, especially
among Indian professionals, who have historically accounted for over 70% of H-1B visas issued.
Both the Trump and Biden administrations have sought to reform the H-1B system, raising wage thresholds and
increasing employer accountability. While critics argue these steps protect American jobs, industry experts warn
of unintended consequences. Jidesh Kumar, a corporate law expert, underscores the U.S. economy’s heavy
reliance on foreign talent for innovation. He cautions that tighter regulations may deter global talent, pushing
professionals toward more welcoming destinations like Canada or the UK.
Meanwhile, research from the American Immigration Council counters the narrative that H-1B workers undercut
American labor, noting that these workers are typically paid well above the national average. In 2021, the median
salary for H-1B holders was $108,000, compared to $45,760 for all U.S. workers. For the U.S. to maintain its
global edge in innovation and technology, experts argue that it must strike a balance between protecting domestic
workers and attracting top international talent.
37. According to the passage, what is one of the EEOC’s key concerns regarding the H-1B visa program?
(a) The decline in the number of visas granted to foreign nationals
(b) Illegal favoritism towards American workers by large corporations
(c) Discriminatory hiring practices that sideline American workers
(d) Lack of skilled American workers in technology fields
38. Which international organization regulates migration and employment standards across countries, including fair
treatment of migrant workers?
(a) WTO (b) UNDP (c) ILO (d) WHO
39. Under Indian foreign policy and diaspora strategy, what is a major concern when the U.S. tightens H-1B visa
regulations?
(a) Increase in illegal immigration to the U.S.
(b) Brain drain to European countries
(c) Reduced remittances and opportunities for skilled Indians
(d) Collapse of Indian outsourcing industry
40. How might increased regulation of the H-1B visa program affect the U.S. economy, according to experts in the
passage?
(a) It will lead to a decline in foreign direct investment
(b) It could cause a shortage of workers in unskilled sectors
(c) It may drive top global talent to countries like Canada or the UK
(d) It will reduce healthcare costs in the U.S.
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41. Which of the following real-world examples is cited to illustrate concerns about bias in hiring practices?
(a) Google's AI hiring experiment
(b) Meta Platforms' lawsuit over visa-based hiring bias
(c) HCL Technologies' expansion in India
(d) IBM’s H-1B workforce reduction
42. In the context of the Indian Constitution, which Article guarantees equality before law and equal protection of
laws?
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15 (c) Article 19 (d) Article 21
Passage (Q.43-Q.47): The Jan Vishwas Bill 2.0, introduced by the Union government, aims to address the
problem of over-criminalization in India by decriminalizing minor infractions and reforming outdated laws. It
builds on the limited impact of Jan Vishwas 1.0, which relied on voluntary surrender of penal provisions by civil
servants—an approach that yielded little change. A state-level extension, Jan Vishwas 3.0, is planned to further
improve governance and reduce arbitrary enforcement.
A report by the Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy reveals that 370 out of 882 central laws carry criminal provisions,
totaling over 7,300 offences, many unrelated to core criminal laws. Trivial actions—like milking cows on streets
or neglecting to exercise pet dogs—are criminalized, leading to misuse of authority and disproportionate
penalties. For example, failing to maintain records under the Mental Healthcare Act invites the same penalty as
unauthorized brain surgery.
This legal overload disproportionately affects the poor and uneducated, with 75% of prison inmates being
undertrials and over 3.5 crore cases pending. The Vidhi report advocates for rationalization based on harm
prevention, necessity, and proportionality. Jan Vishwas 2.0 thus aims to create a more restorative, just, and
citizen-friendly legal framework, The Jan Vishwas initiative seeks the Madhyam Marg vital for building Viksit
Bharat by 2047.
43. What is the significance of the high number of undertrial prisoners and pending cases mentioned in the passage?
(a) It shows the efficiency of the criminal justice system
(b) It suggests that crimes are increasing rapidly in India
(c) It reflects the burden caused by over-criminalization
(d) It indicates a rise in cybercrime
44. What does the phrase "Madhyam Marg" most likely mean in the context of the passage?
(a) Extreme punitive justice (b) A digital governance model
(c) A balanced and moderate approach (d) Abandonment of all criminal laws
45. Which constitutional principle is best supported by the decriminalization effort of Jan Vishwas 2.0?
(a) Article 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences
(b) Article 21 – Right to life and personal liberty
(c) Article 22 – Protection against arbitrary arrest
(d) Article 32 – Right to constitutional remedies
46. The criminalization of seemingly trivial actions, as highlighted by the Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy, suggests
that India's existing legal framework is often:
(a) Highly adaptive to evolving societal norms.
(b) Overly expansive and susceptible to discretionary application.
(c) Primarily focused on maintaining strict social order.
(d) Insufficient in addressing complex contemporary issues.

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47. While aiming for a "citizen-friendly legal framework," Jan Vishwas 2.0's reforms are implicitly designed to
particularly alleviate the burden on which segment of the population?
(a) Large corporations and foreign investors.
(b) Law enforcement agencies and the judiciary.
(c) Economically disadvantaged and educationally vulnerable individuals.
(d) Civil servants responsible for implementing penal provisions.
Passage (Q.48-Q.52): The resignation of Manipur Chief Minister N. Biren Singh marks a critical turning point
in the state’s protracted political and ethnic crisis. For nearly two years, violent clashes between the majority
Meitei community and the Kuki-Zomi tribal groups have devastated the state. These clashes, rooted in
contentious issues such as land rights, forest policies, and the Meitei community's demand for Scheduled Tribe
status, have tragically claimed over 220 lives and displaced tens of thousands, creating a volatile environment
for governance.
Singh's departure came amid mounting internal dissent within the BJP-led National Democratic Alliance (NDA)
and intensified legal scrutiny. The immediate trigger was the Congress party’s plan for a no-confidence motion,
signaling eroding political consensus. Dissent grew among BJP allies, with warnings to the central leadership
that the government’s survival was precarious without a change in leadership.
The crisis deepened significantly when, on November 17, seven MLAs from the National People’s Party (NPP)
formally withdrew their support. NPP national president Conrad Sangma explicitly cited the state government's
failure to control escalating violence and restore normalcy, describing the situation as a complete breakdown of
law and order.
Simultaneously, the Supreme Court ordered an investigation into leaked audio tapes allegedly implicating Chief
Minister Singh in the ethnic violence. This legal development, combined with visible defection—only 20 of 46
NDA MLAs attending a recent meeting—conclusively signaled the crumbling of his political base. The situation
transcends mere leadership failure, exposing a deeper constitutional crisis where law and order, coalition
cohesion, and public accountability intersect. Singh’s resignation, while pre-empting further instability, starkly
illuminates the fragile underpinnings of democratic legitimacy in conflict-hit regions.
48. What role did the Supreme Court play in the recent political developments in Manipur?
(a) It ordered the arrest of the Chief Minister
(b) It banned ethnic parties from contesting elections
(c) It examined leaked audio tapes allegedly implicating Biren Singh in violence
(d) It declared the state assembly elections null and void
49. Which of the following best describes the reason for dissent among BJP allies and internal MLAs in Manipur?
(a) Economic recession in the region
(b) Mishandling of ethnic violence and failure to restore order
(c) Rising unemployment among youth
(d) Interference by central government in local governance
50. Under the Indian Constitution, if a state government loses majority due to withdrawal of support by coalition
partners, what is the next constitutional step?
(a) Chief Minister remains until the next election
(b) The Governor may recommend President’s Rule
(c) The Chief Minister is automatically removed by the Prime Minister
(d) The Speaker takes over as interim CM

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51. A no-confidence motion can be moved in a state legislative assembly only if:
(a) The Speaker allows it after consulting the Governor
(b) It is supported by at least 50% of the opposition
(c) It has the backing of a minimum number of MLAs as per House rules
(d) The Chief Minister consents to the motion
52. Which political party officially withdrew support from the Biren Singh-led government, worsening the political
crisis?
(a) Janata Dal (United) (b) Naga People’s Front
(c) Indian National Congress (d) National People’s Party (NPP)

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SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING

Directions (Q.53-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.53-Q.56): Supreme Court judge Justice Abhay S. Oka reflected on how hate speech in India,
particularly targeting religious and caste minorities, is being weaponised for political gains. Justice Oka
emphasised that Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression, a right
intrinsically tied to Article 21's guarantee of life with dignity. Its scope is wide enough to include criticism.
However, this right is not absolute. Under Article 19(2), the State can impose reasonable restrictions on grounds
such as public order, decency, morality, and the sovereignty and integrity of India. Hate speech often crosses
this line of freedom guaranteed to them and undermines the right to live with dignity of those targeted-making
Articles 19 and 21 interdependent in such contexts.
Section 196 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023: Whoever by words, either spoken or written, or by
signs or by visible representations or through electronic communication or otherwise, promotes or attempts to
promote, on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, caste or community or any other
ground whatsoever, disharmony or feelings of enmity, hatred or ill-will between different religious, racial,
language or regional groups or castes or communities.
Section 299 of the BNS: Whoever, with deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings of
any class of citizens of India, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs or by visible representations or
through electronic means or otherwise, insults or attempts to insult the religion or the religious beliefs of that
class.
Section 79 of the BNS: Whoever, intending to insult the modesty of any woman, utters any words, makes any
sound or gesture, or exhibits any object in any form, intending that such word or sound shall be heard, or that
such gesture or object shall be seen, by such woman, or intrudes upon the privacy of such woman.
Section 152 BNS (previously Section 124A IPC of Sedition): Whoever, purposely or knowingly, by words,
either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or by electronic communication or by use of
financial mean, or otherwise, excites or attempts to excite, secession or armed rebellion or subversive activities,
or encourages feelings of separatist activities or endangers sovereignty or unity and integrity of India; or indulges
in or commits any such act.
53. A public figure, during a televised political rally, stated: “The real threat to this nation comes from people of X
religion who pretend to be loyal but are planning to destroy our culture from within. If we don’t act now actively
against the said religion, our civilization will be wiped out in ten years.” The statement was met with massive
applause from the crowd. A complaint was filed under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita by a follower of X religion.
In court, the speaker argued that the statement was an exercise of his right under Article 19(1)(a) to freely criticize
and express concern. Based on the legal principles above, which of the following is the most accurate legal
position?
(a) The statement is protected under Article 19(1)(a) as political speech, and cannot be penalized unless violence
directly followed.
(b) The statement may attract liability under Section 299 for outraging religious feelings, and under Article
19(2), such speech can be restricted.
(c) The statement is valid criticism and protected speech under Article 19(1)(a), as it targets ideology, not
religion.
(d) The statement may only be restricted under Section 152 BNS, since it mentions threat to civilization, which
endangers national unity, not religious harmony.
54. Samar, a popular vlogger and social commentator, uploads a YouTube video titled “Why the Northeast Needs a
New Political Identity”. In the video, he says: “For decades, the people of the Northeast have been ignored by
Delhi. Our language, our culture, and our economic needs are treated as peripheral. Maybe it’s time we stop
calling ourselves Indian and demand a referendum to decide whether we want to remain in this broken Union at
all.” He further adds: “We need a Northeast for Northeasterners. Peacefully, yes—but outside the rule of those
who have never respected us.” The video goes viral, sparking online campaigns using the hashtag

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#ReferendumNow and a few campus protests demanding regional autonomy. The Central Government files a
case against Samar under Section 152 of the BNS, claiming that his speech endangers national unity and
promotes secessionist sentiments. Samar defends himself, stating that he was merely expressing political
dissatisfaction and suggesting a democratic solution. Decide.
(a) Samar is not liable because he called for peaceful discourse and did not incite violence or armed rebellion.
(b) Samar is liable under Section 152 because his speech attempted to excite separatist sentiment and challenged
India's unity and sovereignty.
(c) Samar is not liable because expressing dissatisfaction with governance is a protected form of free speech
under Article 19(1)(a).
(d) Samar is liable only if protests turn violent, showing actual threat to sovereignty.
55. Which of the following statements can be correctly inferred from the passage?
i. Hate speech may not only violate statutory criminal provisions but also infringe fundamental rights of others
under Article 21.
ii. The State can penalize hate speech only when it incites immediate violence or physical harm.
iii. Even non-violent expressions may be constitutionally restricted if they promote enmity or harm public order.
iv. Freedom of expression under Article 19(1)(a) automatically overrides penal laws such as Sections 196 and
299 of the BNS.
v. Article 19(1)(a) and Article 21 can sometimes be in tension when one person’s speech undermines another’s
dignity.
(a) Only (i), (iii), and (v) are correct (b) Only (ii), (iv), and (v) are correct
(c) Only (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct (d) Only (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct
56. Rehan, a stand-up comic, makes a joke during a show: “In our country, one religion gets VIP treatment—while
others are treated like second-class citizens. Maybe we should pray differently to get subsidies.” He faces
backlash, and a complaint is filed under Section 299 BNS. Rehan argues it’s satire and doesn’t intend to hurt
religious sentiments. Is Rehan liable?
(a) Yes, because the joke insults religious beliefs with malicious intent.
(b) No, because satire is always protected under Article 19(1)(a).
(c) Yes, but only if the religion is clearly named.
(d) No, because intention to outrage must be proven beyond reasonable doubt.
Passage (Q.57-Q.60): Lok Adalats are extempore Courts created as per the requirement of the people of a
particular area. Camps of Lok Adalat were started initially in Gujarat in March 1982 and now they have been
extended throughout the country. The evolution of this movement was a part of the strategy to relieve heavy
burden on the Courts with pending cases. The reason to create such camps was only to dispose of the pending
cases and to give relief to the litigants who were in a queue to get justice. The seekers of justice are in millions
and it is becoming rather difficult for the Courts to cope up with the ever-increasing cases with the present
infrastructure and manpower. Lok Adalats are organized with financial assistance by the government and
monitored by the judiciary. Lok Adalats have set Conciliation process in motion in India. In Lok Adalat,
voluntary efforts are aimed at bringing about settlement of disputes between the parties through conciliatory and
persuasive efforts, and provide speedy and inexpensive justice. Lok Adalat’s power is limited to voluntary
settlements. Members of Lok Adalats act as Conciliators. Lok Adalats have assumed statutory recognition under
the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
Section 19 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 provides for organisation of Lok Adalats. The section
lays down that every State Authority or District Authority or the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee or
every High Court Legal Services Committee or, as the case may be, Taluk Legal Services Committee may
organise Lok Adalats at such intervals and places and for exercising such jurisdiction and for such areas as it
thinks fit.
The section further provides that every Lok Adalat organised for an area shall consist of such number of-
(a) serving or retired judicial officers; and
(b) other persons,

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of the area as may be specified by the State Authority or the District Authority or the Supreme Court Legal
Services Committee or the High Court Legal Services Committee, or as the case may be, the Taluk Legal
Services Committee, organising such Lok Adalat.
Sub-section (5) of section 19 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 lays down that a Lok Adalat shall have
jurisdiction to determine and to arrive at a compromise or settlement between the parties to a dispute and not to
adjudicate based on evidence or unilaterally decide the case in respect of-
(i) any case pending before; or
(ii) any matter which is falling within the jurisdiction of, and is not brought before, any court for which the Lok
Adalat is organised:
Provided that the Lok Adalat shall have no jurisdiction in respect of any case or matter relating to an offence not
compoundable under any law.
Section 21 of the Legal Services Authorities Act lays down that every award of the Lok Adalat shall be deemed
to be a decree of a civil court or, as the case may be, an order of any other court and where a compromise or
settlement has been arrived at, by a Lok Adalat in a case referred to it under section 20(1), the court-fee paid in
such case shall be refunded in the manner provided under the Court Fees Act, 1870.
Every award made by a Lok Adalat shall be final and binding on all the parties to the dispute, and no appeal
shall lie to any court against the award, unless fraud or coercion is proven.
(Source-http://student.manupatra.com/Academic/Abk/Arbitration-and-
ADR/Introductory.htm#What%20is%20statutory%20Arbitration?)
57. Ravi and Deepa, a married couple, are locked in a property dispute over a jointly owned apartment. Ravi files a
civil suit in the District Court claiming sole ownership. Before the matter proceeds, the judge refers the matter
to a Lok Adalat. There, conciliators suggest a mutual settlement: Ravi keeps the flat and pays Deepa ₹25 lakh as
compensation. Deepa agrees, and the Lok Adalat passes an award accordingly. However, after 2 months, Ravi
regrets the decision and files a writ petition in the High Court to nullify the award, alleging undue pressure during
the conciliation process. Can Ravi get the award set aside?
(a) Yes, because Lok Adalats do not function as regular courts and cannot pass binding awards.
(b) No, because Lok Adalat awards are deemed decrees of civil courts and are final and binding unless fraud or
coercion is proven and not merely alleged.
(c) Yes, because consent given under pressure, even in Lok Adalat, is voidable and automatically invalidates
the award.
(d) No, because the award is treated as a High Court judgment once accepted by both parties.
58. During a Lok Adalat camp in Maharashtra, several pending motor accident compensation cases were taken up.
In one such case, the insurer disagreed with the settlement amount and refused to sign the agreement, but the
claimant insisted on proceeding. The Lok Adalat panel proceeded to pass an award in favor of the claimant based
on the evidence and arguments already submitted. Was the award validly passed?
(a) No, because the District Authority do not have jurisdiction to decide the case if even one party disagrees.
(b) Yes, because Lok Adalats can independently evaluate and pass awards based on fairness and public interest.
(c) Yes, because the award was in line with the evidence, and one party’s absence does not negate justice.
(d) No, because both parties must voluntarily consent for a settlement to be valid in Lok Adalat.
59. In 2024, a Lok Adalat was organised by the High Court Legal Services Committee in Delhi to resolve disputes
including cheque bounce cases under Section 138 of the NI Act, family disputes, and civil property disputes.
Among the listed cases was one under Section 307 IPC (Attempt to murder, a non-compoundable offence),
referred by mistake. Can this Section 307 IPC matter be decided by the Lok Adalat?
(a) Yes, because Lok Adalats have jurisdiction over any matter referred to them.
(b) No, because Section 307 IPC is a non-compoundable offence and thus outside Lok Adalat jurisdiction.
(c) Yes, but only if the accused and victim both agree to the settlement.
(d) No, because High Court Legal Services Committee has no power to organize Lok Adalats on criminal
matters.

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60. Arun and Bhaskar are neighbours involved in a long-standing boundary dispute. No case has been filed in court.
However, both approach a Lok Adalat camp voluntarily and request assistance in settling the matter. The Lok
Adalat organizes a conciliatory session and helps them reach an agreement. The terms are written down and
signed by both parties.
Separately, in another matter, Preeti has already filed a cheque bounce case against her tenant in a magistrate’s
court. The case is still pending. It is also referred to the Lok Adalat, but only Preeti attends and agrees to a
proposed amount. The tenant neither appears nor consents. The Lok Adalat issues an award in Preeti’s favour.
Which of the following is correct as per Section 19(5) of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987?
(a) Both awards are valid as they deal with disputes either pending before or not brought before courts.
(b) Only Preeti’s award is valid, as her matter was already pending before a court and the Lok Adalat had
jurisdiction.
(c) Neither award is valid, as Lok Adalats cannot handle civil disputes or cheque bounce cases.
(d) Only Arun and Bhaskar’s award is valid, since the matter was not yet before a court and both parties
consented.
Passage (Q.61-Q.64): The High Court stands at the head of a State’s judicial administration. There are 25 High
Courts in the country, three having jurisdiction over more than one State. Among the Union Territories, Delhi,
and Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh have a High Court of their own. Other five Union
Territories come under the jurisdiction of different High Courts. Each High Court comprises a Chief Justice and
such other Judges as the President may, from time to time, appoint. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed
by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the State. The procedure for
appointing puisne Judges is the same except that the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned is also consulted.
Judges in the High Court hold office until the age of 62 years and are removable in the same manner as a Judge
of the Supreme Court. To be eligible for appointment as a High Court Judge one must be a citizen of India Fulfil
at least one of the following two criteria:
o Clause (a): Must have held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least 10 years, or
o Clause (b): Must have been an advocate in a High Court (or multiple High Courts in succession) for at least
10 years.
Explanation to clause (a): If someone has served as a judicial officer, and later worked as an advocate of a High
Court, or a tribunal member, or held any post under the Union or State requiring special knowledge of law—
then all such periods are counted together toward the 10-year requirement.
Each High Court has power to issue to any person within its jurisdiction directions, orders, or writs including
writs which are in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari for
enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose. This power may also be exercised by any High
Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to territories within which the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises
for exercise of such power, notwithstanding that the seat of such Government or authority or residence of such
person is not within those territories.
Each High Court has powers of superintendence over all Courts within its jurisdiction. It can call for returns
from such Courts, make and issue general rules and prescribe forms to regulate their practice and proceedings
and determine the manner and form in which book entries and accounts shall be kept.
There is also an Advocate General for each State appointed by the Governor, who holds office during the pleasure
of the Governor. An Advocate General must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the High Court.
His duty is to give advice to State Governments upon such legal matters and to perform such other duties of legal
character, as may be referred or assigned to him by the Governor. The Advocate General has the right to speak
and take part in the proceedings of the State Legislature without the right to vote.
(Source- https://www.sci.gov.in/jurisdiction/)
61. A petition was filed challenging the appointment of a person as the Advocate General of State X. The petitioner
claimed that the appointee, though a distinguished professor of law, had never practiced in any High Court nor
held any judicial office. The State government defended its decision, stating that the person was highly qualified
in constitutional law. Further, during an Assembly session, the appointee gave legal advice on a contentious bill

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and participated in discussions on it, opposing the government’s stance. The Speaker ordered his removal from
the Assembly on grounds of overreach. Examine the claims below:
i. The appointment is valid because the Advocate General need only be legally knowledgeable and chosen at
the Governor’s pleasure.
ii. The appointment is invalid because the person does not meet the qualification required for being a High
Court judge.
iii. The Advocate General has the right to participate in Assembly proceedings, but not to vote.
iv. The Speaker was correct in removing the Advocate General as he spoke against the government’s position.
Options:
(a) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (b) Only (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct (d) Only (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct
62. A PIL was filed before the Supreme Court challenging the jurisdiction of the High Court of State A to issue a
writ of habeas corpus for a person illegally detained by a State police unit in Territory B. The detaining police
was headquartered in State A, and the cause of illegal detention partly arose there. The petitioner argued that
since the person was not detained within State A, its High Court had no jurisdiction. Decide the correctness of
the following statements:
i. The High Court of State A has no jurisdiction because the person is not within its geographical limits.
ii. The High Court of State A has jurisdiction because part of the cause of action arose within its territory.
iii. High Courts cannot issue writs unless the person affected is physically present within the state.
iv. High Court’s writ jurisdiction can extend beyond state lines if cause of action arises even partly within the
state.
Options:
(a) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct (b) Only (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv) are correct (d) Only (i) and (iv) are correct
63. An RTI activist challenged the appointment of Mr. Sinha as a High Court Judge, alleging that he had only
practiced for six years in a High Court and lacked the eligibility to be appointed. The government defended the
appointment stating that Mr. Sinha had also served in a judicial office for eight years. The activist responded that
the minimum requirement is ten years of practice as an advocate and the judicial experience cannot substitute
that. Decide.
(a) Mr. Sinha is ineligible because he hasn’t practiced for ten years as an advocate of a High Court nor he has
an experience of a judicial office for ten years.
(b) Mr. Sinha is ineligible because the passage mentions the requirement must be fulfilled in succession only
through advocacy.
(c) Mr. Sinha is eligible because of his cumulative experience in both judicial office and in advocacy.
(d) Mr. Sinha is eligible only if the Chief Justice of India also recommends his name.
64. Assertion (a): Lower courts are bound by the precedents set by higher courts in the same jurisdiction.
Reason (R): When the Supreme Court (SC) makes a decision, and all lower courts are obligated to follow it, this
is known as stare decisis.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Passage (Q.65-Q.68): The law of theft represents one of the most fundamental protections of property rights in
any legal system, evolving from ancient prohibitions against stealing to a nuanced framework that addresses
various forms of unlawful appropriation in modern society.
Section 303(1) defines the basic offense of theft as follows: "Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any
movable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property in order
to such taking, is said to commit theft."

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The definition contains four key elements that must be established to constitute theft:
o Dishonest Intention: The taking must be done with dishonest intent.
o Movable Property: The subject of theft must be movable property.
o Without Consent: The taking must be without the consent of the person in possession.
o Movement of Property: There must be movement of the property to accomplish the taking.
Property attached to the earth is not considered movable and thus cannot be the subject of theft. However, once
severed from the earth, it becomes movable property capable of being stolen. Another scenario which would
amount to theft is, inducing another's dog to follow by using bait, with dishonest intent, constitutes theft once
the dog begins to follow. Driving another's bullock carrying treasure constitutes theft of the treasure once the
bullock begins to move. A servant entrusted with property who dishonestly takes it without consent commits
theft. Taking property not in anyone's possession is not theft but may constitute criminal misappropriation.
65. During the annual Yule Ball preparations at Hogwarts, Draco Malfoy sneaked into Professor Sprout’s
greenhouse and used a Severing Charm to detach several rare Gillyweed plants rooted in the earth. Without
Professor Sprout’s knowledge or permission, he handed the Gillyweed over to Blaise Zabini, who planned to
sell it in Knockturn Alley. However, before they could leave Hogwarts grounds, Filch caught them. Draco argues
that since the plants were rooted and belonged to Hogwarts, it cannot amount to theft. Can Draco be held liable
for theft under Section 303(1)?
(a) Yes, because once Draco severed the plants from the earth, they became movable property, and his dishonest
intent makes it theft.
(b) No, because property attached to the earth cannot be stolen, and it was rooted at the time of entry.
(c) Yes, because dishonest intention while removing school property makes it theft.
(d) No, because Draco did not move the plants himself after severing them, so the movement element is not
satisfied.
66. Continuing from the previous incident, Blaise Zabini, who had received the Gillyweed from Draco, stored it in
a Slytherin dorm trunk overnight. Later that night, Neville Longbottom used a secret password (overheard from
Seamus) to enter the dormitory and took the Gillyweed without Blaise’s knowledge, knowing it rightfully
belonged to Professor Sprout. He intended to return it the next morning and kept it in his herbology kit. The
trunk was magically locked and was Blaise’s personal possession. Did Neville commit theft by taking the
Gillyweed from Blaise’s trunk?
(a) Yes, because Blaise had possession over the movable property, and Neville took it without consent.
(b) No, because Neville lacked dishonest intention and planned to return the item to its rightful owner.
(c) Yes, because dishonest intention can be inferred from unauthorized access to someone else’s locked trunk.
(d) No, because the Gillyweed was originally Professor Sprout’s and never belonged to Blaise, thus there was
no unlawful taking from a rightful possessor.
67. When Professor McGonagall discovered the series of events, she summoned both Neville and Blaise for inquiry.
Meanwhile, Peeves the Poltergeist, upon hearing of the commotion, became fixated on obtaining Bertie Bott’s
Every Flavour Beans that were in a pouch carried by Hagrid’s trained Niffler. Knowing the creature’s attraction
to shiny things, Peeves mischievously tossed a gold coin to lure the Niffler—who had been guarding the pouch
for Professor Dumbledore—into the Forbidden Forest. As the Niffler began following the coin, the pouch
dislodged and was later picked up by a passing centaur. The entire incident was recorded on the Marauder’s
Map. Can Peeves be held liable for theft under Section 303(1)?
(a) Yes, because he induced movement of property (via the Niffler) with dishonest intent to obtain the beans,
even if the Niffler dropped the bag later.
(b) No, because he neither directly handled the pouch nor intended to permanently deprive Dumbledore of it.
(c) Yes, because dishonest inducement of the Niffler is sufficient to constitute theft.
(d) No, because the pouch was dropped before Peeves could take possession, so the movement was incomplete.
68. Later, Hagrid discovered the bag in the hands of the centaur, Firenze, who stated he had found it abandoned in
the forest and decided to keep it. Firenze had no knowledge of the prior events and assumed it was lost property.
However, after learning it belonged to Dumbledore, he still refused to return it, claiming forest finds are sacred
under centaur customs. Can Firenze be held liable for theft under Section 303(1)?
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(a) Yes, because dishonest refusal to return known lost property constitutes theft.
(b) No, because at the time of taking he had no knowledge of the prior events.
(c) No, because theft only applies when property is taken from someone’s possession, and this was found lying
unattended.
(d) Yes, because after learning about the true owner, continued possession shows dishonest intent and fulfills
the definition of theft.
Passage (Q.69-Q.74): According to Indian Contract Act, 1872 "Offer is defined under Section 2(a): "When one
person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the
assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a Proposal". The person who is making the
proposal is called offeror or promisor or proposer and the person to whom the proposal is made is called as
offeree or promisee.
Offer must be communicated: Communication of offer is the most primary thing which is to be done for a valid
offer. The offeror must communicate the offer to the offeree. The communication can be either in oral or written
form. The offer can be communicated directly to the specific person to whom it is made, or it can be general in
nature. In the case of Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt, the Allahabad High Court held that knowledge of the proposal
and communication of acceptance are essential elements for the formation of a valid contract. A person can claim
the reward only if they are aware of the offer, consent to it, and perform its terms.
Offer must create a legal obligation: A valid offer creates a legal relationship, which means there must be an
intention on the part of the offeror to be legally bound, not merely to fulfill a social obligation.
Definite, unambiguous and certain in nature: Offer must be certain as specified, it must be unambiguous means
that the thing offered must be clearly specified.
It must be distinguished from invitation to offer: The offer makes a person enter into a legally binding contract
whereas invitation to otter invites the person to enter into the contract.
It may be general or specific in nature: An offer can be made either to the public at large or to a specific
individual.
69. Ravi tells his friend Sameer casually, “I might be interested in buying your cousin Anil’s Royal Enfield. But I
won’t pay more than ₹1.2 lakhs for it.” Sameer, assuming Ravi is serious, goes and tells Anil that Ravi is ready
to buy the bike in ₹1.2 lakhs. Anil gets the sale agreement drafted, quoting ₹1.2 lakhs. He sends the signed papers
to Ravi, expecting the payment. However, Ravi refuses, saying, “I never made any offer to Anil. I only said I
might be interested”. Is there any valid offer in the given case?
(a) Yes, it is a valid offer because Ravi expressed a clear price and interest in the purchase, and Anil acted upon
that by drafting the agreement, which implies acceptance.
(b) No, it is not a valid offer because Ravi did not put his intention in writing or sign any document, which is
required for a valid offer.
(c) Yes, it is a valid offer because even though Ravi did not speak to Anil directly, his intention was conveyed
through Sameer, making it a valid offer.
(d) No, it is not a valid offer because Ravi never made any offer to Anil but only said that he might be interested
in buying Anil’s Royal Enfield.
70. The Delhi Police issued a public notice offering a reward of ₹50,000 to anyone who provides credible
information about a missing child. The notice was published in major newspapers and posted online. Rahul, a
local shopkeeper, happened to find the child wandering near his shop and, without knowing about the reward
notice, took the child to the police station as a humanitarian act. A few days later, Rahul came to know about the
reward and approached the police to claim it. The police denied the reward stating that the deadline to claim had
passed. Decide whether Rahul is eligible for the reward price of ₹50,000 for finding and bringing the missing
child to the police station or not.
(a) Rahul is eligible for the reward price of ₹50,000 for finding and bringing the missing child to the police
station because the Delhi Police issued a public notice offering such reward.
(b) Rahul is eligible for the reward price of ₹50,000 for finding and bringing the missing child to the police
station because he must be encouraged to fulfill a humanitarian act even without knowledge of reward.

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(c) Rahul is not eligible for the reward price of ₹50,000 for finding and bringing the missing child to the police
station because Rahul had no knowledge of the proposal at the time he performed the act.
(d) Rahul is not eligible for the reward price of ₹50,000 for finding and bringing the missing child to the police
station because Rahul came to know about the reward later when the deadline to claim had passed.
71. Which of the following is not an essential in regard to the definition of Offer as provided under Section 2 (a) of
Indian Contract Act, 1972?
(a) Purpose must not be to obtain Assent. (b) Expression of willingness is essential.
(c) Can be to do or not to do something. (d) Communication to another person.
72. In which of the following example the person will not be said to make a ‘Valid’ Offer?
(a) Ramesh, who runs a wholesale grocery store in Jaipur, offers in writing to supply 200 kg of sugar to Sunil,
a retail shop owner, at ₹35/kg, with delivery promised in 3 days.
(b) Priya invites her friend Meera over dinner saying, “Come to my place tomorrow at 8 PM, I’ll cook your
favourite biryani.” Meera agrees, but Priya cancels at the last moment.
(c) An e-commerce website displays a product with a "Buy Now" button and clear pricing. Rohit places an order
and makes payment.
(d) Amit, the director of a publishing company, sends a formal offer letter to Neha, stating that she is selected
as Assistant Editor with a monthly salary of ₹45,000, subject to her joining within 10 days.
73. Ritika, a boutique owner in Lucknow, casually tells Raj, her regular fabric supplier: “I might buy some of your
best cloth material for a decent price if I like the designs next week.” Raj prepares a bulk consignment of high-
quality fabric expecting a large order. The following week, Ritika visits Raj’s store, examines the cloth, and
refuses to purchase. She states: “I don’t like the material at that price. I can get similar stuff for cheaper in
Hyderabad.” However, Raj claims that she cannot backout now since she made a valid offer for bulk consignment
last week only. Decide whether Ritika can deny buying the material from Raj or not.
(a) Ritika can deny buying the material from Raj because she did not like the material at that price and can get
similar stuff for cheaper in Hyderabad.
(b) Ritika cannot deny buying the material from Raj because she made a valid offer for bulk consignment last
week only.
(c) Ritika can deny buying the material from Raj because she casually said that she might buy some of his best
material for a decent price if she likes the design.
(d) Ritika cannot deny buying the material from Raj because he has prepared a bulk consignment of high-quality
fabric expecting a large order.
74. In accordance to the passage, decide which of the following correctly states the difference between Offer and
Invitation to Offer?
(a) An offer cannot be revoked once made, but an invitation to offer can never be revoked.
(b) An offer leads to a contract upon acceptance, whereas an invitation to offer is merely a preliminary
communication inviting others to make offers.
(c) Both offer and invitation to offer are the same, as they equally bind both parties once communicated.
(d) An invitation to offer becomes binding once communicated, while an offer becomes binding only after
discussion.
Passage (Q.75-Q.80): MakeMyTrip claimed that its registered trade marks ‘MakeMyTrip’ and ‘MMT’ were
being used as keywords in the Google Ads Program for displaying the links/ads of its competitor ‘Booking.com’,
which amounted to violation of its trade mark. The Delhi High Court in the impugned Judgment has held that
the use of trade marks as keywords in the absence of any confusion would not infringe on the trade mark.
Section 29 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, deals with the infringement of registered trademarks. It outlines the
circumstances under which a person's use of a mark is considered an infringement upon a registered trademark.
Essentially, it defines when someone is using a mark in a way that violates the rights of the registered trademark
owner. However, non-commercial use of a mark (e.g., academic or parody) is often protected under freedom of
speech and is outside the scope of infringement.
Key aspects of Section 29:
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I. Infringement by Identity or Similarity:

A registered trademark is infringed when someone uses a mark that is identical or deceptively similar to the
registered mark, in relation to the same or similar goods or services.
II. Likelihood of Confusion:
The use of the infringing mark must be likely to cause confusion among the public or lead to an association
with the registered trademark.
III. Use in the Course of Trade:
The infringing use must be in the course of trade, meaning it's connected to the sale or supply of goods or
services.
IV. Not a Permitted User:
The person using the mark must not be the registered proprietor or someone authorized to use the mark (a
permitted user).
The Court held that merely using a registered trade mark as a keyword in online advertising (Google Ads) does
not amount to infringement unless it causes consumer confusion. In this case, Booking.com’s ads were clearly
distinguishable and did not mislead users into believing they were associated with MakeMyTrip. The Court
applied the "likelihood of confusion" test, which is central to trade mark infringement cases.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Supreme Court dismisses MakeMyTrip’s plea against Google in
Keyword trade mark infringement case”, by Apoorva, SCC Online].
75. Nyakaa, a popular cosmetics and beauty products platform, alleged that its registered trade marks ‘Nyakaa’ and
‘Nyakaa Luxe’ were being used as keywords in the Google Ads Program to display promotional links for its
rival Purplle.com. Nyakaa claimed that whenever users searched for "Nyakaa" on Google, ads for Purplle
appeared at the top of the search results page, thereby diverting consumer traffic and violating its trademark
rights under the Trade Marks Act, 1999. However, Purplle claims that there was no intent to deceive or exploit
by diverting consumer traffic of Nyakaa. Decide whether Purplle can be held liable for violation of trademark
rights of Nyakaa under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 or not in accordance to the Delhi High Court judgment.
(a) Purplle can be held liable for violation of trademark rights of Nyakaa under the Trade Marks Act, 1999
because whenever users searched for "Nyakaa" on Google, ads for Purplle appeared at the top of the search
results page, thereby diverting consumer traffic.
(b) Purplle cannot be held liable for violation of trademark rights of Nyakaa under the Trade Marks Act, 1999
because there was no intent to deceive or exploit by diverting consumer traffic of Nyakaa.
(c) Purplle can be held liable for violation of trademark rights of Nyakaa under the Trade Marks Act, 1999
because it is one of such circumstances under which a person's use of a mark is considered an infringement
upon a registered trademark.
(d) Purplle cannot be held liable for violation of trademark rights of Nyakaa under the Trade Marks Act, 1999
because mere use of a registered trade mark as a keyword in online advertising, without any element of
confusion, does not amount to infringement.
76. Which of the following is a key aspect of Section 29 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999?
(a) Actual confusion is not required—likelihood for confusion is sufficient.
(b) Only authorized use can amount to infringement.
(c) Trademark protection extends only to exact copies.
(d) Infringement requires non-commercial use of the mark.
77. In accordance to the passage, choose what is “likelihood of confusion test”?
(a) It determines whether the unauthorized user intended to copy the trademark of the registered proprietor to
cause loss to the proprietor.
(b) The test is used to compare the quality or grade of products sold under two different trademarks.
(c) It checks if an average buyer might believe both marks come from the same source or are related.
(d) It assesses if the trademarks are used for unrelated products in completely different sectors or not.
78. A student at IIIT Delhi, Priya Mehra, created a humorous YouTube video as part of a class project on
consumerism. In the video, she copied the branding and slogans of the popular soft drink "Patanga Cola",
renaming it “Flatanga Cola” and mimicking its ad campaigns to comment on sugar addiction and false
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advertising. Patanga Cola Ltd. issued a legal notice claiming that its registered trademark was being used without
permission, amounting to infringement. However, Priya argued that she did not use the exact registered
trademark, but instead altered it to “Flatanga Cola”. Decide whether Priya can be held liable for violation of
trademark rights of "Patanga Cola" under the Trade Marks Act, 1999 or not.
(a) Priya can be held liable for violation of trademark rights of "Patanga Cola" under the Trade Marks Act, 1999
because she copied the branding and slogans of the popular soft drink "Patanga Cola" without permission,
amounting to infringement.
(b) Priya cannot be held liable for violation of trademark rights of "Patanga Cola" under the Trade Marks Act,
1999 because it was created as a humorous YouTube video as part of a class project on consumerism to
comment on sugar addiction and false advertising.
(c) Priya can be held liable for violation of trademark rights of "Patanga Cola" under the Trade Marks Act, 1999
because she mimicked its ad campaigns to comment on sugar addiction and false advertising.
(d) Priya cannot be held liable for violation of trademark rights of "Patanga Cola" under the Trade Marks Act,
1999 because she did not use the exact registered trademark, but instead altered it to “Flatanga Cola”.
79. Decide in which of the following cases, the person can be held liable for infringement of Trademark Rights under
the Trade Marks Act, 1999?
(a) An online bookstore called “BookNest” uses a logo and brand name that is entirely different in look, sound,
and concept from “BookText,” a registered trademark of a similar service.
(b) A satirical magazine named “TechTandoor” features a cartoon mocking “Apple Inc.” with a spoof logo
shaped like a bitten guava.
(c) A franchisee of “Pizzy King”, an established pizza brand, uses its exact logo and name to promote their local
outlet.
(d) A local sportswear seller in Delhi launches a brand called “Adibas”, using a logo and font style nearly
identical to “Adidas”, a registered trademark in similar service.
80. Which of the following is not a correct inference from the passage?
(a) Mere use of a trademark as a keyword is not sufficient for infringement.
(b) The “likelihood of confusion” test is central to determining infringement.
(c) It amounts to infringement, if the advertisement is distinguishable and not misleading.
(d) IThere must be some element of confusion..
Passage (Q.81-Q.84): If someone else’s improper use or enjoyment in his property ends up resulting into an
unlawful interference with one’s enjoyment or use of that property or of some of the rights over it, or in
connection with it, we can say that the tort of nuisance has occurred. According to Salmond, nuisance consists
in causing or allowing to cause without lawful justification, the escape of any deleterious thing from one’s land
or from anywhere into land in possession of the plaintiff, such as water, smoke, gas, heat, electricity, etc.. Public
nuisance affects the society and the people living in it at large, or some considerable portion of the society and
it affects the rights which the members of the society might enjoy over the property. The acts which seriously
affects or interferes with the health, safety or comfort of the general public is a public nuisance. Instances where
an individual may have a private right of action in respect to a public nuisance: He must show the existence of
any personal injury which is of a higher degree than the rest of the public. Such an injury has to be direct and
not just a consequential injury. The injury must be shown to have a huge effect.
Private Nuisance is that kind of nuisance in which a person’s use or enjoyment of his property is ruined by
another. Unlike public nuisance, in private nuisance, an individual’s usage or enjoyment of property is ruined as
distinguished from the public or society at large.
Prescription and statutory authority are two valid defences against nuisance. In Prescription the use or enjoyment
of the legally acquired thing or property should be of such a nature that it should be affecting the rights of another
individual thus causing a nuisance and even after knowing of such a nuisance being caused there must’ve been
no action taken against the person causing it for at least twenty years without interruption and without objection.
In case of statutory authority, a statute authorises the doing of a particular act or the use of land in a way, all the
remedies whether by action or indictment or charge, are taken away. Provided that every necessary reasonable

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precaution has been taken. However, the statutory authority can be conditional as well i.e. the state allows the
act to be done only if it can be done without any causation of nuisance or any other form of injury.
81. A film production house named Arkham Films was shooting a high-budget action movie, involving elaborate
stunts and explosive effects. The production took place near a densely populated residential complex, where the
filming caused continuous loud sounds and dense smoke, lasting over three weeks. Several residents, including
elderly patients and schoolchildren, complained of respiratory issues and lack of sleep. One resident, Alfred, a
retired librarian with chronic asthma, was hospitalized twice during this period. He filed a suit claiming that
Arkham Films caused both public and private nuisance. Can Alfred successfully claim nuisance?
(a) Yes, because the interference affected public health and Alfred suffered a greater personal injury than others,
thus allowing both public and private nuisance claims.
(b) No, because Alfred’s injury was not direct but consequential to a general inconvenience caused by the
shooting.
(c) No, because Arkham Films was conducting a lawful activity and took some general permissions for shooting.
(d) Yes, because the nature and duration of the nuisance were such that they disrupted both the community and
specific individuals severely.
82. Following Alfred’s suit, Arkham Films argued that they had acquired statutory permission from Gotham
Municipal Council to conduct film shootings, including the use of pyrotechnics, under the Urban Film
Facilitation Act. However, it came to light that the Act conditionally allowed such permissions only if the film
crew could ensure no harm to health or safety of residents. Evidence showed that despite prior complaints during
initial rehearsals, the film crew continued their practices without any change. Would the defence of statutory
authority succeed?
(a) Yes, because permission was granted by a statute, and the crew cannot be held liable if the act was within
legal bounds.
(b) No, because conditional statutory authority requires that the act must not result in nuisance; the ongoing
health effects negate the defence.
(c) Yes, because public utility projects like movies are exempt from nuisance claims if prior permission is taken.
(d) No, because once a statute requires “no harm,” failing to prevent it validates the protection granted under
statutory authority.
83. After the controversy, Arkham Films began their next project near the BatCave Heritage Museum, a quiet zone
with a 200-year-old archive of ancient scrolls. The film crew, this time, used artificial fog and massive speakers.
Bruce, the museum’s curator, claimed that despite warnings, the vibrations from the sound equipment led to
minor cracks in the museum walls and potential damage to ancient documents. He filed a suit for private
nuisance, though no other citizens were affected. Is Bruce’s claim tenable?
(a) Yes, because even though it was not a public nuisance, Bruce’s exclusive right to enjoyment of his premises
was interfered with.
(b) No, because isolated incidents affecting historic buildings without human injury do not count as nuisance.
(c) Yes, because property damage and disturbance in the quiet use of his land amount to private nuisance.
(d) No, because there was no interference with comfort or health, and thus nuisance is not applicable.
84. Identify, how many statement(s) are false from the following:
I. Public nuisance impacts a significant portion of society and interferes with public rights such as health,
safety, or comfort.
II. Private nuisance requires proof that a considerable part of society has suffered inconvenience due to the
defendant’s action.
III. Nuisance occurs even if the interference with enjoyment of property is lawful and harmless.
IV. Statutory authority may be conditional, requiring that the authorised act should not cause nuisance or injury.
Options:
(a) Only one statement (b) Two statements
(c) Three statements (d) All statements are true

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SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.85-Q.89): Alongside the derivation of his supreme moral principle, the most difficult questions
about Kant’s view of practical reason center on its relation to freedom. Although the broad outlines are
consistent, Kant’s views on this topic seem to shift more than other aspects of his critical thought. This section
and the following §2.2 focus on Kant’s radical claim that “freedom and unconditional practical law reciprocally
imply each other.” Freedom implies that practical reason can be pure (non-instrumental, unconditional), and
hence that we are subject to the Categorical Imperative. Our subjection to morality implies that we must be free.
Kant’s argument that freedom implies the Categorical Imperative is brief. If I am free to step back from my
inclinations, those inclinations cannot provide a definitive reason to act. Inclinations motivate, but they do not
compel. If someone asks me why I did something, inclinations may explain my action—the action helped me
achieve something I wanted. But there is still an open question: should I have acted on those inclinations?
An example may help here. Pushing you out of the way might satisfy my desire to get to the front of the queue.
The desire motivates me; we might say that it provides a “reason for me.” For other people, my desire only
explains my rudeness. It does not supply others with a reason to endorse my behavior; it does not justify my
doing this. Compare the entry on reasons for action: justification, motivation, explanation: “Because I wanted
to” may be a “motivating reason” for me; it may be an “explanatory reason” for other people. But it is not a
“justificatory reason.” Kant accepts that desires are relevant to practical reasoning. His claim is that they need
not, and should not, determine our reasoning. Simply put, my inclinations do not matter more than other people’s.
How can we find reasons that others should also accept? Kant claims the only possibility is to look to “the mere
form of giving universal law.” There is, he says, “only a single categorical imperative… act only according to
that maxim through which you can at the same time will that it become a universal law.” This principle is
categorical (no if-s or but-s!); it is an imperative (we must follow it!). When our action passes this test, we have
done our duty. In fact, the first section of the Groundwork argues that this principle follows just by analyzing
the idea of duty.
[Source: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/kant-reason/PracReasMoraPrimPurePracReas]
85. Which assumption permits concluding that freedom necessitates a pure, non-instrumental practical reason?
(a) If inclinations fail to justify action, an alternative source of justification must exist within reason.
(b) Freedom always enables agents to reject all inclination-based motives without undermining their capacity to
act.
(c) Universalizable maxims cannot arise from empirical desires because desires fluctuate unpredictably among
rational agents universally.
(d) Practical reason attains purity only when detached from empirical content, irrespective of agents’ freedom status.
86. Which statement most strengthens Kant’s claim that inclinations never justify, only explain, human actions?
(a) Experiments show desires consistently predict choices, even when participants judge those choices morally
impermissible afterward.
(b) Surveys reveal people cite wants as primary motives yet deny those wants deserve societal endorsement.
(c) Philosophers agree only universally sharable reasons warrant moral approval, whereas desires vary
idiosyncratically between individuals.
(d) Historical codes that privileged rulers’ wishes over commonsense duty are now condemned as unjustified tyranny.
87. Which finding would weaken the thesis that our moral obligation implies human freedom?
(a) Studies show duty feelings intensify when reminded of choice ability, supporting Kant’s reciprocity thesis.
(b) Deterministic robots adhere to universal moral codes without any capacity for self-directed choice or
freedom.
(c) Neuroscience finds conscious deliberation accompanies moral judgement, but cannot confirm underlying
metaphysical freedom exists.
(d) Cultures without explicit notion of autonomy still endorse categorical duties grounded in communal
tradition.

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88. If the Categorical Imperative were conditional, how would Kant’s freedom–morality reciprocity change?
(a) Freedom would still entail duty, yet duty would cease to establish our freedom in return.
(b) Conditional imperatives would heighten reciprocity by highlighting choice, thereby making moral autonomy
more obvious.
(c) Duties would mirror fluctuating wants, rendering freedom unnecessary for compliance with conditional
moral requirements.
(d) Reciprocity would collapse because conditional duties neither presuppose nor are entailed by autonomous,
inclination-transcending freedom.
89. In the passage, the phrase “no if-s or but-s!” serves which argumentative role?
(a) It signals a concession that moral laws require occasional exception under special mitigating circumstances.
(b) It emphasizes the imperative’s unconditional nature, reinforcing the claim that duties admit no exceptions.
(c) It introduces a rhetorical flourish highlighting the practical challenges of applying universal moral legislation
consistently.
(d) It anticipates objections by suggesting that inclination-based qualifiers cannot undermine the authority of
pure reason.
Passage (Q.90-Q.94): The Chhattisgarh High Court bench of Chief Justice Ramesh Sinha and Justice Bibhu
Datta Guru has held that reliefs similar to those already sought before the Arbitrator and subsequently before the
Commercial Court cannot be claimed before the writ court, especially when alternative efficacious remedies are
available before the same forums for seeking such reliefs.
Brief Facts:
The petitioner seeks a direction for release of ₹53,56,026.00 under Clause 46A.7 (price variation clause) of the
contract.
It was submitted that, under identical contractual terms, the respondents had earlier made payment without
challenging the Commercial Court's judgment dated 08.11.2024, which upheld the petitioner's entitlement based
on the arbitral award dated 15.03.2022. Despite this settled legal position, the respondents have arbitrarily denied
applying the same methodology in the present case, resulting in unjust refusal of the petitioner's rightful claim.
In reply, the Respondent submitted that earlier, the petitioner-initiated Arbitration Application No. 9 of 2019,
resulting in a favorable award dated 15.03.2022. The respondents challenged this in Case No. Arb. MJC 06 of
2024 before the Commercial Court, Raipur, which was dismissed on 08.11.2024, affirming the arbitral award. It
is now argued that the petitioner has an efficacious alternative remedy to approach the Arbitrator for the new
cause of action, rendering the present petition legally untenable.
Observations:
The court noted that perusal of the record would show that there were two Contract Agreements i.e. Contract
Agreement dated 18.09.2017 as well as Contract Agreement dated 26.04.2017 and the petitioner has challenged
Contract Agreement dated 26.04.2017 before the Sole Arbitrator, which was allowed vide order dated
15.03.2022 and the final award was passed.
It further noted that the record reflects that the respondents challenged the final award dated 15.03.2022 by filing
Case No. Arb. MJC 06 of 2024, which was dismissed by the Commercial Court vide order dated 08.11.2024.
The court concluded that it is admitted by the petitioner's counsel that the present issue is identical to one already
decided by the Arbitrator and affirmed by the Commercial Court, and the relief sought is similar. Given the
availability of alternate efficacious remedies before the Arbitrator and Commercial Court, there appears to be no
justification for this Court's intervention. The petitioner ought to have first exhausted those remedies.
Accordingly, the present petition was dismissed.
[Source: https://www-livelaw-in.mnlum.remotlog.com/high-court/chattisgarh-high-court/reliefs-similar-to-
those-sought-before-arbitrator-and-commercial-court-cant-be-claimed-before-writ-court-chhattisgarh-high-
court-295480]

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90. Which statement best expresses the passage’s main conclusion?

(a) A writ petition is improper when identical relief exists via arbitration and commercial court remedies.
(b) Failure to pay under Clause 46A.7 demonstrates respondents' serious arbitrary breach of contractual
obligations owed.
(c) The arbitral award's affirmation proves petitioner's entitlement, compelling High Court to enforce immediate
payment now.
(d) Because two separate contracts exist, each dispute must be litigated independently through successive
judicial forums.
91. The court’s reasoning depends on which unstated assumption?
(a) The petitioner intentionally bypassed arbitration hoping for faster payment through a writ court intervention.
(b) Contract Clause 46A.7 unquestionably obliges respondents to pay price variation sums without dispute.
(c) The arbitrator and Commercial Court remain available and empowered to grant identical relief again.
(d) Two separate contracts inherently create independent legal controversies requiring distinct judicial
consideration each time.
92. Which fact would most strengthen respondents’ argument against writ jurisdiction?
(a) A recent divisional bench ruling bars writ petitions when arbitral remedies remain both adequate and swift.
(b) The contract’s arbitration clause covers all future price variations, expressly empowering arbitrator to grant
monetary relief.
(c) Commercial Court dockets are overloaded, causing multi-year delays before claims like petitioner’s can be
heard.
(d) The petitioner’s prior notice letter confirms that arbitration remains the primary—and exclusive—method
for resolving disputes under both contracts.
93. Which discovery would most weaken the High Court’s dismissal reasoning?
(a) The sole arbitrator resigned permanently, and statutory appointment window closed, leaving no arbitral
forum available.
(b) Recent legislative change obstructs repeating identical claims in arbitration making it arduous for a fresh
award for petitioner.
(c) Recent Supreme Court ruling permits writs despite arbitral remedies when fundamental rights are threatened.
(d) Commercial Court’s new jurisdictional threshold exceeds claim amount, forcing dismissal of monetary
petitions like petitioner’s.
94. Which inference can properly be drawn from the procedural chronology described in the passage?
(a) Respondents’ challenge to the arbitral award was adjudicated before the petitioner filed the present writ
petition.
(b) Petitioner began arbitration proceedings only after respondents refused Commercial Court jurisdiction on
payment disputes earlier.
(c) Both contracts pre-dated any legal action, yet only one was ever contested before any forum.
(d) The writ petition preceded the Commercial Court decision, showing petitioner bypassed potential appellate
avenues prematurely.
Passage (Q.95-Q.99): On Monday, 9 June 2025, Israeli forces boarded the Madleen in international waters, an
aid ship attempting to break the siege imposed by Israel on the Gaza Strip since 2 March. The crew of activists
and journalists, including one member of the European parliament, was forced to throw their phones overboard
and was subsequently detained. This was an illegal act by Israel as it was carried out in international waters
where it does not hold territorial sovereignty. However, this incident not only brought international attention to
the Israeli blockade of Gaza through the denial of aid and essential supplies, but it also highlighted the extent to
which Israel is prepared to descend to ensure a complete blockade of Gaza.
The ongoing genocide in Gaza has weaponised starvation, and through systematic denial of food, medicine, and
other such essential supplies, has created the conditions which shall lead to the annihilation of the Palestinian
people in Gaza (“Dangerously Starved,” EPW, 31 May 2025). This is an extension of the larger Israeli project
to annex Gaza, and through the ethnic cleansing of the Palestinian people, move towards the creation of greater
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Israel (“Intensified Israeli Genocide in Gaza,” EPW, 19 April 2025). A new tactic in this ghastly saga of
inhumanity has been the weaponisation of aid. Aid distribution in Gaza restarted on 26 May through the Gaza
Humanitarian Foundation (GHF), a United States (US)-based organisation founded in 2025. The organisation’s
modus operandi is at odds with international humanitarian principles and has been universally condemned by
the United Nations (UN) and other international humanitarian organisations. Conditional distribution of aid,
systemic exclusion, and putting Israeli military personnel in charge of aid distribution, have effectively allowed
for the weaponisation of aid.
The dire and apocalyptic scenes from GHF-operated aid distribution centres in Rafah, where thousands of
civilians are funnelled together as aid packages are hurled towards them, can only be described as deliberate
attempts to dehumanise the Palestinians and rob them of their dignity. Since the GHF began its operations in
Gaza, massacres of aid seekers have become an everyday occurrence as Israeli forces have opened fire on the
crowds that assemble to seek essential supplies. More than 200 people have been killed in these massacres in the
past two weeks alone. These incidents hearken back to the Flour Massacre of 29 February 2024, and a familiar
script that has become the Israeli standard operating procedure: denial followed by justifications and the eventual
normalisation of atrocities. Whether it be the bombing of civilian and residential infrastructure, deliberate
targeting of hospitals and healthcare professionals, or firing upon civilians, this script continues to play out to a
complicit silence of nations and institutions.
95. Which evidence would strengthen link between blockade and goal of “greater Israel” annexation?
(a) Independent intelligence reports confirm Israeli policy documents planning annexation following total
Gazan depopulation soon.
(b) Public statements by Israeli officials deny any territorial ambitions beyond current recognized borders
altogether.
(c) Academic studies attribute blockade solely to security concerns unrelated to demographic or territorial
objectives.
(d) Declassified war cabinet transcripts cite blockade as prerequisite for formal sovereignty declaration over
Gaza territory.
96. Which conclusion most logically follows about GHF’s impact on humanitarian principles?
(a) GHF’s conditional aid model introduces novel guidelines likely to modernize outdated humanitarian
distribution standards everywhere.
(b) By subverting neutrality and impartiality, GHF’s practices threaten the foundational legitimacy of
humanitarian aid worldwide.
(c) The UN condemnation indicates GHF merely lacks operational experience, not substantive adherence to
humanitarian principles.
(d) GHF’s integration of Israeli soldiers ensures robust security, demonstrating principled care for vulnerable
Palestinian civilians.
97. Which fact would most undermine the author’s portrayal of aid distribution as dehumanising?
(a) Independent monitors confirm orderly distribution by neutral staff, treating all recipients respectfully
throughout process.
(b) Video evidence depicts soldiers laughing while hurling packages into dense crowds of desperate Gazan
civilians.
(c) Hospital data reveals injuries stem from panicked stampedes occurring before Israeli personnel even arrive.
(d) Confidential documents outline explicit policy to degrade Palestinian dignity through humiliating aid
distribution tactics.
98. The author of the passage would have been less critical of Israel’s actions if which of the following were true?
(a) The aid ship Madleen had entered Israeli territorial waters before it was intercepted and boarded.
(b) The Gaza Humanitarian Foundation operated under direct supervision of the United Nations and followed
its guidelines.
(c) The Israeli military had opened fire only in response to armed threats at aid distribution centres.
(d) The blockade of Gaza was accompanied by uninterrupted and unconditional humanitarian access coordinated
by neutral agencies.
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99. Which explanation reconciles Israeli shootings with their control over aid distribution?
(a) Soldiers responded to unexpected armed militants hiding among civilians, an event unrelated to distribution
policy enforcement.
(b) Live ammunition was accidentally discharged owing to faulty weapons, prompting immediate suspension of
future distributions.
(c) Firing into crowds coerces civilians to accept exclusionary rules, reinforcing Israel’s command over aid
logistics.
(d) International peacekeepers supervising GHF sites misinterpreted Israeli signals, inciting chaotic crossfire
despite strict distribution control.
Passage (Q.100-Q.104): Assuming it therefore as an established truth that the several States, in case of disunion,
or such combinations of them as might happen to be formed out of the wreck of the general Confederacy, would
be subject to those vicissitudes of peace and war, of friendship and enmity, with each other, which have fallen
to the lot of all neighboring nations not united under one government, let us enter into a concise detail of some
of the consequences that would attend such a situation.
War between the States, in the first period of their separate existence, would be accompanied with much greater
distresses than it commonly is in those countries where regular military establishments have long obtained. The
disciplined armies always kept on foot on the continent of Europe, though they bear a malignant aspect to liberty
and economy, have, notwithstanding, been productive of the signal advantage of rendering sudden conquests
impracticable, and of preventing that rapid desolation which used to mark the progress of war prior to their
introduction. The art of fortification has contributed to the same ends. The nations of Europe are encircled with
chains of fortified places, which mutually obstruct invasion. Campaigns are wasted in reducing two or three
frontier garrisons, to gain admittance into an enemy's country. Similar impediments occur at every step, to
exhaust the strength and delay the progress of an invader. Formerly, an invading army would penetrate into the
heart of a neighboring country almost as soon as intelligence of its approach could be received; but now a
comparatively small force of disciplined troops, acting on the defensive, with the aid of posts, is able to impede,
and finally to frustrate, the enterprises of one much more considerable. The history of war, in that quarter of the
globe, is no longer a history of nations subdued and empires overturned, but of towns taken and retaken; of
battles that decide nothing; of retreats more beneficial than victories; of much effort and little acquisition.
In this country the scene would be altogether reversed. The jealousy of military establishments would postpone
them as long as possible. The want of fortifications, leaving the frontiers of one state open to another, would
facilitate inroads. The populous States would, with little difficulty, overrun their less populous neighbors.
Conquests would be as easy to be made as difficult to be retained. War, therefore, would be desultory and
predatory. PLUNDER and devastation ever march in the train of irregulars. The calamities of individuals would
make the principal figure in the events which would characterize our military exploits.
100. Which assumption does Hamilton implicitly make about state attitudes toward standing armies?
(a) State leaders will distrust permanent armies and thus defer institutionalizing them after separation.
(b) States will promptly create large professional forces to secure borders against hostile neighbors.
(c) Foreign powers will finance standing armies to maintain equilibrium among squabbling states.
(d) Militia volunteers prefer seasonal service, leaving defensive readiness sporadic but politically acceptable.
101. Which fact, if true, most strengthens the fortification-based deterrence analogy to Europe?
(a) European wars since seventeenth century rarely involved sieges lasting longer than one week.
(b) Records show invaders spent most of their campaign seasons reducing frontier forts before advancing inland.
(c) European monarchies disbanded frontier garrisons during peacetime to save money.
(d) Fortification technology in Europe was obsolete compared with contemporary American wooden stockades.
102. Which finding would most weaken Hamilton’s claim that populous states could easily overrun smaller ones?
(a) Population size correlates strongly with military recruitment capacity during colonial American wars.
(b) Survey shows small state militias lacked artillery and organized cavalry after disunion.
(c) Mountainous borders of many small states impeded rapid movement of large invading forces.
(d) Larger states planned to combine militias under unified general command immediately upon separation.
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103. From the passage, which inference about European wartime outcomes is best supported?
(a) European wars regularly resulted in swift toppling of governments despite entrenched frontier defenses.
(b) Campaigns typically brought extensive territorial gains relative to the manpower and funds expended.
(c) Commanders generally avoided retreats because victories typically guaranteed decisive political outcomes.
(d) Long sieges and stalemates produced few lasting shifts in national borders across Europe.
104. Which scenario most closely parallels Hamilton’s forecasted conquest-retention cycle among disunited states?
(a) A powerful kingdom swiftly occupies a neighbor yet faces guerrilla resistance that drains resources for years.
(b) Two equal-sized nations sign mutual defense treaties, preventing either from crossing the frontier.
(c) A small republic using superior fortifications blocks repeated invasions by much larger empires.
(d) Rival city-states establish standing coalitions, conquering territories and holding them through permanent
garrisons.
Passage (Q.105-Q.108): Neither in vitro tissue models nor animal models are currently able to predict and
prevent drug-induced liver injury (DILI), leading to marketed pharmaceutical withdrawals and clinical
development failures, yet they are widely used in pharmaceutical and biopharmaceutical discovery and
development. Among these models, two-dimensional (2D) monolayers of iPSC-derived human hepatocytes and
bioengineered micro-patterned co-cultures of primary hepatocytes and fibroblasts have exhibited some
morphological and functional features of in vivo liver tissue. However, the limitations of monolayer cultures in
predicting liver-specific responses are widely recognized, despite their frequent use throughout the
pharmaceutical industry. For example, primary hepatocytes cultured in 2D monolayers tend to de-differentiate
and rapidly lose liver-specific functions. To overcome the deficits of 2D approaches, numerous 3D culture
systems have been developed; it is believed that the formation of cell–cell and cell–matrix interactions in 3D are
better at maintaining cell activity and function than in 2D cultures. Three-dimensional (3D) approaches include
spheroid culture of primary hepatocytes, 3D bioprinted liver tissue in trans-wells, and 3D printed scaffolds
seeded with hepatocytes. These 3D systems are usually benchmarked by functional characteristics of human
liver in vivo, such as albumin and urea production and ADME gene expression profiles.
One way to improve the functional performance of tissue models is to provide perfusion; liver tissue models
cultured in microfluidic perfusion chambers exhibit higher viability, oxygen saturation, and synthesis rates of
albumin and urea than their static counterparts. To simulate physiological fluid and solute transport, culture
media has been driven through 3D populations of hepatocytes sandwiched between collagen gels. Toward the
goal of making large-scale engineered tissue constructs, advanced methods for creating vasculature have been
developed. While developing a diversity of advanced engineering approaches has helped the field move closer
to the goal of producing functional tissue models, the complexity of both the manufacturing methods and the
fluidic systems prevent their broad adoption in practice and create scale-up challenges in industrial applications.
These challenges are not encountered with simpler approaches to manufacturing tissue models, like spheroid
culture, but such simple approaches produce tissue models that lack critical functions and exhibit high variability,
preventing accurate Critical Quality Attributes (CQA) quantification of the final products. Overall, there remains
a serious need in the pharmaceutical industry for a functional liver tissue model having minimal barriers to
adoption; the functional tissue must be manufactured reproducibly and at relatively high throughput and
maintained without complex perfusion equipment.
105. Which assumption links DILI prediction failures to costly drug withdrawals?
(a) Identifying hepatotoxic compounds early would cut post-marketing withdrawals attributable to unforeseen
liver injury.
(b) Most pharmaceutical withdrawals result from factors unrelated to drug-induced liver damage during
treatment.
(c) Regulators disregard animal data when approving drugs lacking robust in vitro liver evidence.
(d) Patients seldom experience liver toxicity after drugs that showed no hepatocyte damage in testing.

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106. Which evidence would strengthen superiority of 3D cultures over 2D monolayers?

(a) 3D cultures cost less to create than conventional 2D monolayers in equivalent volumes.
(b) 3D spheroids accurately predict human hepatotoxicity rates that 2D monolayers consistently fail to detect.
(c) 2D monolayers generate higher albumin secretion after extended perfusion than any 3D platform.
(d) Both 3D and 2D models express identical ADME gene profiles after identical culture periods.
107. Which scenario would most weaken perfusion’s claimed functional advantages?
(a) Perfusion chambers become affordable, eliminating financial barriers for wide adoption in pharmaceutical
screening.
(b) Regulations restrict use of microfluidic devices but allow static spheroid assays for toxicity testing.
(c) Per-liver-cell albumin secretion equals static cultures after microfluidic perfusion lasting four weeks.
(d) Perfusion systems need weekly sterility checks, whereas static plates need checks only monthly.
108. If perfusion became trivial, which barrier would still impede adoption?
(a) Standard spheroid cultures reliably match in vivo albumin output, eliminating variability concerns for final
products.
(b) Regulatory requirements mandate perfusion data, but 3D cultures operate exclusively in static conditions
worldwide.
(c) Microfluidic chips become disposable yet still demand expensive live-cell imaging for routine functional
assessment.
(d) Manufacturing techniques for 3D tissues remain complex, hindering reproducible scale-up despite simplified
perfusion mechanics.

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SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Directions (Q.109-Q.114): Read the instructions carefully and answer the questions.
During vacation, Roshan was playing ludo with a fair dice having six faces. Every time he rolls an even number
in the dice, he placed a Rs.50 note in a piggy box, which was initially empty, and every time he rolls an odd
number, he placed four Rs.10 notes in the piggy box.
Roshan had only notes of 50 INR and 10 INR. He had a total of 4,530 INR out of which there were 28 number
of 10 INR notes. If at any point of time, he did not have enough Rs.10 notes to place in the box when an odd
number appeared, he placed a Rs.50 note in the box and took a Rs.10 note out from the box.
• After the 10th roll of the dice, there were 27 Rs.10 notes and 3 Rs.50 notes in the box.
• After the 20th roll of the dice, there were 27 Rs.10 notes and 12 Rs.50 notes in the box.
• After the 30th roll of the dice, there were 24 Rs.10 notes and 22 Rs.50 notes in the box.
• After the 40th roll of the dice, there were 27 Rs.10 notes and 30 Rs.50 notes in the box.
• After the 50th roll of the dice, there were 28 Rs.10 notes and 39 Rs.50 notes in the box.
109. Roshan adds the numbers which appear on the face of dice and denotes the sum as S. By the time he gets 5 even
numbers while rolling the dice, what is the difference between the minimum and maximum value of S
(a) 77 (b) 56 (c) 83 (d) 68
110. What is the maximum number of times he can roll the dice before running out on notes?
(a) 112 (b) 126 (c) 107 (d) 100
111. What is the minimum number of times he can roll the dice before running out on notes?
(a) 82 (b) 78 (c) 56 (d) 96
112. Out of first 50 rolls, how many times an even number appeared?
(a) 23 (b) 34 (c) 16 (d) 28
113. After 60 rolls, the number of even and odd numbers on the dice were the same. Then find the number of 10 rupee
note in the piggy bank
(a) 30 (b) 25 (c) 36 (d) 18
114. After 60 rolls, the number of even and odd numbers on the dice were the same. The number which appeared on
the dice after 61st, 62nd and 63rd roll were added and it is found to be 4. Find the number of 50 rupee note in the
piggy bank after 63rd roll.
(a) 51 (b) 48 (c) 73 (d) 68
Directions (Q.115-Q.120): Read the instructions carefully and answer the questions.
In a college with a total of 25,200 students, the ratio of boys to girls is 4:3. These students are distributed among
five institutions: Drama, Debate, Music, Dance, and Fashion. Among the girls, 26% are part of the drama
institution, while 28% are involved in dance. Regarding the boys, 16.5% are part of the music institution, and
2/9 of them are involved in fashion. The proportion of girls to boys in the music institution is 9:11. Across the
entire student body, 16% are enrolled in the debate institution. Additionally, the number of girls in the fashion
institution is 124.5% of half the number of boys in the same institution. For the boys, 22.5% participate in the
drama institution, with the rest joining the dance institution.
115. What is the number of girls in the debate institution?
(a) 1120 (b) 1008 (c) 1032 (d) 1080
116. What is the number of boys in the fashion institution?
(a) 3200 (b) 1188 (c) 3240 (d) 996

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117. How many girls are in the dance institution?

(a) 1512 (b) 972 (c) 996 (d) 3024
118. What is the total number of students in the music institution?
(a) 1188 (b) 1404 (c) 4320 (d) 5192
119. What is the difference between the number of boys and girls in the drama institution?
(a) 320 (b) 432 (c) 162 (d) 144
120. Which institution has the maximum number of students overall?
(a) Drama (b) Dance (c) Debate (d) Fashion

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Notes:

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Notes:

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Notes:

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Notes:

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Notes:

Mock Objection Form (MOF)

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SELF-ASSESSMENT PAGE
1. My sequence in today's Mock (write 1-5 in the box):
English Language Logical Reasoning Legal Reasoning

General Knowledge and Current Affairs Quantitative Techniques

2. Approx time devoted to each section:

English Language Logical Reasoning Legal Reasoning

General Knowledge and Current Affairs Quantitative Techniques

3. I:
◻ was too distracted during the Mock today
◻ think I used the wrong sequence
◻ wrote today's Mock without any defined strategy around sequence, attempts etc in mind.
• spent a lot of time on ____________________________________________ section.
• spent insufficient time on _______________________________________ section.
• couldn't understand the passage properly of these genres _______________, ________________, _______________.

Write a quick explanation of your mistakes.

That's it! Now go through this page before you write your next Mock and ensure we don't repeat the same
mistakes.

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