Networking, Security, and Automation Course Final Exam Answers

1. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise
network?
 the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume
 the installation of redundant power supplies
 the use of a collapsed core design
 the use of the building switch block approach
Explanation: In order to best limit the of a failure domain, routers or multilayer switches can be
deployed in pairs. The failure of a single device should not cause the network to go down. Installing
redundant power supplies may protect a single device from a power failure, but if that device suffers
from another type of problem, a redundant device would have been a better solution. Purchasing
enterprise equipment that handles large flows of traffic will not provide extra reliability in times of an
outage. If a collapsed core design is used, the core and distribution are collapsed into a single
device, increasing the chance of a devastating outage.
2. Which two things should a network administrator modify on a router to
perform password recovery? (Choose two.)
 the system image file
 the NVRAM file system
 the configuration register value
 the startup configuration file
 system ROM
3. What type of network uses one common infrastructure to carry voice, data,
and video signals?
 borderless
 converged
 managed
 switched
Explanation: A converged network has only one physical network to install and manage. This
results in substantial savings over the installation and management of separate voice, video, and
data networks.
4. What are three advantages of using private IP addresses and NAT? (Choose
three.)
 hides private LAN addressing from outside devices that are connected to
the Internet
 permits LAN expansion without additional public IP addresses
 reduces CPU usage on customer routers
 creates multiple public IP addresses
 improves the performance of the router that is connected to the Internet
 conserves registered public IP addresses
Explanation: Private IP addresses are designed to be exclusively used for internal networks and
they cannot be used on the Internet. Thus they are not visible directly from the Internet and they can
be used freely by network administrators for internal networks. In order for the internal hosts to
access the Internet, NAT is used to translate between private and public IP addresses. NAT takes
an internal private IP address and translates it to a global public IP address before the packet is
forwarded.
5. Which two scenarios are examples of remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)
  All users at a large branch office can access company resources through a single VPN
connection.
 A small branch office with three employees has a Cisco ASA that is used to create a VPN
connection to the HQ.
 A toy manufacturer has a permanent VPN connection to one of its parts suppliers.
 A mobile sales agent is connecting to the company network via the
Internet connection at a hotel.
 An employee who is working from home uses VPN client software on a
laptop in order to connect to the company network.
Explanation: Remote access VPNs connect individual users to another network via a VPN client
that is installed on the user device. Site-to-site VPNs are “always on” connections that use VPN
gateways to connect two sites together. Users at each site can access the network on the other site
without having to use any special clients or configurations on their individual devices.
6. What are three benefits of cloud computing? (Choose three.)
 It utilizes end-user clients to do a substantial amount of data preprocessing and storage.
 It uses open-source software for distributed processing of large datasets.
 It streamlines the IT operations of an organization by subscribing only to
needed services.
 It enables access to organizational data anywhere and at any time.
 It turns raw data into meaningful information by discovering patterns and relationships.
 It eliminates or reduces the need for onsite IT equipment, maintenance,
and management.
7. What is a characteristic of a single-area OSPF network?
 All routers share a common forwarding database.
 All routers have the same neighbor table.
 All routers are in the backbone area.
 All routers have the same routing table.
8. What is a WAN?
 a network infrastructure that spans a limited physical area such as a city
 a network infrastructure that provides access to other networks over a
large geographic area
 a network infrastructure that provides access in a small geographic area
 a network infrastructure designed to provide data storage, retrieval, and replication
9. A network administrator has been tasked with creating a disaster recovery
plan. As part of this plan, the administrator is looking for a backup site for all
of the data on the company servers. What service or technology would
support this requirement?
 data center
 virtualization
 dedicated servers
 software defined networking
10. Which type of OSPF packet is used by a router to discover neighbor
routers and establish neighbor adjacency?
 link-state update
 hello
 database description
 link-state request
11. Which two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.)
 A virus has an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism, and a payload.
 A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date.
  A virus provides the attacker with sensitive data, such as passwords.
 A virus replicates itself by independently exploiting vulnerabilities in networks.
 A virus typically requires end-user activation.
Explanation: The type of end user interaction required to launch a virus is typically opening an
application, opening a web page, or powering on the computer. Once activated, a virus may infect
other files located on the computer or other computers on the same network.
12. Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper telephone lines to
provide access to subscribers that are multiplexed into a single T3 link
connection?
 ISDN
 DSL
 cable
 dialup
13. A customer needs a metropolitan area WAN connection that provides
high-speed, dedicated bandwidth between two sites. Which type of WAN
connection would best fulfill this need?
 packet-switched network
 Ethernet WAN
 circuit-switched network
 MPLS
Explanation: MPLS can use a variety of underlying technologies such as T- and E-Carriers,
Carrier Ethernet, ATM, Frame Relay, and DSL, all of which support lower speeds than an Ethernet
WAN. Neither a circuit-switched network, such as the public switched telephone network (PSTN) or
Integrated Service Digital Network (ISDN), nor a packet-switched network, is considered high
speed.
14. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify
the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to
perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use
debuggers?
 to detect installed tools within files and directories that provide threat actors remote access and
control over a computer or network
 to reverse engineer binary files when writing exploits and when analyzing
malware
 to obtain specially designed operating systems preloaded with tools optimized for hacking
 to detect any evidence of a hack or malware in a computer or network
15. Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router
via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator
determine from the output that is shown?

R1#

Standard IP access list 2

10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches)

20 deny any (1 match)

 Two devices connected to the router have IP addresses of 192.168.10. x .

 Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router.
  Traffic from one device was not allowed to come into one router port and be routed outbound a
different router port.
 Traffic from two devices was allowed to enter one router port and be routed outbound to a
different router port.
Explanation: The access-class command is used only on VTY ports. VTY ports support Telnet
and/or SSH traffic. The match permit ACE is how many attempts were allowed using the VTY ports.
The match deny ACE shows that a device from a network other than 192.168.10.0 was not allowed
to access the router through the VTY ports.
16. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to clear
dynamic entries before the timeout has expired?
 clear ip dhcp
 clear ip nat translation
 clear access-list counters
 clear ip pat statistics
17. What are two characteristics of video traffic? (Choose two.)
 Video traffic consumes less network resources than voice traffic consumes.
 Video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms.
 Video traffic is more resilient to loss than voice traffic is.
 Video traffic requires a minimum of 30 kbs of bandwidth.
 Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.
18. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is configuring R2 for static NAT to allow
the client to access the web server. What is a possible reason that the client
PC cannot access the web server?

 The IP NAT statement is incorrect.

 Interface Fa0/1 should be identified as the outside NAT interface.
 Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface.
 The configuration is missing a valid access control list.
Explanation: Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface. The command to
do this would be R2(config-if)# ip nat outside.
19. In setting up a small office network, the network administrator decides to
assign private IP addresses dynamically to workstations and mobile devices.
Which feature must be enabled on the company router in order for office
devices to access the internet?
 UPnP
 MAC filtering
  NAT
 QoS
Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) is the process used to convert private
addresses to internet-routable addresses that allow office devices to access the internet.
20. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple
operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each
customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual
discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being
implemented by the data center in this situation?
 online collaboration
 BYOD
 virtualization
 maintaining communication integrity
Explanation: Virtualization technology can run several different operating systems in parallel on
a single CPU.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside
global address?

 192.168.0.100
 10.1.1.2
 any address in the 10.1.1.0 network
 209.165.20.25
22. Which two IPsec protocols are used to provide data integrity?
 MD5
 DH
 AES
 SHA
 RSA
Explanation: The IPsec framework uses various protocols and algorithms to provide data
confidentiality, data integrity, authentication, and secure key exchange. Two popular algorithms
used to ensure that data is not intercepted and modified (data integrity) are MD5 and SHA. AES is
an encryption protocol and provides data confidentiality. DH (Diffie-Hellman) is an algorithm used for
key exchange. RSA is an algorithm used for authentication.
23. If an outside host does not have the Cisco AnyConnect client preinstalled,
how would the host gain access to the client image?
 The Cisco AnyConnect client is installed by default on most major operating systems.
 The host initiates a clientless VPN connection using a compliant web
browser to download the client.
 The host initiates a clientless connection to a TFTP server to download the client.
 The host initiates a clientless connection to an FTP server to download the client.
Explanation: If an outside host does not have the Cisco AnyConnect client preinstalled, the
remote user must initiate a clientless SSL VPN connection via a compliant web browser, and then
download and install the AnyConnect client on the remote host.
24. A company is considering updating the campus WAN connection. Which
two WAN options are examples of the private WAN architecture? (Choose
two.)
 leased line
 cable
 digital subscriber line
 Ethernet WAN
 municipal Wi-Fi
Explanation: An organization can connect to a WAN through basic two options:
 Private WAN infrastructure – such as dedicated point-to-point leased lines, PSTN,
ISDN, Ethernet WAN, ATM, or Frame Relay
 Public WAN infrastructure – such as digital subscriber line (DSL), cable, satellite access,
municipal Wi-Fi, WiMAX, or wireless cellular including 3G/4G

25. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?

 IP precedence
 DSCP
 ToS
 CoS
Explanation: The class of service (CoS) marking allows a Layer 2 Ethernet frame to be marked
with eight levels of priority (values 0–7). This marking can be used by QoS-enabled network devices
to provide preferential traffic treatment.
26. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link.
One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client.
Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of
the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.)

 Both routers are configured to use NTPv2.

 Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client
 The IP address of R2 is 192 168.1.2.
 Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client
 The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2
Explanation: With the show NTP associations command, the IP address of the NTP master is
given.
27. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of
10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server
(10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all
internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic
should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter
this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)
R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit ip any any
access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 permit ip any any
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.54.5 any eq www
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
Explanation: The first two lines of the ACL allow host 10.0.70.23 FTP access to the server that
has the IP address of 10.0.54.5. The next line of the ACL allows HTTP access to the server from
any host that has an IP address that starts with the number 10. The fourth line of the ACL denies
any other type of traffic to the server from any source IP address. The last line of the ACL permits
anything else in case there are other servers or devices added to the 10.0.54.0/28 network.
Because traffic is being filtered from all other locations and for the 10.0.70.23 host device, the best
place to put this ACL is closest to the server.
28. Refer to the exhibit. If the network administrator created a standard ACL
that allows only devices that connect to the R2 G0/0 network access to the
devices on the R1 G0/1 interface, how should the ACL be applied?

 inbound on the R2 G0/0 interface

 outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface
 inbound on the R1 G0/1 interface
 outbound on the R2 S0/0/1 interface
Explanation: Because standard access lists only filter on the source IP address, they are
commonly placed closest to the destination network. In this example, the source packets will be
coming from the R2 G0/0 network. The destination is the R1 G0/1 network. The proper ACL
placement is outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface.
29. Which is a characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?
 does not require management console software
 has direct access to server hardware resources
 best suited for enterprise environments
 installs directly on hardware
Explanation: Type 2 hypervisors are hosted on an underlaying operating system and are best
suited for consumer applications and those experimenting with virtualization. Unlike Type 1
hypervisors, Type 2 hypervisors do not require a management console and do not have direct
access to hardware.
30. What are the two types of VPN connections? (Choose two.)
 PPPoE
 Frame Relay
 site-to-site
 remote access
 leased line
Explanation: PPPoE, leased lines, and Frame Relay are types of WAN technology, not types of
VPN connections.
31. Refer to the exhibit. What three conclusions can be drawn from the
displayed output? (Choose three.)

 The DR can be reached through the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface.

 There have been 9 seconds since the last hello packet sent.
 This interface is using the default priority.
 The router ID values were not the criteria used to select the DR and the
BDR.
 The router ID on the DR router is 3.3.3.3
 The BDR has three neighbors.
32. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to
limit the connection to R1 vty lines to only the IT group workstations in the
network 192.168.22.0/28. The administrator verifies the successful Telnet
connections from a workstation with IP 192.168.22.5 to R1 before the ACL is
applied. However, after the ACL is applied to the interface Fa0/0, Telnet
connections are denied. What is the cause of the connection failure?

 The enable secret password is not configured on R1.

 The IT group network is included in the deny statement.
 The permit ACE specifies a wrong port number.
 The permit ACE should specify protocol ip instead of tcp.
 The login command has not been entered for vty lines.
Explanation: The source IP range in the deny ACE is 192.168.20.0 0.0.3.255, which covers IP
addresses from 192.168.20.0 to 192.168.23.255. The IT group network 192.168.22.0/28 is included
in the 192.168.20/22 network. Therefore, the connection is denied. To fix it, the order of the deny
and permit ACE should be switched.
33. What functionality does mGRE provide to the DMVPN technology?
 It allows the creation of dynamically allocated tunnels through a
permanent tunnel source at the hub and dynamically allocated tunnel
destinations at the spokes.
 It provides secure transport of private information over public networks, such as the Internet.
 It is a Cisco software solution for building multiple VPNs in an easy, dynamic, and scalable
manner.
 It creates a distributed mapping database of public IP addresses for all VPN tunnel spokes.
Explanation: DMVPN is built on three protocols, NHRP, IPsec, and mGRE. NHRP is the
distributed address mapping protocol for VPN tunnels. IPsec encrypts communications on VPN
tunnels. The mGRE protocol allows the dynamic creation of multiple spoke tunnels from one
permanent VPN hub.
34. What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that
use CEF to process packets?
 the FIB
 the routing table
 the ARP table
 the DSP
Explanation: CEF uses the FIB and adjacency table to make fast forwarding decisions without
control plane processing. The adjacency table is pre-populated by the ARP table and the FIB is pre-
populated by the routing table.
35. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to
display information about NAT configuration parameters and the number of
addresses in the pool?
 show running-config
 show ip nat statistics
 show ip cache
 show version
36. What is a purpose of establishing a network baseline?
 It provides a statistical average for network performance.
 It creates a point of reference for future network evaluations.
 It manages the performance of network devices.
 It checks the security configuration of network devices.
Explanation: A baseline is used to establish normal network or system performance. It can be
used to compare with future network or system performances in order to detect abnormal situations.
37. Match the type of WAN device or service to the description. (Not all
options are used.)

CPE devices and inside wiring that are located on the enterprise edge and connect to a carrier link

DCE devices that provide an interface for customers to connect to within the WAN cloud

DTE customer devices that pass the data from a customer network for transmission over the WAN
 local loop a physical connection from the customer to the service provider POP
38. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?
 They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
 They can be created with a number but not with a name.
 They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
 They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.
Explanation: A standard IPv4 ACL can filter traffic based on source IP addresses only. Unlike an
extended ACL, it cannot filter traffic based on Layer 4 ports. However, both standard and extended
ACLs can be identified with either a number or a name, and both are configured in global
configuration mode.
39. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for NAT as displayed. What is wrong
with the configuration?

 NAT-POOL2 is not bound to ACL 1.

 Interface Fa0/0 should be identified as an outside NAT interface.
 The NAT pool is incorrect.
 Access-list 1 is misconfigured.
Explanation: R1 has to have NAT-POOL2 bound to ACL 1. This is accomplished with the
command R1(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT-POOL2. This would enable the router to
check for all interesting traffic and if it matches ACL 1 it would be translated by use of the addresses
in NAT-POOL2.
40. Refer to the exhibit. What method can be used to enable an OSPF router
to advertise a default route to neighboring OSPF routers?

 Use a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it.

 Use the redistribute static command on R0-A.
 Use the default-information originate command on ISP.
 Use the default-information originate command on R0-A.
41. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify
the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to
perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use
applications such as John the Ripper,THC Hydra, RainbowCrack, and Medusa?
 to capture and analyze packets within traditional Ethernet LANs or WLANs
 to probe and test the robustness of a firewall by using specially created forged packets
 to make repeated guesses in order to crack a password
42. What are two syntax rules for writing a JSON array? (Choose two.)
 Each value in the array is separated by a comma.
 The array can include only one value type.
 A space must separate each value in the array.
 A semicolon separates the key and list of values.
 Values are enclosed in square brackets.
Explanation: A JSON array is a collection of ordered values within square brackets [ ]. The
values in the array are separated by a comma. For example “users” : [“bob”, “alice”, “eve”].
43. What is a characteristic of a Trojan horse as it relates to network
security?
 An electronic dictionary is used to obtain a password to be used to infiltrate a key network
device.
 Malware is contained in a seemingly legitimate executable program.
 Extreme quantities of data are sent to a particular network device interface.
 Too much information is destined for a particular memory block, causing additional memory
areas to be affecte
Explanation: A Trojan horse carries out malicious operations under the guise of a legitimate
program. Denial of service attacks send extreme quantities of data to a particular host or network
device interface. Password attacks use electronic dictionaries in an attempt to learn passwords.
Buffer overflow attacks exploit memory buffers by sending too much information to a host to render
the system inoperable.
44. An attacker is redirecting traffic to a false default gateway in an attempt
to intercept the data traffic of a switched network. What type of attack could
achieve this?
 TCP SYN flood
 DNS tunneling
 DHCP spoofing
 ARP cache poisoning
Explanation: In DHCP spoofing attacks, an attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the
network to issue DHCP addresses to clients with the aim of forcing the clients to use a false default
gateway, and other false services. DHCP snooping is a Cisco switch feature that can mitigate
DHCP attacks. MAC address starvation and MAC address snooping are not recognized security
attacks. MAC address spoofing is a network security threat.
45. A company is developing a security policy for secure communication. In
the exchange of critical messages between a headquarters office and a
branch office, a hash value should only be recalculated with a predetermined
code, thus ensuring the validity of data source. Which aspect of secure
communications is addressed?
 data integrity
 non-repudiation
 origin authentication
 data confidentiality
Explanation: Secure communications consists of four elements:
Data confidentiality – guarantees that only authorized users can read the message
Data integrity – guarantees that the message was not altered
Origin authentication – guarantees that the message is not a forgery and does actually come from
whom it states
Data nonrepudiation – guarantees that the sender cannot repudiate, or refute, the validity of a
message sent
46. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify
the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to
perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use
packet sniffers?
 to detect installed tools within files and directories that provide threat actors remote access and
control over a computer or network
 to detect any evidence of a hack or malware in a computer or network
 to probe and test the robustness of a firewall by using specially created forged packets
 to capture and analyze packets within traditional Ethernet LANs or WLANs
47. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the
networks that must be advertised is 172.20.0.0 255.255.252.0. What wildcard
mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?
 0.0.15.255
 0.0.3.255
 0.0.7.255
 0.0.1.255
48. Match the HTTP method with the RESTful operation.
 POST Create

GET Read

PUT/PATCH Update/Replace?Modify

Delete Delete
49. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West LAN
172.16.2.0/24 from East?

 782
  74
 128
 65
50. What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF
routing protocol is in use?
 to activate the OSPF neighboring process
 to influence the DR/BDR election process
 to provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
 to streamline and speed up the convergence process
Explanation: The OSPF priority can be set to a number between 0 and 255. The higher the
number set, the more likely the router becomes the DR. A priority 0 stops a router from participating
in the election process and the router does not become a DR or a BDR.
51. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a
single entry:

access-list 210 permit tcp 172.18.20.0 0.0.0.31 172.18.20.32 0.0.0.31 eq ftp .

If a packet with a source address of 172.18.20.14, a destination address of

172.18.20.40, and a protocol of 21 is received on the interface, is the packet
permitted or denied?
 permitted
52. What is a characteristic of the two-tier spine-leaf topology of the Cisco
ACI fabric architecture?
 The spine and leaf switches are always linked through core switches.
 The spine switches attach to the leaf switches and attach to each other for redundancy.
 The leaf switches always attach to the spines and they are interlinked through a trunk line.
 The leaf switches always attach to the spines, but they never attach to
each other.
53. Which two scenarios would result in a duplex mismatch? (Choose two.)
 connecting a device with autonegotiation to another that is manually set
to full-duplex
 starting and stopping a router interface during a normal operation
 connecting a device with an interface running at 100 Mbps to another with an interface running
at 1000 Mbps
 configuring dynamic routing incorrectly
 manually setting the two connected devices to different duplex modes
54. A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level
of auth . What is the effect of this setting?
 authenticates a packet by a string match of the username or community string
 authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the
SHA method
 authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC MD5 or 3.HMAC SHA algorithms and
encrypts the packet with either the DES, 3DES or AES algorithms
 authenticates a packet by using the SHA algorithm only
Explanation: For enabling SNMPv3 one of three security levels can be configured:
1) noAuth
2) auth
3) priv
The security level configured determines which security algorithms are performed on SNMP
packets. The auth security level uses either HMAC with MD5 or SHA.
55. What are two types of attacks used on DNS open resolvers? (Choose two.)
 amplification and reflection
 resource utilization
 fast flux
 ARP poisoning
 cushioning
Explanation: Three types of attacks used on DNS open resolvers are as follows:DNS cache
poisoning – attacker sends spoofed falsified information to redirect users from legitimate sites to
malicious sites
DNS amplification and reflection attacks – attacker sends an increased volume of attacks to mask
the true source of the attack
DNS resource utilization attacks – a denial of service (DoS) attack that consumes server resources
56. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a
single entry:

access-list 101 permit udp 192.168.100.0 0.0.2.255 64.100.40.0 0.0.0.15 eq telnet .

If a packet with a source address of 192.168.101.45, a destination address of

64.100.40.4, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet
permitted or denied?
 denied
 permitted
Case 2:

access-list 101 permit udp 192.168.100.0 0.0.2.255 64.100.40.0 0.0.0.0.15 eq telnet .

If a packet with a source address of 192.168.100.219, a destination address

of 64.100.40.10, and a protocol of 54 is received on the interface, is the
packet permitted or denied?
 denied
 permitted
57. Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?
 a dedicated VLAN
 a management console
 a host operating system
 a server running VMware Fusion
58. In JSON, what is held within square brackets [ ]?
 nested values
 key/value pairs
 an object
 an array
59. What are three components used in the query portion of a typical RESTful
API request? (Choose three.)
 resources
 protocol
 API server
 format
 key
 parameters
Explanation: The query portion in a RESTful API request specifies the data format and
information the client is requesting from the API service. Queries can include the following:
 Format – JSON, YAML, XML, and other supported data format
 Key – for authentication of the requesting source
 Parameters – used to send information pertaining to the query request

60. A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web
browser, an error message indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The
help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the web server
to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being
used by the technician?
 top-down
 bottom-up
 divide-and-conquer
 substitution
61. Which protocol provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality
services and is a type of VPN?
 MD5
 AES
 IPsec
 ESP
Explanation: IPsec services allow for authentication, integrity, access control, and confidentiality.
With IPsec, the information exchanged between remote sites can be encrypted and verified. Both
remote-access and site-to-site VPNs can be deployed using IPsec.
62. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960
switches?
 They are best used as distribution layer switches.
 New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.
 They are modular switches.
 They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.
Explanation: Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches support one active switched virtual interface (SVI)
with IOS versions prior to 15.x. They are commonly used as access layer switches and they are
fixed configuration switches.
63. Which component of the ACI architecture translates application policies
into network programming?
 the hypervisor
 the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
 the Nexus 9000 switch
 the Application Network Profile endpoints
64. Which two pieces of information should be included in a logical topology
diagram of a network? (Choose two.)
 device type
 cable specification
 interface identifier
 OS/IOS version
 connection type
 cable type and identifier
Explanation: The interface identifier and connection type should be included in a logical topology
diagram because they indicate which interface is connected to other devices in the network with a
specific type such as LAN, WAN, point-to-point, etc. The OS/IOS version, device type, cable type
and identifier, and cable specification are typically included in a physical topology diagram.
66. What are two benefits of using SNMP traps? (Choose two.)
 They eliminate the need for some periodic polling requests.
 They reduce the load on network and agent resources.
 They limit access for management systems only.
 They can provide statistics on TCP/IP packets that flow through Cisco devices.
 They can passively listen for exported NetFlow datagrams.
67. Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPsec?
 IPsec works at the application layer and protects all application data.
 IPsec is a framework of standards developed by Cisco that relies on OSI algorithms.
 IPsec is a framework of proprietary standards that depend on Cisco specific algorithms.
 IPsec works at the transport layer and protects data at the network layer.
 IPsec is a framework of open standards that relies on existing algorithms.
Explanation: IPsec can secure a path between two network devices. IPsec can provide the
following security functions:
 Confidentiality – IPsec ensures confidentiality by using encryption.
 Integrity – IPsec ensures that data arrives unchanged at the destination using a hash algorithm,
such as MD5 or SHA.
 Authentication – IPsec uses Internet Key Exchange (IKE) to authenticate users and devices that
can carry out communication independently. IKE uses several types of authentication, including
username and password, one-time password, biometrics, pre-shared keys (PSKs), and digital
certificates.
 Secure key exchange- IPsec uses the Diffie-Hellman (DH) algorithm to provide a public key
exchange method for two peers to establish a shared secret key.
68. In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by
routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)
 connect users to the network
 provide a high-speed network backbone
 connect remote networks
 provide Power over Ethernet to devices
 provide data traffic security
Explanation: In a large enterprise network, the provision of a high-speed network backbone is a
function of the core layer. Access layer switches connect users to the network and provide Power
over Ethernet to devices. Distribution layer routers provide data traffic security and connections to
other networks.
69. Which two statements describe the use of asymmetric algorithms?
(Choose two.)
 Public and private keys may be used interchangeably.
 If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used to decrypt the data.
 If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used to
decrypt the data.
 If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used to
decrypt the data.
 If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used to decrypt the data.
Explanation: Asymmetric algorithms use two keys: a public key and a private key. Both keys are
capable of the encryption process, but the complementary matched key is required for decryption. If
a public key encrypts the data, the matching private key decrypts the data. The opposite is also true.
If a private key encrypts the data, the corresponding public key decrypts the data.
71. What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users
through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)
 reduced costs
 decreased number of critical points of failure
 increased flexibility
 increased bandwidth availability
 increased network management options
Explanation: Wireless connectivity at the access layer provides increased flexibility, reduced
costs, and the ability to grow and adapt to changing business requirements. Utilizing wireless
routers and access points can provide an increase in the number of central points of failure.
Wireless routers and access points will not provide an increase in bandwidth availability.
72. What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a
network? (Choose two.)
 to scan for accessibility
 to retrieve and modify data
 to gather information about the network and devices
 to prevent other users from accessing the system
 to escalate access privileges
Explanation: Gathering information about a network and scanning for access is a
reconnaissance attack. Preventing other users from accessing a system is a denial of service
attack. Attempting to retrieve and modify data, and attempting to escalate access privileges are
types of access attacks.
73. A group of users on the same network are all complaining about their
computers running slowly. After investigating, the technician determines that
these computers are part of a zombie network. Which type of malware is
used to control these computers?
 botnet
 spyware
 virus
 rootkit
Explanation: A botnet is a network of infected computers called a zombie network. The
computers are controlled by a hacker and are used to attack other computers or to steal data.
74. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a
single entry:

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 192.31.7.45 eq dns .

If a packet with a source address of 10.1.1.201, a destination address of

192.31.7.45, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet
permitted or denied?
 permitted
 denied
76. Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to represent the data for
network automation applications?
  XML
 YAML
 HTML
 JSON
77. What QoS step must occur before packets can be marked?
 classifying
 shaping
 queuing
 policing
78. What is the main function of a hypervisor?
 It is used to create and manage multiple VM instances on a host machine.
 It is a device that filters and checks security credentials.
 It is a device that synchronizes a group of sensors.
 It is software used to coordinate and prepare data for analysis.
 It is used by ISPs to monitor cloud computing resources.
Explanation: A hypervisor is a key component of virtualization. A hypervisor is often software-
based and is used to create and manage multiple VM instances.
79. A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a
metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides
high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same
network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their
existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should
be recommended?
 Frame Relay
 Ethernet WAN
 VSAT
 ISDN
Explanation: Ethernet WAN uses many Ethernet standards and it connects easily to existing
Ethernet LANs. It provides a switched, high-bandwidth Layer 2 network capable of managing data,
voice, and video all on the same infrastructure. ISDN, while capable of supporting both voice and
data, does not provide high bandwidth. VSAT uses satellite connectivity to establish a private WAN
connection but with relatively low bandwidth. Use of VSAT, ISDN, and Frame Relay require specific
network devices for the WAN connection and data conversion between LAN and WAN.
80. Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with
QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?

 traffic shaping
 weighted random early detection
 classification and marking
 traffic policing
Explanation: Traffic shaping buffers excess packets in a queue and then forwards the traffic over
increments of time, which creates a smoothed packet output rate. Traffic policing drops traffic when
the amount of traffic reaches a configured maximum rate, which creates an output rate that appears
as a saw-tooth with crests and troughs.
81. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a
single entry:

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.3.8 eq dns .

If a packet with a source address of 10.1.3.8, a destination address of

10.10.3.8, and a protocol of 53 is received on the interface, is the packet
permitted or denied?
 denied
 permitted
82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an
arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

 defines which addresses are allowed into the router

 defines which addresses can be translated
 defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
 defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
83. If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic,
how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?
 12
 4
 8
 16
 6
Explanation: In calculating how many ACLs can be configured, use the rule of “three Ps”: one
ACL per protocol, per direction, per interface. In this case, 2 interfaces x 2 protocols x 2 directions
yields 8 possible ACLs.
84. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator first configured an extended ACL as
shown by the output of the show access-lists command. The administrator
then edited this access-list by issuing the commands below.
Router(config)# ip access-list extended 101

Router(config-ext-nacl)# no 20

Router(config-ext-nacl)# 5 permit tcp any any eq 22

Router(config-ext-nacl)# 20 deny udp any any

Which two conclusions can be drawn from this new configuration? (Choose
two.)
 TFTP packets will be permitted.
 Ping packets will be permitted.
 Telnet packets will be permitted.
 SSH packets will be permitted.
 All TCP and UDP packets will be denied.
Explanation: After the editing, the final configuration is as follows:
Router# show access-lists
Extended IP access list 101
5 permit tcp any any eq ssh
10 deny tcp any any
20 deny udp any any
30 permit icmp any any
So, only SSH packets and ICMP packets will be permitted.
85. Which troubleshooting approach is more appropriate for a seasoned
network administrator rather than a less-experienced network administrator?
 a less-structured approach based on an educated guess
 an approach comparing working and nonworking components to spot significant differences
 a structured approach starting with the physical layer and moving up through the layers of the
OSI model until the cause of the problem is identified
 an approach that starts with the end-user applications and moves down through the layers of
the OSI model until the cause of the problem has been identified
88. Why is QoS an important issue in a converged network that combines
voice, video, and data communications?
 Data communications must be given the first priority.
 Voice and video communications are more sensitive to latency.
 Legacy equipment is unable to transmit voice and video without QoS.
 Data communications are sensitive to jitter.
Explanation: Without any QoS mechanisms in place, time-sensitive packets, such as voice and
video, will be dropped with the same frequency as email and web browsing traffic.
89. Which statement describes a VPN?
 VPNs use logical connections to create public networks through the Internet.
 VPNs use open source virtualization software to create the tunnel through the Internet.
 VPNs use dedicated physical connections to transfer data between remote users.
  VPNs use virtual connections to create a private network through a public
network.
Explanation: A VPN is a private network that is created over a public network. Instead of using
dedicated physical connections, a VPN uses virtual connections routed through a public network
between two network devices.
90. In which OSPF state is the DR/BDR election conducted?
 ExStart
 Init
 Two-Way
 Exchange
91. Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer
has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense
of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of
providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate
networks?
 Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN
 Frame Relay
 remote access VPN using IPsec
 Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client with SSL
 site-to-site VPN
Explanation: The site-to-site VPN is an extension of a classic WAN network that provides a
static interconnection of entire networks. Frame Relay would be a better choice than leased lines,
but would be more expensive than implementing site-to-site VPNs. The other options refer to
remote access VPNs which are better suited for connecting users to the corporate network versus
interconnecting two or more networks.
92. What is the final operational state that will form between an OSPF DR and
a DROTHER once the routers reach convergence?
 loading
 established
 full
 two-way
94. Which type of server would be used to keep a historical record of
messages from monitored network devices?
 DNS
 print
 DHCP
 syslog
 authentication
Explanation: A syslog server is used as a centralized location for logged messages from
monitored network devices.
95. When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can
be controlled to improve network performance for real-time traffic? (Choose
two.)
 packet addressing
 delay
 jitter
 packet routing
 link speed
Explanation: Delay is the latency between a sending and receiving device. Jitter is the variation
in the delay of the received packets. Both delay and jitter need to be controlled in order to support
real-time voice and video traffic.
96. In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer
determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the
network?
 Determine ownership.
 Determine the symptoms.
 Narrow the scope.
 Document the symptoms.
 Gather information.
Explanation: In the “narrow the scope” step of gathering symptoms, a network engineer will
determine if the network problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network. Once
this step is complete and the layer is identified, the network engineer can determine which pieces of
equipment are the most likely cause.
97. What protocol sends periodic advertisements between connected Cisco
devices in order to learn device name, IOS version, and the number and type
of interfaces?
 CDP
 SNMP
 NTP
 LLDP
98. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the
networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0. What
wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?
 0.0.0.127
 0.0.0.31
 0.0.3.255
 0.0.0.63
99. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in
order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server
at 10.1.1.5:

access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.1.5

access-list 100 permit ip any any

Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of
network resources?
 inbound on router A Fa0/0
 outbound on router B Fa0/0
 outbound on router A Fa0/1
 inbound on router B Fa0/1
100. Which type of OSPFv2 packet is used to forward OSPF link change
information?
 link-state acknowledgment
 link-state update
 hello
 database description
101. What protocol synchronizes with a private master clock or with a
publicly available server on the internet?
 MPLS
 CBWFQ
 TFTP
 NTP
102. Which type of VPN allows multicast and broadcast traffic over a secure
site-to-site VPN?
 dynamic multipoint VPN
 SSL VPN
 IPsec virtual tunnel interface
 GRE over IPsec
103. An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 10.0.0.0/16,
10.1.0.0/16, and 10.2.0.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise
only the 10.1.0.0 network to neighbors?
 router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
 router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
 router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
 router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
Explanation: To advertise only the 10.1.0.0/16 network the wildcard mask used in the network
command must match the first 16-bits exactly. To match bits exactly, a wildcard mask uses a binary
zero. This means that the first 16-bits of the wildcard mask must be zero. The low order 16-bits can
all be set to 1.
104. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to
configure router A for OSPF?

i386046n1v2.gif
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
105. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the
networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0. What
wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?
 0.0.7.255
 0.0.1.255
 0.0.3.255
 0.0.15.255
106. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?
 improvement of business practices
 supply of consistent air flow
 support of live migration
 guarantee of power
Explanation: Live migration allows moving of one virtual server to another virtual server that
could be in a different location that is some distance from the original data center.

Case 2:
 Less energy is consumed.
 Server provisioning is faster.
 Hardware at the recovery site does not have to be identical to production
equipment.
 Power is always provided.
Explanation: Improved disaster recovery – Virtualization offers advanced business continuity
solutions. It provides hardware abstraction capability so that the recovery site no longer needs to
have hardware that is identical to the hardware in the production environment. Most enterprise
server virtualization platforms also have software that can help test and automate the failover before
a disaster does happen.
107. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?
 Hardware does not have to be identical.
 (Other case) Hardware at the recovery site does not have to be identical
to production equipment.
 Power is always provided.
 Less energy is consumed.
 Server provisioning is faster.
Explanation: Disaster recovery is how a company goes about accessing applications, data, and
the hardware that might be affected during a disaster. Virtualization provides hardware
independence which means the disaster recovery site does not have to have the exact equipment
as the equipment in production. Server provisioning is relevant when a server is built for the first
time. Although data centers do have backup generators, the entire data center is designed for
disaster recovery. One particular data center could never guarantee that the data center itself would
never be without power.
108. Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when
switch S3 loses power?

 S4 and PC_2
 PC_3 and AP_2
 AP_2 and AP_1
 PC_3 and PC_2
 S1 and S4
A failure domain is the area of a network that is impacted when a critical device such as switch S3
has a failure or experiences problems.
109. Which set of access control entries would allow all users on the
192.168.10.0/24 network to access a web server that is located at
172.17.80.1, but would not allow them to use Telnet?
access-list 103 deny tcp host 192.168.10.0 any eq 23
access-list 103 permit tcp host 192.168.10.1 eq 80
access-list 103 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 host 172.17.80.1 eq 80
access-list 103 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 23
access-list 103 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 80
access-list 103 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 23
access-list 103 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 host 172.17.80.1
access-list 103 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq telnet
For an extended ACL to meet these requirements the following need to be included in the access
control entries:
identification number in the range 100-199 or 2000-2699
permit or deny parameter
protocol
source address and wildcard
destination address and wildcard
port number or name
110. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add an ACE to the
TRAFFIC-CONTROL ACL that will deny IP traffic from the subnet
172.23.16.0/20. Which ACE will meet this requirement?

 5 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255

 5 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.255.255
 15 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255
 30 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255
Explanation: The only filtering criteria specified for a standard access list is the source IPv4
address. The wild card mask is written to identify what parts of the address to match, with a 0 bit,
and what parts of the address should be ignored, which a 1 bit. The router will parse the ACE
entries from lowest sequence number to highest. If an ACE must be added to an existing access
list, the sequence number should be specified so that the ACE is in the correct place during the ACL
evaluation process.
111. Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router
building a link-state database based on received LSAs?
 executing the SPF algorithm
 building the topology table
 selecting the router ID
 declaring a neighbor to be inaccessible
112. What protocol uses agents, that reside on managed devices, to collect
and store information about the device and its operation?
 SYSLOG
 TFTP
 CBWFQ
 SNMP
113. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the
networks that must be advertised is 10.27.27.0 255.255.255.0. What wildcard
mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?
 0.0.0.63
 0.0.0.255
 0.0.0.31
 0.0.0.15
114. When will an OSPF-enabled router transition from the Down state to the
Init state?
 when an OSPF-enabled interface becomes active
 as soon as the router starts
 when the router receives a hello packet from a neighbor router
 as soon as the DR/BDR election process is complete
115. What type of traffic is described as having a high volume of data per
packet?
 data
 video
 voice
116. What protocol is a vendor-neutral Layer 2 protocol that advertises the
identity and capabilities of the host device to other connected network
devices?
  LLDP
 NTP
 TFTP
 SNMP
117. Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router
running an algorithm to determine the best path to each destination?
 building the topology table
 selecting the router ID
 declaring a neighbor to be inaccessible
 executing the SPF algorithm
118. Refer to the exhibit. Which conclusion can be drawn from this OSPF
multiaccess network?

 If the DR stops producing Hello packets, a BDR will be elected, and then it promotes itself to
assume the role of DR.
 With an election of the DR, the number of adjacencies is reduced from 6 to
3.
 When a DR is elected all other non-DR routers become DROTHER.
 All DROTHER routers will send LSAs to the DR and BDR to multicast 224.0.0.5.
On OSPF multiaccess networks, a DR is elected to be the collection and distribution point for LSAs
sent and received. A BDR is also elected in case the DR fails. All other non-DR or BDR routers
become DROTHER. Instead of flooding LSAs to all routers in the network, DROTHERs only send
their LSAs to the DR and BDR using the multicast address 224.0.0.6. If there is no DR/BDR
election, the number of required adjacencies is n(n-1)/2 = > 4(4-1)/2 = 6. With the election, this
number is reduced to 3.
119. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has an IP address of
192.168.11.10 and needs access to manage R1. What is the best ACL type
and placement to use in this situation?

 extended ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet

 standard ACL inbound on R1 vty lines
 extended ACLs inbound on R1 G0/0 and G0/1
 extended ACL outbound on R2 S0/0/1
Explanation: Standard ACLs permit or deny packets based only on the source IPv4 address.
Because all traffic types are permitted or denied, standard ACLs should be located as close to the
destination as possible.
Extended ACLs permit or deny packets based on the source IPv4 address and destination IPv4
address, protocol type, source and destination TCP or UDP ports and more. Because the filtering of
extended ACLs is so specific, extended ACLs should be located as close as possible to the source
of the traffic to be filtered. Undesirable traffic is denied close to the source network without crossing
the network infrastructure.
120. Which type of VPN connects using the Transport Layer Security (TLS)
feature?
 SSL VPN
 IPsec virtual tunnel interface
 GRE over IPsec
 dynamic multipoint VPN
Explanation: When a client negotiates an SSL VPN connection with the VPN gateway, it
connects using Transport Layer Security (TLS). TLS is the newer version of SSL and is sometimes
expressed as SSL/TLS. The two terms are often used interchangeably.
121. Which group of APIs are used by an SDN controller to communicate with
various applications?
 eastbound APIs
 westbound APIs
 northbound APIs
 southbound APIs
122. A company has consolidated a number of servers and it is looking for a
program or firmware to create and control virtual machines which have
access to all the hardware of the consolidated servers. What service or
technology would support this requirement?
 Cisco ACI
 software defined networking
 Type-1 hypervisor
 APIC-EM
123. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to
identify inside local addresses that are to be translated?
 ip nat inside source list 24 interface serial 0/1/0 overload
 ip nat inside source list 14 pool POOL-STAT overload
 access-list 10 permit 172.19.89.0 0.0.0.255
 ip nat inside source list ACCTNG pool POOL-STAT
124. Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by
reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting
telecommuting, what service or technology would support requirement?
 -Cloud services
 Data center
 APIC-EM
 Cisco ACI
125. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to back up the current
running configuration of the router to a USB drive, and enters the
command copy usbflash0:/R1-config running-config on the router command line. After
removing the USB drive and connecting it to a PC, the administrator
discovers that the running configuration was not properly backed up to the
R1-config file. What is the problem?

 The file already exists on the USB drive and cannot be overwritten.
 The drive was not properly formatted with the FAT16 file system.
 There is no space left on the USB drive.
 The USB drive is not recognized by the router.
 The command that the administrator used was incorrect.
126. Which three types of VPNs are examples of enterprise-managed site-to-
site VPNs? (Choose three.)
 Layer 3 MPLS VPN
 IPsec VPN
 Cisco Dynamic Multipoint VPN
 GRE over IPsec VPN
 clientless SSL VPN
 client-based IPsec VPN
127. Refer to the exhibit. Employees on 192.168.11.0/24 work on critically
sensitive information and are not allowed access off their network. What is
the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?

 standard ACL inbound on R1 vty lines

 extended ACL inbound on R1 G0/0
 standard ACL inbound on R1 G0/1
 extended ACL inbound on R3 S0/0/1
128. In an OSPF network which two statements describe the link-state
database (LSDB)? (Choose two.)
 It can be viewed by using the show ip ospf database command.
 A neighbor table is created based on the LSDB.
 It contains a list of only the best routes to a particular network.
 It contains a list of all neighbor routers to which a router has established bidirectional
communication.
 All routers within an area have an identical link-state database.
129. In an OSPF network which OSPF structure is used to create the neighbor
table on a router?
 adjacency database
 link-state database
 routing table
 forwarding database
130. What protocol is used in a system that consists of three elements--a manager,
agents, and an information database?
 MPLS
 SYSLOG
 SNMP
 TFTP
131. What type of traffic is described as not resilient to loss?
 data
 video
 voice
Explanation: Video traffic tends to be unpredictable, inconsistent, and bursty compared to voice
traffic. Compared to voice, video is less resilient to loss and has a higher volume of data per packet.
132. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured with static NAT. Addressing
on the router and the web server are correctly configured, but there is no
connectivity between the web server and users on the Internet. What is a
possible reason for this lack of connectivity?

 Interface Fa0/0 should be configured with the command ip nat outside .

 The inside global address is incorrect.
 The router NAT configuration has an incorrect inside local address.
 The NAT configuration on interface S0/0/1 is incorrect.
133. Which type of API would be used to allow authorized salespeople of an
organization access to internal sales data from their mobile devices?
 open
 partner
 public
 private
Explanation: Private, or internal, APIs are used only within an organization and are for company
access to data and services for internal use.
134. Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to represent the data for
network automation applications?

 XML
 HTML
 YAML
 JSON
Explanation:
Common data formats that are used in many applications including network automation and
programmability include these:
JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) – In JSON, the data known as an object is one or more
key/value pairs enclosed in braces { }. Keys must be strings within double quotation marks ” “. Keys
and values are separated by a colon.
eXtensible Markup Language (XML) – In XML, the data is enclosed within a related set of tags data.
YAML Ain’t Markup Language (YAML) – In YAML, the data known as an object is one or more key
value pairs. Key value pairs are separated by a colon without the use of quotation marks. YAML
uses indentation to define its structure, without the use of brackets or commas.
135. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a
single entry:

access-list 101 permit udp 192.168.100.32 0.0.0.7 host 198.133.219.76 eq

telnet .

If a packet with a source address of 198.133.219.100, a destination address

of 198.133.219.170, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the
packet permitted or denied?
 denied
 permitted
136. Refer to the exhibit. If no router ID was manually configured, what would
router R1 use as its OSPF router ID?

 10.0.0.1
 10.1.0.1
 192.168.1.100
 209.165.201.1
137. What protocol is a vendor-neutral Layer 2 protocol that advertises the
identity and capabilities of the host device to other connected network
devices?
 NTP
 LLDP
 SNMP
 MPLS
138. Which type of VPN uses a hub-and-spoke configuration to establish a full
mesh topology?
 MPLS VPN
 GRE over IPsec
 IPsec virtual tunnel interface
 dynamic multipoint VPN
139. What is a characteristic of the REST API?
 evolved into what became SOAP
 used for exchanging XML structured information over HTTP or SMTP
 considered slow, complex, and rigid
 most widely used API for web services
Explanation: REST accounts for more than 80% of all API types used for web services, making
it the most widely used web service API.
141. A student, doing a summer semester of study overseas, has taken
hundreds of pictures on a smartphone and wants to back them up in case of
loss. What service or technology would support this requirement?
 Cisco ACI
 cloud services
 software defined networking
 dedicated servers
142. Consider the following access list that allows IP phone configuration file
transfers from a particular host to a TFTP server:

R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5

range 1024 5000

R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any

R1(config)# interface gi0/0

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

Which method would allow the network administrator to modify the ACL and
include FTP transfers from any source IP address?
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out
R1(config)# no access-list 105
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any
143. Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in
the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)
 Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.
 Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
 Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
 Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
 Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
 For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.
Explanation: Extended ACLs should be placed as close as possible to the source IP address, so
that traffic that needs to be filtered does not cross the network and use network resources. Because
standard ACLs do not specify a destination address, they should be placed as close to the
destination as possible. Placing a standard ACL close to the source may have the effect of filtering
all traffic, and limiting services to other hosts. Filtering unwanted traffic before it enters low-
bandwidth links preserves bandwidth and supports network functionality. Decisions on placing ACLs
inbound or outbound are dependent on the requirements to be met.
144. Match the term to the web link
http://www.buycarsfromus.com/2020models/ford/suv.html#Escape
component. (Not all options are used.)

protocol http

Uniform Resource
Name (URN) www.buycarsfromus.com/2020models/ford/suv.html

Uniform Resource
Locator (URL) http://www.buycarsfromus.com/2020models/ford/suv.html

Uniform Resource http://www.buycarsfromus.com/2020models/ford/

Identifier (URI) suv.html#Escape

fragment #Escape
145. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to
display all static translations that have been configured?
 show ip nat translations
 show ip pat translations
 show ip cache
 show running-config
146. A network administrator modified an OSPF-enabled router to have a
hello timer setting of 20 seconds. What is the new dead interval time setting
by default?
 40 seconds
 60 seconds
 80 seconds
 100 seconds
147. Which type of VPN is the preferred choice for support and ease of
deployment for remote access?
 SSL VPN
 GRE over IPsec
 dynamic multipoint VPN
  IPsec virtual tunnel interface
148. What type of traffic is described as predictable and smooth?
 video
 data
 voice
149. Which queuing mechanism has no provision for prioritizing or buffering
but simply forwards packets in the order they arrive?
 FIFO
 LLQ
 CBWFQ
 WFQ
150. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on
the two Cisco routers. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency.
What should be done to fix the problem on router R2?

 Implement the command no passive-interface Serial0/1.

 Implement the command network 192.168.2.6 0.0.0.0 area 0 on router R2.
 Change the router-id of router R2 to 2.2.2.2.
 Implement the command network 192.168.3.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 on router R2.
151. A network administrator is troubleshooting an OSPF problem that
involves neighbor adjacency. What should the administrator do?
 Make sure that the router priority is unique on each router.
 Make sure that the DR/BDR election is complete.
 Make sure that the router ID is included in the hello packet.
 Make sure that the hello and dead interval timers are the same on all
routers.
152. Refer to the exhibit. Internet privileges for an employee have been
revoked because of abuse but the employee still needs access to company
resources. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?

CCNA 3 v7 Modules 3 – 5: Network Security Exam Answers 49

 standard ACL inbound on R2 WAN interface connecting to the internet
 standard ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet
 standard ACL inbound on R1 G0/0
 standard ACL outbound on R1 G0/0
Explanation: – Standard ACLs permit or deny packets based only on the source IPv4 address.
Because all traffic types are permitted or denied, standard ACLs should be located as close to the
destination as possible.
– Extended ACLs permit or deny packets based on the source IPv4 address and destination IPv4
address, protocol type, source and destination TCP or UDP ports and more. Because the filtering of
extended ACLs is so specific, extended ACLs should be located as close as possible to the source
of the traffic to be filtered. Undesirable traffic is denied close to the source network without crossing
the network infrastructure.
153. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a
single entry:

access-list 100 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.200.0 0.0.0.255

eq www .
If a packet with a source address of 192.168.10.244, a destination address of
172.17.200.56, and a protocol of 80 is received on the interface, is the packet
permitted or denied?
 denied
 permitted
154. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify
the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to
perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use
applications such as Nmap, SuperScan, and Angry IP Scanner?
 to detect installed tools within files and directories that provide threat actors remote access and
control over a computer or network
 to detect any evidence of a hack or malware in a computer or network
 to reverse engineer binary files when writing exploits and when analyzing malware
 to probe network devices, servers, and hosts for open TCP or UDP ports
155. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to
display any dynamic PAT translations that have been created by traffic?
 show ip pat translations
 show ip cache
 show running-config
 show ip nat translations
156. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the
networks that must be advertised is 172.16.91.0 255.255.255.192. What
wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?
 0.0.31.255
 0.0.0.63
 0.0.15.255
 0.0.7.255
157. What type of traffic is described as requiring latency to be no more than
400 milliseconds (ms)?
 video
 data
 voice
158. Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create
and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network
devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two.)

A.
R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out
B.
R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255
C.
R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in
D.
R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127
E.
R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any
159. A network administrator is writing a standard ACL that will deny any
traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network, but permit all other traffic. Which two
commands should be used? (Choose two.)
 Router(config)# access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
 Router(config)# access-list 95 permit any
 Router(config)# access-list 95 host 172.16.0.0
 Router(config)# access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
 Router(config)# access-list 95 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.255
 Router(config)# access-list 95 deny any
Explanation: To deny traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network, the access-list 95 deny
172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 command is used. To permit all other traffic, the access-list 95
permit any statement is added.
160. Refer to the exhibit. The company has decided that no traffic initiating
from any other existing or future network can be transmitted to the Research
and Development network. Furthermore, no traffic that originates from the
Research and Development network can be transmitted to any other existing
or future networks in the company. The network administrator has decided
that extended ACLs are better suited for these requirements. Based on the
information given, what will the network administrator do?

 One ACL will be placed on the R1 Gi0/0 interface and one ACL will be placed on the R2 Gi0/0
interface.
 Only a numbered ACL will work for this situation.
 One ACL will be placed on the R2 Gi0/0 interface and one ACL will be placed on the R2 S0/0/0
interface.
 Two ACLs (one in each direction) will be placed on the R2 Gi0/0 interface.
161. What protocol uses smaller stratum numbers to indicate that the server
is closer to the authorized time source than larger stratum numbers?
 TFTP
 SYSLOG
 NTP
 MPLS
162. Refer to the exhibit. If no router ID was manually configured, what would
router Branch1 use as its OSPF router ID?

 10.0.0.1
 10.1.0.1
 192.168.1.100
 209.165.201.1
Explanation: In OSPFv2, a Cisco router uses a three-tier method to derive its router ID. The first
choice is the manually configured router ID with the router-id command. If the router ID is not
manually configured, the router will choose the highest IPv4 address of the configured loopback
interfaces. Finally if no loopback interfaces are configured, the router chooses the highest active
IPv4 address of its physical interfaces.
163. Match the HTTP method with the RESTful operation.

POST create

GET read
 PUT/PATCH update

DELETE delete

164. Refer to the exhibit. A web designer calls to report that the web server
web-s1.cisco.com is not reachable through a web browser. The technician
uses command line utilities to verify the problem and to begin the
troubleshooting process. Which two things can be determined about the
problem? (Choose two.)

 The web server at 192.168.0.10 is reachable from the source host.

 DNS cannot resolve the IP address for the server web-s1.cisco.com.
 A router is down between the source host and the server web-s1.cisco.com.
 There is a problem with the web server software on web-s1.cisco.com.
 The default gateway between the source host and the server at 192.168.0.10 is down.
Explanation: The successful result of the ping to the IP address indicates that the network is
operational and the web server is online. However, the fact that the ping to the domain name of the
server fails indicates there is a DNS issue, namely that the host cannot resolve the domain name to
its associated IP address.
165. What type of traffic is described as tending to be unpredictable,
inconsistent, and bursty?
 video
 voice
 data
166. Match the functions to the corresponding layers. (Not all options are
used.)

access layer distribution layer core layer

provides network implements network provides high-speed backbone

access to the user access policy connectivity

represents the network establishes Layer 3 functions as an aggregator for all

edge routing boundaries the campus blocks
167. What type of traffic is described as consisting of traffic that requires a
higher priority if interactive?
 voice
 data
 video
168. Which type of VPN provides a flexible option to connect a central site
with branch sites?
 IPsec virtual tunnel interface
 MPLS VPN
 dynamic multipoint VPN
 GRE over IPsec
169. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify
the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to
perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use
fuzzers?
 to discover security vulnerabilities of a computer
 to detect any evidence of a hack or malware in a computer or network
 to reverse engineer binary files when writing exploits and when analyzing malware
 to detect installed tools within files and directories that provide threat actors remote access and
control over a computer or network
170. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a standard
ACL to permit only the two LAN networks attached to R1 to access the
network that connects to R2 G0/1 interface, but not the G0/0 interface. When
following the best practices, in what location should the standard ACL be
applied?

 R1 S0/0/0 outbound
 R2 G0/0 outbound
 R2 S0/0/1 outbound
 R1 S0/0/0 inbound
 R2 G0/1 inbound
171. Two OSPF-enabled routers are connected over a point-to-point link.
During the ExStart state, which router will be chosen as the first one to send
DBD packets?
 the router with the highest router ID
 the router with the lowest IP address on the connecting interface
 the router with the highest IP address on the connecting interface
 the router with the lowest router ID
Explain:In the ExStart state, the two routers decide which router will send the DBD packets first.
The router with the higher router ID will be the first router to send DBD packets during the Exchange
state
172. Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router
sending Hello packets out all of the OSPF-enabled interfaces?
 exchanging link-state advertisements
 electing the designated router
 injecting the default route
 establishing neighbor adjacencies
Explanation: OSPF-enabled routers must recognize each other on the network before they can
share information. An OSPF-enabled router sends Hello packets out all OSPF-enabled interfaces to
determine if neighbors are present on those links. If a neighbor is present, the OSPF-enabled router
attempts to establish a neighbor adjacency with that neighbor.
173. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify
the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to
perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use
forensic tools?
 to obtain specially designed operating systems preloaded with tools optimized for hacking
 to detect any evidence of a hack or malware in a computer or network
 to detect installed tools within files and directories that provide threat actors remote access and
control over a computer or network
 to reverse engineer binary files when writing exploits and when analyzing malware
174. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on
the two Cisco routers but PC1 is unable to connect to PC2. What is the most
likely problem?

 Interface Fa0/0 has not been activated for OSPFv2 on router R2.
 Interface Fa0/0 is configured as a passive-interface on router R2.
 Interface S0/0 is configured as a passive-interface on router R2.
 Interface s0/0 has not been activated for OSPFv2 on router R2.
Explanation: If a LAN network is not advertised using OSPFv2, a remote network will not be
reachable. The output displays a successful neighbor adjacency between router R1 and R2 on the
interface S0/0 of both routers.
175. ABCTech is investigating the use of automation for some of its products.
In order to control and test these products, the programmers require
Windows, Linux, and MAC OS on their computers. What service or technology
would support this requirement?
 dedicated servers
 software defined networking
 virtualization
 Cisco ACI
176. A network engineer has noted that some expected network route entries
are not displayed in the routing table. Which two commands will provide
additional information about the state of router adjacencies, timer intervals,
and the area ID? (Choose two.)
 show ip protocols
 show ip ospf neighbor
 show running-configuration
 show ip ospf interface
 show ip route ospf
Explanation: The show ip ospf interface command will display routing table information that is
already known. The show running-configuration and show ip protocols commands will display
aspects of the OSPF configuration on the router but will not display adjacency state details or timer
interval details.
177. Which type of VPN involves the forwarding of traffic over the backbone
through the use of labels distributed among core routers?
 MPLS VPN
 GRE over IPsec
 IPsec virtual tunnel interface
 dynamic multipoint VPN
178. Which type of VPN involves a nonsecure tunneling protocol being
encapsulated by IPsec?
 SSL VPN
 dynamic multipoint VPN
 GRE over IPsec
 IPsec virtual tunnel interface
179. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify
the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to
perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use
hacking operation systems?
  to detect any evidence of a hack or malware in a computer or network
 to obtain specially designed operating systems preloaded with tools
optimized for hacking
 to encode data, using algorithm schemes, to prevent unauthorized access to the encrypted data
 to reverse engineer binary files when writing exploits and when analyzing malware
180. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to
identify an interface as part of the external global network?
 ip pat inside
 access-list 10 permit 172.19.89.0 0.0.0.255
 ip nat inside
 ip nat outside
181. To avoid purchasing new hardware, a company wants to take advantage
of idle system resources and consolidate the number of servers while
allowing for multiple operating systems on a single hardware platform. What
service or technology would support this requirement?
 data center
 cloud services
 virtualization
 dedicated servers
Explain: Server virtualization takes advantage of idle resources and consolidates the number of
required servers. This also allows for multiple operating systems to exist on a single hardware
platform.
182. Which type of VPN routes packets through virtual tunnel interfaces for
encryption and forwarding?
 MPLS VPN
 IPsec virtual tunnel interface
 dynamic multipoint VPN
 GRE over IPsec
183. Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router
flooding link-state and cost information about each directly connected link?
 building the topology table
 selecting the router ID
 exchanging link-state advertisements
 injecting the default route
184. What type of traffic is described as using either TCP or UDP depending
on the need for error recovery?
 video
 voice
 data
185. Refer to the exhibit. The company CEO demands that one ACL be created
to permit email traffic to the internet and deny FTP access. What is the best
ACL type and placement to use in this situation?

 extended ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet

 standard ACL outbound on R2 S0/0/0
 extended ACL inbound on R2 S0/0/0
 standard ACL inbound on R2 WAN interface connecting to the internet
186. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to
define a pool of addresses for translation?
 ip nat inside source static 172.19.89.13 198.133.219.65
  ip nat inside source list 24 interface serial 0/1/0 overload
 ip nat pool POOL-STAT 64.100.14.17 64.100.14.30 netmask
255.255.255.240
 ip nat outside
187. What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network
design that is considered to be the backbone used for high-speed
connectivity and fault isolation?
 data link
 access
 core
 network
 network access
Explanation: The three layers of the Cisco borderless switch network design are access,
distribution, and core. The access layer switches are the ones used to connect end devices to the
network. The distribution layer switches accept connections from access layer switches and
provides switching, routing, and access policy functions. The core layer is called the backbone and
core switches commonly have high-speed redundant connections.
188. An ACL is applied inbound on router interface. The ACL consists of a
single entry:

access-list 210 permit tcp 172.18.20.0 0.0.0.47 any eq ftp

If a packet with a source address of 172.18.20.40, a destination address of

10.33.19.2, and a protocol of 21 is received on the interface, is the packet
permitted or denied?
 permitted
 denied
189. What type of traffic is described as consisting of traffic that gets a lower
priority if it is not mission-critical?
 video
 data
 voice
190. Which OSPF table is identical on all converged routers within the same
OSPF area?
 routing
 neighbor
 adjacency
 topology
191. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a
single entry:
access-list 100 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www .
If a packet with a source address of 192.168.10.45, a destination address of 10.10.3.27, and a
protocol of 80 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?
 permitted
 denied
192. What protocol allows the manager to poll agents to access information
from the agent MIB?
 CBWFQ
 SYSLOG
  TFTP
 SNMP
193. Match each component of a WAN connection to its description. (Not all
options are used.)

Case 2:

194. What type of traffic is described as being able to tolerate a certain

amount of latency, jitter, and loss without any noticeable effects?
 voice
 video
 data
195. What term describes adding a value to the packet header, as close to
the source as possible, so that the packet matches a defined policy?
 policing
 traffic marking
 weighted random early detection (WRED)
 traffic shaping
 tail drop
196. Which three traffic-related factors would influence selecting a particular
WAN link type? (Choose three.)
 cost of the link
 amount of traffic
 distance between sites
 reliability
 security needs
 type of traffic
Explanation: The traffic-related factors that influence selecting a particular WAN link type include
the type of traffic, amount of traffic, quality requirements, and security requirements. Quality
requirements include ensuring that traffic that cannot tolerate delay gets priority treatment as well as
important business transactional traffic.

197. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to link the inside local
addresses to the pool of addresses available for PAT translation?
 ip nat inside source list ACCTNG pool POOL-STAT
 ip nat translation timeout 36000
 ip nat inside source list 14 pool POOL-STAT overload
 ip nat inside source static 172.19.89.13 198.133.219.65
198. What protocol is a vendor-neutral Layer 2 discovery protocol that must
be configured separately to transmit and receive information packets?
 SNMP
 MPLS
 LLDP
 NTP
199. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a
single entry:
access-list 210 permit tcp 172.18.20.0 0.0.0.31 172.18.20.32 0.0.0.31 eq ftp .
If a packet with a source address of 172.18.20.55, a destination address of
172.18.20.3, and a protocol of 21 is received on the interface, is the packet
permitted or denied?
  permitted
 denied
200. Refer to the exhibit. Corporate policy demands that access to the server
network be restricted to internal employees only. What is the best ACL type
and placement to use in this situation?

Corporate policy demands that access to the server network be restricted to internal
employees only. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation
 extended ACL outbound on R2 S0/0/1
 standard ACL outbound on R2 S0/0/0
 standard ACL inbound on R2 WAN interface connecting to the internet
 extended ACL inbound on R2 S0/0/0
201. A technician is working on a Layer 2 switch and notices that a %CDP-4-
DUPLEX_MISMATCH message keeps appearing for port G0/5. What command
should the technician issue on the switch to start the troubleshooting
process?
 show cdp neighbors
 show ip interface brief
 show interface g0/5
 show cdp
202. Which virtual resource would be installed on a network server to provide
direct access to hardware resources?
 VMware Fusion
 a management console
 a dedicated VLAN
 a Type 1 hypervisor
Explanation: Type 1 hypervisors, the hypervisor is installed directly on the server or networking
hardware. Then, instances of an OS are installed on the hypervisor, as shown in the figure. Type 1
hypervisors have direct access to the hardware resources. Therefore, they are more efficient than
hosted architectures. Type 1 hypervisors improve scalability, performance, and robustness.
203. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a standard
ACL to permit only the two LAN networks attached to R1 to access the
network that connects to R2 G0/1 interface. When following the best
practices, in what location should the standard ACL be applied?

Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation ( Version 7.00) – ENSA Final Exam
 R2 G0/1 inbound
 R2 S0/0/1 outbound
 R1 S0/0/0 outbound
 R2 G0/1 outbound
 R2 G0/0 outbound
204. Which OSPF database is identical on all converged routers within the
same OSPF area?
 neighbor
 forwarding
 link-state
 adjacency
Explanation: Regardless of which OSPF area a router resides in, the adjacency database,
routing table, and forwarding database are unique for each router. The link-state database lists
information about all other routers within an area and is identical across all OSPF routers
participating in that area.
205. What are two features to consider when creating a named ACL? (Choose
two.)
 Use alphanumeric characters if needed.
 Use special characters, such as ! or * to show the importance of the ACL.
 Modify the ACL using a text editor.
 Be descriptive when creating the ACL name.
 Use a space for ease of reading to separate the name from the description
Explanation: The following summarizes the rules to follow for named ACLs:
Assign a name to identify the purpose of the ACL.
Names can contain alphanumeric characters.
Names cannot contain spaces or punctuation.
It is suggested that the name be written in CAPITAL LETTERS.
Entries can be added or deleted within the ACL.
206. Match the RESTful API method to CRUD function.

Match the RESTful API method to CRUD function.

207. What type of traffic is described as requiring at least 384 Kbps of
bandwidth?
 voice
 data
 video
208. Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router
inserting best paths into the routing table?
 declaring a neighbor to be inaccessible
 executing the SPF algorithm
 load balancing equal-cost paths
 choosing the best route
209. Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by
reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting
telecommuting. What service or technology would support this requirement?
 data center
 virtualization
 cloud services
 dedicated servers
210. Which QoS technique smooths packet output rate?
 policing
 shaping
 weighted random early detection
 Integrated Services (IntServ)
 marking
211. Refer to the exhibit. The company has provided IP phones to employees
on the 192.168.10.0/24 network and the voice traffic will need priority over
data traffic. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?

 extended ACL inbound on R1 G0/0

 extended ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet
 extended ACL outbound on R2 S0/0/1
  extended ACLs inbound on R1 G0/0 and G0/1
Explanation: Standard ACLs permit or deny packets based only on the source IPv4 address.
Because all traffic types are permitted or denied, standard ACLs should be located as close to the
destination as possible.
Extended ACLs permit or deny packets based on the source IPv4 address and destination IPv4
address, protocol type, source and destination TCP or UDP ports and more. Because the filtering of
extended ACLs is so specific, extended ACLs should be located as close as possible to the source
of the traffic to be filtered. Undesirable traffic is denied close to the source network without crossing
the network infrastructure.
212. A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level
of SNMPv3 authPriv. What is a feature of using this level?
 authenticates a packet by using the SHA algorithm only
 authenticates a packet by a string match of the username or community string
 authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the
SHA method
 authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC MD5 or HMAC SHA algorithms and a
username