1

ESE (P), 2019

Mechanical - Set A
1. Water is discharged from a tank maintained at 6. The stream function for a flow field is ψ = 3x2y
a constant head of 5 m above the exit of a + (2 + t)y2. The velocity at a point P for position
straight pipe 100 m long and 15 cm in diameter. vector r = i + 2j – 3k at time t = 2 will be
If the friction coefficient for the pipe is 0.01, (a) 19i – 12j (b) 21i – 12j
the rate of flow will be nearly (c) 19i + 22j (d) 21i + 22j
(a) 0.04 m3/s (b) 0.05 m3/s
3
(c) 0.06 m /s (d) 0.07 m3/s 7. In a laminar flow through pipe, the point of
maximum instability exists at a distance of y
2. A plate weighing 150 N and measuring from the wall which is
0.8 m × 0.8 m just slides down an inclined 3
plane over an oil film of 1.2 mm thickness for (a) of pipe radius R
2
an inclination of 30° and velocity of 0.2 m/s.
2
Then the viscosity of the oil used is (b) of pipe radius R
3
(a) 0.3 N s/m2 (b) 0.4 N s/m2
1
(c) 0.5 N s/m2 (d) 0.7 N s/m2 (c) of pipe radius R
2
3. A spherical balloon of 1.5 m diameter is 1
(d) of pipe radius R
completely immersed in water and chained to 3
the bottom. If the chain has a tension of 10 kN,
the weight of the balloon will be nearly u ' v '
8. Q= =− for a turbulent flow signifies
(a) 9.11 kN (b) 8.22 kN x y
(c) 6.44 kN (d) 7.33 kN (a) conservation of bulk momentum transport
(b) increase in u' in x-direction followed by
4. A nozzle at the end of an 80 mm hosepipe increase in v' in negative y-direction
produces a jet 40 mm in diameter. When it is (c) turbulence is anisotropic
discharging the water 1200 Lpm, the force on
(d) turbulence is isotropic
the joint at the base of the nozzle will be
(a) 180 N
(b) 200 N 9. A flow field satisfying  .V = 0 as the
(c) 220 N continuity equation represents always
(d) 240 N (a) a steady compressible flow
(b) an incompressible flow
(c) an unsteady and incompressible flow
5. A vertical water pipe, 1.5 m long, tapers from
75 mm diameter at the bottom to 150 mm (d) an unsteady and compressible flow
diameter at the top and the rate of flow is
50 L/s upwards. If the pressure at the bottom 10. An oil of viscosity 8 poise flows between two
end is 150 kN/m2, the pressure at the top will parallel fixed plates, which are kept at a
be nearly distance of 30 mm apart. If the drop of pressure
(a) 195.2 kN/m2 for a length of 1 m is 0.3 × 104 N/m2 and width
of the plates is 500 mm, the rate of oil flow
(b) 191.4 kN/m2
between the plates will be
(c) 187.6 kN/m2
(a) 4.2 × 10–3 m3/s (b) 5.4 × 10–3 m3/s
(d) 183.8 kN/m2
(c) 6.6 × 10–3 m3/s (d) 7.8 × 10–3 m3/s
 2

11. In case of transmission of hydraulic power by 17. A gas mixture consists of 3 kg of O2,5 kg of N2
a pipeline to a turbine in a hydroelectric power and 12 kg of CH4. The mass fraction and mole
station, the maximum power transmission fraction of O2 are
efficiency through the pipeline is (a) 0.25 and 0.125 (b) 0.15 and 0.092
(a) 76% (b) 67% (c) 0.25 and 0.092 (d) 0.15 and 0.125
(c) 54% (d) 42%
18. An insulated pipe of 50 mm outside diameter
12. A pipe, having a length 200 m and 200 mm with ε = 0.8 is laid in a room at 30°C. If the
diameter with friction factor 0.015, is to be surface temperature is 250°C and the
replaced by a 400 mm diameter pipe of friction convective heat transfer coefficient is 10
factor 0.012 to convey the same quantity of W/m2K, the total heat loss per unit length of the
flow. The equivalent length of the new pipe for pipe will be
the same head loss will be (a) 896.6 W/m (b) 818.8 W/m
(a) 8300 m (b) 8240 m (c) 786.4 W/m (d) 742.2 W/m
(c) 8110 m (d) 8000 m
19. A wire of 8 mm diameter at a temperature of
60°C is to be insulated by a material having
13. Certain quantities cannot be located on the k = 0.174 W/m K. The heat transfer coefficient
graph by a point but are given by the area under on the outside ha = 8 W/m2 K and ambient
the curve corresponding to the process. These temperature Ta = 25°C. The maximum
quantities in concepts of thermodynamics are thickness of insulation for maximum heat loss
called as will be
(a) cyclic functions (b) point functions (a) 15.25 mm (b) 16.50 mm
(c) path functions (d) real functions (c) 17.75 mm (d) 18.25 mm

14. When 25 kg of water at 95°C is mixed with 20. In liquid metals, thermal boundary layer
35 kg of water at 35°C, the pressure being develops much faster than velocity boundary
taken as constant at surrounding temperature of layer due to
15°C, and Cp of water is 4.2 kJ/kg K, the (a) lower value of Nusselt number
decrease in available energy due to mixing will (b) higher value of Prandtl number
be nearly (c) lower value of Prandtl number
(a) 270.5 kJ (b) 277.6 kJ (d) higher value of Nusselt number
(c) 281.8 kJ (d) 288.7 kJ
21. The temperature of a body of area 0.1 m2 is
15. A frictionless piston cylinder device contains 5 900 K. The wavelength for maximum
kg of steam at 400 kPa and 200°C. The heat is monochromatic emissive power will be nearly
now transferred to the steam until the (a) 2.3 μm (b) 3.2 μm
temperature reaches 250°C. If the piston is not (c) 4.1 μm (d) 5.0 μm
attached to a shaft, its mass is constant, and by
taking the values of specific volume v1 as 22. Consider the following statements :
0.53434 m3/kg and v2 as 0.59520 m3/kg, the For the laminar condensation on a vertical
work done by the steam during this process is plate, the Nusselt theory says that
(a) 121.7 kJ (b) 137.5 kJ 1. inertia force in the film is negligible
(c) 153.3 kJ (d) 189.1 kJ compared to viscosity and weight
2. heat flow is mainly by conduction through
16. A diesel engine has a compression ratio of 14 the liquid film, convection in liquid film
and cutoff takes place at 6% of the stroke. The as well as in vapour is neglected
air standard efficiency will be 3. velocity of vapour is very high
(a) 74.5% (b) 60.5% Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 52.5% (d) 44.5%
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
 3

23. In transition boiling, heat flux decreases due to 27. A 4-stroke, 6-cylinder gas engine with a stroke
which of the following? volume of 1.75 litres develops 26.25 kW at
1. Low value of film heat transfer coefficient 506 r.p.m. and the MEP is 600 kN/m2. The
at the surface during 100°C to 120°C number of misfires per minute per cylinder will
surface temperature be
2. Major portion of heater surface is covered (a) 3 (b) 4
by vapour film which has smaller thermal (c) 5 (d) 6
conductivity as compared to liquid
3. Nucleate boiling occurs very fast 28. Which one of the following compressors will
Select the correct answer using the code given be used in vapour compression refrigerator for
below plants up to 100 tonnes capacity?
(a) 1 only (a) Reciprocating compressor
(b) 2 only (b) Rotary compressor
(c) 3 only (c) Centrifugal compressor
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Double-acting compressor

24. A hemispherical furnace of radius 1.0 m has a 29. A cold storage is to be maintained at –5°C
roof temperature of T1 = 800 K and emissivity while the surroundings are at 35°C. The heat
ε1 = 0.8. The flat floor of the furnace has a leakage from the surroundings into the cold
temperature T2 = 600 K and emissivity ε2 = 0.5. storage is estimated to be 29 kW. The actual
The view factor F12 from surface 1 to 2 will be 1
COP of the refrigeration plant used is rd that
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.4 3
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.6 of an ideal plant working between the same
temperatures. The power required to drive the
25. Consider the following statements: plant will be
Combustion chamber is (a) 13 kW (b) 14 kW
1. the volume between TDC and BDC (c) 15 kW (d) 16 kW
during the combustion process
2. the space enclosed between the upper part 30. Consider the following statements :
of the cylinder and the top of the piston An expansion device in a refrigeration system
during the combustion process 1. reduces the pressure from the condenser to
3. the space enclosed between TDC and the the evaporator
top of the piston during the combustion 2. regulates the flow of the refrigerant to the
process evaporator depending on the load
Which of the above statement is/are correct? 3. is essentially a restriction offering
(a) 1only (b) 2 only resistance to flow
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
26. A 4-stroke diesel engine has length of 20 cm (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
and diameter of 16 cm. The engine is
producing power of 25 kW when it is running 31. A reversed Carnot engine is used for heating a
at 2500 r.p.m. The mean effective pressure of building. It supplies 210 × 103 kJ/hr of heat to
the engine will be nearly the building at 20°C. The outside air is at –5°C.
(a) 5.32 bar The heat taken from the outside will be nearly
(b) 4.54 bar (a) 192 × 103 kJ/hr (b) 188 × 103 kJ/hr
(c) 3.76 bar (c) 184 × 103 kJ/hr (d) 180 × 103 kJ/hr
(d) 2.98 bar
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32. In an Electrolux refrigerator, a thermosiphon 37. The hydraulic efficiency of a turbine is the ratio
bubble pump is used to lift the of
(a) weak aqua solution from the generator to (a) mechanical energy in the output shaft at
the separator coupling and hydrodynamic energy
(b) weak aqua solution from the separator to available from the fluid
the absorber (b) mechanical energy supplied by the rotor
and hydrodynamic energy available from
(c) strong aqua solution from the generator to the fluid
the separator
(c) useful hydrodynamic energy in the fluid at
(d) strong aqua solution from the generator to final discharge and mechanical energy
the evaporator supplied to the rotor
(d) useful hydrodynamic energy in the fluid at
33. The enthalpy of moist air with normal final discharge and mechanical energy
notations is given by supplied to the shaft and coupling
(a) h = (1.005 + 1.88 W) t + 2500 W
38. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) h = 1.88 Wt + 2500 W
compounding in steam turbines :
(c) h = 1.005 Wt 1. In impulse turbine, steam pressure
(d) h = (1.88 + 1.005 W)t + 2500 W remains constant between ends of the
moving blades.
34. If the relative humidity of atmospheric air is 2. In reaction turbine, steam pressure drops
100%, then the wet-bulb temperature will be from inlet to outlet of the blade.
3. In velocity compounding, partial
(a) more than dry-bulb temperature
expansion of steam takes place in the
(b) equal to dew-point temperature nozzle and further expansion takes place
(c) equal to dry-bulb temperature in the rotor blades.
(d) less than dry-bulb temperature Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
35. During an air-conditioning of a plant, the room
sensible heat load is 40 kW and room latent
heat load is 10 kW, ventilation air is 25% of 39. In a lawn sprinkler, water leaves the jet with an
supply air. At full load, the room sensible heat absolute velocity of 2 m/s and the sprinkler
factor will be arms are 0.1 m in length. The sprinkler rotates
at a speed of 120 r.p.m. The utilization factor
(a) 0.9 of this sprinkler will be nearly
(b) 0.8 (a) 0.72 (b) 0.64
(c) 0.7 (c) 0.56 (d) 0.49
(d) 0.6
40. Which one of the following statements is
correct with respect to axial flow 50% reaction
36. A 2-stroke oil engine has bore of 20 cm, stroke
turbine?
30 cm, speed 350 r.p.m., i.m.e.p. 275 kN/m2,
(a) The combined velocity diagram is
net brake load 610 N, diameter of brake drum
symmetrical.
1 m, oil consumption 4.25 kg/hr, calorific value
of fuel 44 × 103 kJ/kg. The indicated thermal (b) The outlet absolute velocity should not be
efficiency will be axial for maximum utilization.
(c) Angles of both stator and rotor are not
(a) 29.1% identical.
(b) 31.3% (d) For maximum utilization, the speed ratio
(c) 33.5% U
= sin 2 .
(d) 35.7% v1
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41. In axial flow pumps and compressors, the 46. A compressor delivers 4 m3 of air having a
combined velocity diagram with common base mass of 5 kg. The specific weight and specific
is used to determine change in volume of air being delivered will be nearly
(a) absolute velocity (V2 – V1) (a) 12.3 N/m3 and 0.8 m3/kg
(b) relative velocity (Vr2 – Vr1) (b) 14.6 N/m3 and 0.4 m3/kg
(c) tangential velocity (U2 – U1)
(c) 12.3 N/m3 and 0.4 m3/kg
(d) whirl velocity (Vu2 – Vu1)
(d) 14.6 N/m3 and 0.8 m3/kg
42. In a steam turbine with steam flow rate of
1 kg/s, inlet velocity of steam of 100 m/s, exit 47. In centrifugal compressors, there exists a loss
velocity of steam of 150 m/s, enthalpy at inlet of energy due to the mismatch of direction of
of 2900 kJ/kg, enthalpy at outlet of 1600 kJ/kg, relative velocity of fluid at inlet with inlet blade
the power available from the turbine will be angle. This loss is known as
nearly (a) frictional loss
(a) 1575.5 kW (b) 1481.6 kW (b) incidence loss
(c) 1387.7 kW (d) 1293.8 kW
(c) clearance loss
43. In an isentropic flow through a nozzle, air (d) leakage loss
flows at the rate of 600 kg/hr. At inlet to nozzle,
the pressure is 2MPa and the temperature is 48. A centrifugal compressor develops a pressure
127°C. The exit pressure is of 0.5MPa. If the ratio of 5 and air consumption of 30 kg/s. The
initial velocity of air is 300 m/s, the exit inlet temperature and pressure are 15°C and 1
velocity will be bar respectively. For an isentropic efficiency of
(a) 867 m/s (b) 776 m/s 0.85, the power required by the compressor
(c) 685 m/s (d) 594 m/s will be nearly
(a) 5964 kW
44. In a steam turbine, the nozzle angle at the inlet (b) 5778 kW
is 18°. The relative velocity is reduced to the (c) 5586 kW
extent of 6% when steam flows over the
moving blades. The output of the turbine is (d) 5397 kW
120 kJ/kg flow of steam. If the blades are
equiangular, the speed ratio and the absolute 49. The efficiency of superheat Rankine cycle is
velocity of steam at inlet for maximum higher than that of simple Rankine cycle
utilization are nearly because
(a) 0.42 and 230.2 m/s (a) the enthalpy of main steam is higher for
(b) 0.48 and 230.2 m/s superheat cycle
(c) 0.42 and 515.1 m/s (b) the mean temperature of heat addition is
(d) 0.48 and 515.1 m/s higher for superheat cycle
(c) the temperature of steam in the condenser
45. An air compressor compresses atmospheric air is high
at 0.1 MPa and 27°C by 10 times of air inlet
pressure. During compression, the heat lost to (d) the quality of steam in the condenser is
the surrounding is estimated to be 5% of low
compression work. Air enters the compressor
with a velocity of 40 m/s and leaves with 100 50. In steam power cycle, the process of removing
m/s. The inlet and exit cross-sectional areas are non-condensable gases is called
100 cm2 and 20 cm2 respectively. The (a) scavenging process
temperature of air at the exit from the (b) deaeration process
compressor will be
(c) exhaust process
(a) 1498 K (b) 1574 K
(c) 1654 K (d) 1726 K (d) condensation process
 6

51. The internal irreversibility of Rankine cycle is 56. Water vapour at 90 kPa and 150°C enters a
caused by subsonic diffuser with a velocity of 150 m/s
1. fluid friction 2. throttling and leaves the diffuser at 190 kPa with a
3. mixing velocity of 55 m/s, and during the process,
1.5 kJ/kg of heat is lost to the surrounding. For
Select the correct answer using the code given
water vapour, Cp is 2.1 kJ/kgK. The final
below.
temperature of water vapour will be
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 154°C (b) 158°C
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
(c) 162°C (d) 166°C
52. A 1 g sample of fuel is burned in a bomb
calorimeter containing 1.2 kg of water at an 57. A steam turbine is supplied with steam at a
initial temperature of 25°C. After the reaction, pressure of 20 bar gauge. After expansion in
the final temperature of the water is 33.2°C. the steam turbine, the steam passes to
The heat capacity of the calorimeter is 837 condenser which is maintained at a vacuum of
J/°C. The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/°C. 250 mm of mercury by means of pumps. The
The heat released by the fuel will be nearly inlet and exhaust steam pressures will be nearly
(a) 36 kJ/g (b) 42 kJ/g (a) 2101 kPa and 68 kPa
(c) 48 kJ/g (d) 54 kJ/g (b) 2430 kPa and 78 kPa
(c) 2101 kPa and 78 kPa
53. A boiler is having a chimney of 35 m height. (d) 2430 kPa and 68 kPa
The draught produced in terms of water
column is 20 mm. The temperature of flue gas 58. In a power plant, the efficiencies of the electric
inside the chimney is 365°C and that of air generator, turbine, boiler, thermodynamic
outside the chimney is 32°C. The mass of air cycle and the overall plant are 0.97, 0.95, 0.92,
used will be nearly 0.42 and 0.33 respectively. The total electricity
(a) 10.3 kg/kg of fuel generated for running the auxiliaries will be
(b) 12.5 kg/kg of fuel nearly
(c) 14.7 kg/kg of fuel (a) 4.9% (b) 5.7%
(d) 16.9 kg/kg of fuel (c) 6.5% (d) 7.3%

54. A 2 kg of steam occupying 0.3 m3 at 15 bar is 59. A turbine in which steam expands both in
expanded according to the law pv1.3 = constant nozzle as well as in blades is called as
to a pressure of 1.5 bar. The work done during (a) impulse reaction turbine
the expansion will be
(b) reciprocating steam turbine
(a) 602.9 kJ (b) 606.7 kJ
(c) gas turbine
(c) 612.5 kJ (d) 618.3 kJ
(d) Curtis turbine

55. Which of the following statements is/are

correct regarding superheater in boilers? 60. Consider the following statements regarding
reaction turbine :
1. It is a heat exchanger in which heat is
transformed to the saturated steam to 1. Blade shape is aerofoil type and its
increase its temperature. manufacturing is difficult.
2. It raises the overall efficiency. 2. It is suitable for small power.
3. It reduces turbine internal efficiency. 3. Leakage losses are less compared to
Select the correct answer using the code given friction losses.
below. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only (c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
 7

61. The solar heat pipe works on the principle of 67. In a drainback solar water heating system
(a) heating and condensation cycle (a) the water in the heat exchanger is recycled
(b) evaporation and condensation cycle (b) the water is heated in collectors only
(c) cooling and condensation cycle during times when there is available heat
(d) heating and evaporation cycle (c) at the collector, the mixture of water and
propylene-glycol is heated and returned to
a solar storage tank
62. A good approximation of the measured solar
(d) there is an expansion tank with enclosed
spectrum is made by
air chamber to assist water draining
(a) black-body energy distribution
(b) Planck's energy distribution 68. A PV cell is illuminated with irradiance (E) of
(c) inverse square law 1000 W/m2. If the cell is 100 mm × 100 mm in
(d) solar constant size and produces 3 A at 0.5 V at the maximum
power point, the conversion efficiency will be
63. Which one of the following types of tracker (a) 15%
uses liquid contained in canisters that can turn (b) 19%
easily into vapour? (c) 23%
(a) Active tracker (d) 27%
(b) Passive tracker
(c) Single-axis tracker 69. In a barrage of 300000 m2 area with a tide
(d) Altitude-azimuth tracker height of 3 m, barrage drain time of 10 hr,
density of seawater as 1025 kg/m3 and
gravitational acceleration as 9.8 m/s2, the
64. Which type of flat-plate collector is used to average power will be
heat the swimming pools with plastic panel,
(a) 377 kW
utilizing solar energy?
(b) 381 kW
(a) Pipe and fin type
(c) 388 kW
(b) Full water sandwich type
(d) 396 kW
(c) Thermal traps type
(d) Corrugated plate with selective surface
70. The platinum nano-coating is made on the
type
anode of the fuel cell to
(a) create lighter and more efficient fuel cell
65. The edge loss Ue in a solar collector with membranes
respect to edge area Ae, collector area Ac and (b) make the fuel effective
back loss coefficient Ub is
(c) create high thermal conductivity in the
A  A  cell
(a) U b  e  (b) U b  c 
 Ac   Ae  (d) make the fuel cell non-corrosive
A   A 
(c) A c  e  (d) U b  e  71. In a fuel cell, electric current is produced when
 Ub   2A c  (a) hydrogen and oxygen react with each
other and electrons are freed
66. In solar porous type air heater, the pressure (b) hydrogen reacts with water and electrons
drop is usually are freed
(a) higher than non-porous type (c) oxygen reacts with water and electrons are
(b) same as in non-porous type freed
(c) lower than non-porous type (d) electrons react with molecules of
(d) zero hydrogen and oxygen is freed
 8

72. Which one of the following is suitable for fuel 77. The loads acting on a 3 mm diameter bar at
cell electric vehicle (FCEV)? different points are as shown in the figure :
(a) Direct methanol fuel cell (DMFC)
(b) Alkaline fuel cell (AFC)
(c) Proton exchange membrane fuel cell
(PEMFC)
(d) Solid oxide fuel cell (SOFC) If E = 205 GPa, the total elongation of the bar
will be nearly
73. A pull of 100kN acts on a bar as shown in the (a) 29.7 mm (b) 25.6 mm
figure in such a way that it is parallel to the bar (c) 21.5 mm (d) 17.4 mm
axis and is 10 mm away from xx :
78. A hollow circular bar used as a beam has its
outer diameter thrice the inside diameter. It is
subjected to a maximum bending moment of
60 MN m. If the permissible bending stress is
limited to 120 MPa, the inside diameter of the
beam will be
(a) 49.2 mm (b) 53.4 mm
(c) 57.6 mm (d) 61.8 mm

The maximum bending stress produced in the 79. In a beam of I-section, which of the following
bar at xx is nearly parts will take the maximum shear stress when
(a) 20.5 N/mm2 (b) 18.8 N/mm2 subjected to traverse loading?
2
(c) 16.3 N/mm (d) 14.5 N/mm2 1. Flange 2. Web
Select the correct answer using the code given
74. The frequency of oscillation is the number of below.
cycles per unit time described by the particle, (a) 1 only
given by the relation
(b) 2 only
 1 
(a) f = (b) = (c) Both 1 and 2
2 f 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2r 2NT
(c) f ' = (d) f ' =
T 
80. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
75. A particle of mass 1 kg moves in a straight line
under the influence of a force which increases 1. In uniformly distributed load, the nature
linearly with time at the rate of 60 N/s, it being of shear force is linear and bending
40 N initially. The position of the particle after moment is parabolic.
a lapse of 5s, if it started from rest at the origin, 2. In uniformly varying load, the nature of
will be shear force is linear and bending moment
(a) 1250 m (b) 1500 m is parabolic.
(c) 1750 m (d) 2000 m 3. Under no loading condition, the nature of
shear force is linear and bending moment
76. Rails are laid such that there will be no stress is constant.
in them at 24°C. If the rails are 32 m long with Select the correct answer using the code given
an expansion allowance of 8 mm per rail, below.
coefficient of linear expansion α = 11 × 10–6/°C (a) 1 and 2
and E = 205 GPa, the stress in the rails at 80°C (b) 1 and 3
will be nearly (c) 2 only
(a) 68 MPa (b) 75 MPa
(d) 1 only
(c) 83 MPa (d) 90 MPa
 9

81. The cross-section of the beam is as shown in 85. The structure of sodium chloride is considered
the figure : as
(a) a body-centered crystal
(b) a simple cubic crystal
(c) two interpenetrating FCC sublattices of
Cl-ions and Na+ ions
(d) a cubic crystal with Na+ and Cl–
alternatively at the cubic corners

86. Hardenability of steel is assessed by

(a) Charpy impact test
(b) Rockwell hardness test
(c) Jominy end-quench test
If the permissible stress is 150 N/mm2, the
bending moment M will be nearly (d) open-hole test
(a) 1.21 × 108 N mm
(b) 1.42 × 108 N mm 87. A metal has lattice parameter of 2.9 Å, density
(c) 1.64 × 108 N mm of 7.87 g/cc, atomic weight of 55.85, and
(d) 1.88 × 108 N mm Avogadro's number is 6.0238 × 1023. The
number of atoms per unit cell will be nearly
82. In a propeller shaft, sometimes apart from (a) 1 (b) 2
bending and twisting, end thrust will also (c) 8 (d) 16
develop stresses which would be
(a) tensile in nature and uniform over the 88. An atomic packing factor (APF) for the BCC
cross-section unit cell of hard spheres atoms will be
(b) compressive in nature and uniform over (a) 0.63 (b) 0.68
the cross-section
(c) 0.73 (d) 0.78
(c) tensile in nature and non-uniform over the
cross-section
(d) compressive in nature and nonuniform 89. The distinct characteristic of Invar is
over the cross-section (a) it is magnetic
(b) it has low coefficient of thermal expansion
83. A spherical shell of 1.2 m internal diameter and (c) it has high tensile strength
6 mm thickness is filled with water under (d) it is non-corrosive
pressure until volume is increased by 400 × 103
mm3. If E = 204 GPa, Poisson's ratio v = 0.3,
neglecting radial stresses, the hoop stress 90. An alloy produced by adding 1% of tin to
developed in the shell will be nearly Muntz metal is called as
(a) 43MPa (b) 38MPa (a) α brass
(c) 33MPa (d) 28MPa (b) Admiralty brass
(c) Naval brass
84. The inner diameter of a cylindrical tank for (d) Leaded brass
liquefied gas is 250 mm. The gas pressure is
limited to 15 MPa. The tank is made of plain 91. A sample of glass has a crack of half length
carbon steel with ultimate tensile strength of 2μm. The Young's modulus of glass is
340 N/mm2, Poisson's ratio of 0.27 and the
70 GN/m2 and specific surface energy is 1 J/m2.
factor of safety of 5. The thickness of the
The fractures strength will be
cylinder wall will be
(a) 885 MPa (b) 895 MPa
(a) 60 mm (b) 50 mm
(c) 40 mm (d) 30 mm (c) 915 MPa (d) 935 MPa
 10

92. In the Pb-Sn system, the fraction of total α 97. Which of the following statements are correct
phase is 3 times the fraction of β phase at with respect to inversion of mechanisms?
eutectic temperature of 182°C, Pb with 19% Sn 1. It is a method of obtaining different
dissolved in it, Sn with 2.5% Pb dissolved in it, mechanisms by fixing different links of
and liquid is in equilibrium. The alloy the same kinematic chain.
compositions of tin (Sn) and lead (Pb) are 2. It is a method of obtaining different
nearly mechanisms by fixing the same links of
(a) 28.6% and 71.4% different kinematic chains.
(b) 38.6% and 61.4% 3. In the process of inversion, the relative
(c) 48.6% and 51.4% motions of the links of the mechanisms
(d) 58.6% and 41.4% produced remain unchanged.
4. In the process of inversion, the relative
93. A cylindrical specimen of steel having an motions of the links of the mechanisms
original diameter of 12.8 mm is tensile tested produced will change accordingly.
to fracture and found to have engineering Select the correct answer using the code given
fracture strength σf of 460 MPa. If its cross- below.
sectional diameter at fracture is 10.7 mm, the (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
true stress at fracture will be (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(a) 660 MPa
(b) 645 MPa 98. For the follower with stroke S, following the
(c) 630 MPa cycloidal motion, the radius of the rolling circle
(d) 615 MPa will be
S
(a) S × 2π (b)
94. An iron container 10 cm × 10 cm at its base is 2
filled to a height of 20 cm with a corrosive 2
liquid. A current is produced as a result of an (c) (d) S + 2π
S
electrolytic cell, and after four weeks, the
container has decreased in weight by 70 g. If
n = 2, F = 96500 C and M = 55.84 g/mole, the 99. A vertical shaft of 100 mm diameter and 1 m
current will be length has its upper end fixed at the top. The
(a) 0.05 A (b) 0.10 A other end carries a disc of 5000 N and the
modulus of elasticity of the shaft material is
(c) 0.20 A (d) 0.40 A 2 × 105 N/mm2. Neglecting the weight of the
shaft, the frequency of the longitudinal
95. A copper piece originally 305 mm long is vibrations will be nearly
pulled in tension with a stress of 276MPa. If the (a) 279.5 Hz
deformation is entirely elastic and the modulus (b) 266.5 Hz
of elasticity is 110GPa, the resultant elongation
will be nearly (c) 253.5 Hz
(a) 0.43 mm (b) 0.54 mm (d) 241.5 Hz
(c) 0.65 mm (d) 0.77 mm
100. The accurate method of finding the natural
frequency of transverse vibrations of a system
96. The indentation on a steel sample has been of several loads attached to some shaft is
taken using 10 mm tungsten carbide ball at
500kgf load. If the average diameter of the (a) Dunkerley method
indentation is 2.5 mm, the BHN will be nearly (b) energy method
(a) 90 (b) 100 (c) Stodola method
(c) 110 (d) 120 (d) Dunkerley and energy method
 11

101. The speed at which the shaft runs, so that the 106. The reciprocating mass is balanced when
deflection of the shaft from the axis of rotation primary force is
becomes infinite, is known as 1. balanced by the mass = cmrω2 cosθ
(a) whipping speed (b) damping speed 2. unbalanced by the mass = cmrω2 cosθ
(c) resonant speed (d) gravitational speed 3. balanced by the mass = (1 – c) cmrω2 cosθ
4. unbalanced by the mass = (1 – c) cmrω2 cosθ
102. Which one of the following is not the correct Select the correct answer using the code given
statement with respect to the involute profile
below.
toothed gears in mesh?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(a) Pressure angle remains constant from the
start till the end of the engagement. (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
(b) The base circle diameter and the pitch
circle diameter of the two mating 107. The active gyroscopic torque in gyroscope
involutes are proportional. about a horizontal axis represents
(c) When two involutes are in mesh, the (a) the torque required to cause the axis of
angular velocity ratio is proportional to spin to precess in the vertical plane
the size of the base circles. (b) the torque required to cause the axis of
(d) The shape of the involute profile depends spin to precess in the horizontal plane
only on the dimensions of the base circle. (c) the force required to cause the axis of spin
to precess in the horizontal plane
103. The centre distance C between two gears, in (d) the force required to cause the axis of spin
terms of base circle radii R1, R2 and the to precess in the vertical plane
pressure angle ϕ, is
cos  R1 + R 2 108. The change in governor height for a Watt
(a) (b)
R1 + R 2 cos  governor when speed varies from 100 r.p.m. to
R  R  101 r.p.m. will be nearly
(c)  1  .cos  (d)  2  .cos  (a) 1.8 mm (b) 2.6 mm
 R2   R2  (c) 3.4 mm (d) 4.2 mm

104. A three-cylinder single-acting engine has its 109. A rectangular strut is 150 mm wide and 120
cranks at 120°. The turning moment diagram mm thick. It carries a load of 180kN at an
for each cycle is a triangle for the power stroke eccentricity of 10 mm in a plane bisecting the
with a maximum torque of 60 N m at 60° after thickness as shown in the figure :
the dead centre of the corresponding crank.
There is no torque on the return stroke. The
engine runs at 400 r.p.m. The power developed
will be
(a) 1745 W (b) 1885 W
(c) 1935 W (d) 1995 W

105. A vertical single-cylinder opposed piston type

engine has reciprocating parts of mass 2000 kg
for the lower piston and 2750 kg for the upper
piston. The lower piston has a stroke of 60 cm
and the engine is in primary balance. If the ratio
of the length of connecting rod to crank is 4 for
the lower piston and 8 for the upper piston, and The maximum intensity of stress in the section
when the crankshaft speed is of 135 r.p.m, the will be
maximum secondary unbalanced force will be (a) 14 MPa (b) 12 MPa
(a) 48935.5 N (b) 46946.5 N
(c) 10 MPa (d) 8 MPa
(c) 44968.5 N (d) 42989.5 N
 12

110. The theory of failure used in designing the 114. The torque required to tighten the bolt
ductile materials in a most accurate way is by comprises of the
1. maximum principal stress theory (a) torque required in overcoming thread
2. distortion energy theory friction only
3. maximum strain theory (b) torque required in inducing the pre-load
only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) torque required in overcoming
below.
circumferential hoop stress
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 only (d) torque required in overcoming thread
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only friction and inducing the pre-load and also
the torque required to overcome collar
111. When a load of 20 kN is gradually applied at a friction between the nut and the washer
particular point in a beam, it produces a
maximum bending stress of 20 MPa and a 115. A steel spindle transmits 4 kW at 800 r.p.m.
deflection of 10 mm. What will be the height The angular deflection should not exceed
from which a load of 5 kN should fall onto the 0.25°/m length of the spindle. If the modulus of
beam at the same point if the maximum rigidity for the material of the spindle is 84
bending stress is 40 MPa? GPa, the diameter of the spindle will be
(a) 80 mm (b) 70 mm (a) 46 mm (b) 42 mm
(c) 60 mm (d) 50 mm (c) 38 mm (d) 34 mm

116. A taper roller bearing has a dynamic load

112. The areas of fatigue failure in a part may be in capacity of 26 kN. The desired life for 90% of
the the bearings is 8000hr and the speed is
1. region having slow growth of crack with a 300 r.p.m. The equivalent radial load that the
fine fibrous appearance. bearing can carry will be nearly
2. region having faster growth of crack with (a) 5854 N (b) 5645 N
a fine fibrous appearance. (c) 5436 N (d) 5227 N
3. region of sudden fracture with a coarse
granular appearance. 117. Hollow shafts are stronger than solid shafts
4. region of gradual fracture with a coarse having same weight because
granular appearance. (a) the stiffness of hollow shaft is less than
Select the correct answer using the code given that of solid shaft
below. (b) the strength of hollow shaft is more than
(a) 2 and 3 that of solid shaft
(b) 2 and 4 (c) the natural frequency of hollow shaft is
less than that of solid shaft
(c) 1 and 4
(d) in hollow shafts, material is not spread at
(d) 1 and 3 large radius

113. The shock-absorbing capacity (resilience) of 118. A propeller shaft is required to transmit 45 kW
bolts can be increased by power at 500r.p.m. It is a hollow shaft having
(a) increasing the shank diameter above the inside diameter 0.6 times the outside diameter.
core diameter of threads It is made of plain carbon steel and the
(b) reducing the shank diameter to the core permissible shear stress is 84 N/mm2. The
diameter of threads inner and outer diameters of the shaft are nearly
(a) 21.7 mm and 39.1 mm
(c) decreasing the length of shank portion of
the bolt (b) 23.5 mm and 39.1 mm
(c) 21.7 mm and 32.2 mm
(d) pre-heating of the shank portion of the bolt
(d) 23.5 mm and 32.2 mm
 13

119. A bicycle and rider travelling at 12 km/hr on a 124. The radius of arc is measured by allowing a
level road have a mass of 105 kg. A brake is 20 mm diameter roller to oscillate to and fro on
applied to a rear wheel having 800 mm it and the time for 25 oscillations is noted at
diameter. The pressure on the brake is 80 N and 56.25 s. The radius of arc will be
the coefficient of friction is 0.06 . The number (a) 865 mm (b) 850 mm
of turns of the wheel before coming to rest will (c) 835 mm (d) 820 mm
be
(a) 48.3 revolutions (b) 42.6 revolutions 125. Which one of the following systems is
(c) 38.3 revolutions (d) 32.6 revolutions consisting of processing stations, material
handling and storage, computer control system
and human labour?
120. To avoid self-engagement in cone clutch, its (a) Portable manufacturing system
semi-cone angle is always kept (b) Focused integrated system
(a) smaller than the angle of static friction (c) Flexible manufacturing system
(b) equal to the angle of static friction (d) Automated integrated system
(c) greater than the angle of static friction
(d) half of the angle of static friction 126. A project initially costs ₹5,000 and generates
year-end cash inflows of ₹1,800, ₹1,600,
₹1,400, ₹1,200 and ₹1,000 respectively in five
121. In case of arc welding of steel with a potential years of its life. If the rate of return is 10%, the
of 20 V and current of 200 A, the travel speed net present value (NPV) will be
is 5 mm/s and the cross-sectional area of the (a) ₹500 (b) ₹450
joint is 20 mm2. The heat required for melting (c) ₹400 (d) ₹350
steel may be taken as 10 J/mm3 and heat
transfer efficiency as 0.85. The melting 127. What is the mode for the following
efficiency will be nearly distribution?
(a) 18% (b) 29% Gross profit as Number of
(c) 36% (d) 42% percentageof sale companies
0-7 19
122. What is the force required for 90° bending of 77-14 25
St 50 steel of 2 mm thickness in a V-die, if the
die opening is taken as 8 times the thickness 14-21 36
and the length of the bent part is 1 m, ultimate 21-28 72
tensile strength is 500 MPa and K = 1.33? 28-35 51
(a) 166.25 kN (b) 155.45 kN 35-42 43
(c) 154.65 kN (d) 143.85 kN 42-49 28
(a) 19.55 (b) 21.40
123. A graph is drawn to a vertical magnification of
(c) 23.25 (d) 25.10
10000 and horizontal magnification of 100,
and the areas above and below the datum line
128. Consider the following data for quality
are as follows :
acceptance process :
Above 150mm 2 80mm 2 170mm 2 40mm 2 N = 10000
n = 89
Below 80mm 2 60mm 2 150mm 2 120mm 2
c=2
The average roughness Ra for sampling length p = 0.01 (incoming lost of quality)
of 0.8 mm will be pa = 0.9397
(a) 1.14 μm (b) 1.10 μm The AOQ will be
(a) 0.93% (b) 0.84%
(c) 1.06 μm (d) 1.02 μm
(c) 0.75% (d) 0.66%
 14

129. An engine is to be designed to have a minimum 136. Consider the following statements :
reliability of 0.8 and minimum availability of 1. The term 'attenuation' is used to describe
0.98 over a period of 2 × 103 hr. The MTTR is the process of removing a certain band of
nearly frequencies from a signal and permitting
(a) 168 hr (b) 174 hr others to be transmitted.
(c) 183 hr (d) 188 hr 2. The Wheatstone bridge can be used to
convert a voltage change to an electrical
130. Which one of the following relations with resistance change.
usual notations will hold good in a dynamic Which of the above statements is/are correct?
vibration absorber system under tuned (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
conditions? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) k1k2 = m1m2 (b) k1m2 = m1k2
(c) k1m1 = k2m2 (d) k1+ k2 = m1 + m2 137. At time t, the excitation voltage to a resolver is
24 V. The shaft angle is 90°. The output signals
131. In ultrasonic waves, the frequencies for non- from the resolver VS1 and VS2 will be
destructive testing of materials are in the range (a) 12 V and 0 V (b) 24 V and 0 V
of (c) 12 V and 12 V (d) 24 V and 12 V
(a) 0.5 MHz to 10 MHz
(b) 10 MHz to 20 MHz 138. An actuator having a stem movement at full
travel of 30 mm is mounted with a control
(c) 20 MHz to 30 MHz
valve having an equal percentage plug and with
(d) 30 MHz to 40 MHz
minimum flow rate of 2 m3/s and maximum
flow rate of 24 m3/s. When the stem movement
132. The Curie point for most ferrous magnetic is 10 mm, the flow rate will be
materials is about (a) 3.4 m3/s (b) 3.8 m3/s
(a) 390°C (b) 540°C 3
(c) 4.2 m /s (d) 4.6 m3/s
(c) 760°C (d) 880°C
139. In a rack and pinion system, rack is an element
133. Which of the following is one of the basic units moving in translational direction and pinion is
of memory controller in microcontroller? a rotary gear. Which one of the following
(a) Microcode engine statements is correct?
(b) Master program counter (a) Translational acceleration is directly
(c) Program status word proportional to the moment of inertia of
(d) Slave program counter pinion.
(b) Translational acceleration is inversely
proportional to the moment of inertia of
134. Which one of the following ways will be
pinion.
adopted to store the program counter contents?
(c) Angular acceleration is inversely
(a) Last-in-First-out (LIFO)
proportional to the torque on pinion shaft.
(b) First-in-First-out (FIFO) (d) Translational velocity is directly
(c) Last-in-Last-out (LILO)
(d) First-in-Last-out (FILO) 140. proportional to the moment of inertia of pinion.
For the control signal to change at a rate
135. In ladder logic programming, an alternative in proportional to the error signal, the robotic
place of using same internal relay contact for controller must employ
every rung is to use (a) integral control
(a) battery-backed relay (b) proportional-plus-integral control
(b) dummy relay (c) proportional-plus-derivative control
(c) one-shot operation (d) proportional-plus-integral-plus derivative
(d) master control relay control
 15

141. What is the minimum number of degrees of 145. Statement (I) : The function of arithmetic logic
freedom that a robot needs to have in order to unit (ALU) in microprocessor is to perform
locate its end effectors at an arbitrary point data manipulation.
with an arbitrary orientation in space? Statement (II) : The status register is where
(a) 3 (b) 4 data for an input to the arithmetic and logic unit
(c) 5 (d) 6 is temporarily stored.

142. Using a robot with 1 degree of freedom and

having 1 sliding joint with a full range of 1 m, 146. Statement (I) : To use a sensor, we generally
if the robot's control memory has a 12-bit need to add signal conditioning circuitry, such
storage capacity, the control resolution for the as circuits which amplify and convert from
axis of motion will be analog to digital, to get the sensor signal in the
(a) 0.236 mm (b) 0.244 mm right form, take account of any non-linearities,
(c) 0.252 mm (d) 0.260 mm and calibrate it.
Statement (II) : A smart sensor is integrated
143. Assume that the joint mechanisms at serial link with the required buffering and conditioning
manipulators are frictionless. The joint torque circuitry in a single element and provides
τ required to bear an arbitrary end point force functions beyond that of just a sensor.
F is
(a) J–1F (b) JF 147. Statement (I) : The count-up overflow (OV) bit
(c) JTF (d) J–1FT is 1 when the up-counter increments above the
maximum positive value.
144. Rotate the vector v = 5i + 3j + 8k by an angle Statement (II) : The count-down underflow
of 90° about the x-axis. The rotated vector (Hv) (UN) bit is 1 when the counter decrements
would be below the minimum negative value.
1  –8 
3 5
(a)   (b)   148. Statement (I) : The multiplexer is essentially an
 –8  1 electronic switching device which enables each
    of the inputs to be sampled in turn.
5 3
Statement (II) : A multiplexer is a circuit that
3 5 is able to have inputs of data from a number of
 –8   –8 
(c)   (d)  
sources and then, by selecting an input channel,
5 3 gives an output from just one of them.
   
1 1
149. Statement (I) : The term 'encoder' is used for a
Directions : Each of the six (6) items consists of two device that provides an analog output as a
statements, one labelled as 'Statement (I)' and the result of angular or linear displacement.
other as 'Statement (II)'. You are to examine these two Statement (II) :
statements carefully and select the answers to these An increment encoder detects changes in
items using the code given below : angular or linear displacement from some
Code : datum position where as an absolute encoder
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are gives the actual angular or linear position.
individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I) 150. Statement (I) : Process control valves are used
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are to control the rate of fluid flow and are used
individually true but Statement (II) is not where, perhaps, the rate of flow of a liquid into
the correct explanation of Statement (I) a tank has to be controlled.
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
Statement (II) : A common form of pneumatic
false
actuator used with process control valves is the
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
diaphragm actuator.
true
 16

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