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Participant ID
Participant Name
Test Center Name
Test Date 24/06/2025
Test Time 5:00 PM - 7:00 PM
Subject TGT Special Education Teacher

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which veteran filmmaker, recipient of the JC Daniel Award for the year 2023, passed away in
April 2025?
Ans 1. Shauna Gautam

2. Karan Singh Tyagi

3. Mahesh Manjrekar

4. Shaji N Karun

Question ID : 441009291857
Option 1 ID : 4410091134282
Option 2 ID : 4410091134281
Option 3 ID : 4410091134280
Option 4 ID : 4410091134283

Q.2 Who convened a joint meeting on 23 April 2025, with the Department of Biotechnology and
other stakeholders to review the indigenously developed HPV test kits for cervical cancer
screening in India?
Ans 1. Dr. Jitendra Singh

2. Praveen Sood

3. Suresh Gopi

4. George Kurian

Question ID : 441009291895
Option 1 ID : 4410091134431
Option 2 ID : 4410091134430
Option 3 ID : 4410091134428
Option 4 ID : 4410091134429

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Q.3 In March 2025, who among the following was selected for the 59th Jnanpith Award?

Ans 1. Shashi Tharoor

2. Pratibha Ray

3. Shaji N Karun

4. Vinod Kumar Shukla

Question ID : 441009291852
Option 1 ID : 4410091134262
Option 2 ID : 4410091134260
Option 3 ID : 4410091134263
Option 4 ID : 4410091134261

Q.4 Under Article 29(1) of the Indian Constitution, which of the following is a right given to
citizens?
Ans 1. Right to conserve their distinct language, script or culture

2. Right to property and life

3. Right to establish and administer educational institutions

4. Right to form associations or unions

Question ID : 441009296859
Option 1 ID : 4410091154530
Option 2 ID : 4410091154531
Option 3 ID : 4410091154528
Option 4 ID : 4410091154529

Q.5 In March 2025, Lok Sabha Secretariat and the Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology signed an MoU to develop the Sansad Bhashini initiative for which purpose?
Ans 1. For tracking the activities of all the members

2. For digitising the Voter ID of all citizens

3. Streamline and modernise parliamentary operations

4. Enhancing and modernising of all government offices

Question ID : 441009293287
Option 1 ID : 4410091140026
Option 2 ID : 4410091140025
Option 3 ID : 4410091140024
Option 4 ID : 4410091140027

Q.6 Why did the annexation of Avadh in 1856 anger the sepoys of the Company’s army?
Ans 1. The British banned regional festivals in Avadh.

2. The sepoys were forced to relocate to distant places, mostly southern India.

3. They were denied promotions in the army.

4. Most sepoys were from Avadh and resented foreign control over their homeland.

Question ID : 441009300486
Option 1 ID : 4410091169050
Option 2 ID : 4410091169051
Option 3 ID : 4410091169048
Option 4 ID : 4410091169049

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Q.7 Which region will benefit the most from the Ken-Betwa River Linking Project?
Ans 1. Deccan Plateau in Karnataka

2. Bundelkhand (Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh)

3. Coastal Andhra Pradesh

4. Himalayan foothills in Uttarakhand

Question ID : 441009303285
Option 1 ID : 4410091179694
Option 2 ID : 4410091179693
Option 3 ID : 4410091179692
Option 4 ID : 4410091179695

Q.8 What separates the Little Andaman from the Great Andaman in the Andaman Islands group?
Ans 1. Malacca Strait

2. Duncan Passage

3. Gulf of Mannar

4. Ten Degree Channel

Question ID : 441009303188
Option 1 ID : 4410091179319
Option 2 ID : 4410091179317
Option 3 ID : 4410091179318
Option 4 ID : 4410091179316

Q.9 The famous Rath Yatra festival, where deities are taken in grand chariots to the Gundicha
Temple, is primarily celebrated in which Indian state?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Gujarat

4. Odisha

Question ID : 441009301155
Option 1 ID : 4410091171729
Option 2 ID : 4410091171731
Option 3 ID : 4410091171728
Option 4 ID : 4410091171730

Q.10 Which Part and Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the provisions related to High
Courts?
Ans 1. Part IV, Articles 214 to 230

2. Part VI, Articles 214 to 231

3. Part V, Articles 214 to 224

4. Part VI, Articles 220 to 240

Question ID : 441009297476
Option 1 ID : 4410091156979
Option 2 ID : 4410091156980
Option 3 ID : 4410091156981
Option 4 ID : 4410091156982

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Q.11 What is approximately the total installed power generation capacity of India as on 31 March
2025?
Ans 1. 475 GW

2. 500 GW

3. 450 GW

4. 420 GW

Question ID : 441009303273
Option 1 ID : 4410091179646
Option 2 ID : 4410091179647
Option 3 ID : 4410091179645
Option 4 ID : 4410091179644

Q.12 In November 2024, who delivered India’s National Statement at the High-level Segment of the
CoP29 of UN Climate Change Conference at Baku, Azerbaijan?
Ans 1. S Jaishankar

2. Kirti Vardhan Singh

3. Ram Mohan Naidu

4. Nirmala Sitharaman

Question ID : 441009293364
Option 1 ID : 4410091140333
Option 2 ID : 4410091140332
Option 3 ID : 4410091140335
Option 4 ID : 4410091140334

Q.13 Plants that grow flowers and fruits belong to which group?
Ans 1. Gymnosperms

2. Ferns

3. Angiosperms

4. Bryophytes

Question ID : 441009297432
Option 1 ID : 4410091156803
Option 2 ID : 4410091156806
Option 3 ID : 4410091156805
Option 4 ID : 4410091156804

Q.14 Which of the following Indian leaders resigned from the Central Legislative Council in protest
against the Rowlatt Act, 1919?
Ans 1. Mohammed Ali Jinnah, Madan Mohan Malaviya and Mazhar-ul-Huq

2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai

3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Dadabhai Naoroji and Lala Lajpat Rai

4. Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel and Subhas Chandra Bose

Question ID : 441009300531
Option 1 ID : 4410091169221
Option 2 ID : 4410091169222
Option 3 ID : 4410091169223
Option 4 ID : 4410091169220

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Q.15 The Indian Councils Act of 1892 was significant because it _____.
Ans 1. abolished the East India Company

2. granted full autonomy and self-governance to selected Indian provinces

3. gave universal suffrage to Indians above the age of 18

4. introduced limited Indian representation in legislative councils

Question ID : 441009300696
Option 1 ID : 4410091169888
Option 2 ID : 4410091169891
Option 3 ID : 4410091169889
Option 4 ID : 4410091169890

Q.16 Which authority notified the regulations for ‘Radar equipment for the measurement of the
speed of vehicles’ in April 2025, set to come into force on 1 July 2025?
Ans 1. Defence Research and Development Organisation

2. Department of Consumer Affairs

3. Ministry of Home Affairs

4. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

Question ID : 441009291876
Option 1 ID : 4410091134355
Option 2 ID : 4410091134352
Option 3 ID : 4410091134353
Option 4 ID : 4410091134354

Q.17 Who was appointed as Prime Minister by the President using personal discretion after the
sudden death of the sitting PM in 1984?
Ans 1. VP Singh

2. Rajiv Gandhi

3. AB Vajpayee

4. Charan Singh

Question ID : 441009297090
Option 1 ID : 4410091155436
Option 2 ID : 4410091155438
Option 3 ID : 4410091155439
Option 4 ID : 4410091155437

Q.18 What is the primary objective of the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)?
Ans 1. To create employment through government-run industries in rural areas

2. To provide direct financial assistance to all villagers

3. To replace all existing rural development schemes

4. To empower villagers to make choices and develop their own model villages

Question ID : 441009297394
Option 1 ID : 4410091156641
Option 2 ID : 4410091156639
Option 3 ID : 4410091156642
Option 4 ID : 4410091156640

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Q.19 Which legislation replaced the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963?
Ans 1. Major Port Authorities Act, 2020

2. Major Port Authorities Act, 2021

3. Ports Regulation Act, 2018

4. Indian Ports Modernisation Act, 2019

Question ID : 441009297350
Option 1 ID : 4410091156464
Option 2 ID : 4410091156465
Option 3 ID : 4410091156463
Option 4 ID : 4410091156466

Q.20 Which of the following best defines the ‘Current Weekly Status’ (CWS) used by India’s
National Sample Survey Office?
Ans 1. The employment status based on the last 30 days

2. The activity status based on the last 7 days preceding the survey

3. The employment status over the past one year

4. The status of persons registered with employment exchanges

Question ID : 441009297219
Option 1 ID : 4410091155953
Option 2 ID : 4410091155954
Option 3 ID : 4410091155952
Option 4 ID : 4410091155955

Section : General intelligence and Reasoning Ability

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Q.1 Study the given figure and answer the question that follows. The numbers in different
sections indicate the number of persons.
(NOTE: You have to take the given data to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts)

How many persons are there in total?

Ans 1. 93

2. 89

3. 85

4. 87

Question ID : 441009267979
Option 1 ID : 4410091041147
Option 2 ID : 4410091041146
Option 3 ID : 4410091041145
Option 4 ID : 4410091041144

Q.2 Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
U sits third to the left of P. R sits third to the right of V. S sits to the immediate right of R. S
sits second to the left of U. T sits immediately to the left of P.
Who are the immediate neighbours of Q?
Ans 1. U and S

2. R and V

3. U and T

4. R and T

Question ID : 441009360306
Option 1 ID : 4410091407234
Option 2 ID : 4410091407237
Option 3 ID : 4410091407235
Option 4 ID : 4410091407236

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Q.3 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then the resultant
of which of the following would be 18?
Ans 1. 56 D 8 A 7 B 3 C 6

2. 56 A 8 D 7 C 3 B 6

3. 56 B 8 D 7 C 3 A 6

4. 56 C 8 B 7 A 3 D 6

Question ID : 441009360283
Option 1 ID : 4410091407144
Option 2 ID : 4410091407143
Option 3 ID : 4410091407142
Option 4 ID : 4410091407145

Q.4 In a certain code language,

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A % B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is A related to K if ‘A + B % G ÷ H # K’?

Ans 1. Mother

2. Daughter

3. Wife

4. Sister

Question ID : 441009360314
Option 1 ID : 4410091407267
Option 2 ID : 4410091407266
Option 3 ID : 4410091407268
Option 4 ID : 4410091407269

Q.5 T starts from Point L and drives 3 km towards south. He then takes a left turn, drives 5 km,
turns right and drives 3 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He takes a right turn
and drives 8 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point M. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point L
again? (All the turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km towards south

2. 3 km towards west

3. 2 km towards east

4. 3 km towards north

Question ID : 441009360317
Option 1 ID : 4410091407280
Option 2 ID : 4410091407281
Option 3 ID : 4410091407279
Option 4 ID : 4410091407278

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Q.6 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. TX-PV

2. OS-KP

3. RV-NS

4. LP-HM

Question ID : 441009360299
Option 1 ID : 4410091407206
Option 2 ID : 4410091407208
Option 3 ID : 4410091407207
Option 4 ID : 4410091407209

Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All notes are shoes.
All shoes are helmets.
Some helmets are keys.

Conclusions:
(I) All notes are helmets.
(II) Some keys are notes.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Question ID : 441009360303
Option 1 ID : 4410091407223
Option 2 ID : 4410091407222
Option 3 ID : 4410091407224
Option 4 ID : 4410091407225

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Q.8 In the following number pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Which numbers should replace X and Y so that
the pattern followed by the two numbers on the left side of :: is same as that on the right side
of ::?

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into their constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

X : 110 :: 36 : Y
Ans 1. X = 23, Y = 177

2. X = 26, Y = 175

3. X = 23, Y = 175

4. X = 25, Y = 178

Question ID : 441009360277
Option 1 ID : 4410091407119
Option 2 ID : 4410091407120
Option 3 ID : 4410091407118
Option 4 ID : 4410091407121

Q.9 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

5000, 2500, 1250, 625, 312.5, ?

Ans 1. 156.25

2. 130.75

3. 80.75

4. 125.25

Question ID : 441009360286
Option 1 ID : 4410091407156
Option 2 ID : 4410091407154
Option 3 ID : 4410091407157
Option 4 ID : 4410091407155

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘shirt pant trouser’ is coded as ‘op cp ro’, ‘pant coat jacket’ is
coded as ‘al hq cp’ and 'jacket shoe tie’ is coded as ‘pa bq al’ (all the codes are two-letter
codes only).​How is 'pant' coded in the given code language?
Ans 1. hq

2. al

3. cp

4. op

Question ID : 441009360322
Option 1 ID : 4410091407300
Option 2 ID : 4410091407299
Option 3 ID : 4410091407298
Option 4 ID : 4410091407301

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Q.11 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below.
Both pairs follow the same pattern.

RUI : OSM
FCV : CAZ
Ans 1. HHK : EJO

2. WXD : TWH

3. KKJ : HMN

4. MOQ : JMU

Question ID : 441009360320
Option 1 ID : 4410091407292
Option 2 ID : 4410091407293
Option 3 ID : 4410091407290
Option 4 ID : 4410091407291

Q.12 Refer to the following letter series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done
from left to right only.

(Left) V D A O T G U K E Z B Q Y C S F H J I W M (Right)

How many such vowels are there each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and
also immediately followed by a consonant?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. Two

4. One

Question ID : 441009360325
Option 1 ID : 4410091407310
Option 2 ID : 4410091407313
Option 3 ID : 4410091407312
Option 4 ID : 4410091407311

Q.13 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below.
Both pairs follow the same pattern.

PTL : LYQ
FNP : BSU
Ans 1. MRV : IVL

2. STS : OYX

3. UQI : RVN

4. ONE : KRJ

Question ID : 441009360319
Option 1 ID : 4410091407287
Option 2 ID : 4410091407288
Option 3 ID : 4410091407289
Option 4 ID : 4410091407286

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Q.14 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be
done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 6 8 5 7 3 7 4 1 3 6 2 1 9 7 8 9 7 1 5 7 9 4 3 1 5 2 5 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there which are immediately preceded by an even digit and
also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans 1. None

2. Three

3. Four

4. Two

Question ID : 441009360295
Option 1 ID : 4410091407193
Option 2 ID : 4410091407190
Option 3 ID : 4410091407191
Option 4 ID : 4410091407192

Q.15 Shubham ranked 17th from the top and 44th from the bottom in his class. How many students
are there in his class?
Ans 1. 61

2. 62

3. 60

4. 59

Question ID : 441009267620
Option 1 ID : 4410091039722
Option 2 ID : 4410091039723
Option 3 ID : 4410091039721
Option 4 ID : 4410091039724

Q.16 Babul, Shlok, Raman, Charu, Reeta, Karan, Shalu, and Parul are sitting around a circular table,
facing the centre.
Reeta sits second to the left of Charu, who sits third to the left of Babul. Shalu sits third to the
right of Karan, who is an immediate neighbour of Babul. Shlok is an immediate neighbour of
Reeta and Charu. Raman does not sit with Karan.
Who sits second to the right of Shlok?
Ans 1. Parul

2. Shalu

3. Karan

4. Raman

Question ID : 441009360311
Option 1 ID : 4410091407256
Option 2 ID : 4410091407255
Option 3 ID : 4410091407257
Option 4 ID : 4410091407254

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Q.17 In the following number pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Which numbers should replace X and Y so that
the pattern followed by the two numbers on the left side of :: is same as that on the right side
of ::?

(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting
/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

X : 530 :: 48 : Y
Ans 1. X = 54, Y = 480

2. X = 53, Y = 490

3. X = 52, Y = 470

4. X = 54, Y = 470

Question ID : 441009360280
Option 1 ID : 4410091407133
Option 2 ID : 4410091407132
Option 3 ID : 4410091407131
Option 4 ID : 4410091407130

Q.18 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will be come
in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?

6 B 32 C 32 D 39 A 13 = ?
Ans 1. 221

2. 224

3. 222

4. 223

Question ID : 441009360276
Option 1 ID : 4410091407114
Option 2 ID : 4410091407115
Option 3 ID : 4410091407116
Option 4 ID : 4410091407117

Q.19 P, Q, R, S, T, and U live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the
building is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2, and so on, till the topmost floor is
numbered 6. P lives on an even-numbered floor but not on floor number 6. T and S do not live
on the lowermost floor. R lives immediately below Q. There are exactly two floors between T
and P.
Who lives on the floor immediately above U?
Ans 1. S

2. R

3. T

4. P

Question ID : 441009360287
Option 1 ID : 4410091407161
Option 2 ID : 4410091407159
Option 3 ID : 4410091407160
Option 4 ID : 4410091407158

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Q.20 In the following series, only one letter-cluster is incorrect. Select the INCORRECT letter-
cluster.

QTM ORK MPI KNG ILF GJC

Ans 1. ​ORK

2. KNG

3. ILF

4. MPI

Question ID : 441009360305
Option 1 ID : 4410091407231
Option 2 ID : 4410091407233
Option 3 ID : 4410091407230
Option 4 ID : 4410091407232

Section : Arithmetical and Numerical Ability

Q.1 In finding the HCF of two numbers by division method, the quotients are 4, 8 and 7,
respectively, and the last divisor is 66. What is the LCM of the two numbers?
Ans 1. 884070

2. 884071

3. 884074

4. 884067

Question ID : 441009366081
Option 1 ID : 4410091430482
Option 2 ID : 4410091430484
Option 3 ID : 4410091430485
Option 4 ID : 4410091430483

Q.2 Two taps can fill a cistern in 2 hours and 52 hours, respectively. A third tap can empty it in 52
hours. How long (in hours) will it take to fill the empty cistern, if all of them are opened
together?
Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Question ID : 441009366094
Option 1 ID : 4410091430537
Option 2 ID : 4410091430535
Option 3 ID : 4410091430534
Option 4 ID : 4410091430536

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Q.3 Abdul and Mohsin together invested ₹56,000 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a
total profit of ₹16,000, Mohsin's share was ₹2,700. What was the difference of their
investment?
Ans 1. ₹37,100

2. ₹36,122

3. ₹38,052

4. ₹38,670

Question ID : 441009366067
Option 1 ID : 4410091430426
Option 2 ID : 4410091430428
Option 3 ID : 4410091430427
Option 4 ID : 4410091430429

Q.4 Find the surface area of a sphere, if its volume is 2304π cm3. (Use π = 3.14)

Ans 1. 1208.62 cm2

2. 1608.65 cm2

3. 1308.63 cm2

4. 1808.64 cm2

Question ID : 441009285842
Option 1 ID : 4410091110465
Option 2 ID : 4410091110463
Option 3 ID : 4410091110464
Option 4 ID : 4410091110462

Q.5 The amount on a sum of ₹2,500 at 14% per annum compound interest, compounded annually,
in 2 years will be:
Ans 1. ₹2,497

2. ₹3,249

3. ₹3,184

4. ₹2,877

Question ID : 441009366077
Option 1 ID : 4410091430469
Option 2 ID : 4410091430466
Option 3 ID : 4410091430468
Option 4 ID : 4410091430467

Q.6 Evaluate 100 2.

Ans 1. 10020

2. 10000

3. 1000

4. 100000

Question ID : 441009366083
Option 1 ID : 4410091430493
Option 2 ID : 4410091430490
Option 3 ID : 4410091430492
Option 4 ID : 4410091430491

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Q.7 Find the total time taken by a boat to travel upstream and downstream if the distance
travelled in each direction (upstream and downstream) is 720 km, the speed of the boat is 44
km/hr and the speed of current is 28 km/hr.
Ans 1. 55 hr

2. 52 hr

3. 59 hr

4. 47 hr

Question ID : 441009366062
Option 1 ID : 4410091430406
Option 2 ID : 4410091430407
Option 3 ID : 4410091430408
Option 4 ID : 4410091430409

Q.8 If the lateral surface area of a cylinder is 551.8 cm2 and its height is 7 cm, then find its
approximate volume. (Use π = 3.14)
Ans 1. 3903.04 cm3

2. 3130.15 cm3

3. 3632.96 cm3

4. 3463.19 cm3

Question ID : 441009366098
Option 1 ID : 4410091430552
Option 2 ID : 4410091430551
Option 3 ID : 4410091430553
Option 4 ID : 4410091430550

Q.9 The number of non-square numbers between 2022 and 2032 is:

Ans 1. 404

2. 408

3. 413

4. 396

Question ID : 441009366082
Option 1 ID : 4410091430486
Option 2 ID : 4410091430489
Option 3 ID : 4410091430488
Option 4 ID : 4410091430487

Q.10 A person who spends 60% of his monthly income is able to save ₹4,614 per month. His
monthly expenses (in ₹) are:
Ans 1. 6,931

2. 6,963

3. 6,982

4. 6,921

Question ID : 441009366056
Option 1 ID : 4410091430385
Option 2 ID : 4410091430383
Option 3 ID : 4410091430384
Option 4 ID : 4410091430382

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Q.11 On a certain sum, simple interest for 6 years at 4% per annum is ₹534. Find the sum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 2,227

2. 2,228

3. 2,222

4. 2,225

Question ID : 441009366052
Option 1 ID : 4410091430369
Option 2 ID : 4410091430368
Option 3 ID : 4410091430367
Option 4 ID : 4410091430366

Q.12 A store offers a 25% discount on all of its products. If a customer pays ₹6,000 for a product,
what was the marked price of this product?
Ans 1. ₹9,000

2. ₹7,500

3. ₹7,000

4. ₹8,000

Question ID : 441009284219
Option 1 ID : 4410091103967
Option 2 ID : 4410091103965
Option 3 ID : 4410091103966
Option 4 ID : 4410091103968

Q.13 6 men or 7 women can do a job in 11 days. 6 men work for 10 days and leave. The number of
women required to complete the remaining work in 7 days is:
Ans 1. 1

2. 3

3. 4

4. 2

Question ID : 441009366072
Option 1 ID : 4410091430446
Option 2 ID : 4410091430447
Option 3 ID : 4410091430448
Option 4 ID : 4410091430449

Q.14 The average of the squares of the first 146 natural numbers is:
Ans 1. 7178.5

2. 7179.5

3. 7180

4. 7177.5

Question ID : 441009366059
Option 1 ID : 4410091430394
Option 2 ID : 4410091430396
Option 3 ID : 4410091430397
Option 4 ID : 4410091430395

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Q.15 If the mean proportion of 36 and A is 84, then what is the value of A?
Ans 1. 199

2. 196

3. 193

4. 195

Question ID : 441009366069
Option 1 ID : 4410091430437
Option 2 ID : 4410091430434
Option 3 ID : 4410091430435
Option 4 ID : 4410091430436

Q.16 By selling articles at 7 for a rupee, a man loses 40%. To gain 40% how many must he sell for a
rupee?
Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 4

4. 2

Question ID : 441009366075
Option 1 ID : 4410091430461
Option 2 ID : 4410091430458
Option 3 ID : 4410091430460
Option 4 ID : 4410091430459

Q.17

Ans 1. 39

2. 37

3. 36

4. 33

Question ID : 441009366089
Option 1 ID : 4410091430514
Option 2 ID : 4410091430517
Option 3 ID : 4410091430515
Option 4 ID : 4410091430516

Q.18 While going to a shopping mall, Nishi travels at a speed of 68 km/hr and on her way back, she
travels at a speed of 92 km/hr. What is her average speed (km/hr) for the whole journey?
Ans 1. 78.2

2. 77.7

3. 77.5

4. 75.5

Question ID : 441009366065
Option 1 ID : 4410091430418
Option 2 ID : 4410091430420
Option 3 ID : 4410091430421
Option 4 ID : 4410091430419

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Q.19 Chetan purchased 10 kg of rice at the rate of ₹38 per kg and 31 kg of rice at ₹46 per kg. He
sold the whole mixture at the rate of ₹44 per kg. Find his loss (in ₹).
Ans 1. 7

2. 2

3. 10

4. 5

Question ID : 441009366047
Option 1 ID : 4410091430347
Option 2 ID : 4410091430346
Option 3 ID : 4410091430349
Option 4 ID : 4410091430348

Q.20 In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of rice costing ₹195 and ₹138 per kg to get a
mixture of rice worth ₹149 per kg?
Ans 1. 11 : 46

2. 48 : 12

3. 56 : 16

4. 44 : 22

Question ID : 441009366061
Option 1 ID : 4410091430402
Option 2 ID : 4410091430403
Option 3 ID : 4410091430405
Option 4 ID : 4410091430404

Section : Test of Hindi Language and Comprehension

Q.1 निम्नांकित विकल्पों में से उचित कारक चिन्ह का चयन करके वाक्य पूर्ण करें-
सुन्दरलाल बहुगुणा .... चिपको आन्दोलन चलाया।
Ans 1. का

2. ने

3. से

4. के द्वारा

Question ID : 441009374822
Option 1 ID : 4410091464878
Option 2 ID : 4410091464875
Option 3 ID : 4410091464877
Option 4 ID : 4410091464876

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Q.2 चित्रकार ने शांति के संदेश के रूप में एक उड़ते हुए कपोत का चित्र बनाया। रेखांकित शब्द का पर्यायवाची चुनें-
Ans 1. धूमिल

2. वायस

3. रतिपति

4. रक्तलोचन

Question ID : 441009374855
Option 1 ID : 4410091464998
Option 2 ID : 4410091464995
Option 3 ID : 4410091464997
Option 4 ID : 4410091464996

Q.3 दिए गये अशुद्ध वाक्य के लिए निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से शुद्ध वाक्य का चयन करें-
महत्त्वाकांक्षा का मोती निठुरता की सीपी में पलता है।
Ans 1. महत्त्वाकांक्षा का मोती निष्ठुरता की सीपी में पलता है।

2. महत्त्वाकांक्षा का मोती निष्टुर की सीपी में पलता है।

3. महत्त्वाकांक्षी का मोती निठुरता की सीपी में पलता है।

4. महत्त्वाकांक्षा का मोती निठुरता की सीपी में पलती है।

Question ID : 441009374870
Option 1 ID : 4410091465055
Option 2 ID : 4410091465056
Option 3 ID : 4410091465057
Option 4 ID : 4410091465058

Q.4 उचित शब्द का प्रयोग कर वाक्य को पूर्ण करें-

यहाँ आप अपने हस्ताक्षर दीजिए।
Ans 1. कर

2. करनी

3. करो

4. बना

Question ID : 441009374819
Option 1 ID : 4410091464863
Option 2 ID : 4410091464865
Option 3 ID : 4410091464866
Option 4 ID : 4410091464864

Q.5 निम्न लोकोक्ति के अर्थ को बताएं -

'कोई मरे या रोवे , कोई मल्हार गावे'

Ans 1. मेहनत किसी की लाभ दूसरे का

2. भला करने पर दुष्टता

3. सबको अपने ही सुख दुख से मतलब रहता है ।

4. चंचल मन वाला

Question ID : 441009374864
Option 1 ID : 4410091465033
Option 2 ID : 4410091465032
Option 3 ID : 4410091465031
Option 4 ID : 4410091465034

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Q.6 दिए गए वाक्यांश के लिए निम्न में से एक शब्द होगा--

'पहाड़ का ऊपरी भाग'

Ans 1. आधिपत्य

2. अधित्यका

3. अभ्यंतर

4. अचल

Question ID : 441009374831
Option 1 ID : 4410091464911
Option 2 ID : 4410091464912
Option 3 ID : 4410091464914
Option 4 ID : 4410091464913

Q.7 वाक्य-खंडों का सही क्रम होगा-

क. सबसे ऊपर की सीढी पर है I

ख. राजन मात्र संदेह ही नहीं करता,
ग. जो वस्तुत: कुं ठित अहं है,
घ. उसका अहं भी,

Ans 1. घ,क,ख,ग

2. घ,ग,ख,क

3. ख,घ,ग,क

4. क,ख,ग,घ

Question ID : 441009374830
Option 1 ID : 4410091464910
Option 2 ID : 4410091464908
Option 3 ID : 4410091464907
Option 4 ID : 4410091464909

Q.8 'राधा __________ लड़की है' वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए सही विकल्प चुनें
Ans 1. ताजा

2. मधुर

3. भली

4. तीव्र

Question ID : 441009374810
Option 1 ID : 4410091464830
Option 2 ID : 4410091464828
Option 3 ID : 4410091464827
Option 4 ID : 4410091464829

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Q.9 निम्न मुहावरे के अर्थ को बताएं - 'तिल धरने की जगह न होना'

Ans 1. बड़ी भीड़ होना

2. स्वभाव मिलना

3. काम में न लाना

4. छोटी बात को बढ़ा चढ़ा कर कहना

Question ID : 441009374865
Option 1 ID : 4410091465038
Option 2 ID : 4410091465037
Option 3 ID : 4410091465036
Option 4 ID : 4410091465035

Q.10 'तापमान बढ़ाने पर पानी -----------------------' वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान के लिए किस विकल्प में उपयुक्त
क्रियाविशेषण है-
Ans 1. गर्म हो गया

2. सूख गया

3. तेजी से खौलने लगा

4. वाष्पित हो गया

Question ID : 441009374815
Option 1 ID : 4410091464849
Option 2 ID : 4410091464848
Option 3 ID : 4410091464847
Option 4 ID : 4410091464850

Q.11 दिए गए वाक्य में उचित परिमाणवाचक विशेषण का चयन करके रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति करें-
रितुल यदि--------- परिश्रम करता तो उच्च पद प्राप्त कर सकता था।
Ans 1. थोड़ा सा

2. उचित

3. दुगुना

4. सच्चा

Question ID : 441009374813
Option 1 ID : 4410091464839
Option 2 ID : 4410091464840
Option 3 ID : 4410091464842
Option 4 ID : 4410091464841

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Q.12 य. पूर्ण विश्वास के साथ

र. हमें आज
ल. मिलना ही होगा I
व. उसने कहा था
ह. नहीं तो कल,

उपरोक्त वाक्य-खण्डों का सार्थक क्रम पहचानें-

Ans 1. य,व,र,ह,ल

2. र,ल,ह, व,य

3. य,व,र,ल,ह

4. व,य,ल,र,ह

Question ID : 441009374829
Option 1 ID : 4410091464903
Option 2 ID : 4410091464906
Option 3 ID : 4410091464905
Option 4 ID : 4410091464904

Q.13 दिए गए वाक्यांश के लिए निम्न में से एक शब्द होगा--

'जिस वस्त्र को पहना नहीं गया हो'

Ans 1. अप्रहत

2. पहनावा

3. अप्रतिहत

4. अपरिणत

Question ID : 441009374832
Option 1 ID : 4410091464915
Option 2 ID : 4410091464918
Option 3 ID : 4410091464916
Option 4 ID : 4410091464917

Q.14 निम्न वाक्य का रेखांकित शब्द अशुद्ध है शुद्ध शब्द बताएं -

'दढ़ संकल्प करके अपना कर्तव्य करो ।'
Ans 1. दरिढ़

2. दरीढ़

3. दृढ

4. दृढ़

Question ID : 441009374862
Option 1 ID : 4410091465026
Option 2 ID : 4410091465023
Option 3 ID : 4410091465025
Option 4 ID : 4410091465024

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Q.15 निम्न वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान में 'निराकार' का विलोम शब्द लिखें -
'सूरदास ने कृ ष्ण की आराधना की ।'

Ans 1. आकारहीन

2. साकार

3. निर्गुण

4. अमूर्त

Question ID : 441009374859
Option 1 ID : 4410091465012
Option 2 ID : 4410091465011
Option 3 ID : 4410091465014
Option 4 ID : 4410091465013

Comprehension:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश के आधार पर नीचे दिए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए-
भारतेन्दु ने हिन्दी गद्य के जिस रूप का प्रवर्तन किया, आचार्य द्विवेदी ने उस रूप को परिमार्जित करने में अपना योगदान
किया। इनका प्रभाव इस काल के अधिकांश कवियों पर पड़ा, जिसके कारण इस काल का नाम ही द्विवेदी-युग पड़ गया।
द्विवेदीजी संस्कृ त तथा मराठी साहित्य से विशेष प्रभावित थे। इनकी रचनाओं में इनका प्रभाव परिलक्षित होता है। हिन्दी गद्य
साहित्य की उन्नति के लिए इन्होंने ‘सरस्वती’ पत्रिका का भी सम्पादन किया। ‘सरस्वती’ के सम्पादन में द्विवेदी जी ने हिन्दी में
भाषा तथा व्याकरण से सम्बद्ध त्रुटियाँ दूर कीं। गद्य-लेखकों के लिए इन्होंने मार्गदर्शक का ही काम नहीं किया, अपितु उनका
मार्ग भी प्रशस्त किया। भारतेन्दु हरिश्चंद्र की तरह इन्होंने भी अपना एक मण्डल निर्मित किया, जो द्विवेदी-मण्डल के नाम से
प्रसिद्ध हुआ। अपनी आलोचनाओं के माध्यम से द्विवेदीजी ने अधकचरे साहित्यकारों की बुराइयाँ दूर कीं तथा उन्हें स्वस्थ
साहित्य की रचना के लिए प्रेरित भी किया। भाषा को शिष्ट रूप प्रदान करने में द्विवेदीजी सदैव प्रगतिशील रहे। भाषा के
पारखी होने के कारण कठिन-से-कठिन विषयों को भी सरल भाषा में व्यक्त करने की इनमें अद्भुत क्षमता थी। संस्कृ त के
तत्सम एवं तद्भव शब्दों का समावेश इनके निबंधों में दृष्टिगोचर होता है। विदेशी शब्द अपनाकर हिन्दी बनाने का कार्य भी
इन्होंने किया। अँग्रेजी, अरबी, फारसी एवं उर्दू शब्दों का प्रयोग भी यत्र-तत्र उपलब्ध है। द्विवेदीजी की रचनाएँ संख्या में पचास
के लगभग हैं। साहित्य, पुरातत्त्व, आलोचना, विज्ञान, नीति आदि विषयों पर इनके अनेक लेख प्रकाशित हैं।
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 गद्यांश का सर्वोचित शीर्षक चुनिए-
Ans 1. आधुनिक हिन्दी का विकास

2. हिन्दी के परिमार्जन में द्विवेदीजी का योगदान

3. हिन्दी के परिमार्जन में भारतेन्दु का योगदान
4. भारतेन्दु एवं द्विवेदी

Question ID : 441009374852
Option 1 ID : 4410091464986
Option 2 ID : 4410091464984
Option 3 ID : 4410091464985
Option 4 ID : 4410091464983

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 https://link.testbook.com/bQQ2EkH1bpb https://link.testbook.com/bQQ2EkH1bpb

Comprehension:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश के आधार पर नीचे दिए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए-
भारतेन्दु ने हिन्दी गद्य के जिस रूप का प्रवर्तन किया, आचार्य द्विवेदी ने उस रूप को परिमार्जित करने में अपना योगदान
किया। इनका प्रभाव इस काल के अधिकांश कवियों पर पड़ा, जिसके कारण इस काल का नाम ही द्विवेदी-युग पड़ गया।
द्विवेदीजी संस्कृ त तथा मराठी साहित्य से विशेष प्रभावित थे। इनकी रचनाओं में इनका प्रभाव परिलक्षित होता है। हिन्दी गद्य
साहित्य की उन्नति के लिए इन्होंने ‘सरस्वती’ पत्रिका का भी सम्पादन किया। ‘सरस्वती’ के सम्पादन में द्विवेदी जी ने हिन्दी में
भाषा तथा व्याकरण से सम्बद्ध त्रुटियाँ दूर कीं। गद्य-लेखकों के लिए इन्होंने मार्गदर्शक का ही काम नहीं किया, अपितु उनका
मार्ग भी प्रशस्त किया। भारतेन्दु हरिश्चंद्र की तरह इन्होंने भी अपना एक मण्डल निर्मित किया, जो द्विवेदी-मण्डल के नाम से
प्रसिद्ध हुआ। अपनी आलोचनाओं के माध्यम से द्विवेदीजी ने अधकचरे साहित्यकारों की बुराइयाँ दूर कीं तथा उन्हें स्वस्थ
साहित्य की रचना के लिए प्रेरित भी किया। भाषा को शिष्ट रूप प्रदान करने में द्विवेदीजी सदैव प्रगतिशील रहे। भाषा के
पारखी होने के कारण कठिन-से-कठिन विषयों को भी सरल भाषा में व्यक्त करने की इनमें अद्भुत क्षमता थी। संस्कृ त के
तत्सम एवं तद्भव शब्दों का समावेश इनके निबंधों में दृष्टिगोचर होता है। विदेशी शब्द अपनाकर हिन्दी बनाने का कार्य भी
इन्होंने किया। अँग्रेजी, अरबी, फारसी एवं उर्दू शब्दों का प्रयोग भी यत्र-तत्र उपलब्ध है। द्विवेदीजी की रचनाएँ संख्या में पचास
के लगभग हैं। साहित्य, पुरातत्त्व, आलोचना, विज्ञान, नीति आदि विषयों पर इनके अनेक लेख प्रकाशित हैं।
SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन द्विवेदी जी के विषय में असत्य है?
Ans 1. द्विवेदीजी ने भाषा को शिष्ट रूप प्रदान किया।

2. द्विवेदीजी ने विदेशी शब्दों को अपनाकर हिन्दी को बनाया।

3. द्विवेदीजी ने लेखकों का मार्ग अवरुद्ध किया।

4. द्विवेदीजी भाषा के पारखी थे।

Question ID : 441009374850
Option 1 ID : 4410091464976
Option 2 ID : 4410091464978
Option 3 ID : 4410091464977
Option 4 ID : 4410091464975

Comprehension:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश के आधार पर नीचे दिए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए-
भारतेन्दु ने हिन्दी गद्य के जिस रूप का प्रवर्तन किया, आचार्य द्विवेदी ने उस रूप को परिमार्जित करने में अपना योगदान
किया। इनका प्रभाव इस काल के अधिकांश कवियों पर पड़ा, जिसके कारण इस काल का नाम ही द्विवेदी-युग पड़ गया।
द्विवेदीजी संस्कृ त तथा मराठी साहित्य से विशेष प्रभावित थे। इनकी रचनाओं में इनका प्रभाव परिलक्षित होता है। हिन्दी गद्य
साहित्य की उन्नति के लिए इन्होंने ‘सरस्वती’ पत्रिका का भी सम्पादन किया। ‘सरस्वती’ के सम्पादन में द्विवेदी जी ने हिन्दी में
भाषा तथा व्याकरण से सम्बद्ध त्रुटियाँ दूर कीं। गद्य-लेखकों के लिए इन्होंने मार्गदर्शक का ही काम नहीं किया, अपितु उनका
मार्ग भी प्रशस्त किया। भारतेन्दु हरिश्चंद्र की तरह इन्होंने भी अपना एक मण्डल निर्मित किया, जो द्विवेदी-मण्डल के नाम से
प्रसिद्ध हुआ। अपनी आलोचनाओं के माध्यम से द्विवेदीजी ने अधकचरे साहित्यकारों की बुराइयाँ दूर कीं तथा उन्हें स्वस्थ
साहित्य की रचना के लिए प्रेरित भी किया। भाषा को शिष्ट रूप प्रदान करने में द्विवेदीजी सदैव प्रगतिशील रहे। भाषा के
पारखी होने के कारण कठिन-से-कठिन विषयों को भी सरल भाषा में व्यक्त करने की इनमें अद्भुत क्षमता थी। संस्कृ त के
तत्सम एवं तद्भव शब्दों का समावेश इनके निबंधों में दृष्टिगोचर होता है। विदेशी शब्द अपनाकर हिन्दी बनाने का कार्य भी
इन्होंने किया। अँग्रेजी, अरबी, फारसी एवं उर्दू शब्दों का प्रयोग भी यत्र-तत्र उपलब्ध है। द्विवेदीजी की रचनाएँ संख्या में पचास
के लगभग हैं। साहित्य, पुरातत्त्व, आलोचना, विज्ञान, नीति आदि विषयों पर इनके अनेक लेख प्रकाशित हैं।
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 द्विवेदीजी ने ‘हिन्दी गद्य का परिमार्जन किया’- से क्या आशय है?
Ans 1. हिन्दी गद्य का परिष्कार किया

2. हिन्दी गद्य का विकास किया

3. हिन्दी गद्य को सरल बनाया

4. हिन्दी गद्य का प्रसार किया

Question ID : 441009374848
Option 1 ID : 4410091464969
Option 2 ID : 4410091464967
Option 3 ID : 4410091464970
Option 4 ID : 4410091464968

https://testbk.co/nesg https://t.me/+zNM8VRVZPzA5MzVl https://testbk.co/nesm https://testbk.co/qikm

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 https://link.testbook.com/bQQ2EkH1bpb https://link.testbook.com/bQQ2EkH1bpb

Comprehension:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश के आधार पर नीचे दिए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए-
भारतेन्दु ने हिन्दी गद्य के जिस रूप का प्रवर्तन किया, आचार्य द्विवेदी ने उस रूप को परिमार्जित करने में अपना योगदान
किया। इनका प्रभाव इस काल के अधिकांश कवियों पर पड़ा, जिसके कारण इस काल का नाम ही द्विवेदी-युग पड़ गया।
द्विवेदीजी संस्कृ त तथा मराठी साहित्य से विशेष प्रभावित थे। इनकी रचनाओं में इनका प्रभाव परिलक्षित होता है। हिन्दी गद्य
साहित्य की उन्नति के लिए इन्होंने ‘सरस्वती’ पत्रिका का भी सम्पादन किया। ‘सरस्वती’ के सम्पादन में द्विवेदी जी ने हिन्दी में
भाषा तथा व्याकरण से सम्बद्ध त्रुटियाँ दूर कीं। गद्य-लेखकों के लिए इन्होंने मार्गदर्शक का ही काम नहीं किया, अपितु उनका
मार्ग भी प्रशस्त किया। भारतेन्दु हरिश्चंद्र की तरह इन्होंने भी अपना एक मण्डल निर्मित किया, जो द्विवेदी-मण्डल के नाम से
प्रसिद्ध हुआ। अपनी आलोचनाओं के माध्यम से द्विवेदीजी ने अधकचरे साहित्यकारों की बुराइयाँ दूर कीं तथा उन्हें स्वस्थ
साहित्य की रचना के लिए प्रेरित भी किया। भाषा को शिष्ट रूप प्रदान करने में द्विवेदीजी सदैव प्रगतिशील रहे। भाषा के
पारखी होने के कारण कठिन-से-कठिन विषयों को भी सरल भाषा में व्यक्त करने की इनमें अद्भुत क्षमता थी। संस्कृ त के
तत्सम एवं तद्भव शब्दों का समावेश इनके निबंधों में दृष्टिगोचर होता है। विदेशी शब्द अपनाकर हिन्दी बनाने का कार्य भी
इन्होंने किया। अँग्रेजी, अरबी, फारसी एवं उर्दू शब्दों का प्रयोग भी यत्र-तत्र उपलब्ध है। द्विवेदीजी की रचनाएँ संख्या में पचास
के लगभग हैं। साहित्य, पुरातत्त्व, आलोचना, विज्ञान, नीति आदि विषयों पर इनके अनेक लेख प्रकाशित हैं।
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 किस विषय पर द्विवेदीजी के लेख प्रकाशित नहीं हैं?
Ans 1. नीति

2. कला

3. पुरातत्त्व

4. साहित्य

Question ID : 441009374851
Option 1 ID : 4410091464981
Option 2 ID : 4410091464982
Option 3 ID : 4410091464980
Option 4 ID : 4410091464979

Comprehension:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश के आधार पर नीचे दिए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए-
भारतेन्दु ने हिन्दी गद्य के जिस रूप का प्रवर्तन किया, आचार्य द्विवेदी ने उस रूप को परिमार्जित करने में अपना योगदान
किया। इनका प्रभाव इस काल के अधिकांश कवियों पर पड़ा, जिसके कारण इस काल का नाम ही द्विवेदी-युग पड़ गया।
द्विवेदीजी संस्कृ त तथा मराठी साहित्य से विशेष प्रभावित थे। इनकी रचनाओं में इनका प्रभाव परिलक्षित होता है। हिन्दी गद्य
साहित्य की उन्नति के लिए इन्होंने ‘सरस्वती’ पत्रिका का भी सम्पादन किया। ‘सरस्वती’ के सम्पादन में द्विवेदी जी ने हिन्दी में
भाषा तथा व्याकरण से सम्बद्ध त्रुटियाँ दूर कीं। गद्य-लेखकों के लिए इन्होंने मार्गदर्शक का ही काम नहीं किया, अपितु उनका
मार्ग भी प्रशस्त किया। भारतेन्दु हरिश्चंद्र की तरह इन्होंने भी अपना एक मण्डल निर्मित किया, जो द्विवेदी-मण्डल के नाम से
प्रसिद्ध हुआ। अपनी आलोचनाओं के माध्यम से द्विवेदीजी ने अधकचरे साहित्यकारों की बुराइयाँ दूर कीं तथा उन्हें स्वस्थ
साहित्य की रचना के लिए प्रेरित भी किया। भाषा को शिष्ट रूप प्रदान करने में द्विवेदीजी सदैव प्रगतिशील रहे। भाषा के
पारखी होने के कारण कठिन-से-कठिन विषयों को भी सरल भाषा में व्यक्त करने की इनमें अद्भुत क्षमता थी। संस्कृ त के
तत्सम एवं तद्भव शब्दों का समावेश इनके निबंधों में दृष्टिगोचर होता है। विदेशी शब्द अपनाकर हिन्दी बनाने का कार्य भी
इन्होंने किया। अँग्रेजी, अरबी, फारसी एवं उर्दू शब्दों का प्रयोग भी यत्र-तत्र उपलब्ध है। द्विवेदीजी की रचनाएँ संख्या में पचास
के लगभग हैं। साहित्य, पुरातत्त्व, आलोचना, विज्ञान, नीति आदि विषयों पर इनके अनेक लेख प्रकाशित हैं।
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 द्विवेदी जी ने हिन्दी में भाषा तथा व्याकरण से सम्बद्ध त्रुटियाँ कै से दूर कीं।
Ans 1. कार्यशाला का आयोजन करके

2. लेखक शिविर का आयोजन करके

3. लेखकों को पत्र लिखकर

4. सरस्वती का सम्पादन करके

Question ID : 441009374849
Option 1 ID : 4410091464971
Option 2 ID : 4410091464972
Option 3 ID : 4410091464973
Option 4 ID : 4410091464974

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Section : Test of English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.

A goose quill is more dangerous than a lion’s claw.

Ans 1. Physical weapons are stronger than intellectual tools

2. Pens and swords are equally dangerous

3. A lion's strength can overpower any written words

4. Writing or words can be more harmful than physical strength or violence

Question ID : 441009290225
Option 1 ID : 4410091127835
Option 2 ID : 4410091127834
Option 3 ID : 4410091127833
Option 4 ID : 4410091127832

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The glass pane of my window _____ this morning.

Ans 1. lived

2. rang

3. grew

4. broke

Question ID : 441009297595
Option 1 ID : 4410091157453
Option 2 ID : 4410091157452
Option 3 ID : 4410091157451
Option 4 ID : 4410091157454

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that rectifies the incorrectly spelt word in the given
sentence.
The army threatened to anihilate the entire city block if the rebels refused to surrender.
Ans 1. annihilate

2. threathned

3. antire

4. surrander

Question ID : 441009304978
Option 1 ID : 4410091186584
Option 2 ID : 4410091186583
Option 3 ID : 4410091186585
Option 4 ID : 4410091186582

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Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Despite her old age, her youthful exuberance still shines through in every aspect of her life.
Ans 1. Radiance

2. Enthusiasm

3. Zeal

4. Apathy

Question ID : 441009304667
Option 1 ID : 4410091185342
Option 2 ID : 4410091185345
Option 3 ID : 4410091185343
Option 4 ID : 4410091185344

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.
As a guest at the dinner party, he was polite and deferred to the host for guidance on the
events.
Ans 1. Yielded

2. Opposed

3. Ignored

4. Directed

Question ID : 441009304742
Option 1 ID : 4410091185638
Option 2 ID : 4410091185639
Option 3 ID : 4410091185640
Option 4 ID : 4410091185641

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

Jenny inherited her grandmother's great love of collecting books, particularly obscure poetry
from the Victorian Era.
Ans 1. Numismatics

2. Bibliophilia

3. Philately

4. Bibliophobia

Question ID : 441009301343
Option 1 ID : 4410091172490
Option 2 ID : 4410091172488
Option 3 ID : 4410091172489
Option 4 ID : 4410091172491

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Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He _____ left his important document on the table, and it was stolen.
Ans 1. usefully

2. carelessly

3. frequently

4. loudly

Question ID : 441009294580
Option 1 ID : 4410091145409
Option 2 ID : 4410091145408
Option 3 ID : 4410091145410
Option 4 ID : 4410091145407

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

_____ tall man standing near me is a minister.

Ans 1. A

2. No article

3. An

4. The

Question ID : 441009298040
Option 1 ID : 4410091159251
Option 2 ID : 4410091159254
Option 3 ID : 4410091159252
Option 4 ID : 4410091159253

Q.9 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined segment in the
given sentence.

She had been feeling tired and drained for several weeks. After a long vacation in the lap of
nature, she felt completely healthy, energetic, youthful, and ready to work.
Ans 1. regal

2. remiss

3. indolent

4. rejuvenated

Question ID : 441009301211
Option 1 ID : 4410091171962
Option 2 ID : 4410091171961
Option 3 ID : 4410091171963
Option 4 ID : 4410091171960

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Q.10 What does the proverb 'Make yourself all honey and the flies will devour you' mean?
Ans 1. Sweetness always leads to success and admiration

2. Being too sweet and servile invites exploitation

3. Attracting attention is always beneficial

4. If you are successful, you will attract others

Question ID : 441009303175
Option 1 ID : 4410091179267
Option 2 ID : 4410091179265
Option 3 ID : 4410091179266
Option 4 ID : 4410091179264

Q.11 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It includes some speaking, usually in the form of a recording, as input.

B. Such tests assess how effectively a person can understand spoken language in various
real-life situations.
C. They are usually authentic and set the context in which the learners have to listen and
comprehend the spoken message.
D. These inputs can be instructions, directions, announcements, conversations, talks,
lectures, descriptions, and so on.
E. A listening test is designed to evaluate how well-developed your listening skills are.
Ans 1. CDBAE

2. CBAED

3. EADCB

4. BACDE

Question ID : 441009300958
Option 1 ID : 4410091170937
Option 2 ID : 4410091170938
Option 3 ID : 4410091170939
Option 4 ID : 4410091170936

Q.12 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It just requires basic physical fitness, knowledge of techniques or guidance and good
equipment for safety.
B. There is no age bar or special qualification for rock climbing.
C. One can gain confidence, personal satisfaction, immense stamina and endurance through
this sport.
D. Rock climbing as an activity began more or less at the beginning of the 9th Century.
E. Rock climbing not only strengthens the body but also enhances mental resilience and
problem-solving skills.
Ans 1. EBADC

2. BEADC

3. DEACB

4. DBAEC

Question ID : 441009301004
Option 1 ID : 4410091171127
Option 2 ID : 4410091171126
Option 3 ID : 4410091171124
Option 4 ID : 4410091171125

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Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

They don’t know how ______ sugar is needed for a cup of coffee.
Ans 1. much

2. many

3. least

4. few

Question ID : 441009294501
Option 1 ID : 4410091145086
Option 2 ID : 4410091145083
Option 3 ID : 4410091145084
Option 4 ID : 4410091145085

Q.14 Select the most appropriate option that rectifies the underlined incorrectly spelt word in the
given sentence.

The city passed a new ordineance to regulate noise levels in residential areas.
Ans 1. ordnance

2. ordinence

3. ordinace

4. ordinance

Question ID : 441009289496
Option 1 ID : 4410091124956
Option 2 ID : 4410091124954
Option 3 ID : 4410091124957
Option 4 ID : 4410091124955

Q.15 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The student gave his best presentation using _____ useful feature of his laptop.
Ans 1. No article

2. the

3. a

4. an

Question ID : 441009298731
Option 1 ID : 4410091161961
Option 2 ID : 4410091161959
Option 3 ID : 4410091161960
Option 4 ID : 4410091161958

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

Travel has changed, so have priorities. What people desire from their vacations is no longer
confined to guided tours. There is a yearning to go beyond having a good time and delve
deeper to feel the pulse of the place. People now seek deeper, more meaningful experiences
that connect them with a destination’s culture, history and people. This shift, known as
experiential travel, has become widely popular.
Experiential travel is not just about visiting places; it is about feeling them. Many travellers find
joy in kind strangers, quiet moments and the wisdom in old faces. These experiences help
create a sense of belonging and deeper connections to the world.
Since the pandemic, people have started prioritising themselves, realizing how short life can
be. A report reveals that 86% of millennials now prefer immersive travel experiences over
traditional tourism. Instead of simply checking places off a list, they want to live their journey—
joining local festivals, exploring hidden culinary gems, and embracing cultural traditions
authentically.
Experiential travel fosters a lasting appreciation for places and their people. Travellers immerse
themselves in local traditions, engage in community activities and learn from those they meet.
Whether it is exploring nature, understanding regional customs or connecting with locals, these
moments create lasting memories.
Experiential travel is not just about fun; it is a way to learn, grow and truly become a part of a
place, even if only for a short time.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Identify the tone of the passage.
Ans 1. Casual and humorous

2. Critical and analytical

3. Informative and reflective

4. Cautious and objective

Question ID : 441009294019
Option 1 ID : 4410091143004
Option 2 ID : 4410091143002
Option 3 ID : 4410091143003
Option 4 ID : 4410091143001

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

Travel has changed, so have priorities. What people desire from their vacations is no longer
confined to guided tours. There is a yearning to go beyond having a good time and delve
deeper to feel the pulse of the place. People now seek deeper, more meaningful experiences
that connect them with a destination’s culture, history and people. This shift, known as
experiential travel, has become widely popular.
Experiential travel is not just about visiting places; it is about feeling them. Many travellers find
joy in kind strangers, quiet moments and the wisdom in old faces. These experiences help
create a sense of belonging and deeper connections to the world.
Since the pandemic, people have started prioritising themselves, realizing how short life can
be. A report reveals that 86% of millennials now prefer immersive travel experiences over
traditional tourism. Instead of simply checking places off a list, they want to live their journey—
joining local festivals, exploring hidden culinary gems, and embracing cultural traditions
authentically.
Experiential travel fosters a lasting appreciation for places and their people. Travellers immerse
themselves in local traditions, engage in community activities and learn from those they meet.
Whether it is exploring nature, understanding regional customs or connecting with locals, these
moments create lasting memories.
Experiential travel is not just about fun; it is a way to learn, grow and truly become a part of a
place, even if only for a short time.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 According to the passage, what percentage of millennials prefer immersive travel
experiences over traditional tourism?
Ans 1. 90%

2. 86%

3. 80%

4. 76%

Question ID : 441009294022
Option 1 ID : 4410091143015
Option 2 ID : 4410091143016
Option 3 ID : 4410091143014
Option 4 ID : 4410091143013

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

Travel has changed, so have priorities. What people desire from their vacations is no longer
confined to guided tours. There is a yearning to go beyond having a good time and delve
deeper to feel the pulse of the place. People now seek deeper, more meaningful experiences
that connect them with a destination’s culture, history and people. This shift, known as
experiential travel, has become widely popular.
Experiential travel is not just about visiting places; it is about feeling them. Many travellers find
joy in kind strangers, quiet moments and the wisdom in old faces. These experiences help
create a sense of belonging and deeper connections to the world.
Since the pandemic, people have started prioritising themselves, realizing how short life can
be. A report reveals that 86% of millennials now prefer immersive travel experiences over
traditional tourism. Instead of simply checking places off a list, they want to live their journey—
joining local festivals, exploring hidden culinary gems, and embracing cultural traditions
authentically.
Experiential travel fosters a lasting appreciation for places and their people. Travellers immerse
themselves in local traditions, engage in community activities and learn from those they meet.
Whether it is exploring nature, understanding regional customs or connecting with locals, these
moments create lasting memories.
Experiential travel is not just about fun; it is a way to learn, grow and truly become a part of a
place, even if only for a short time.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Which of the following would be the most suitable title for the passage?
Ans 1. The Rise of Experiential Travel: Connecting with the World

2. A History of Tourism in the Post-Pandemic Era

3. Millennials and the Future of Tourism

4. Exploring Destinations Through Guided Tours

Question ID : 441009294021
Option 1 ID : 4410091143010
Option 2 ID : 4410091143011
Option 3 ID : 4410091143009
Option 4 ID : 4410091143012

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

Travel has changed, so have priorities. What people desire from their vacations is no longer
confined to guided tours. There is a yearning to go beyond having a good time and delve
deeper to feel the pulse of the place. People now seek deeper, more meaningful experiences
that connect them with a destination’s culture, history and people. This shift, known as
experiential travel, has become widely popular.
Experiential travel is not just about visiting places; it is about feeling them. Many travellers find
joy in kind strangers, quiet moments and the wisdom in old faces. These experiences help
create a sense of belonging and deeper connections to the world.
Since the pandemic, people have started prioritising themselves, realizing how short life can
be. A report reveals that 86% of millennials now prefer immersive travel experiences over
traditional tourism. Instead of simply checking places off a list, they want to live their journey—
joining local festivals, exploring hidden culinary gems, and embracing cultural traditions
authentically.
Experiential travel fosters a lasting appreciation for places and their people. Travellers immerse
themselves in local traditions, engage in community activities and learn from those they meet.
Whether it is exploring nature, understanding regional customs or connecting with locals, these
moments create lasting memories.
Experiential travel is not just about fun; it is a way to learn, grow and truly become a part of a
place, even if only for a short time.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Choose the synonym of the word 'foster' from the given options.
Ans 1. Discourage

2. Oppose

3. Ignore

4. Promote

Question ID : 441009294023
Option 1 ID : 4410091143019
Option 2 ID : 4410091143020
Option 3 ID : 4410091143018
Option 4 ID : 4410091143017

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Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

Travel has changed, so have priorities. What people desire from their vacations is no longer
confined to guided tours. There is a yearning to go beyond having a good time and delve
deeper to feel the pulse of the place. People now seek deeper, more meaningful experiences
that connect them with a destination’s culture, history and people. This shift, known as
experiential travel, has become widely popular.
Experiential travel is not just about visiting places; it is about feeling them. Many travellers find
joy in kind strangers, quiet moments and the wisdom in old faces. These experiences help
create a sense of belonging and deeper connections to the world.
Since the pandemic, people have started prioritising themselves, realizing how short life can
be. A report reveals that 86% of millennials now prefer immersive travel experiences over
traditional tourism. Instead of simply checking places off a list, they want to live their journey—
joining local festivals, exploring hidden culinary gems, and embracing cultural traditions
authentically.
Experiential travel fosters a lasting appreciation for places and their people. Travellers immerse
themselves in local traditions, engage in community activities and learn from those they meet.
Whether it is exploring nature, understanding regional customs or connecting with locals, these
moments create lasting memories.
Experiential travel is not just about fun; it is a way to learn, grow and truly become a part of a
place, even if only for a short time.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 How is the passage structured?
Ans 1. Problem-solution, presenting issues with tourism and proposing solutions

2. Cause-effect, explaining why travel has changed and its outcomes

3. Thematically, introducing experiential travel and elaborating on its significance

4. Chronologically, tracing the history of travel

Question ID : 441009294020
Option 1 ID : 4410091143006
Option 2 ID : 4410091143007
Option 3 ID : 4410091143005
Option 4 ID : 4410091143008

Section : Discipline1

Q.1 What should be the first step in a well-structured Hindi lesson plan?
Ans 1. Summarising the topic

2. Introducing the topic

3. Evaluating student performance

4. Giving homework

Question ID : 441009329398
Option 1 ID : 4410091284024
Option 2 ID : 4410091284022
Option 3 ID : 4410091284023
Option 4 ID : 4410091284025

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Q.2
Which of the following best supports active learning in the
classroom?
Ans
1. Participating in group discussions and activities
2. Reading a textbook silently
3. Memorising notes before an exam
4. Listening to a long lecture without interaction

Question ID : 441009338416
Option 1 ID : 4410091319634
Option 2 ID : 4410091319632
Option 3 ID : 4410091319635
Option 4 ID : 4410091319633

Q.3 How do attitudinal barriers affect the curriculum and school environment for children with
disabilities?
Ans 1. Teachers and schools often resist modifying curriculum or environment, leading to
poor integration.
2. Curriculum is simplified for all students regardless of ability.

3. Schools provide separate classrooms for disabled children to ensure focused learning.

4. Schools actively adapt teaching methods to accommodate these children.

Question ID : 441009338007
Option 1 ID : 4410091318005
Option 2 ID : 4410091318007
Option 3 ID : 4410091318006
Option 4 ID : 4410091318004

Q.4 Which of the following statements best explains the sequence of language development in
typically hearing children?
Ans 1. Reception of language occurs before expression

2. Language development begins only after age 3

3. Expression precedes reception

4. Children first speak, then understand language

Question ID : 441009340575
Option 1 ID : 4410091328313
Option 2 ID : 4410091328311
Option 3 ID : 4410091328310
Option 4 ID : 4410091328312

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Q.5 During early childhood, a child’s brain is described as:

Ans 1. resistant to environmental influence

2. fully developed

3. unresponsive to changes

4. highly plastic and responsive

Question ID : 441009327861
Option 1 ID : 4410091277914
Option 2 ID : 4410091277911
Option 3 ID : 4410091277912
Option 4 ID : 4410091277913

Q.6 Which of the following activities is NOT used for the functional vision assessment of a child?
Ans 1. Otoacoustic Emissions

2. Visual Discrimination

3. Form Constancy

4. Visual Closure

Question ID : 441009348295
Option 1 ID : 4410091359491
Option 2 ID : 4410091359488
Option 3 ID : 4410091359490
Option 4 ID : 4410091359489

Q.7
Why is Social Science important in education?
Ans
1. It teaches us how to cook
2. It focuses only on numbers and calculations
3. It helps us understand human behaviour and society
4. It helps us understand natural phenomena

Question ID : 441009338495
Option 1 ID : 4410091319946
Option 2 ID : 4410091319947
Option 3 ID : 4410091319945
Option 4 ID : 4410091319944

Q.8 Which of the following is a major aim of education according to Idealism?

Ans 1. To develop physical strength

2. To learn farming skills

3. To earn money quickly

4. To develop moral and intellectual values

Question ID : 441009338404
Option 1 ID : 4410091319576
Option 2 ID : 4410091319579
Option 3 ID : 4410091319577
Option 4 ID : 4410091319578

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Q.9 Etymologically, the term ‘Mathematics’ is derived from the _____ word ‘Manthanein’.
Ans 1. Latin

2. Greek

3. Sanskrit

4. French

Question ID : 441009338596
Option 1 ID : 4410091320345
Option 2 ID : 4410091320344
Option 3 ID : 4410091320347
Option 4 ID : 4410091320346

Q.10 Who introduced the cognitive theory of development during the 1930s?
Ans 1. Erik Erikson

2. BF Skinner

3. Sigmund Freud

4. Jean Piaget

Question ID : 441009337635
Option 1 ID : 4410091316523
Option 2 ID : 4410091316522
Option 3 ID : 4410091316520
Option 4 ID : 4410091316521

Q.11 Visual ________ refers to the ability to see clearly from a specified distance.
Ans 1. field

2. loss

3. acuity

4. process

Question ID : 441009343447
Option 1 ID : 4410091339775
Option 2 ID : 4410091339776
Option 3 ID : 4410091339774
Option 4 ID : 4410091339777

Q.12
What is the first step in planning a science lesson?
Ans
1. Giving homework
2. Writing on the blackboard
3. Conducting the final exam
4. Setting clear learning objectives

Question ID : 441009338424
Option 1 ID : 4410091319664
Option 2 ID : 4410091319665
Option 3 ID : 4410091319667
Option 4 ID : 4410091319666

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Q.13 Which method emphasises learning English through communication and interaction?
Ans 1. Grammar-Translation Method

2. Audio-Lingual Method

3. Communicative Language Teaching

4. Silent Way

Question ID : 441009338606
Option 1 ID : 4410091320380
Option 2 ID : 4410091320383
Option 3 ID : 4410091320381
Option 4 ID : 4410091320382

Q.14
What is the main aim of the Convention on the Rights of the
Child (1989)?
Ans
1. To promote child labour
2. To limit children’s access to education
3. To encourage discrimination in schools
4. To protect the rights and well-being of all children

Question ID : 441009338625
Option 1 ID : 4410091320464
Option 2 ID : 4410091320466
Option 3 ID : 4410091320467
Option 4 ID : 4410091320465

Q.15 What is a 'Sighted Guide' technique?

Ans 1. It involves holding the guide’s arm just above the elbow and maintaining one step
behind.
2. It involves the person with deaf-blindness walking independently.

3. It uses a map to assist in movement.

4. It involves using a guide dog to help navigate.

Question ID : 441009328842
Option 1 ID : 4410091281780
Option 2 ID : 4410091281779
Option 3 ID : 4410091281781
Option 4 ID : 4410091281778

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Q.16 The concept of integrated education in India emerged during the mid 1950s. It is based on
the ____________ of disability and it emphasises placement of children with disabilities in
mainstream schools.
Ans 1. Inclusive model

2. Medical model

3. Social model

4. Holistic model

Question ID : 441009328219
Option 1 ID : 4410091279341
Option 2 ID : 4410091279338
Option 3 ID : 4410091279340
Option 4 ID : 4410091279339

Q.17 Children with __________ should receive training in visual efficiency.

Ans 1. low vision

2. blurred vision

3. residual vision

4. visual impairment

Question ID : 441009343603
Option 1 ID : 4410091340404
Option 2 ID : 4410091340405
Option 3 ID : 4410091340402
Option 4 ID : 4410091340403

Q.18 The United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities came into force
from 3 May _____.
Ans 1. 2008

2. 2005

3. 2010

4. 2006

Question ID : 441009341922
Option 1 ID : 4410091333669
Option 2 ID : 4410091333672
Option 3 ID : 4410091333671
Option 4 ID : 4410091333670

Q.19 Learning can occur:

Ans 1. anywhere, anytime and from anyone

2. only from human teachers

3. only within the classroom

4. only from books and written material

Question ID : 441009327919
Option 1 ID : 4410091278142
Option 2 ID : 4410091278140
Option 3 ID : 4410091278139
Option 4 ID : 4410091278141

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Q.20 Which of the following stakeholders is responsible for making policies for inclusive
education system?
Ans 1. Regular teachers

2. Parents of children with and without disabilities

3. Children with special needs and their peers

4. Government of India and State Governments

Question ID : 441009348281
Option 1 ID : 4410091359435
Option 2 ID : 4410091359433
Option 3 ID : 4410091359432
Option 4 ID : 4410091359434

Section : Discipline2

Q.1 People with spastic __________ typically have paralysis or weakness in the arm and hand on
one side of the body.
Ans 1. diplegia

2. quadriplegia

3. hemiplegia

4. mixed CP

Question ID : 441009343839
Option 1 ID : 4410091341336
Option 2 ID : 4410091341335
Option 3 ID : 4410091341334
Option 4 ID : 4410091341337

Q.2 What is the main objective of orientational group guidance?

Ans 1. To introduce newcomers to a new environment, its rules, and opportunities to help
them adjust
2. To focus solely on vocational training

3. To conduct individual psychological assessments

4. To provide therapy for emotional problems

Question ID : 441009328930
Option 1 ID : 4410091282133
Option 2 ID : 4410091282134
Option 3 ID : 4410091282135
Option 4 ID : 4410091282132

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Q.3 The _______ technique takes the form of tears, also may include expressions of anger and
rage.
Ans 1. clarification

2. catharsis

3. medication

4. environmental manipulation

Question ID : 441009358921
Option 1 ID : 4410091401691
Option 2 ID : 4410091401690
Option 3 ID : 4410091401693
Option 4 ID : 4410091401692

Q.4
Which instructional approach is commonly recommended to
support children with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) in
developing communication skills?
Ans
1. Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA)
2. Unstructured free play
3. Physical education only
4. Traditional lecture-based teaching

Question ID : 441009340395
Option 1 ID : 4410091327606
Option 2 ID : 4410091327609
Option 3 ID : 4410091327608
Option 4 ID : 4410091327607

Q.5 A functional analysis of behaviour is particularly useful with _________ who are nonverbal or
unable to self-report on their behaviours.
Ans 1. infants

2. adolescents

3. young children

4. adults

Question ID : 441009345874
Option 1 ID : 4410091349452
Option 2 ID : 4410091349451
Option 3 ID : 4410091349450
Option 4 ID : 4410091349449

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Q.6 Which strategy helps improve language development and reading skills in children with
intellectual disabilities?
Ans 1. Providing appropriate language models and encouraging expression of thoughts
through reading and discussion
2. Creating a quiet environment to avoid overstimulation during reading activities

3. Teaching only one language dialect to avoid confusion while reading

4. Focusing solely on written language, ignoring verbal communication during reading

Question ID : 441009340638
Option 1 ID : 4410091328563
Option 2 ID : 4410091328562
Option 3 ID : 4410091328565
Option 4 ID : 4410091328564

Q.7 Which of the following factors that influence curriculum adaptations is NOT correct?
Ans 1. Language deficits

2. High athletic ability

3. Cognitive deficits

4. Academic deficits

Question ID : 441009328847
Option 1 ID : 4410091281799
Option 2 ID : 4410091281798
Option 3 ID : 4410091281801
Option 4 ID : 4410091281800

Q.8 Division TEACCH is a comprehensive treatment model that serves individuals with _________
across the lifespan.
Ans 1. visual impairment

2. hearing impairment

3. mild ID

4. autism

Question ID : 441009343811
Option 1 ID : 4410091341229
Option 2 ID : 4410091341228
Option 3 ID : 4410091341226
Option 4 ID : 4410091341227

Q.9 A child with cerebral palsy exhibits poor articulation, tongue weakness and difficulty puffing
their cheeks. Which integrated therapeutic technique would be most appropriate for targeting
these issues?
Ans 1. Visual tracking exercises for eye co-ordination

2. Kinesiology taping with strength training

3. Oral motor skill therapy focusing on muscle tone and control

4. Use of cochlear implants

Question ID : 441009328880
Option 1 ID : 4410091281933
Option 2 ID : 4410091281930
Option 3 ID : 4410091281931
Option 4 ID : 4410091281932

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Q.10 Which of the following is NOT an example of assistive technology to facilitate learning for
cerebral palsy?
Ans 1. Mounting devices and other performance enablers

2. Augmentative and alternative communication devices and software

3. Non-adapted playground equipment

4. Low-tech devices or assistive devices for the activities of daily living

Question ID : 441009348439
Option 1 ID : 4410091360080
Option 2 ID : 4410091360079
Option 3 ID : 4410091360078
Option 4 ID : 4410091360081

Q.11
Which psychological theory best explains the process of self-
concept development through stages of autonomy and
emotional regulation?
Ans
1. Erikson’s Psychosocial Development Theory
2. Piaget’s Cognitive Development Theory
3. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
4. Skinner’s Operant Conditioning

Question ID : 441009340438
Option 1 ID : 4410091327775
Option 2 ID : 4410091327777
Option 3 ID : 4410091327774
Option 4 ID : 4410091327776

Q.12
Which tool is commonly used to assess intellectual disability
in children?
Ans
1. Hearing test
2. Vision screening
3. Standardised intelligence tests
4. Physical endurance test

Question ID : 441009340386
Option 1 ID : 4410091327572
Option 2 ID : 4410091327571
Option 3 ID : 4410091327570
Option 4 ID : 4410091327573

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Q.13
Which of the following therapeutic interventions is
considered most effective in managing spasticity in children
with cerebral palsy?
Ans
1. Solely occupational therapy without medical treatment
2. Botulinum toxin injections combined with physiotherapy
3. Cognitive behavioural therapy without physical intervention
4. Nutritional counseling alone

Question ID : 441009340403
Option 1 ID : 4410091327639
Option 2 ID : 4410091327638
Option 3 ID : 4410091327641
Option 4 ID : 4410091327640

Q.14 __________ deals with assisting an individual to opt for the right occupation or job.
Ans 1. Personal guidance

2. Health guidance

3. Vocational guidance

4. Educational guidance

Question ID : 441009344203
Option 1 ID : 4410091342779
Option 2 ID : 4410091342780
Option 3 ID : 4410091342778
Option 4 ID : 4410091342777

Q.15 What is the primary goal of behaviour modification?

Ans 1. To diagnose mental disorders

2. To provide medication for behavioural issues

3. To increase adaptive behaviour and decrease maladaptive behaviour

4. To encourage free expression of emotions

Question ID : 441009328993
Option 1 ID : 4410091282384
Option 2 ID : 4410091282386
Option 3 ID : 4410091282385
Option 4 ID : 4410091282387

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Q.16 _________ is a tool that allows children with CP to use letters, words and phrases on a screen
to verbally express their thoughts and emotions.
Ans 1. Eye tracking device

2. Adaptive writing aid

3. Electronic communication board

4. Electronic communication device

Question ID : 441009344191
Option 1 ID : 4410091342723
Option 2 ID : 4410091342722
Option 3 ID : 4410091342721
Option 4 ID : 4410091342724

Q.17 Which of the following will NOT help reduce postural fatigue commonly faced by students
with cerebral palsy?
Ans 1. Spine: Symmetrical with normal curves preserved

2. Head: Leaning over desk

3. Feet: At 90 degrees to shin and flat on the floor

4. Pelvis: Symmetrical and upright with bottom well back in the seat

Question ID : 441009348755
Option 1 ID : 4410091361372
Option 2 ID : 4410091361370
Option 3 ID : 4410091361373
Option 4 ID : 4410091361371

Q.18
What does Universal Design for Learning (UDL) primarily aim
to do in early childhood education?
Ans
1. Exclude children with disabilities
2. Focus only on gifted children
3. Limit the use of technology in classrooms
4. Provide learning opportunities accessible to all children

Question ID : 441009340500
Option 1 ID : 4410091328025
Option 2 ID : 4410091328023
Option 3 ID : 4410091328024
Option 4 ID : 4410091328022

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Q.19 The period from birth to ______ of age (early childhood) is critical for development of
language and speech.
Ans 1. six years

2. five years

3. seven years

4. four years

Question ID : 441009345563
Option 1 ID : 4410091348197
Option 2 ID : 4410091348198
Option 3 ID : 4410091348199
Option 4 ID : 4410091348200

Q.20
Which of the following best differentiates classical
conditioning from operant conditioning?
Ans
1. Classical
conditioning involves learning through
consequences; operant conditioning involves association between
stimuli.
2. Operant conditioning occurs without consequences;
classical conditioning requires punishment.
3. Classical conditioning is based on reinforcement schedules;
operant conditioning is based on pairing stimuli.
4. Operant
conditioning involves voluntary behaviours;
classical conditioning involves involuntary reflexive responses.

Question ID : 441009340529
Option 1 ID : 4410091328134
Option 2 ID : 4410091328137
Option 3 ID : 4410091328136
Option 4 ID : 4410091328135

Section : Discipline3

Q.1 What is the primary reason for using a blindfold during Orientation and Mobility training?
Ans 1. To improve vision temporarily

2. To help students memorise routes visually

3. To simulate the experience of total blindness for training purposes

4. To protect the eyes from sunlight

Question ID : 441009341208
Option 1 ID : 4410091330820
Option 2 ID : 4410091330823
Option 3 ID : 4410091330821
Option 4 ID : 4410091330822

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Q.2 In the drill and practice mode of CAL, what does the computer typically provide to the
learner?
Ans 1. Only video demonstrations

2. A series of exercises with immediate feedback

3. Grading reports for teachers only

4. Lectures in audio format

Question ID : 441009329055
Option 1 ID : 4410091282631
Option 2 ID : 4410091282628
Option 3 ID : 4410091282629
Option 4 ID : 4410091282630

Q.3 Which of the following is NOT typically emphasised in training independent living skills for
persons with visual impairments?
Ans 1. Developing personal grooming routines

2. Practicing appropriate eating etiquette

3. Using vision to identify food colours

4. Maintaining proper posture during walking

Question ID : 441009341217
Option 1 ID : 4410091330857
Option 2 ID : 4410091330859
Option 3 ID : 4410091330858
Option 4 ID : 4410091330856

Q.4 Which skill is essential when cross collating information from different sources?
Ans 1. Using only digital resources

2. Accepting all information as true without evaluation

3. Memorising information without question

4. Evaluating the credibility and relevance of each source

Question ID : 441009340967
Option 1 ID : 4410091329860
Option 2 ID : 4410091329857
Option 3 ID : 4410091329859
Option 4 ID : 4410091329858

Q.5 LCMS stands for __________.

Ans 1. learning content module system

2. literature content management system

3. literature content module system

4. learning content management system

Question ID : 441009347924
Option 1 ID : 4410091357942
Option 2 ID : 4410091357941
Option 3 ID : 4410091357943
Option 4 ID : 4410091357940

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Q.6 The goal of the CBVT program is to:

Ans 1. promote advanced academic research in virtual technologies

2. increase self-awareness about career interests and abilities

3. replace traditional schooling systems

4. conduct research in behavioural sciences

Question ID : 441009359727
Option 1 ID : 4410091404903
Option 2 ID : 4410091404902
Option 3 ID : 4410091404905
Option 4 ID : 4410091404904

Q.7 What is the purpose of contractions in English Braille?

Ans 1. To represent numbers only

2. To confuse the reader

3. To save space and increase reading speed

4. To make reading slower

Question ID : 441009340795
Option 1 ID : 4410091329189
Option 2 ID : 4410091329188
Option 3 ID : 4410091329187
Option 4 ID : 4410091329186

Q.8 Which of the following options best describes the difference between sex and gender?
Ans 1. Sex is a social role, while gender is based on anatomy.

2. Gender is fixed, while sex changes over time.

3. Sex is biologically determined, while gender is socially constructed.

4. Sex and gender mean the same thing.

Question ID : 441009340787
Option 1 ID : 4410091329155
Option 2 ID : 4410091329157
Option 3 ID : 4410091329154
Option 4 ID : 4410091329156

Q.9 What prepares citizens to participate in the labour market, enabling them to adapt to global
trends, and thus become more inclusive?
Ans 1. Vocational Employment and Training

2. Vocational Education and Teaching

3. Vocational Employment and Teaching

4. Vocational Education and Training

Question ID : 441009355869
Option 1 ID : 4410091389582
Option 2 ID : 4410091389581
Option 3 ID : 4410091389583
Option 4 ID : 4410091389580

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Q.10 Which of the following is NOT an optical device for near vision?
Ans 1. Prismatic half eyes

2. Bifocals

3. Handheld magnifier

4. Reading guide

Question ID : 441009329214
Option 1 ID : 4410091283261
Option 2 ID : 4410091283263
Option 3 ID : 4410091283260
Option 4 ID : 4410091283262

Q.11 Which of the following is a primary goal of development policies related to disability?
Ans 1. To promote public awareness and inclusion

2. To limit educational opportunities for persons with disabilities

3. To increase taxation on assistive devices

4. To restrict access to public transportation

Question ID : 441009340744
Option 1 ID : 4410091328986
Option 2 ID : 4410091328988
Option 3 ID : 4410091328987
Option 4 ID : 4410091328989

Q.12 ___________ is a strategy for enhancing the quality of life of persons with special needs.
Ans 1. Community-based recreation

2. Community-based resolution

3. Community-based revolution

4. Community-based rehabilitation

Question ID : 441009347825
Option 1 ID : 4410091357499
Option 2 ID : 4410091357498
Option 3 ID : 4410091357497
Option 4 ID : 4410091357496

Q.13 How can e-classrooms be adapted for students with hearing impairments?
Ans 1. By providing closed captions and sign language interpreters

2. By increasing the volume of lectures

3. Avoiding visual aids

4. By only using audio instructions

Question ID : 441009341000
Option 1 ID : 4410091329989
Option 2 ID : 4410091329991
Option 3 ID : 4410091329992
Option 4 ID : 4410091329990

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Q.14 In braille, a new paragraph should begin at which braille cell on a new line?
Ans 1. First

2. Third

3. Second

4. Fifth

Question ID : 441009329198
Option 1 ID : 4410091283198
Option 2 ID : 4410091283196
Option 3 ID : 4410091283197
Option 4 ID : 4410091283199

Q.15 ________ mode includes two teaching media, viz. a video recorder and a computer in an
integrated way, which makes learning highly interactive.
Ans 1. V-CAL

2. Gaming

3. Simulation

4. Discovery

Question ID : 441009347977
Option 1 ID : 4410091358220
Option 2 ID : 4410091358223
Option 3 ID : 4410091358222
Option 4 ID : 4410091358221

Q.16 The full form of CBRDTC is __________.

Ans 1. Community Based Rehabilitation Department and Training Centre

2. Community Based Rehabilitation Development and Teaching Centre

3. Community Based Rehabilitation Department and Teaching Centre

4. Community Based Rehabilitation Development and Training Centre

Question ID : 441009383391
Option 1 ID : 4410091499122
Option 2 ID : 4410091499121
Option 3 ID : 4410091499123
Option 4 ID : 4410091499120

Q.17 Moving your guiding elbow towards the midline of your back is a technique used __________.
Ans 1. on staircases

2. when sitting in a chair

3. in doorways

4. in narrow spaces

Question ID : 441009356395
Option 1 ID : 4410091391703
Option 2 ID : 4410091391705
Option 3 ID : 4410091391704
Option 4 ID : 4410091391702

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Q.18 A __________ is a hardware device for printing a hard copy of a text document in Braille.
Ans 1. Braille Embosser

2. transcriber

3. spell checker

4. word processor

Question ID : 441009356332
Option 1 ID : 4410091391435
Option 2 ID : 4410091391434
Option 3 ID : 4410091391437
Option 4 ID : 4410091391436

Q.19 What is the main purpose of the touch technique when using a long cane?
Ans 1. To make the cane look elegant

2. To help the user carry the cane easily

3. To improve the speed of travel

4. To provide safety and protection from objects in the path

Question ID : 441009329241
Option 1 ID : 4410091283366
Option 2 ID : 4410091283367
Option 3 ID : 4410091283364
Option 4 ID : 4410091283365

Q.20 As per the RPwD Act, 2016, there are ____ types of disabilities.
Ans 1. 21

2. 22

3. 23

4. 24

Question ID : 441009352646
Option 1 ID : 4410091376839
Option 2 ID : 4410091376840
Option 3 ID : 4410091376841
Option 4 ID : 4410091376842

Section : Discipline4

Q.1 What does ‘Simcom’ stand for in the context of communication options for the deaf?
Ans 1. Simple communication through speech only

2. Communication using written text only

3. Simultaneous Communication of speech and sign language

4. Communication using sign language alone

Question ID : 441009343222
Option 1 ID : 4410091338870
Option 2 ID : 4410091338872
Option 3 ID : 4410091338869
Option 4 ID : 4410091338871

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Q.2 The Vineland Social Maturity Scale (VSMS) consists of _______ test items.
Ans 1. 69

2. 89

3. 59

4. 39

Question ID : 441009367989
Option 1 ID : 4410091437927
Option 2 ID : 4410091437926
Option 3 ID : 4410091437929
Option 4 ID : 4410091437928

Q.3 Why is it important for educators to read model plans and observe weekly individual sessions
in the context of auditory verbal therapy?
Ans 1. To focus solely on the academic performance of students

2. To assess the dietary preferences of students

3. To develop instructional material linking listening, language and cognition

4. To evaluate the financial background of students

Question ID : 441009362120
Option 1 ID : 4410091414689
Option 2 ID : 4410091414690
Option 3 ID : 4410091414688
Option 4 ID : 4410091414687

Q.4 Which of the following is NOT one of the core features of the Autism Spectrum Disorder
(ASD) triad?
Ans 1. Repetitive behaviours and restricted interests

2. Physical disabilities

3. Social interaction difficulties

4. Communication challenges

Question ID : 441009343273
Option 1 ID : 4410091339083
Option 2 ID : 4410091339084
Option 3 ID : 4410091339081
Option 4 ID : 4410091339082

Q.5 Which of the following is an essential area to consider when assessing perceptual motor
skills?
Ans 1. Visual perception and visual motor integration

2. Capacity for emotional adjustment

3. Proficiency in spoken languages

4. Ability in music and sound patterns

Question ID : 441009329340
Option 1 ID : 4410091283781
Option 2 ID : 4410091283782
Option 3 ID : 4410091283783
Option 4 ID : 4410091283780

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Q.6 The full form of EMIS is:

Ans 1. Education Management and Indicating System

2. Education Monitoring and Information System

3. Education Management and Information System

4. Evaluation Management and Information System

Question ID : 441009383369
Option 1 ID : 4410091499035
Option 2 ID : 4410091499034
Option 3 ID : 4410091499032
Option 4 ID : 4410091499033

Q.7 When assessing basic curricular skills (e.g., literacy/numeracy) for students with disabilities,
which practice is most essential?
Ans 1. Focusing only on non-academic skills like social behaviour

2. Providing individualised accommodations (e.g., extra time, assistive tools or

alternative formats)
3. Using the same standardised test for all students to ensure fairness

4. Exempting students with disabilities from assessments to reduce stress

Question ID : 441009362407
Option 1 ID : 4410091415862
Option 2 ID : 4410091415860
Option 3 ID : 4410091415859
Option 4 ID : 4410091415861

Q.8 What is a key difference between Indian Sign Language (ISL) and Indian Signed System
(ISS)?
Ans 1. ISL uses spoken words, while ISS uses facial expressions only.

2. ISS is used internationally, while ISL is only used in India.

3. ISL is a natural language with its own grammar, while ISS is a manually coded form of
spoken Indian languages.
4. ISS is the same as ISL but uses different hand shapes.

Question ID : 441009343219
Option 1 ID : 4410091338859
Option 2 ID : 4410091338858
Option 3 ID : 4410091338857
Option 4 ID : 4410091338860

Q.9 The Vineland Social Maturity Scale (VSMS) test measures _____________.
Ans 1. 8 domains

2. 6 domains

3. 5 domains

4. 7 domains

Question ID : 441009368179
Option 1 ID : 4410091438685
Option 2 ID : 4410091438688
Option 3 ID : 4410091438686
Option 4 ID : 4410091438687

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Q.10 Which of the following is an important benefit of using Indian Sign Language (ISL) or Indian
Sign System (ISS) in classroom settings for school subjects?
Ans 1. It restricts communication to non-verbal cues only.

2. It replaces all spoken and written language in schools.

3. It helps in enhancing the conceptual understanding and participation of deaf students.

4. It is used only for social conversations, not academic content.

Question ID : 441009343225
Option 1 ID : 4410091338883
Option 2 ID : 4410091338881
Option 3 ID : 4410091338882
Option 4 ID : 4410091338884

Q.11 Which of the following intervention strategies is most effective in improving reading
comprehension skills in students with learning disabilities?
Ans 1. Rote memorisation of vocabulary lists

2. Use of multisensory structured language instruction (MSL) that integrates visual,

auditory and kinesthetic modalities
3. Allowing students to read silently without guidance

4. Focusing solely on oral reading fluency drills

Question ID : 441009343264
Option 1 ID : 4410091339045
Option 2 ID : 4410091339046
Option 3 ID : 4410091339047
Option 4 ID : 4410091339048

Q.12 Who are minimal essential members of an AAC team?

Ans 1. Only medical professionals

2. The individual with the communication disability and speech-language pathologists

3. Only family members and teachers

4. The individual with the disability and their key communication partners

Question ID : 441009329321
Option 1 ID : 4410091283710
Option 2 ID : 4410091283709
Option 3 ID : 4410091283711
Option 4 ID : 4410091283708

Q.13 Why is early auditory stimulation crucial during a child's development?

Ans 1. Because language development is solely dependent on visual cues.

2. Because the brain's plasticity is highest during early years, facilitating rapid
development of listening and language skills.
3. Because auditory skills are innate and do not require external stimulation.

4. Because the brain's plasticity decreases with age, making early stimulation ineffective.

Question ID : 441009362106
Option 1 ID : 4410091414621
Option 2 ID : 4410091414619
Option 3 ID : 4410091414620
Option 4 ID : 4410091414622

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Q.14 The genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problems including learning
disabilities and cognitive impairment is_________.
Ans 1. Angelman syndrome

2. Fragile X syndrome

3. Turner syndrome

4. Prader-Willi syndrome

Question ID : 441009367585
Option 1 ID : 4410091436306
Option 2 ID : 4410091436304
Option 3 ID : 4410091436307
Option 4 ID : 4410091436305

Q.15 What is the primary purpose of assessing scanning abilities in AAC users?
Ans 1. To facilitate communication through indirect selection methods

2. To determine the user's preference for visual arts

3. To assess the user's mathematical abilities

4. To enhance the user's musical skills

Question ID : 441009362148
Option 1 ID : 4410091414809
Option 2 ID : 4410091414808
Option 3 ID : 4410091414810
Option 4 ID : 4410091414807

Q.16 Which term refers specifically to the quantification of a person's inability to hear?
Ans 1. Hard of hearing

2. Hearing loss

3. Hearing handicap

4. Deafness

Question ID : 441009329249
Option 1 ID : 4410091283398
Option 2 ID : 4410091283399
Option 3 ID : 4410091283397
Option 4 ID : 4410091283396

Q.17 Which of the following best describes the types of competencies essential for effective
communication in AAC?
Ans 1. Linguistic, operational, social and strategic competencies

2. Social competence alone

3. Only linguistic competence

4. Physical and emotional competence only

Question ID : 441009343251
Option 1 ID : 4410091338994
Option 2 ID : 4410091338996
Option 3 ID : 4410091338993
Option 4 ID : 4410091338995

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Q.18 Language ability is partially wired in our__________.

Ans 1. genetics

2. practice

3. health

4. communication

Question ID : 441009361634
Option 1 ID : 4410091412667
Option 2 ID : 4410091412670
Option 3 ID : 4410091412669
Option 4 ID : 4410091412668

Q.19 What is a major advantage of using portfolios for students with special needs?
Ans 1. It eliminates the need for any teacher input.

2. It removes the need for learning accommodations.

3. It motivates them through individualised assessment.

4. It forces them to follow a standard learning path.

Question ID : 441009341190
Option 1 ID : 4410091330751
Option 2 ID : 4410091330752
Option 3 ID : 4410091330750
Option 4 ID : 4410091330749

Q.20 At which stage, the child not only detects your voice, discriminates between things that are
the same or different, but begins to understand exactly what he is hearing?
Ans 1. Detection

2. Comprehension

3. Discrimination

4. Identification

Question ID : 441009361216
Option 1 ID : 4410091411012
Option 2 ID : 4410091411009
Option 3 ID : 4410091411011
Option 4 ID : 4410091411010

Section : Discipline5

Q.1 What is the one important role of a family in supporting adults with special needs?
Ans 1. Providing emotional support and advocating for their needs

2. Making all decisions without involving the individual

3. Isolating them from social activities

4. Ignoring community resources

Question ID : 441009343434
Option 1 ID : 4410091339727
Option 2 ID : 4410091339728
Option 3 ID : 4410091339726
Option 4 ID : 4410091339729

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Q.2 Which of the following tests is commonly used to assess the hearing sensitivity of infants
and young children who cannot respond behaviourally?
Ans 1. Speech audiometry

2. Tympanometry

3. Otoacoustic emissions (OAE) test

4. Pure-tone audiometry

Question ID : 441009343446
Option 1 ID : 4410091339773
Option 2 ID : 4410091339772
Option 3 ID : 4410091339771
Option 4 ID : 4410091339770

Q.3 How does the developmental approach support inclusive education in a diverse classroom?
Ans 1. By considering each student’s cognitive, emotional, and social development stage

2. By grouping students only by their age

3. By excluding students with disabilities from general classrooms

4. By applying one curriculum for all learners

Question ID : 441009343319
Option 1 ID : 4410091339267
Option 2 ID : 4410091339265
Option 3 ID : 4410091339268
Option 4 ID : 4410091339266

Q.4 What is the primary advantage of the experimental method in research?

Ans 1. It ignores cause-effect relationships.

2. It does not require any variables.

3. It establishes probable cause and effect.

4. It is always subjective.

Question ID : 441009342658
Option 1 ID : 4410091336615
Option 2 ID : 4410091336618
Option 3 ID : 4410091336617
Option 4 ID : 4410091336616

Q.5 A the age of ________ the infant is able to grasp an object using the forefinger and thumb (the
pincer grasp).
Ans 1. 12 months

2. 11 months

3. 9 months

4. 7 months

Question ID : 441009368621
Option 1 ID : 4410091440460
Option 2 ID : 4410091440459
Option 3 ID : 4410091440457
Option 4 ID : 4410091440458

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Q.6 What type of assistive technology helps students who have difficulty communicating
verbally?
Ans 1. Environmental control devices

2. Augmentative communication devices

3. Aids for vision

4. Aids for mobility

Question ID : 441009329363
Option 1 ID : 4410091283872
Option 2 ID : 4410091283873
Option 3 ID : 4410091283875
Option 4 ID : 4410091283874

Q.7 Which of the following best describes the purpose of inferential statistics in research?
Ans 1. To summarise and describe data collected from a sample

2. To create visual representations such as charts and graphs

3. To test hypotheses and make generalisations about a population based on sample

data
4. To collect raw data from participants

Question ID : 441009343453
Option 1 ID : 4410091339798
Option 2 ID : 4410091339801
Option 3 ID : 4410091339799
Option 4 ID : 4410091339800

Q.8 Problems in sharing our thoughts, ideas and feelings are known as ____________ disorder.
Ans 1. expressive language

2. language

3. receptive language

4. speech

Question ID : 441009368328
Option 1 ID : 4410091439285
Option 2 ID : 4410091439287
Option 3 ID : 4410091439286
Option 4 ID : 4410091439288

Q.9 What is the primary purpose of curriculum development in education?

Ans 1. To focus only on exams and grading

2. To plan and organise learning experiences for students

3. To create a fixed syllabus that never changes

4. To limit the involvement of teachers in planning lessons

Question ID : 441009343306
Option 1 ID : 4410091339215
Option 2 ID : 4410091339214
Option 3 ID : 4410091339213
Option 4 ID : 4410091339216

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Q.10 Which evaluation method is considered most comprehensive for assessing both the social
communication skills and repetitive behaviours characteristic of children with Autism
Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?
Ans 1. Academic achievement tests only

2. Parent questionnaires without classroom observation

3. Direct observation combined with structured diagnostic tools like ADOS and ADI-R

4. Standardised IQ tests alone

Question ID : 441009343316
Option 1 ID : 4410091339256
Option 2 ID : 4410091339255
Option 3 ID : 4410091339254
Option 4 ID : 4410091339253

Section : Teaching Methodology

Q.1 Which of the following best represents Susan Stryker’s view of transgender identity?
Ans 1. It includes all identities that challenge gender boundaries.

2. It is limited to those who undergo surgery.

3. It is only psychological.

4. It is a fixed category.

Question ID : 441009343542
Option 1 ID : 4410091340160
Option 2 ID : 4410091340161
Option 3 ID : 4410091340158
Option 4 ID : 4410091340159

Q.2 What role do aims and objectives play in defining a discipline’s knowledge?
Ans 1. They are only used in classroom assessments.

2. They shape the kind of knowledge and methods used within the discipline.

3. They are unrelated to how knowledge is structured.

4. They determine the entertainment value of a subject.

Question ID : 441009343536
Option 1 ID : 4410091340134
Option 2 ID : 4410091340136
Option 3 ID : 4410091340137
Option 4 ID : 4410091340135

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Q.3 Which of the following best reflects Dewey’s view of student-created art?
Ans 1. It must reflect nature and realistic settings.

2. It must follow traditional aesthetic principles.

3. It should be technically guided by a teacher.

4. It is rooted in their interaction with and understanding of the world.

Question ID : 441009343605
Option 1 ID : 4410091340410
Option 2 ID : 4410091340413
Option 3 ID : 4410091340412
Option 4 ID : 4410091340411

Q.4 Which of the following is an example of an observable verb suitable for a behavioural
objective?
Ans 1. Understand

2. Appreciate

3. List

4. Know

Question ID : 441009343561
Option 1 ID : 4410091340234
Option 2 ID : 4410091340237
Option 3 ID : 4410091340236
Option 4 ID : 4410091340235

Q.5 Financial resources in a school refer to:

Ans 1. teachers and pupils

2. library and laboratories

3. school playground and toilets

4. grants and allocations to the school

Question ID : 441009343567
Option 1 ID : 4410091340260
Option 2 ID : 4410091340259
Option 3 ID : 4410091340261
Option 4 ID : 4410091340258

Q.6 According to behaviourist perspective, learning is primarily based on:

Ans 1. Association between stimulus and response

2. Understanding abstract concepts

3. Social interactions

4. Emotional well-being

Question ID : 441009343515
Option 1 ID : 4410091340052
Option 2 ID : 4410091340050
Option 3 ID : 4410091340051
Option 4 ID : 4410091340053

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Q.7 The concept of ‘special needs’ most accurately emphasises:

Ans 1. modifications in the education system for inclusive access

2. equal punishment policies for all students

3. assigning more homework to slower learners

4. segregation of students needing support

Question ID : 441009343582
Option 1 ID : 4410091340319
Option 2 ID : 4410091340320
Option 3 ID : 4410091340321
Option 4 ID : 4410091340318

Q.8 Which of the following best describes the purpose of formative assessment?
Ans 1. To determine a student's final grade

2. To compare students' performance with peers

3. To monitor progress and guide future learning

4. To evaluate the overall curriculum effectiveness

Question ID : 441009331019
Option 1 ID : 4410091290586
Option 2 ID : 4410091290589
Option 3 ID : 4410091290587
Option 4 ID : 4410091290588

Q.9 Which skill is primarily used when a student answers a question aloud in class?
Ans 1. Listening

2. Speaking

3. Writing

4. Reading

Question ID : 441009330900
Option 1 ID : 4410091290113
Option 2 ID : 4410091290112
Option 3 ID : 4410091290111
Option 4 ID : 4410091290110

Q.10 Which of the following statements best explains the interaction between heredity and
environment in human development?
Ans 1. Environment determines physical structure; heredity determines behaviour.

2. Heredity has a greater influence than environment in all cases.

3. Heredity sets the potential, and environment influences its realisation.

4. Environment determines heredity during prenatal stages.

Question ID : 441009343595
Option 1 ID : 4410091340371
Option 2 ID : 4410091340370
Option 3 ID : 4410091340372
Option 4 ID : 4410091340373

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