13-07-2025

9610ZJA801800030005 JA

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I (i)

1) Two particles are thrown from same point in same vertical plane as shown in figure

simultaneously. Then indicate the correct statement(s).

(A) Time of flight of B is less than that of A.

(B) Projection speed of B is greater than that of A.
(C) Horizontal component of velocity of B is greater than that of A.
(D) Vertical components of velocities of A and B are always equal through out the flight of A and B.

2) A ball is rolled off the edge of a horizontal table at a speed of 4 m/s. It hits the ground after 0.4
second. Which statement given below is true

(A) The speed with which it hits the ground is 4.0 m/second
(B) It hits the ground at a horizontal distance 1.6 m from the edge of the table
(C) Height of the table is 0.8 m
(D) It hits the ground at an angle of 60° to the horizontal

3) A uniformely charged thin rod having uniform charge density is placed against a vertical wall as
shown in figure. Its end Q is moved with constant velocity v and initially θ being 60° then before the

instant θ becomes zero.

(A) Magnitude of electric field at O first increases then decreases.

(B) Magnitude of electric field at O first decreases then increases.
(C) Magnitude of electric field at O remains constant.
(D) Direction of electric field at O continuously changes.
4) An oil drop has a charge –9.6 × 10–19 C and mass 1.6 × 10–15 gm. When allowed to fall, due to air
resistance force it attains a constant velocity. Then if a uniform electric field is to be applied
vertically to make the oil drop ascend up with the same constant speed, which of the following are
correct? (g = 10 ms-2) (Assume that the magnitude of resistance force is same in both the cases)

(A) The electric field is directed upward

(B) The electric field is directed downward

(C)
The intensity of electric field is

(D)
The intensity of electric field is

5) A particle of charge +q and mass m moving under the influence of a uniform electric field E and
uniform magnetic field B follows a trajectory from P to Q as shown in figure. The velocities at P and
Q are and , Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?

(A)
E=

(B)
Rate of work done by the electric field at P is
(C) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is zero
(D) Rate of work done by both the fields at Q is zero

6) In a uniform magnetic field there are two charged particles 1 & 2 moving with velocities v1 and v2
respectively and carrying equal charges & equal mass with . The velocity of one
particle forms an angle with the direction of the field, while the other velocity forms an angle ,

Mark the CORRECT statement(s) :-

(A) Both the particles move along helical path

(B) Time period of circulation is same for both the particles
(C) Pitch of particle 1 is greater than that of particle 2
(D) Radius of helix is greater for particle 1
 SECTION-I (ii)

Common Content for Question No. 1 to 2

In circuit shown all ammeters are ideal

1) If switch S is open, the ammeter (s) that read more than 10 A

(A) A1 & A2
(B) A3 & A4
(C) A5 & A6
(D) None of these

2) If switch S is closed, the ammeters that read less than 3A

(A) A1
(B) A2
(C) A3
(D) A4

Common Content for Question No. 3 to 4

Four batteries of emf E1 = 4V, E2 = 8V, E3 = 12 V and E4 = 16 V and four identical capacitors each of
1 µF and four identical resistance are connected in circuit as in figure. Batteries do not have any

internal resistances

3) At steady state potential difference across C2 is :

(A) 1V
(B) 5V
(C) 4V
(D) 6V

4)

If points H and B are shorted, the new charge on C2 at steady state will be :

(A) Zero
(B) 5 µC
(C) 4 µC
(D) 1µC

SECTION-II

1)

A triangular block of mass M with angle 30°, 60°, 90° rests with its 30° – 90° side on a horizontal
smooth fixed table. A cubical block of mass m rests on the 60° – 30° side of the tringular block. What
horizontal acceleration (in m/s2) a must M have relative to the stationary table so that m remains
stationary with respect to the triangular block- [M = 9 kg, m = 1 kg, = 1.73, g = 9.8 m/s2]

2) A man of mass 75 kg is pushing a heavy box on a flat floor. The coefficient of kinetic and static
friction between the floor and the box is 0.20, and the coefficient of static friction between the
man’s shoes and the floor is 0.80. If the man pushes horizontally, if the maximum mass (in kg) of the
box he can slip is 100x write value of x ?

3) Figure (i) shows a block B of mass 4 kg kept on a rough ground, with a block A of mass 2 kg kept
upon it. When a horizontal force F = 32 N is applied to block B, the relative acceleration of B w.r.t. A
is shown in figure (ii) below, plotted against time. If the roughness coefficient (μ) between the
surfaces of A and B and that between B and ground be the same, find the value of [10 μ] where [*]

means greatest integer function. Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)

4) A cabinet is sliding on the inclined surface with constant velocity as shown in figure. In cabinet
there is a block pulley system moving with velocity same as cabinate. The speed of block having
greater mass w.r.t. cabinet is 5α m/s after 2s of its release. Find the value of α.

5) The current developed in a real conductor is given as I = aV1/2, where V is the potential difference
across the conductor. When it is connected with a resistance of R Ω in series with a battery of 6 Volt
as shown in the figure, the power developed in the conductor is twice the power generated in

resistance of RΩ. Find the value of R. [a = 0.2A Volt–01/2]

6) In an experiment with a potentiometer, , R is adjusted to be 50 Ω. A student wanting to

measure voltage E1 of a battery (approx. 8V) finds no null point possible. He then diminshes R to 10Ω
and is able to locate the null point on the last (4th) segment of the potentiometer. The resistance of
the potentiometer wire (R’) will be a < R’ < b. Find the value of b (in Ω).
7) A particle is projected radially outwards from the surface of a planet with an initial speed of 4.0
km/s. Maximum height attained by the particle is h = 900 km from the planet’s surface. Find the
radius R (in km) of the planet taking g = 10 m/s2 on the surface of the planet. Fill R/900.

8) Two particles of combined mass M, placed in space with certain separation, are released.
Interaction between the particles is only of gravitational in nature and there is no external force
present. Acceleration of one particle with respect to each other when separation between them is R,

has a magnitude . Value of x is

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I (i)

1)

1.22 gm C6H5COOH is added into 100 gm of acetone, elevation in B.P. is found to be 0.17. If Kb
(acetone) = 1.7 K - Kg mol–1 then select the incorrect options

(A) Observed molar mass of benzoic acid is 61 gm/mole.

(B) Observed molar mass of benzoic acid is 122 gm/mole
(C) Benzoic acid neither associate nor dissociate.
(D) Benzoic acid exist as dimer in acetone due to intermolecular H-bonding

2) In a bimolecular reaction, the steric factor P was experimentally determined to be 4.5. The
correct option(s) among the following is(are) :

The value of frequency factor predicted by Arrhenius equation is higher than that
(A)
determined experimentally
(B) The activation energy of the reaction is unaffected by the value of the steric factor
(C) Since P = 4.5, the reaction will not proceed unless an effective catalyst is used.
Experimentally determined value of frequency factor is higher than that predicted by Arrhenius
(D)
equation.

3) The standard reduction potentials of some half cell reactions are given below:
;
;
;
;
Pick out the correct statement (for standard condition of all species) :

4+ 2+
(A) Ce will oxidise Pb to PbO2
(B) will oxidise Pb2+ to PbO2
(C) H2O2 will oxidise Mn2+ to
(D) PbO2 will oxidise Mn2+ to

4)

Which of the following statement is/are correct

(A) The peroxide ion has a bond order of 1 while the oxygen molecule has a bond order of 2
(B) The peroxide ion has a weaker bond than the dioxygen molecule has.
(C) The peroxide ion as well as the dioxygen molecules are paramagnetic
(D) The bond length of the peroxide ion is greater than that of the dioxygen molecule

5) How many of the following trend is "INCORRECT" ?

(A) Electron affinity : Se > S > Br > Cℓ

(B) Ionic radii : Ba2+ > Rb+ > K+ > Sr2+
(C) Atomic radii : S > Cℓ > O > F
(D) I.E2 (Be) > I.E2 (Li)

6) When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have
maximum kinetic energy, TA (expressed in eV) and de–Broglie wavelength λA. The maximum kinetic
energy of photoelectrons liberated from another metal B by photons of energy 4.20 V is TB = TA –1.50
eV. If the de–Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is λB = 2λA then :

(A) the work function of A is 2.25 eV

(B) the work function of B is 3.70 eV
(C) TA = 2.00 eV
(D) TB = 2.75 eV

SECTION-I (ii)

Common Content for Question No. 1 to 2

Dipole moment of a molecule is a vector sum of all the individual bond moments. Mathematically it is
μ = q × d, where q is magnitude of particle charges and d is the distance between centre of opposite
charges. Its main application includes, determination of polarity of bond, symmetry of molecule and
in calculation of % ionic character.

1) In HI molecule if observed dipole moment in 1.2 Debye and also the interionic distance between
atoms (dHI) is 1Å. The percentage covalent character in HI bond will be

(A) 25%
(B) 75%
(C) 50%
(D) 12.5%

Common Content for Question No. 2 to 3

For the first order dissociation reaction
A2B3(aq.) 2A3+(aq.) + 3B2–(aq.)
a definite volume of solution is taken at different instant and its osmotic pressure rise is measured. If
osmotic pressure at t = 0 is 2 mm of Hg and at t = 10 min is 6 mm of Hg .
[Given density of solution is constant and equal to 1gm/ml]

2) Osmotic pressure of solution in mm of Hg at t = 20 min is :

(A) 7 mm
(B) 8 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 12 mm

Common Content for Question No. 3 to 4

The electrochemical cell shown below is a concentration cell.
M | M2+ (saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt, MX2) | | M2+ (0.001 mol dm–3) | M
The emf of the cell depends on the difference in concentrations of M2+ ions at the two electrodes.
The emf of the cell at 298 K is 0.059V.

3) The solubility product (Ksp ; mol3 dm–9) of MX2 at 298 K based on the information available for the
given concentration cell is x × 10–15 (take 2.303 × R × 298/F = 0.059 V). The value of x is ?

(A) 1 × 10–15
(B) 4 × 10–15
(C) 1 × 10–12
(D) 4 × 10–12

Common Content for Question No. 4 to 5

An ideal solution is obtained by mixing a non-volatile solute B with a volatile solvent A (molar mass =
60). If the mass ratio of A : B in solution is 10 : 1 and vapour pressure of pure A is 400 mm and
vapour pressure decreases by 4% on forming the above solution at 300K.

4) The molality the solution is -

(A) 1

(B)

(C)

(D)

SECTION-II

1) In the reaction : N2H4 (ℓ) + ClO3– (aq.) → NO(g) + Cl– (aq.) number of moles of electrons gained by
1.5 moles of ClO3– (aq.) will be :-

2)

19 gm mixture of Na2CO3(s) and NaHCO3(s) on heating gives 2.2 gm CO2 gas.

Find % NaHCO3 (by mass) in mixture.

3) The decomposition reaction 2N2O5(g) 2N2O4(g) + O2(g) is started in a closed cylinder under
isothermal isochoric condition at an initial pressure of 1 atm. After Y × 103 s, the pressure inside the
cylinder is found to be 1.45 atm. If the rate constant of the reaction is 5 × 10–4 s–1, assuming ideal
gas behavior, the value of Y is ___

4) A current of 9.65 micro-amperes is passed through AuCl3 solution for 30 minutes using Pt-
electrodes causing deposition of a uniform single atom thick layer of total area 600 cm2. Then
average surface area covered by a single gold atom is 1.66 × 10–b cm2 then find the value of b.
(NA = 6 × 1023).

5) An aqueous solution containing 28% by mass of liquid (mol. mass = 140) has a vapour pressure of
160 mm at 30 °C. Find the vapour pressure of the pure liquid A. (The vapour pressure of water at 30
°C is 150 mm)

6) The bond length in HCl molecule is 0.127 nm. The observed dipole moment of HCl is 1.08 D. The
percentage ionic character in HCl molecule is_________.

7) The uncertainty in the measurement of position of an electron in 2nd excited state of He+ is .
What will be the minimum uncertainty in the measurement of De-Broglie wave length of this
electron in angstorms(Å) ? [take first Bohr radius = 0.5 Å] [π = 3.14]

8) Zn Amalgam is prepared by electrolysis of aqueous ZnCl2 using Hg cathode (9gm). How much
current (in ampere) is to be passed through ZnCl2 solution for 1000 seconds to prepare a Zn
Amalgam with 25% Zn by wt.
(Zn = 65.4)

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I (i)

1) Let N = . Then N is

(A) a natural number

(B) a prime number
(C) a rational number
(D) an integer

2) In a survey, 100 teenagers were interviewed to know their preferences for arrange marriage
(AM), love marriage (LM), remain single (RS), and the collected data were as following
n(AM ∩ LM ∩ RS) = 10, n(AM ∩ LM) = 20
n(LM ∩ RS) = 30, n(AM ∩ RS) = 25
n(only AM) = 25, n(only LM) = 5, n(only RS)=8 and some of them did not respond,
then correct statement(s) from the following is/are

(A) n(AM) = 47
(B) n(LM) = 45
(C) n(RS) = 53
(D)

3) Given ƒ(1) = 2 and , then which of the following option is/are correct ?

(A)
ƒ

(B)

(C) ƒ(1001) = 2
(D) ƒ(2015) = –3

4) Let and be two functions such that is defined. Which of the

following statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?

(A) If gof is into then f must be into.

(B) If f is into and g is onto then gof must be onto.
(C) If gof is one-one then g must be one-one.
(D) If f is surjective and g is injective then gof must be surjective.

5) If the set of value of 'a' for which the equation 2 cos–1 x = a + a2 (cos–1 x)–1 possess a solution is
[k1π, k2π] then

(A) k2 – k1 = prime number

(B) Number of integral values of 'a' are 10
(C) Sum of all integral values of 'a' is less than (– 10)
(D) |k1 – k2| is odd Prime Number

6) If ; ; ; , then which
among the following option(s) is/are CORRECT ? (where sgn(x) represents signum function)

(A) If x ∈ (0, cos 1) then sgn(t4 – t2 + t3 – t1) = 1

(B)
If then log10(t3 – t1 + t4 – t2) is defined.
(C) If x ∈ (sin1, 1) then t1 > t2 > t4 > t3
(D)
If then t2 > t1 > t3 > t4

SECTION-I (ii)

Common Content for Question No. 1 to 2

Let , where {.} denotes fractional part function.

on the basis of above information, answer the following questions :

1)

Number of solutions of the equation in [-6, 6]

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Common Content for Question No. 2 to 3

Let , where {.} denotes fractional part function.

on the basis of above information, answer the following questions

2) Number of points at which f(x) is not differentiable in [-6, 6]

(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3

Common Content for Question No. 3 to 4

Let p, q, r be positive integers such that is an integer. Also p, q, r (taken in that order) are in
geometric progression and the arithmetic mean of p – 2, q + 5, r + 4 is (2q – p – 1).

3)

The value of p is equal to

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

Common Content for Question No. 4 to 5

Let p, q, r be positive integers such that is an integer. Also p, q, r (taken in that order) are in
geometric progression and the arithmetic mean of p – 2, q + 5, r + 4 is (2q – p – 1).

4) The number of ordered triplet (p, q, r) is equal to

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

SECTION-II

1)

Let a1, a2, ..... an, be real numbers such that

then find the value of

2) The number of all possible positive integral values of α for which the roots of the quadratic
equation, 6x2–11x+α = 0 are rational numbers is

3) The real function ƒ(x) has the property that whenever a, b, x are positive integers such that a + b

= 2x, the equation ƒ(a) + ƒ(b) = x2 holds, then is

4) Let f(x) be a function such that f(x–1)+f(x+1) = f(x) for all x ∈ R. If f(3) = 5 then is
equal to

5) If a1 = 1 and an= n(1 + an–1) ∀ n ≥ 2 then

6) Let . If can be expressed as lowest rational in the form , then

value of is

7) If ƒ(x) = {x} + {2x} + {3x} is not differentiable at 7 points in (0, n), (where, n ∈ N and {.} is
fractional part function) then n is equal to

8) For every integer n, let an, bn and cn are real numbers.

Let continuous function f : R → R is given by

f(x) = for all integers n

If greatest value of an – an + 1 = where β, δ are coprime number and α, β, γ, δ ∈ N, then

minimum value of (α + β + γ + δ) is
 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I (i)

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6
A. B,C,D B,C B,D B,C A,B,D A,B,D

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 7 8 9 10
A. D B B A

SECTION-II

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
A. 5.66 3.00 2.00 2.00 5.00 200.00 8.00 1.00

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I (i)

Q. 19 20 21 22 23 24
A. A,D B,D A,B,C A,B,D A,B,D A,B,C

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 25 26 27 28
A. B B B C

SECTION-II

Q. 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
A. 9.00 44.21 2.30 to 2.31 14.00 360.00 to 360.20 17.69 to 17.71 3.14 8.80 to 8.90

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I (i)

Q. 37 38 39 40 41 42
A. A,B,C,D B,C A,B,C A,B,C,D A,B,C,D A,B,C

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 43 44 45 46
A. B C C B
 SECTION-II

Q. 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
A. 5050.00 3.00 9.00 55.00 1.00 4.00 2.00 19.00
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

1)

Component of velocity in vertical direction in same (Hmax is same)

....(1)

(A) Time period

TA = TB

(B)

RB > RA
from eqn – 1

since Hmax is same

2) u = 4 m/s
t = 0.4 sec

R = u × T = 4 × .4 = 1.6

3)

=
 =

Enet =

4) (initially)
∴ mg = fair

(finally)
∴ QE = mg + fair = 2mg
∴ charge is –ve, so electric field 'E' is directed downwards.
& QE = 2 mg

5)

PQ = 0

6)
Both moves in helical because of two comp.

Pitch
 Time period same.

7)

Use KCL
Before connection
A1 = A2 = 9.5 A, A4 = A5 = 5A, A3 = A6 = 2

8)

After connection
A1 = 12.5 A, A2 = 2.5 A, A3 =10A,
A4 = 7A, A5 = 8A, A6 = 5A

9)

In steady state, current through branch of capacitor is zero,

Current will flow as shown in the diagram.

For potential difference across C2

Let, F be the reference position,
So, VF = 0

Potential difference across C2, = 5V

10)
If points, H & B are shorted, then, the new path of current I is :

For charge on C2, let F be the reference position,

So, VF = 0

Potential difference across C2,

So, charge on C2 = 0

11) M = 9kg
m = 1kg
g = 9.8 m/s2

Let acceleration 'a' is given to 'M'

So block 'm' get for "ma" as

for constant velocity of zero of block 'm'

ma cos 30º = mg sin 30º
a = g tan 30º
12)
F > fb = 0.2 mg
0.2 mg < F < µS × 75g
m < 75 × 4 = 300 kg

13) 32 – 60 μ – 20μ = 4aB ......(i)

20µ = 2aA....(ii)
aB – aA = 8 – 20μ – 10μ = 0.5 ⇒ μ = 0.25

14) geff. = g
So speed of Heavier Block w.r.t lift = at

15) ..... (i)

According question Pcon = 2PR

Divide (ii) by (i)

V = 2(6 – V)
⇒ 3V = 12 ⇒ V = 4 Volt

16) Let R' be the resistance of the potentiometer wire.

From above we can write, . Hence a = 40 and b = 200

17)
 (R + 900 × 103) × 8 × 106 = 10 × R × 900 × 103

R = 72 × 105 m ⇒ 7200 km

18)

a1 = / M1

a2 = / M2
acceleation of M1 w.r.t. M2
arel. = a1 + a2

= =

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

19)

ΔTb = i.Kb.m

0.17 = i × 1.7 ×
i = 1, so no association or dissociation take place.

20)
P = 4.5
Kactual > Ktheoreticala
Kactual = Kexp. =
Aactual > Atheorectical
Hence experimental determined value of frequency factor is higher that predicted by
Arrhenius equation.
Activation energy of reaction is unaffected by the value of the steric factor.
Since P = 4.5 P > 1 so no catalyst is required.

21)

A) thus Ce4+ will be reduced.

B) thus will be reduced.
C) thus will be reduced.
D) thus it means that will be reduced and hence Pb2+ will be oxidized
4+
to Pb .
Hence options (A), (B) and (C) are correct.

22)

Peroxide ion = ⇒ B.O. = 1

O2 molecule ⇒ B.O. = 2

B.O. ∝ B.E. ∝
Correct option is A,B,D.

23)

(B) G-1 and G-2 Ionicradii

G-1 G-2
3 1(smallest)
5 2
8 4
9 6
10(Highest) 7
(D) I.E3 (Li) > I.E2 (He)

24) TA = 4.25 – WA
TB = 4.20 – WB

TA = 2 eV, TB = 0.5 eV, WA = 2.25 eV, WB = 3.7 eV

25) % ionic = =
⇒ % covalent = 100 – 25 = 75%

26) A2B3
t=0 a0
t = 10 a0 – x 2x 3x
π ∝ C , where C effective molarity
π0 ∝ a0
π ∝ (a0 + 4x)
x ∝ [(π – a0)/4]

27) 0.059 = log

2+ –5
or, or, [M ]A = 10 = s
MX2(s) ⇌ M (aq) + 2X–(aq)
2+

s 2s
3 –15
Ksp = 4s = 4 × 10

28) = 0.04 = XB, m =

29)
nf of ClO3–1 = 6
⇒ 1 mole of ClO3–1 gained → 6e–
∴ 1.5 mole of ClO3–1 gained → (6 × 1.5) e–
= 9 e–

30)

Na2 CO3 No decomposition

2NaHCO3 Na2 CO3 + CO2 + H2O

= 2 × 0.05 = 0.1
Wt. of NaHCO3 = 0.1 × 84 = 8.4 gm

% NaHCO3 in sample = × 100 = = 44.21

31) 2N2O5(g) 2N2O4(g) + O2(g) at constant V, T
t=0 1
t = y × 103 sec (1 – 2P) 2P P
PT = (1 + P) = 1.45
P = 0.45 atm

(2K)t =

(2 × 5 × 10–4) × y × 103 =
y = 2.303 = 2.30

32)

33) For two miscible liquids,

0 0
Ptotal = Mole fraction of A × PA + Mole fraction of B × PA

Number of moles of
Liquid B is water. Its mass is (100 – 28), i.e., 72.

Number of moles of
Total number of moles = 0.2 + 4.0 = 4.2
Given, Ptotal = 160 mm
0
pB = 150 mm

So, = ;

34)

µtheoritical =q×d

µobserved = 1.08 D

% Ionic character =
 35)

n = 3, z = 2

λ = 1.5 πÅ

36) Let x gm of Zn deposit on 9 gm of Hg

% of Zn in Amalgam

= × 100 = 25
∴ x = 3gm

Eq. of Zn =

Current = = 8.85 amp.

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

37) N = log224 × log296 – log2192 × log212

= (log212 + log22) × (log212 + log28) – (log212 + log216) × (log212)
put log212 = a
N = (a + 1) (a + 3) – (a + 4)a
=3

38) n(A ∪ B ∪ C) = n(A) + n(B) + n(C)

–n(A ∩ B) – n(B ∩ C) – n(C ∩ A)
+ n(A ∩ B ∩ C)

39)

∵
∴ .....(i)

In a similar way .....(ii)

from (i) and (ii)

or ƒ(n + 4) = ƒ(n) ∀ n ∈ N
hence ƒ(n) is a periodic sequence with period 4
using (A) put n = 1, 2, 3

we get
Now ƒ(2012) = ƒ(4) = –3
ƒ(2013) = ƒ(1) = 2

ƒ(2015) = ƒ(3) =
ƒ(1001) = ƒ(1) = 2

40)

41)
2t2 = at + a2
2t2 – at – a2 = 0
(1)
t=a
cos–1 x = a
a = [0, π]

(2)

–2π ≤ a ≤ 0

42)

43) has 3 solutions.

44)

Not differentiable at 4 point

45)
46)

p, q, r → G.P.
A, AR, AR2 → G.P. (R ∈ I)

Given, = 2AR – A – 1
A (1 + R + R ) + 7 = 6AR – 3A – 3 ⇒ A (R2 – 5R + 4) = – 10
2

⇒ A (R – 4) (R – 1) = – 10 ⇒ A = ∈ I+
Since A is a positive integer
∴ R = 2 or R = 3
If R = 2 and R = 3, then A = 5
∴ Value of p = 5
Numbers are 5, 10, 20 or 5, 15, 45
∴ Total number of ordered triplets of (p, q, r) are 2. Ans.

47)

a1 = 1, a2 = 2, .... an = n

48) 6x2 – 11x + α = 0

For roots to be rational, D must be perfect square.
⇒ 121 – 24α = λ2
⇒ maximum value of α is 5
α=1⇒λ∉I
α=2⇒λ∉I
α = 3 ⇒ λ ∈ I ⇒ 3 integral values
α=4⇒λ∈I
α=5⇒λ∈I

49) ƒ(a) + ƒ(b) = x2 & a + b = 2x

ƒ(a) + ƒ(2x – a) = x2
Put a = 34 & x = 11
ƒ(34) + ƒ(2014) = 112 ...(1)
Put a = 30 & x = 6
ƒ(30) + ƒ(34) = 62 ...(2)
Put a = 2 & x = 5
ƒ(2) + ƒ(30) = 52 ...(3)
Put a = 2 & x = 2
ƒ(2) + ƒ(2) = 22 ⇒ ƒ(2) = 2
now equation (1) + (3) – (2)
⇒ ƒ(2014) + ƒ(2) = 110 ⇒ ƒ(2014) = 108

50) The given equation is

f(x–1) + f(x+1) = f(x) ... (i)
Replace x by x – 1 in (i)
f(x–2) + f(x) = f(x–1) ... (ii)
Replace x by x + 1 in (ii)
f(x) + f(x+2) = f(x+1) ... (iii)
Adding (ii) and (iii), we have
f(x–2) + f(x+2) + 2f(x) = (f(x–1)+f(x+1))
= f(x) = 2f(x)
⇒ f(x–2) = –f (x+2)
Replacing x by x + 2, we have
f(x) = –f(x+4) = – (f(x+8)) = f(x+8)

51)

⇒
Given limit =

But

Put n = 2, 3, 4 .......

_____________________

∴ Required value =

52)
⇒

53) ƒ(x) = {x} + {2x} + {3x}

{x} is not differentiable at x ∈ N
⇒ x = {1, 2, 3, ...}
{2x} is not differentiable at 2x ∈ N

{3x} is not differentiable at 3x ∈ N

∴ ƒ(x) is N.D. at

∴ ƒ(x) is N.D. at 7 points in [0, 2)

∴ n = 2 Ans.

54)
f(x) is continuous

...(1)

and

....(2)
and bn + 3 = an + 1 + cos(n + 1)2π ....(3)
on add this equations
∴

if n odd an – an + 1 =

and if n even