A-06/615/664-670

QUESTION BOOKLET
Booklet Serial No.: Roll No:

Time Allowed: 02 Hours Total Marks: 100

DO NOT OPEN THE QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1) You are required to write your Roll Number in the prescribed place provided at the top of
this Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet.
2) Please ensure that the Question Booklet has the required number of pages immediately after
opening the same. In case there is any shortage of any page(s), please report the same to
the invigilator.
3) This Question Booklet consists of 100 multiple choice questions to be answered in a
separate OMR ANSWER SHEET using Blue/Black Ball Pen.
Do Not Use Ink/Gel Pen.
 All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
 There is no negative marking for wrong answers.

Directions for answering the questions:

Each question is followed by four alternative suggested answers. You are required
to select the correct answer and darken the appropriate circle of A, B, C and D by
Blue/ Black ball pen in such a manner that the circle is completely darkened.
Example: Question No.33
Given below are four odd words, three are alike in some way and one is different.
Find the odd word:
(A) Cricket (B) Hockey
(C) Football (D) Chess
Here the correct answer is Chess (indoor game) i.e., (D).
So, in the OMR Answer Sheet the darkened circle should be marked as
A B C D
33.

4) In any case, if more than one circle against each question in the OMR sheet is darkened,
that particular question would be treated as invalid and will not be evaluated.
5) At the end of the examination, the candidate should ensure that he/she submits the OMR
Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall /
room.
6) No rough work is to be done on the OMR Answer Sheet. You can do the rough work on the
space provided on the Question Booklet.
7) Use and possession of mobile phones, smart watches and calculators are strictly prohibited
inside examination hall/ room.
8) Non-compliance with any of the above instructions will make a candidate liable to
action/ penalty as may be deemed fit.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

-2- A-06/615/664-670
1. Which country has recently developed the world’s first deep-sea radar that can detect high-flying
aircraft?
(A) USA (C) China
(B) Russia (D) Japan
2. Which state’s tableau won the first prize in the states / UTs category at the Republic Day Parade
2025?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra (D) Rajasthan
3. Which city will host the A.I. Action Summit 2025?
(A) New York (C) Geneva
(B) Paris (D) Tokyo
4. Who among the following has won the Men’s singles title in the recently held Australian Open
2025?
(A) Jannik Sinner (C) Novac Djokovic
(B) Alexander Zverev (D) Carlos Alcaraz
5. Who was recently appointed as the brand ambassador of FICCI FRAMES?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar (C) Virat Kohli
(B) Akshay Kumar (D) Ayushmann Khurrana
6. Which ancient civilization is credited with developing the earliest known writing system?
(A) Mesopotamian (C) Indus Valley
(B) Egyptian (D) Chinese
7. In which year did the Berlin Wall fall, marking the symbolic end of the Cold War?
(A) 1987 (C) 1991
(B) 1989 (D) 1993
8. The asteroid belt is located between which two planets in our solar system?
(A) Earth and Mars (C) Venus and Earth
(B) Mars and Jupiter (D) Jupiter and Saturn
9. Which country is called the "Land of the Long White Cloud"?
(A) Canada (C) New Zealand
(B) Australia (D) Iceland
10. Which scientist was honored with the 2024 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for discovering
microRNA?
(A) David Baker (C) Demis Hassabis
(B) Victor Ambros (D) John Jumper
11. In software development, what does ‘API’ stand for?
(A) Application Programming Interface (C) Advanced Programming Index
(B) Applied Program Integration (D) Automated Process Interface
12. Which of the following protocols is used for secure communication over the internet?
(A) HTTP (C) SMTP
(B) HTTPS (D) FTP
13. Solid State Devices are classified under which type of storage media?
(A) Magnetic (C) Flash
(B) Optical (D) Cloud
-3- A-06/615/664-670
14. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating
connections?
(A) Presentation (C) Network
(B) Transport (D) Session
15. How many megabytes (MB) are there in one petabyte (PB)?
(A) 1,000,000 MB (C) 100,000,000 MB
(B) 10,000,000 MB (D) 1,000,000,000 MB
16. Which kingdom did Chilarai, a prominent general, belong to?
(A) Ahom kingdom (C) Kachari kingdom
(B) Chutiya kingdom (D) Koch kingdom
17. Who was the first President of Asam Sahitya Sabha?
(A) Lakshminath Bezbaroa (C) Hemchandra Goswami
(B) Padmanath Gohain Baruah (D) Rajanikanta Bordoloi
18. Which tribe is considered the largest ethnic group in Assam?
(A) Dimasa (C) Mishing
(B) Bodo (D) Karbi
19. What is the state bird of Assam?
(A) White Winged Wood Duck (C) Hornbill
(B) Black Drongo (D) White-throated Kingfisher
20. Which community celebrates the Ali-Aye-Ligang festival in Assam?
(A) Bodo (C) Mishing
(B) Karbi (D) Dimasa
21. Which event marked the beginning of World War II?
(A) Attack on Pearl Harbor (C) Dunkirk Evacuation
(B) Invasion of Poland (D) Building the Berlin wall
22. The atom bomb dropped on Hiroshima was called?
(A) Fat Man (C) Fat Boy
(B) Little Boy (D) Little Man
23. Who commanded the American forces during the American War of Independence?
(A) Abraham Lincoln (C) Thomas Jefferson
(B) George Washington (D) Franklin D Roosevelt
24. The Renaissance began in which country?
(A) France (C) Italy
(B) England (D) Germany
25. Who was the last emperor of Russia?
(A) Peter the Great (C) Nicholas II
(B) Nicholas I (D) Alexander II
Direction (Q.26-Q.30) - From the following phrases and idioms, choose the most appropriate option:
26. "A blessing in disguise"
(A) A blessing by a priest
(B) An obvious reward
(C) An apparent misfortune with a good result
(D) A cursed event

-4- A-06/615/664-670
27. "To have a green thumb"
(A) To be sick (C) To be jealous
(B) To be good at gardening (D) To like money
28. "Under the weather"
(A) Forecasting the weather correctly (C) Enjoying weather
(B) Not feeling well (D) Running for shelter
29. "To play it by ear"
(A) To play music (C) To plan meticulously
(B) To listen carefully (D) To act without planning
30. "A chip on one’s shoulder"
(A) Being upset about something (C) Small injury
(B) Carrying something (D) Being untrustworthy
Direction (Q.31-Q.35) - Choose the most appropriate antonym of the words in italics:
31. The witness’s account was lucid and easy to follow.
(A) Opaque (C) Coherent
(B) Clear (D) Transparent
32. The engineer offered a concise summary of the project.
(A) Terse (C) Lengthy
(B) Precise (D) Difficult
33. The professor’s arcane theories confused most students.
(A) Esoteric (C) Simple
(B) Profound (D) Obscure
34. Her candor during the interview was admired by everyone.
(A) Sincerity (C) Clarity
(B) Honesty (D) Evasion
35. Despite his reputation for being gregarious, he now preferred solitude.
(A) Sociable (C) Reticent
(B) Talkative (D) Amiable
Direction (Q.36-Q.40) - Select the most appropriate one word substitute of the following phrases/
sentences:
36. A person who speaks many languages
(A) Monolingual (C) Polyglot
(B) Multilingual (D) Linguist
37. One who cannot make a mistake
(A) Infallible (C) Flawless
(B) Fallible (D) Perfect
38. A person who is indifferent to pleasure or pain
(A) Stoic (C) Hedonist
(B) Epicurean (D) Cynic
39. A speech delivered without any previous preparation
(A) Rehearsed (C) Extempore
(B) Elocution (D) Lecture
40. A decision that cannot be changed
(A) Irrevocable (C) Irreplaceable
(B) Irrelevant (D) Irreversible

-5- A-06/615/664-670
Direction (Q.41-Q.45) - Identify the underlined section which needs correction. Choose the option
with the best replacement. If the sentence is correct, choose No correction required.
41. Had she been informed about it earlier, she will have definitely participated.
(A) would have definitely participate (C) would have definitely participated
(B) will definitely participated (D) No correction required
42. None of the purported experts appears to have known the truth about the matter.
(A) appeared to have known the truth (C) are appearing to have known the truth
(B) appear to have known the truth (D) No correction required
43. The professor demanded that the assignment is submitted by Friday.
(A) that the assignment was submitted by Friday
(B) that the assignment be submitted by Friday
(C) the assignment to be submitted by Friday
(D) No correction required
44. The explanation given by the witness does not holds water.
(A) does not hold water (C) do not hold water
(B) did not hold water (D) No correction required
45. The team manager along with the players were felicitated yesterday.
(A) have felicitated yesterday (C) was felicitated yesterday
(B) has felicitated yesterday (D) No correction required
46. Two trains, both 200m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. The speeds of the
trains are 72km/h and 108km/h. In how many seconds will they cross each other completely?
(A) 6 (C) 8
(B) 7.5 (D) 9
47. A person walks to a station at 5 km/h, takes a train to another town at 50 km/h, and the total journey
is 4 hours, covering 190 km. What is the walking distance?
(A) 8 km (C) 12 km
(B) 10 km (D) 15 km
48. A solid cube of side 8 cm is dropped into a rectangular reservoir of length 16 cm, breadth 8 cm, and
height 15 cm partially filled with water. What will be the rise in the water level after the cube is
fully submerged?
(A) 8 cm (C) 2 cm
(B) 4 cm (D) 1 cm
49. A metallic hemisphere of radius 6.3 cm is melted and recast into a right circular cylinder of radius
9 cm. What is the height of the cylinder?
(A) 1.2 cm (C) 3.3 cm
(B) 2.1 cm (D) 4.2 cm
50. A can complete a work in 12 days, B can complete the same work in 7.5 days, and B along with C
together can complete the work in 7.2 days. How many days will C alone take to complete the work?
(A) 18 days (C) 72 days
(B) 36 days (D) 180 days
51. A, B, and C can finish a piece of work in 48, 72, and 54 days respectively. A and B work together
for 16 days; the remaining work is completed by C. How many days will C take to finish the
remaining work?
(A) 12 days (C) 24 days
(B) 15 days (D) 36 days

-6- A-06/615/664-670
52. A person's salary is first increased by 20% and then reduced by 20%. What is the net percentage
change in the salary?
(A) No change (C) 4% increase
(B) 4% decrease (D) 2% decrease
53. Price of a commodity increases by 25%. By what percentage must a consumer decrease
consumption to keep expenditure unchanged?
(A) 20% (C) 30%
(B) 25% (D) 33⅓%
54. A sum becomes 27 times in 3 years compounded annually. What is the annual interest rate?
(A) 100% (C) 200%
(B) 150% (D) 300%
55. A sum of money at compound interest amounts to Rs. 2,420 in 2 years and Rs. 2,662 in 3 years.
What is the rate of interest per annum?
(A) 8% (C) 12%
(B) 10% (D) 15%
56. A person buys 18 pens for Rs.12 and sells 12 pens for Rs.18. What is his profit percentage?
(A) 50% (C) 100%
(B) 75% (D) 125%
57. A dishonest shopkeeper claims to sell goods at cost price but uses 950g weight instead of 1kg. What
is his profit percentage?
(A) 5% (C) 10%
(B) 5.26% (D) 5.5%
58. The ratio of the perimeters of two squares is 5:7. What is the ratio of their areas?
(A) 5:7 (C) 7:5
(B) 25:49 (D) 49:25

Direction (Q.59-Q.63) - To be answered using the information below.

Six friends: Alice, Bob, Charlie, Diane, Edward, and Fiona, are sitting in a row facing forward. Alice
sits immediately to the right of Bob. Charlie is somewhere to the left of Diane but not immediately next
to her. Edward is not at either end of the row. Fiona sits immediately to the left of Edward. Bob is not
sitting next to Charlie.
59. Who is sitting at the left-most end?
(A) Alice (C) Charlie
(B) Bob (D) Diane
60. Who is immediately right of Fiona?
(A) Alice (C) Charlie
(B) Bob (D) Edward
61. Which two people are sitting next to each other?
(A) Bob and Alice (C) Charlie and Diane
(B) Alice and Edward (D) Bob and Charlie
62. Who is sitting immediately to the right of Diane?
(A) Alice (C) Charlie
(B) Bob (D) None of these
63. Who is sitting at the right-most end?
(A) Alice (C) Charlie
(B) Bob (D) Diane

-7- A-06/615/664-670
64. Choose the odd one out from the following
"LNUAIMMIU", "ELEST", "NMKOYE", "INCKLE"
(A) NMKOYE (C) INCKLE
(B) LNUAIMMIU (D) ELEST
65. ADLK : CFNM :: GRSP : ?
(A) ITQN (C) ITRO
(B) ITUR (D) ITVS
66. Ravi starts from his house facing east. He turns right and walks 6 km, then turns right again and
walks 8 km, and finally turns left and walks 5 km. In which direction is he now from the starting
point?
(A) North (C) West
(B) South (D) East
67. Find the next term in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
(A) 36 (C) 42
(B) 40 (D) 44
68. If "GLARE" is coded as "EJZPD", how is "SHINE" coded?
(A) QFHLD (C) QJGLD
(B) OFELB (D) OFGMD
69. Pointing to a photo, Renu says, "He is the son of my father's only son." How is Renu related to the
boy?
(A) Mother (C) Sister
(B) Aunt (D) Niece
70. If 15th August 2020 was a Saturday, then what day of the week is 15th August 2023?
(A) Sunday (C) Monday
(B) Tuesday (D) Wednesday
71. Which programme guarantees 100 days of employment in rural India?
(A) PM-KISAN (C) MGNREGA
(B) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (D) Stand-Up India
72. Which of the following is a key feature of the National Rural Livelihood Mission?
(A) Employment in public sector
(B) Free seeds for farmers
(C) Promotion of Self-Help Groups and financial inclusion
(D) Housing for landless labourers
73. Which state is recognized as India's first 100% organic state?
(A) Mizoram (C) Assam
(B) Sikkim (D) Manipur
74. What is the primary function of village-level "Patwari" officers?
(A) Maintenance of law and order
(B) Providing healthcare
(C) Education oversight
(D) Maintenance of land records and revenue collection
75. Under the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana, each MP is expected to develop how many model villages
by 2019?
(A) 2 (C) 4
(B) 3 (D) 5
-8- A-06/615/664-670
76. The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in which year?
(A) 2002 (C) 2005
(B) 2004 (D) 2008
77. Which Indian state is the first to have implemented the e-Panchayat project for rural governance?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (C) Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat (D) Kerala
78. PM-KISAN provides annual direct income support of how much to eligible farmers?
(A) ₹2,000 (C) ₹6,000
(B) ₹3,000 (D) ₹12,000
79. Which state is known for the successful 'Kudumbashree' model of women’s empowerment and
poverty eradication?
(A) Tamil Nadu (C) Sikkim
(B) Karnataka (D) Kerala
80. Which constitutional amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions?
(A) 42nd amendment (C) 72nd amendment
(B) 43rd amendment (D) 73rd amendment
81. Which scheme is the flagship programme to provide short-term skill training to Indian youth?
(A) NULM (C) PMKVY
(B) DDUGKY (D) PM-KISAN
82. SANKALP is implemented with support from
(A) United Nations (C) NITI Aayog
(B) World Bank (D) UNICEF
83. The minimum NSQF level for awarding a Bachelor of Vocation (B. Voc) degree is
(A) 4 (C) 7
(B) 5 (D) 10
84. Skill-based courses under NEP 2020 are planned to start from which school grade?
(A) 6th (C) 9th
(B) 8th (D) 10th
85. The National Skill Development Corporation operates under which model?
(A) Private Limited Company (C) Public-Private Partnership (PPP)
(B) Government body only (D) Cooperative Society
86. Under which scheme do schools and colleges participate as "Skill Hubs"?
(A) PMKK (C) SANKALP
(B) PMKVY 4.0 (D) DDU-GKY
87. What’s the minimum duration of a PMKVY short-term course?
(A) 40 hours (C) 150 hours
(B) 90 hours (D) 500 hours
88. The “World Youth Skills Day” is observed on
(A) 1st January (C) 15th July
(B) 5th June (D) 12th December
89. The scheme for entrepreneurship support among SC/ST entrepreneurs is known as
(A) Stand Up India (C) Skill India Digital Hub
(B) Start Up India (D) SIDBI Yojana

-9- A-06/615/664-670
90. Which method of training is best to impart technical knowledge safely without real-world risk?
(A) Job rotation (C) Mentoring
(B) Simulation (D) Shadowing
91. In skill training, ‘assessment agencies’ are regulated by:
(A) AICTE (C) NCVET
(B) UGC (D) MHRD
92. Which microfinance institution is known as the Universal Bank?
(A) Bandhan Financial Services Private Ltd. (C) Disha Microfinance Private Ltd.
(B) Arohan Financial Services Private Ltd. (D) SKS Microfinance Private Ltd.
93. Operation Flood also known as “White Revolution”, started in
(A) 1969 (C) 1971
(B) 1970 (D) 1972
94. Where is the National Institute of Rural Development located?
(A) New Delhi (C) Bangalore
(B) Mumbai (D) Hyderabad
95. What is the record of land agriculture?
(A) Girdawari (C) Jamabandi
(B) Panchnama (D) Khatauni
96. 1 acre contains how many square yards?
(A) 2880 (C) 3840
(B) 4840 (D) 3240
97. Which of the following is NOT a function of the NSDCA?
(A) Monitoring skill assessment agencies
(B) Developing training curricula
(C) Awarding skill certificates
(D) Maintaining a national registry of certified skilled persons
98. Under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) scheme, what is the duration of mandatory
orientation training?
(A) 6 hours (C) 12 hours
(B) 8 hours (D) 24 hours
99. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) primarily focuses on the age
group
(A) 15-25 years (C) 18-25 years
(B) 15-35 years (D) 18-35 years
100. In DDU-GKY, what percentage allocation is mandated for SC/ST
(A) 25 percent (C) 40 percent
(B) 33 percent (D) 50 percent

******

- 10 - A-06/615/664-670
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

- 11 - A-06/615/664-670
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

- 12 - A-06/615/664-670