0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR.

DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Tips for your MDCAT preparation:
1. Understand Concepts: Don't just memorize. Understand why
things are the way they are.
2. Draw Diagrams: Visualizing cell structures and processes can
greatly aid understanding.
3. Practice Regularly: Consistent practice with MCQs from
various sources is crucial.
4. Time Management: Practice solving MCQs under timed
conditions to improve speed and accuracy.
5. Review Mistakes: Go over your incorrect answers to
understand the underlying concepts you missed.
6. Refer to MDCAT Syllabus: Ensure your preparation aligns
with the official MDCAT 2025 syllabus.

Good luck with your MDCAT 2025 preparation!

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 BIOLOGY SYLLABUS

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 ENZYMES
Topic 1: Distinguishing Characteristics of Enzymes

1. Enzymes are primarily composed of which type of macromolecule?

A) Carbohydrates

B) Lipids

C) Proteins

D) Nucleic acids

2. Which of the following best describes the function of an enzyme?

A) To be consumed in a reaction

B) To increase the activation energy of a reaction

C) To act as a biological catalyst

D) To change the equilibrium of a reaction

3. Enzymes are known for their high specificity, meaning:

A) They can catalyze a wide range of reactions.

B) Each enzyme typically catalyzes only one or a few specific reactions.

C) They are only active at very high temperatures.

D) They are found in all cells.

4. The part of the enzyme where the substrate binds is called the:

A) Allosteric site

B) Regulatory site

C) Active site

D) Inhibitory site

5. After an enzyme completes its catalytic function, it is:

A) Consumed in the reaction.

B) Permanently altered.

C) Released unchanged and can be reused.

D) Converted into a product.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 6. Enzymes increase the rate of biochemical reactions by:

A) Increasing the concentration of reactants.

B) Decreasing the activation energy.

C) Increasing the kinetic energy of molecules.

D) Changing the direction of the reaction.

7. Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of enzymes?

A) They are highly sensitive to temperature and pH.

B) They are highly efficient.

C) They are always composed of RNA.

D) They are reusable.

8. The substance upon which an enzyme acts is called the:

A) Product

B) Cofactor

C) Substrate

D) Inhibitor

9. Enzymes typically end with which suffix?

A) -ose

B) -ase

C) -in

D) -ol

10. The biological catalysts known as "ribozymes" are composed of:

A) Proteins

B) Lipids

C) RNA

D) DNA

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 11. An enzyme molecule is generally much larger than its substrate. This is because:

A) The enzyme needs to be heavy for stability.

B) The active site is only a small part, and the rest provides structural support and regulation.

C) Larger molecules react faster.

D) It needs to encompass many active sites.

12. Which term describes the protein component of an enzyme that requires a non-protein part for activity?

A) Holoenzyme

B) Apoenzyme

C) Cofactor

D) Coenzyme

13. A complete, catalytically active enzyme, including all necessary cofactors, is called a:

A) Apoenzyme

B) Holoenzyme

C) Prosthetic group

D) Coenzyme

14. Inorganic ions like Zn2+ or Mg2+ that help enzymes function are known as:

A) Coenzymes

B) Prosthetic groups

C) Cofactors

D) Inhibitors

15. Organic molecules, often derived from vitamins, that assist enzymes are called:

A) Cofactors

B) Coenzymes

C) Prosthetic groups

D) Allosteric activators

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 16. What happens to an enzyme if it is exposed to conditions outside its optimal range?

A) It becomes more active.

B) It might undergo denaturation.

C) Its active site becomes larger.

D) It starts catalyzing a different reaction.

17. Enzymes do NOT affect which of the following aspects of a reaction?

A) Rate of reaction

B) Activation energy

C) Equilibrium of the reaction

D) Pathway of the reaction

18. The number of substrate molecules converted to product per unit time by a single enzyme molecule is known
as its:

A) Specificity constant

B) Turnover number

C) Activation energy

D) Inhibition rate

19. Which of the following statements is true regarding enzyme reuse?

A) Enzymes are used up after one reaction.

B) Enzymes can be used for an unlimited number of reactions if conditions are favorable.

C) Enzymes are permanently altered after a reaction.

D) Enzymes need to be regenerated after each catalytic cycle.

20. The high efficiency of enzymes implies that:

A) Only a small amount of enzyme is needed for a significant rate enhancement.

B) They require high temperatures to work.

C) They are highly non-specific.

D) They are always inhibited by products.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Topic 2: Mode of Enzyme Action

21. The "lock and key" model of enzyme action suggests that:

A) The active site is flexible and molds to the substrate.

B) The enzyme's active site has a rigid shape that perfectly fits the substrate.

C) Enzymes can bind to any substrate.

D) Substrate is altered before binding to the enzyme.

22. The "induced fit" model of enzyme action suggests that:

A) The active site is rigid.

B) The enzyme's active site changes its shape slightly upon substrate binding to achieve a tighter fit.

C) Substrate changes its shape to fit the active site.

D) The enzyme does not change its shape at all during catalysis.

23. Which model is currently more widely accepted for explaining enzyme-substrate interaction?

A) Lock and key model

B) Induced fit model

C) Non-specific binding model

D) Competitive inhibition model

24. What is the intermediate formed when an enzyme binds to its substrate?

A) Enzyme-product complex

B) Enzyme-inhibitor complex

C) Enzyme-substrate complex

D) Substrate-product complex

25. How do enzymes generally lower the activation energy of a reaction?

A) By increasing the kinetic energy of reactants.

B) By providing an alternative reaction pathway.

C) By making the reaction more endergonic.

D) By stabilizing the reactants' initial state.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 26. Enzymes can facilitate a reaction by:

A) Orienting substrates correctly.

B) Straining the bonds within the substrate.

C) Providing a favorable microenvironment (e.g., pH, polarity).

D) All of the above.

27. The step in an enzymatic reaction where the enzyme-substrate complex is formed is usually:

A) The slowest step.

B) The fastest step.

C) The rate-limiting step.

D) Irreversible.

28. The products of an enzymatic reaction are released from the:

A) Allosteric site.

B) Regulatory site.

C) Active site.

D) Inhibitor site.

29. Which statement accurately describes the effect of an enzyme on a reaction's free energy change ($\Delta G$)?

A) Enzymes increase $\Delta G$.

B) Enzymes decrease $\Delta G$.

C) Enzymes do not affect $\Delta G$.

D) Enzymes make $\Delta G$ positive.

30. The binding of a substrate to the active site typically involves which type of interactions?

A) Strong covalent bonds.

B) Weak non-covalent interactions (e.g., hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, van der Waals forces).

C) Only hydrophobic interactions.

D) Only metallic bonds.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Topic 3: Factors that Affect the Rate of Enzyme Reactions (Temperature, pH, and Concentration)

31. Increasing the temperature generally increases the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction up to a certain point
because:

A) It increases the enzyme's stability.

B) It increases the kinetic energy of molecules, leading to more collisions.

C) It denatures the enzyme.

D) It decreases the substrate concentration.

32. Beyond the optimum temperature, an increase in temperature leads to a sharp decrease in enzyme activity
primarily due to:

A) Substrate depletion.

B) Enzyme denaturation.

C) Increased product inhibition.

D) Increased water evaporation.

33. The optimum pH for most human enzymes is typically around:

A) 2 (acidic, like pepsin)

B) 7.4 (neutral, like most intracellular enzymes)

C) 9 (alkaline, like trypsin)

D) Varies widely, but within a narrow range for each enzyme.

34. Changes in pH affect enzyme activity by altering the:

A) Concentration of substrate.

B) Ionic state of amino acid residues in the active site, affecting its shape.

C) Overall temperature of the solution.

D) Availability of cofactors.

35. When the pH deviates significantly from the optimum, an enzyme may undergo:

A) Activation

B) Renaturation

C) Denaturation

D) Saturation

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 36. At low substrate concentrations, increasing the substrate concentration will generally:

A) Decrease the reaction rate.

B) Increase the reaction rate linearly.

C) Have no effect on the reaction rate.

D) Cause enzyme denaturation.

37. At very high substrate concentrations, the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction typically levels off because:

A) The enzyme is denatured.

B) All active sites are saturated with substrate.

C) Product inhibition occurs.

D) The temperature is too low.

38. Increasing the enzyme concentration, assuming an ample supply of substrate, will generally:

A) Decrease the reaction rate.

B) Increase the reaction rate.

C) Have no effect on the reaction rate.

D) Reduce the enzyme's efficiency.

39. The relationship between enzyme activity and temperature can be described as:

A) Directly proportional across all temperatures.

B) Inverse relationship.

C) An optimal curve with a peak, followed by a sharp drop.

D) A continuous increase with temperature.

40. How does a very low temperature affect enzyme activity?

A) It denatures the enzyme.

B) It permanently inactivates the enzyme.

C) It reduces kinetic energy and slows down activity, but usually doesn't denature it.

D) It increases the enzyme's affinity for the substrate.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 41. Pepsin, a digestive enzyme in the stomach, functions optimally at a pH of around 2. This is an example of:

A) Universal enzyme activity.

B) Enzyme adaptation to specific environments.

C) Temperature effect.

D) Substrate concentration effect.

42. If you add more enzyme to a reaction that has reached its Vmax (maximum velocity) due to substrate
saturation, what will happen?

A) The reaction rate will remain the same.

B) The reaction rate will decrease.

C) The reaction rate will increase.

D) The enzyme will denature.

43. The Q10 (temperature coefficient) for enzyme-catalyzed reactions is typically around:

A) 0-1

B) 2-3

C) 5-10

D) 10+

44. Which of the following would NOT necessarily lead to a decrease in enzyme activity?

A) Adding a strong acid to a neutral solution.

B) Heating the enzyme significantly above its optimum temperature.

C) Increasing the substrate concentration in an already saturated reaction.

D) Introducing heavy metal ions.

45. The rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is directly proportional to the:

A) Amount of product formed.

B) Square of the substrate concentration.

C) Enzyme concentration (when substrate is not limiting).

D) Activation energy.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Topic 4: Inhibitors

46. A molecule that binds to an enzyme and decreases its activity is called an:

A) Activator

B) Substrate

C) Inhibitor

D) Cofactor

47. Competitive inhibitors typically bind to the enzyme's:

A) Allosteric site

B) Active site

C) Regulatory site

D) Product site

48. Non-competitive inhibitors typically bind to the enzyme's:

A) Active site

B) Substrate

C) Allosteric site (a site other than the active site)

D) Cofactor

49. Which type of inhibition can be overcome by increasing the substrate concentration?

A) Non-competitive inhibition

B) Irreversible inhibition

C) Competitive inhibition

D) Allosteric inhibition

50. A non-competitive inhibitor reduces enzyme activity by:

A) Directly blocking the active site.

B) Changing the shape of the active site, making it less effective.

C) Binding to the substrate.

D) Increasing the activation energy directly.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 51. Irreversible inhibitors typically form a ______ bond with the enzyme.

A) Hydrogen

B) Ionic

C) Covalent

D) Van der Waals

52. Feedback inhibition is a common regulatory mechanism where:

A) The substrate activates the enzyme.

B) The product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme early in the pathway.

C) An external factor activates the enzyme.

D) The enzyme inhibits its own production.

53. Which of the following is an example of an irreversible inhibitor?

A) Penicillin

B) Cyanide

C) Heavy metals (e.g., lead, mercury)

D) All of the above

54. Allosteric regulation involves binding of molecules to a site ______ the active site, causing a conformational
change.

A) Identical to

B) Adjacent to

C) Far from

D) Other than

55. If a molecule structurally resembles the substrate and binds to the active site, it is likely a:

A) Non-competitive inhibitor

B) Competitive inhibitor

C) Allosteric activator

D) Coenzyme

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 56. The effect of a non-competitive inhibitor on Vmax (maximum reaction rate) is typically to:

A) Increase Vmax.

B) Decrease Vmax.

C) Have no effect on Vmax.

D) Increase Vmax then decrease it.

57. The effect of a competitive inhibitor on Vmax (maximum reaction rate) is typically to:

A) Decrease Vmax.

B) Increase Vmax.

C) Have no effect on Vmax (if enough substrate is present).

D) Vary depending on the inhibitor.

58. Many drugs act as enzyme inhibitors to:

A) Increase metabolism.

B) Block unwanted metabolic pathways.

C) Promote enzyme denaturation.

D) Increase enzyme production.

59. The binding of a regulatory molecule to an allosteric site can either activate or inhibit the enzyme. This is
known as:

A) Irreversible inhibition

B) Competitive inhibition

C) Allosteric regulation

D) Product inhibition

60. Which type of enzyme inhibitor does not bind to the active site but still lowers the enzyme's efficiency?

A) Competitive

B) Irreversible

C) Non-competitive

D) Substrate analog

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 BIOMOLECULES
Topic 1:Biological Molecules (General Definition & Classification)

1. Which of the following is NOT typically classified as a major biological macromolecule?

A) Carbohydrates

B) Lipids

C) Water

D) Proteins

2. Biological molecules are primarily composed of which elements?

A) Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen

B) Sodium, Potassium, Calcium, Chlorine

C) Iron, Zinc, Copper, Magnesium

D) Sulfur, Phosphorus, Silicon, Boron

3. Monomers are small repeating units that link together to form larger molecules called:

A) Enzymes

B) Polymers

C) Hormones

D) Ions

4. The process by which monomers are joined together to form polymers, with the removal of a water molecule, is
called:

A) Hydrolysis

B) Dehydration synthesis (condensation reaction)

C) Denaturation

D) Polymerization

5. The process by which polymers are broken down into monomers, with the addition of a water molecule, is
called:

A) Dehydration synthesis

B) Hydrolysis

C) Condensation reaction

D) Polymerization

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 6. Which type of bond is typically formed when monomers link to form biological macromolecules?

A) Ionic bond

B) Hydrogen bond

C) Covalent bond

D) Metallic bond

7. Which of the following describes the role of biological molecules in living organisms?

A) Provide structural support

B) Store and transfer genetic information

C) Catalyze biochemical reactions

D) All of the above

8. Which class of biological molecules is characterized by being largely hydrophobic?

A) Carbohydrates

B) Proteins

C) Lipids

D) Nucleic Acids

9. The building blocks of proteins are:

A) Monosaccharides

B) Fatty acids

C) Amino acids

D) Nucleotides

10. The building blocks of nucleic acids are:

A) Amino acids

B) Monosaccharides

C) Nucleotides

D) Glycerol

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Topic 2: Biological Importance of Water

11. Water molecules are polar because of:

A) Equal sharing of electrons between oxygen and hydrogen.

B) Unequal sharing of electrons between oxygen and hydrogen.

C) The linear arrangement of atoms.

D) Its ability to form ionic bonds.

12. The ability of water to form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules is called:

A) Adhesion

B) Cohesion

C) Surface tension

D) Specific heat

13. The ability of water to form hydrogen bonds with other polar substances is called:

A) Cohesion

B) Adhesion

C) Surface tension

D) High specific heat

14. Water has a high specific heat, meaning:

A) It freezes easily.

B) It takes a lot of energy to change its temperature.

C) It heats up very quickly.

D) It is a good solvent.

15. The high specific heat of water is biologically important because it helps to:

A) Promote rapid temperature changes in organisms.

B) Stabilize cellular and body temperatures.

C) Allow water to evaporate quickly.

D) Facilitate the dissolution of nonpolar substances.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 16. Water's high heat of vaporization is important for:

A) Maintaining cell turgor.

B) Cooling organisms through evaporation (e.g., sweating).

C) Transport of nutrients.

D) Dissolving polar substances.

17. Why is water considered an excellent solvent for polar and ionic substances?

A) Its nonpolar nature.

B) Its ability to form hydrogen bonds and interact with charged particles.

C) Its low specific heat.

D) Its high density.

18. The dissociation of water molecules (H2O ⇌ H+ + OH-) leads to the formation of:

A) Salts

B) Acids and bases

C) Ions

D) Polymers

19. Which property of water allows insects to walk on its surface?

A) Cohesion

B) Adhesion

C) Surface tension

D) High density

20. Water's property of being less dense as a solid (ice) than as a liquid is crucial for:

A) Allowing aquatic life to survive in cold climates.

B) Enhancing the rate of chemical reactions.

C) Promoting the dissolution of gases.

D) Increasing heat transfer in bodies of water.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 21. The role of water as a reagent is evident in which type of reaction?

A) Condensation reaction

B) Dehydration synthesis

C) Hydrolysis

D) Oxidation

22. Which of the following is an example of water acting as a transport medium in living organisms?

A) Blood plasma carrying nutrients.

B) Evaporation from leaves.

C) Hydrogen bonding between water molecules.

D) Ice floating on water.

23. When water molecules are attracted to the surface of a glass tube, this is an example of:

A) Cohesion

B) Adhesion

C) Surface tension

D) Polarity

24. The phenomenon of capillary action, important for water transport in plants, is due to:

A) High density of water.

B) A combination of cohesion and adhesion.

C) Low specific heat of water.

D) Its nonpolar nature.

25. A solution with a pH of 7 is considered:

A) Acidic

B) Basic

C) Neutral

D) Highly concentrated

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Topic 3: Carbohydrates

26. The general formula for carbohydrates is often represented as:

A) (CH2O)n

B) CHO

C) CnH2nOn

D) C6H12O6

27. The simplest form of carbohydrates, such as glucose and fructose, are called:

A) Disaccharides

B) Polysaccharides

C) Monosaccharides

D) Oligosaccharides

28. Which of the following is a monosaccharide?

A) Sucrose

B) Lactose

C) Glucose

D) Maltose

29. Glucose is an example of a:

A) Hexose sugar

B) Pentose sugar

C) Disaccharide

D) Polysaccharide

30. The disaccharide formed from one glucose and one fructose molecule is:

A) Lactose

B) Maltose

C) Sucrose

D) Glycogen

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 31. The bond formed between two monosaccharides through dehydration synthesis is a:

A) Peptide bond

B) Ester bond

C) Glycosidic bond

D) Phosphodiester bond

32. Which of the following is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?

A) Glycogen

B) Cellulose

C) Starch

D) Chitin

33. Which of the following is a polysaccharide that makes up the cell walls of plants?

A) Starch

B) Glycogen

C) Cellulose

D) Pectin

34. The primary storage carbohydrate in animals, especially in the liver and muscles, is:

A) Starch

B) Cellulose

C) Glycogen

D) Sucrose

35. Lactose is a disaccharide found in milk, composed of:

A) Glucose + Glucose

B) Glucose + Fructose

C) Glucose + Galactose

D) Fructose + Galactose

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 36. Oligosaccharides typically consist of how many monosaccharide units?

A) 1-2

B) 3-10

C) More than 10

D) Hundreds

37. Which carbohydrate is sometimes referred to as "blood sugar"?

A) Fructose

B) Glucose

C) Sucrose

D) Lactose

38. The major difference between starch and cellulose is:

A) Their monomeric units.

B) The type of glycosidic linkage (alpha vs. beta).

C) Their elemental composition.

D) Their solubility in water.

39. Carbohydrates serve as a primary source of:

A) Genetic information

B) Structural support in animals

C) Quick energy

D) Hormones

40. Which of the following carbohydrates is NOT easily digestible by humans?

A) Starch

B) Glycogen

C) Cellulose

D) Sucrose

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Topic 4: Proteins

41. The building blocks of proteins are:

A) Nucleotides

B) Simple sugars

C) Amino acids

D) Fatty acids

42. How many common amino acids are typically found in proteins?

A) 5

B) 10

C) 20

D) 50

43. Amino acids are linked together by:

A) Glycosidic bonds

B) Ester bonds

C) Peptide bonds

D) Phosphodiester bonds

44. The primary structure of a protein refers to its:

A) Alpha-helices and beta-sheets

B) Three-dimensional folding pattern

C) Specific sequence of amino acids

D) Arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains

45. Alpha-helices and beta-sheets are examples of which level of protein structure?

A) Primary

B) Secondary

C) Tertiary

D) Quaternary

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 46. Hydrogen bonds play a crucial role in maintaining which levels of protein structure?

A) Primary only

B) Secondary and Tertiary

C) Quaternary only

D) All levels

47. The overall three-dimensional shape of a single polypeptide chain is its:

A) Primary structure

B) Secondary structure

C) Tertiary structure

D) Quaternary structure

48. Denaturation of a protein involves:

A) Breaking of peptide bonds.

B) Loss of its three-dimensional shape and biological activity.

C) Addition of amino acids.

D) Formation of new disulfide bridges.

49. Which of the following factors can cause protein denaturation?

A) Extreme temperature

B) Extreme pH

C) Heavy metals

D) All of the above

50. The function of an enzyme is directly related to its:

A) Primary structure

B) Denaturation state

C) Specific three-dimensional shape

D) Solubility in water

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 51. Proteins can serve various functions in the body, including:

A) Structural support (e.g., collagen)

B) Transport (e.g., hemoglobin)

C) Catalysis (e.g., enzymes)

D) All of the above

52. Two or more polypeptide chains associating to form a functional protein describes which level of protein
structure?

A) Primary

B) Secondary

C) Tertiary

D) Quaternary

53. Disulfide bridges are important for stabilizing the tertiary and quaternary structures of some proteins, forming
between which amino acid residues?

A) Glycine

B) Alanine

C) Cysteine

D) Proline

54. The diversity of protein functions is mainly due to the:

A) Fixed number of amino acids.

B) Specific sequence and arrangement of amino acids.

C) Presence of only covalent bonds.

D) Simplicity of their structure.

55. Peptide bond formation involves the reaction between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the:

A) Amino group of another amino acid.

B) R-group of another amino acid.

C) Hydrogen atom of another amino acid.

D) Alpha carbon of another amino acid.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Topic 5: Lipids

56. Lipids are characterized by their insolubility in water, which is due to their:

A) Hydrophilic nature

B) Polar nature

C) Nonpolar nature

D) Ionic bonds

57. Triglycerides are composed of:

A) One glycerol and two fatty acids.

B) One glycerol and three fatty acids.

C) Two glycerol and one fatty acid.

D) One fatty acid and three glycerol.

58. The bond formed between a glycerol and a fatty acid in a triglyceride is an:

A) Peptide bond

B) Glycosidic bond

C) Ester bond

D) Hydrogen bond

59. Fats that are solid at room temperature typically contain:

A) Unsaturated fatty acids

B) Saturated fatty acids

C) Short-chain fatty acids

D) Only glycerol

60. Unsaturated fatty acids contain one or more:

A) Single bonds

B) Double bonds

C) Triple bonds

D) Peptide bonds

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 61. Phospholipids are a major component of:

A) Plant cell walls

B) Animal fur

C) Cell membranes

D) Starch granules

62. A phospholipid molecule has a hydrophilic "head" and hydrophobic "tails." The head contains:

A) Glycerol and fatty acids

B) Phosphate group and a polar group

C) Only fatty acids

D) Only glycerol

63. Which of the following is a function of lipids in the body?

A) Long-term energy storage

B) Insulation

C) Component of cell membranes

D) All of the above

64. Steroids are a type of lipid characterized by:

A) Long hydrocarbon chains.

B) A four-ring carbon structure.

C) A phosphate group.

D) Being composed of glycerol and fatty acids.

65. Cholesterol is an important steroid that serves as a precursor for:

A) Glucose

B) Vitamins A and D

C) Steroid hormones and bile salts

D) Amino acids

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 66. Waxes are lipids that function primarily as:

A) Energy storage

B) Structural components of cell membranes

C) Protective coatings

D) Hormones

67. Which of the following is an example of an acylglycerol?

A) Cholesterol

B) Phospholipid

C) Triglyceride

D) Testosterone

68. The primary difference between a saturated and an unsaturated fatty acid is the presence of:

A) Carbon atoms

B) Hydrogen atoms

C) Double bonds between carbon atoms

D) Oxygen atoms

69. When a triglyceride is formed, how many water molecules are released?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

70. Which of the following accurately describes the arrangement of phospholipids in a cell membrane?

A) Hydrophilic tails facing inward

B) Hydrophobic heads facing outward

C) A bilayer with hydrophobic tails facing inward

D) A single layer with hydrophilic heads on top

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 Topic 6: Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)

71. Which of the following is NOT a component of an RNA nucleotide?

A) Ribose sugar

B) Phosphate group

C) Deoxyribose sugar

D) Nitrogenous base

72. The nitrogenous bases found in RNA are:

A) Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine

B) Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Uracil

C) Adenine, Thymine, Uracil, Cytosine

D) Guanine, Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine

73. Unlike DNA, RNA is typically:

A) Double-stranded

B) Found in the nucleus

C) Single-stranded

D) Composed of deoxyribose sugar

74. The sugar found in RNA is:

A) Glucose

B) Ribose

C) Deoxyribose

D) Fructose

75. Which type of RNA carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes?

A) tRNA (transfer RNA)

B) rRNA (ribosomal RNA)

C) mRNA (messenger RNA)

D) siRNA (small interfering RNA)

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 76. Which type of RNA forms a major part of ribosomes, where protein synthesis occurs?

A) mRNA

B) tRNA

C) rRNA

D) snRNA

77. Which type of RNA carries specific amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis?

A) mRNA

B) tRNA

C) rRNA

D) miRNA

78. The process by which genetic information from DNA is copied into mRNA is called:

A) Translation

B) Replication

C) Transcription

D) Reverse transcription

79. The process by which the information in mRNA is used to synthesize a protein is called:

A) Transcription

B) Replication

C) Translation

D) Reverse transcription

80. RNA molecules play diverse roles in the cell, including:

A) Carrying genetic information.

B) Catalyzing biochemical reactions (ribozymes).

C) Regulating gene expression.

D) All of the above.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Topic 7: Conjugated Molecules

81. Conjugated molecules are formed when two different types of biological macromolecules are:

A) Physically mixed together.

B) Covalently linked.

C) Stored separately.

D) Found in different cellular compartments.

82. Glycolipids are formed by the covalent bonding of:

A) Carbohydrates and proteins

B) Carbohydrates and lipids

C) Lipids and proteins

D) Nucleic acids and carbohydrates

83. Glycoproteins are formed by the covalent bonding of:

A) Carbohydrates and proteins

B) Carbohydrates and lipids

C) Lipids and nucleic acids

D) Proteins and nucleic acids

84. Glycolipids and glycoproteins are often found on the outer surface of cell membranes and play crucial roles in:

A) Energy storage

B) Cell recognition and signaling

C) Genetic information storage

D) Muscle contraction

85. Which of the following is an example of a conjugated molecule important for blood grouping (ABO system)?

A) Hemoglobin

B) Antibodies

C) Glycoproteins/Glycolipids on red blood cell surfaces

D) ATP

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Topic 8: Structure of DNA

86. The double helical structure of DNA was proposed by:

A) Gregor Mendel

B) Rosalind Franklin

C) Watson and Crick

D) Linus Pauling

87. DNA is a polymer of:

A) Amino acids

B) Monosaccharides

C) Nucleotides

D) Fatty acids

88. A DNA nucleotide consists of:

A) A deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.

B) A ribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.

C) A deoxyribose sugar, a hydroxyl group, and a nitrogenous base.

D) A ribose sugar, a hydroxyl group, and a nitrogenous base.

89. The nitrogenous bases in DNA are:

A) Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Uracil

B) Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine

C) Adenine, Thymine, Uracil, Guanine

D) Guanine, Cytosine, Uracil, Adenine

90. In the DNA double helix, Adenine (A) always pairs with:

A) Guanine (G)

B) Cytosine (C)

C) Thymine (T)

D) Uracil (U)

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 91. In the DNA double helix, Cytosine (C) always pairs with:

A) Adenine (A)

B) Guanine (G)

C) Thymine (T)

D) Uracil (U)

92. The two strands of the DNA double helix are held together by:

A) Covalent bonds

B) Phosphodiester bonds

C) Hydrogen bonds between complementary bases

D) Peptide bonds

93. The "backbone" of a DNA strand is formed by:

A) Nitrogenous bases

B) Hydrogen bonds

C) Alternating sugar and phosphate groups

D) Amino acids

94. The two strands of DNA run in opposite directions, a characteristic known as:

A) Parallel

B) Antiparallel

C) Complementary

D) Bidirectional

95. How many hydrogen bonds are formed between Adenine and Thymine in a DNA molecule?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

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 96. How many hydrogen bonds are formed between Guanine and Cytosine in a DNA molecule?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

97. The genetic information in DNA is encoded in the:

A) Sequence of the sugar-phosphate backbone.

B) Number of hydrogen bonds.

C) Sequence of nitrogenous bases.

D) Overall helical shape.

98. The process by which DNA makes an identical copy of itself is called:

A) Transcription

B) Translation

C) Replication

D) Mutation

99. DNA is primarily found in which cellular organelle in eukaryotes?

A) Ribosome

B) Mitochondrion

C) Nucleus

D) Cytoplasm

100. The information for synthesizing a specific protein is carried by a segment of DNA called a:

A) Chromosome

B) Gene

C) Plasmid

D) Nucleolus

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 Topic 9: Definition of Gene

101. A gene is defined as a sequence of:

A) Amino acids that codes for a protein.

B) Sugars that codes for a carbohydrate.

C) Nucleotides as part of DNA, which codes for the formation of a polypeptide.

D) Lipids that codes for a hormone.

102. The central dogma of molecular biology describes the flow of genetic information as:

A) Protein → RNA → DNA

B) DNA → Protein → RNA

C) DNA → RNA → Protein

D) RNA → DNA → Protein

103. The primary product of gene expression, according to the provided definition, is a:

A) Lipid

B) Carbohydrate

C) Polypeptide

D) Nucleic acid

104. Which of the following is a key function of a gene?

A) To catalyze metabolic reactions.

B) To provide structural support to the cell.

C) To carry instructions for building specific proteins.

D) To store excess energy.

105. Different versions of the same gene are called:

A) Chromosomes

B) Alleles

C) Genomes

D) Loci

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Topic 1: Distinguishing Characteristics of Enzymes

1. C

2. C

3. B

4. C

5. C

6. B

7. C

8. C

9. B

10. C

11. B

12. B

13. B

14. C

15. B

16. B

17. C

18. B

19. B

20. A

Topic 2: Mode of Enzyme Action

21. B

22. B

23. B

24. C

25. B

26. D

27. B

28. C

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 29. C

30. B

Topic 3: Factors that Affect the Rate of Enzyme Reactions (Temperature, pH, and Concentration)

31. B

32. B

33. B

34. B

35. C

36. B

37. B

38. B

39. C

40. C

41. B

42. C

43. B

44. C

45. C

Topic 4: Inhibitors

46. C

47. B

48. C

49. C

50. B

51. C

52. B

53. D

54. D

55. B

56. B

57. C

58. B

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 59. C

60. C

Topic 1: Biological Molecules (General Definition & Classification)

2. A

3. B

4. B

5. B

6. C

7. D

8. C

9. C

10. C

Topic 2: Biological Importance of Water

11. B

12. B

13. B

14. B

15. B

16. B

17. B

18. C

19. C

20. A

21. C

22. A

23. B

24. B

25. C

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 Topic 3: Carbohydrates

26. A

27. C

28. C

29. A

30. C

31. C

32. C

33. C

34. C

35. C

36. B

37. B

38. B

39. C

40. C

Topic 4: Proteins

41. C

42. C

43. C

44. C

45. B

46. B

47. C

48. B

49. D

50. C

51. D

52. D

53. C

54. B

55. A

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 Topic 5: Lipids

56. C

57. B

58. C

59. B

60. B

61. C

62. B

63. D

64. B

65. C

66. C

67. C

68. C

69. C

70. C

Topic 6: Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)

71. C

72. B

73. C

74. B

75. C

76. C

77. B

78. C

79. C

80. D

Topic 7: Conjugated Molecules

81. B

82. B

83. A

84. B

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 85. C

Topic 8: Structure of DNA

86. C

87. C

88. A

89. B

90. C

91. B

92. C

93. C

94. B

95. B

96. C

97. C

98. C

99. C

100. B

Topic 9: Definition of Gene

101. C

102. C

103. C

104. C

105. B

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 CHEMISTRY SYLLABUS

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Topic 1: Discovery of Proton (Positive Rays)

1. Which scientist is credited with the discovery of the proton?

A) J.J. Thomson

B) Ernest Rutherford

C) Eugen Goldstein

D) Niels Bohr

2. Positive rays are also known as:

A) Cathode rays

B) X-rays

C) Canal rays

D) Gamma rays

3. In which experimental setup were positive rays first observed?

A) Oil drop experiment

B) Gold foil experiment

C) Discharge tube with perforated cathode

D) Photoelectric effect apparatus

4. The charge-to-mass ratio ($e/m$) of positive rays was found to be:

A) Constant for all gases.

B) Dependent on the nature of the gas in the discharge tube.

C) Always the same as that of electrons.

D) Independent of the applied voltage.

5. The properties of positive rays suggest that they are:

A) Streams of electrons.

B) Electromagnetic radiation.

C) Streams of positively charged ions.

D) Neutral particles.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 6. The smallest positive ion observed in the discharge tube experiments corresponded to the:

A) Helium ion

B) Oxygen ion

C) Hydrogen ion

D) Nitrogen ion

7. What was a key difference observed between cathode rays and positive rays?

A) Cathode rays depend on the gas, positive rays do not.

B) Cathode rays are positive, positive rays are negative.

C) Cathode rays are electrons, positive rays are positive ions.

D) Cathode rays travel in straight lines, positive rays do not.

8. The term "proton" was later given to the nucleus of which atom?

A) Helium

B) Oxygen

C) Hydrogen

D) Carbon

9. Positive rays move towards which electrode in a discharge tube?

A) Cathode

B) Anode

C) Both

D) Neither

10. The mass of a proton is approximately how many times greater than the mass of an electron?

A) 100 times

B) 1836 times

C) 10,000 times

D) 100,000 times

---

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 Topic 2: Planck's Quantum Theory & Photon

11. Planck's quantum theory was developed to explain:

A) The photoelectric effect.

B) The stability of the atom.

C) Black-body radiation.

D) The behavior of cathode rays.

12. According to Planck's quantum theory, energy is emitted or absorbed in discrete packets called:

A) Electrons

B) Protons

C) Quanta

D) Neutrons

13. The energy of a single quantum of radiation is directly proportional to its:

A) Wavelength

B) Amplitude

C) Frequency

D) Speed

14. The constant of proportionality in Planck's equation (E = hf) is known as:

A) Avogadro's number

B) Rydberg constant

C) Planck's constant

D) Boltzmann constant

15. A photon is defined as:

A) A charged particle.

B) A unit of radiation energy.

C) A wave with no particle properties.

D) A neutral atom.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 16. Which of the following equations represents the energy of a photon?

A) E = mc²

B) E = hf

C) E = mv²

D) E = kq1q2/r²

17. If the frequency of a photon increases, its energy will:

A) Decrease

B) Remain the same

C) Increase

D) Become zero

18. What is the relationship between frequency (f) and wavelength ($\lambda$) for electromagnetic radiation?

A) f = c$\lambda$

B) c = f$\lambda$

C) $\lambda$ = cf

D) f = c/$\lambda$²

19. The photoelectric effect provides evidence for the ______ nature of light.

A) Wave

B) Particle

C) Dual (wave-particle)

D) Analogous

20. When an atom absorbs a photon, its electrons:

A) Move to a lower energy level.

B) Are ejected from the atom.

C) Move to a higher energy level.

D) Remain in the same energy level.

Topic 3: Quantum Numbers & Orbitals

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 21. Which quantum number describes the principal energy level or shell of an electron?

A) n (Principal quantum number)

B) l (Azimuthal or angular momentum quantum number)

C) m_l (Magnetic quantum number)

D) m_s (Spin quantum number)

22. The principal energy level is denoted by which letter?

A) n

B) l

C) m

D) s

23. The azimuthal (angular momentum) quantum number (l) determines the:

A) Spin of the electron.

B) Orientation of the orbital in space.

C) Shape of the atomic orbital and energy sub-level.

D) Principal energy level.

24. For a given principal quantum number 'n', the possible values of 'l' range from:

A) 0 to n

B) 1 to n-1

C) 0 to n-1

D) 1 to n

25. An electron in a 'p' sub-level has an azimuthal quantum number (l) of:

A) 0

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

26. The magnetic quantum number (m_l) determines the:

A) Shape of the orbital.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 B) Spin of the electron.

C) Orientation of the orbital in space.

D) Energy sub-level.

27. For an 'l' value of 2, the possible values of 'm_l' are:

A) -1, 0, +1

B) -2, -1, 0, +1, +2

C) 0, 1, 2

D) Only 0

28. The spin quantum number (m_s) describes the:

A) Orbital shape.

B) Energy level.

C) Intrinsic angular momentum of the electron.

D) Orbital orientation.

29. How many electrons can a single atomic orbital hold?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 6

D) 10

30. Which quantum number is independent of the other three?

A) Principal quantum number (n)

B) Azimuthal quantum number (l)

C) Magnetic quantum number (m_l)

D) Spin quantum number (m_s)

31. An energy sub-level contains one or more:

A) Nuclei

B) Protons

C) Atomic orbitals

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 D) Neutrons

32. The 's' sub-level has how many orbitals?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 5

D) 7

33. The 'd' sub-level has how many orbitals?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 5

D) 7

34. A collection of orbitals having the same principal quantum number (n) constitutes a(n):

A) Sub-shell

B) Atomic orbital

C) Principal energy level (shell)

D) Nucleus

35. The concept of orbitals is derived from:

A) Bohr's model.

B) Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle.

C) Quantum mechanics.

D) Dalton's atomic theory.

Topic 4: Shapes of Orbitals

36. The general shape of an 's' orbital is:

A) Dumbbell

B) Spherical

C) Cloverleaf

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 D) Complex

37. The general shape of a 'p' orbital is:

A) Spherical

B) Dumbbell

C) Cloverleaf

D) Rectangular

38. How many 'p' orbitals are there in any given p sub-level?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 5

39. The 'p' orbitals are oriented along which axes?

A) x, y, and z axes

B) Only x-axis

C) Only y-axis

D) Only z-axis

40. The general shape of the first four 'd' orbitals is often described as:

A) Spherical

B) Dumbbell

C) Cloverleaf-like

D) Linear

41. The fifth 'd' orbital (d_z²) has a unique shape, often described as:

A) Spherical with a ring

B) Double dumbbell

C) Three lobes

D) Octahedral

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 42. As the principal quantum number (n) increases, the size of the orbitals:

A) Decreases

B) Remains the same

C) Increases

D) Becomes irregular

43. Which of the following orbitals has the simplest shape?

A) 2p

B) 3d

C) 1s

D) 4f

44. The probability of finding an electron is highest in which region of an orbital?

A) Node

B) Near the nucleus

C) In the region described by the orbital's shape

D) Outside the orbital

45. The shapes of orbitals are important because they influence:

A) Atomic mass.

B) The total number of electrons.

C) How atoms bond and the geometry of molecules.

D) The charge of the nucleus.

Topic 5: Spectrum of Hydrogen Atom

46. The line spectrum of hydrogen can be explained by:

A) Rutherford's atomic model.

B) Thomson's atomic model.

C) Bohr's atomic model.

D) Dalton's atomic theory.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 47. When an electron in a hydrogen atom moves from a higher energy level to a lower energy level, it:

A) Absorbs energy.

B) Emits energy as light.

C) Becomes ionized.

D) Changes its spin.

48. The series of lines in the hydrogen spectrum that fall in the visible region is the:

A) Lyman series

B) Balmer series

C) Paschen series

D) Brackett series

49. The Lyman series corresponds to electron transitions ending in which energy level (n)?

A) n = 1

B) n = 2

C) n = 3

D) n = 4

50. The Paschen series corresponds to electron transitions ending in which energy level (n)?

A) n = 1

B) n = 2

C) n = 3

D) n = 4

51. The energy of the emitted photon in the hydrogen spectrum is equal to the:

A) Energy of the higher energy level.

B) Energy of the lower energy level.

C) Difference in energy between the two levels.

D) Sum of the energies of the two levels.

52. What does the "quantization of energy" mean in the context of the hydrogen atom spectrum?

A) Electrons can have any energy value.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 B) Electrons can only exist in specific, discrete energy levels.

C) Energy is continuously absorbed.

D) The nucleus contains quantized energy.

53. The lines in the hydrogen spectrum become closer together at higher energy levels because:

A) The energy difference between adjacent levels decreases.

B) The electrons become heavier.

C) The nucleus attracts electrons more strongly.

D) The principal quantum number decreases.

54. Which of the following series in the hydrogen spectrum falls in the ultraviolet region?

A) Balmer

B) Paschen

C) Lyman

D) Brackett

55. The formula for calculating the wavelength of spectral lines in hydrogen is given by the:

A) Heisenberg's equation.

B) De Broglie equation.

C) Rydberg formula.

D) Planck's equation.

Topic 6: Electronic Configuration

56. The Aufbau principle states that:

A) Electrons occupy orbitals with the highest energy first.

B) Electrons occupy orbitals with the lowest energy first.

C) No two electrons can have the same set of four quantum numbers.

D) Orbitals of equal energy are filled singly before pairing.

57. Pauli Exclusion Principle states that:

A) Each electron in an atom has a unique set of four quantum numbers.

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 B) Electrons fill orbitals from lowest to highest energy.

C) Electrons prefer to pair up in orbitals first.

D) All orbitals in a subshell must have parallel spins.

58. Hund's Rule states that:

A) Electrons occupy orbitals with the lowest energy first.

B) Orbitals of equal energy are filled singly with parallel spins before any pairing occurs.

C) Each electron in an atom has a unique set of four quantum numbers.

D) No two electrons can have the same spin.

59. The electronic configuration of an atom describes:

A) The total mass of the atom.

B) The arrangement of electrons in its atomic orbitals.

C) The number of protons and neutrons.

D) The chemical reactivity of the atom only.

60. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be held in the n=3 shell?

A) 2

B) 8

C) 18

D) 32

61. What is the electronic configuration of Oxygen (Atomic number = 8)?

A) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶

B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁴

C) 1s² 2s² 2p² 3s²

D) 1s² 2s¹ 2p⁵

62. What is the electronic configuration of Sodium (Atomic number = 11)?

A) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹

B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s²

C) 1s² 2s² 2p⁵ 3s²

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 D) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3p¹

63. Which rule is violated if electrons are paired in a p-orbital before all three p-orbitals have at least one electron?

A) Aufbau principle

B) Pauli Exclusion Principle

C) Hund's Rule

D) Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle

64. The electronic configuration of Nitrogen (Atomic number = 7) is:

A) 1s² 2s² 2p³

B) 1s² 2s¹ 2p⁴

C) 1s² 2s² 2p² 3s¹

D) 1s² 2s³ 2p²

65. The notation [Ne] 3s² 3p³ represents the electronic configuration of which element?

A) Aluminum

B) Silicon

C) Phosphorus

D) Sulfur

66. What is the electronic configuration of Chlorine (Atomic number = 17)?

A) [Ne] 3s² 3p⁵

B) [Ne] 3s² 3p³

C) [Ar] 4s² 3d⁵

D) [Ne] 3s¹ 3p⁶

67. The total number of electrons that can be accommodated in the 'd' subshell is:

A) 2

B) 6

C) 10

D) 14

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 68. The correct electronic configuration of Chromium (Atomic number = 24) shows an exception due to stability.
Which is it?

A) [Ar] 4s² 3d⁴

B) [Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁵

C) [Ar] 4s² 3d³ 4p¹

D) [Ar] 4s⁰ 3d⁶

69. Which rule helps predict the order in which electrons fill subshells?

A) Pauli Exclusion Principle

B) Hund's Rule

C) Aufbau Principle

D) All of the above

70. For a stable atom, the sum of the superscripts in its electronic configuration must equal its:

A) Atomic mass

B) Number of neutrons

C) Atomic number (number of protons/electrons)

D) Mass number

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 Topic 1: Discovery of Proton (Positive Rays)

1. C

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. C

6. C

7. C

8. C

9. A

10. B

Topic 2: Planck's Quantum Theory & Photon

11. C

12. C

13. C

14. C

15. B

16. B

17. C

18. B

19. B

20. C

Topic 3: Quantum Numbers & Orbitals

21. A

22. A

23. C

24. C

25. B

26. C

27. B

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 28. C

29. B

30. D

31. C

32. A

33. C

34. C

35. C

Topic 4: Shapes of Orbitals

36. B

37. B

38. C

39. A

40. C

41. A

42. C

43. C

44. C

45. C

Topic 5: Spectrum of Hydrogen Atom

46. C

47. B

48. B

49. A

50. C

51. C

52. B

53. A

54. C

55. C

Topic 6: Electronic Configuration

56. B

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

 57. A

58. B

59. B

60. C

61. B

62. A

63. C

64. A

65. C

66. A

67. C

68. B

69. C

70. C

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)

0331-2146712 DR. AZAM WAZIR ACADEMY (DR. DINA WAZIR ACADEMY)