Introduction To Aristotles Metaphysics
Introduction To Aristotles Metaphysics
1
George Rudebusch
with
the
same
name.
They
think
that
there
is
a
one
over
the
many
for
everything,
both
over
things
we
can
point
to
and
over
eternal
things.
Another
problem
for
them:
none
of
the
ways
we
have
for
proving
that
Forms
exist
is
convincing.
Some
of
the
proofs
just
don’t
work:
the
conclusion
does
not
follow.
Others
work
too
well:
they
prove
that
there
are
Forms
for
things
no
one
believes
have
Forms.
For
according
to
the
arguments
from
the
sciences
there
will
be
Forms
of
all
things
of
which
there
are
sciences.1
And
according
to
the
thinking-‐of-‐things-‐that-‐have-‐gone-‐out-‐of-‐existence
argument
there
will
be
Forms
even
of
perishable
things,
for
we
can
have
an
image
of
these.
Further
problems
for
the
more
accurate
of
the
arguments:
some
of
the
arguments
produce
Ideas
of
relations,
which
no
one
thinks
is
an
independent
category.
Others
state
that
there
is
a
third
man.2-‐-‐
M
i.9
990b1-‐
17
(2)
Above
all
one
might
ask
what
in
the
world
the
Forms
contribute
to
our
understanding
of
perceptible
things.
.
.
.
For
they
can
explain
neither
movement
nor
any
other
change
in
them.
And
they
do
not
help
us
towards
an
understanding
of
anything
else
(for
they
are
not
the
substance
of
these
–
otherwise
they
would
have
been
in
them).
Nor
do
they
help
anything
to
exist,
since
they
are
not
present
in
any
of
the
particulars
that
share
in
them.
If
they
had
been
present,
they
might
perhaps
have
been
thought
to
be
an
explanation,
as
white
pigment
is
an
explanation
of
the
whiteness
in
that
in
which
it
is
mixed.
(But
the
present-‐in-‐as-‐pigment
account,
which
was
given
first
by
Anaxagoras
and
later
by
Eudoxus
and
others,
is
even
more
farfetched
than
Plato’s,
since
such
a
doctrine
easily
leads
to
many
absurdities.)3
Furthermore,
other
things
cannot
come
from
Forms
in
any
of
the
usual
ways
of
saying
‘from’.
And
to
say
that
they
are
patterns
and
that
other
things
share
in
them
is
to
give
an
empty
account
and
to
use
poetic
metaphors.
For
what
is
it
that
works
by
taking
a
look
at
the
Forms?
Anything
can
either
be
or
become
like
another
without
being
copied
from
it,
in
the
way
that
someone
might
become
like
Socrates
whether
Socrates
exists
or
not.
And
clearly
the
same
might
happen
even
if
Socrates
were
eternal.
And
there
will
be
more
than
one
pattern
of
the
same
thing
in
the
way
that,
for
example,
Animal
and
Biped
as
well
as
Man
Himself
are
Forms
of
a
man.
Furthermore,
the
Forms
will
not
only
be
patterns
of
perceptible
things
but
also
of
themselves.
For
example,
Genus
will
be
a
pattern
of
Forms
as
a
genus
of
Forms.
Therefore
the
same
thing
will
be
pattern
and
copy.
-‐-‐
M
i.9
991a8-‐
b1
1
Not
sure
what
this
means?
Don’t
feel
bad
-‐-‐
you
get
to
read
an
ancient
commentator’s
explanation
of
the
third
man
below,
passages
9
and
10.
3
Independently
of
Anaxagoras,
someone
defended
the
present-‐in-‐as-‐pigment
By
the
way,
both
of
the
above
passages
are
repeated
word
for
word
at
M
xiii.3
-‐-‐
a
sign
of
clumsy
editing?
(3)
In
what
sense
the
Forms
are
explanations
and
substances
in
themselves
we
have
already
stated
in
our
first
remarks
about
them.
Such
a
doctrine
has
many
kinds
of
difficulties.
Its
most
absurd
assertion
is
that
there
are
natures
apart
from
those
in
the
world,
and
that
these
are
the
same
as
the
perceptible
things
except
that
the
one
group
is
eternal
while
the
other
is
perishable.
For
they
say
that
there
is
Man,
himself
and
nothing
else,
and
likewise
Horse
and
Health
and
so
on.
Doing
this
is
just
about
the
same
as
believing
that
the
gods
have
a
man
form.
Such
a
belief
does
nothing
but
make
the
gods
into
eternal
men.
Likewise
this
doctrine
makes
Forms
nothing
but
eternal
perceptible
things.
-‐-‐
M
iii.2
997b5-‐12
Passage
3
is
a
classic
form
of
criticism
of
rationalism:
notice
how
it
gives
a
diagnosis
of
the
rationalist
position
as
being
motivated
by
something
like
vulgar
superstition.
Here
is
a
more
recent
example
of
the
same
form.
David
Hume
(1711-‐1776),
a
modern
anti-‐rationalist,
gives
this
version
against
a
Cartesian
position.
(4)
The
generality
of
mankind
never
find
any
difficulty
in
accounting
for
the
more
common
and
familiar
operations
of
nature.
.
.
.
It
is
only
on
the
discovery
of
extraordinary
phenomena,
such
as
earthquakes,
pestilence,
and
prodigies
of
any
kind,
that
they
find
themselves
at
a
loss
to
assign
a
proper
cause,
and
to
explain
the
manner,
in
which
the
effect
is
produced
by
it.
It
is
usual
for
men,
in
such
difficulties,
to
have
resource
to
some
invisible
intelligent
principle,
as
the
immediate
cause
of
that
event,
which
surprises
them,
and
which
they
think,
cannot
be
accounted
for
from
the
common
powers
of
nature.
.
.
.
Many
philosophers
[in
order
to
explain
cause
and
effect]
think
themselves
obliged
by
reason
to
have
recourse,
on
all
occasions,
to
the
same
principle,
which
the
vulgar
never
appeal
to
but
in
cases,
that
appear
miraculous
and
supernatural.
-‐-‐
Hume,
Enquiry,
sec.
7,
part
1
But
let’s
go
back
to
Aristotle.
Here
is
the
passage
that
contains
his
most
caustic
remark
about
the
Forms.
(5)
And
it
is
not
possible
for
something
to
be
pale
[such
as
Pale
Itself]
which
is
not
something
else
being
pale.
For
we
can
say
goodbye
to
the
Forms;
they
are
mere
twittering.
Even
if
they
exist,
they
add
nothing
to
an
account.
Such
accounts
are
the
business
of
scientific
demonstrations.-‐-‐
APo
i.22
83a31-‐35
II.
THE
THIRD
MAN
ARGUMENT
3
George Rudebusch
We
saw
Aristotle
mention
the
Third
Man
Argument
at
M
i.9
(the
end
of
passage
1
above).
Here
is
another
place:
(6)
Nothing
that
is
predicated
in
common
of
many
things
is
a
‘this’;
it
is
a
‘such’.
If
not,
many
problems
follow,
especially
the
third
man.
-‐-‐
M
vii.13
1039a1-‐3
What
is
the
third
man?
Plato
appears
to
have
invented
this
argument
in
the
Parmenides.
In
that
dialogue,
a
young
Socrates
meets
the
elder
Parmenides
and
tells
him
how
a
theory
of
Forms
can
solve
some
philosophical
problems.
Parmenides
questions
Socrates
in
a
way
that
shows
that
Socrates’
notion
of
particular
things
‘sharing
in’
the
Forms
is
obscure.
Then
he
raises
another
problem.
(7)
Parmenides:
I
suppose
that
you
think
that
each
Form
is
one
thing
for
the
following
sort
of
reason.
Whenever
many
things
seem
to
you
to
be
large,
there
perhaps
seems
to
be
some
one
characteristic
that
is
the
same
when
you
look
at
all
of
them.
Hence
you
suppose
that
‘large’
is
one
thing.
Socrates:
True.
P:
But
now
take
‘large’
itself
and
the
other
things
that
are
large.
Whenever
in
the
same
manner
you
look
with
the
mind’s
eye
at
this
new
collection,
doesn’t
one
thing
make
its
appearance
-‐-‐
another
‘large’,
the
‘large’
by
which
all
of
these
appear
large?
S:
It
seems
so.
P:
Then
another
Form
Largeness
will
have
been
brought
to
light,
apart
from
Largeness
itself
and
the
things
that
share
in
it.
Moreover,
when
you
look
at
all
these,
another
‘large’
makes
its
appearance,
by
which
all
of
these
shall
be
large.
So
each
of
your
Forms
will
no
longer
be
one,
but
unlimited
in
number.
-‐-‐
Prm.
132a1-‐b2
(8)
Socrates:
The
best
I
can
make
of
the
matter
is
this.
‘Forms’
are
as
it
were
patterns
fixed
in
the
nature
of
things.
The
other
things
are
copied
from
the
Forms
and
are
similarities.
‘Other
things
coming
to
share
in
the
Forms’
means
nothing
but
that
they
become
likenesses
of
Forms.
Parmenides:
Well,
if
something
is
copied
from
the
Form,
doesn’t
the
Form
have
to
be
similar
to
the
thing
made
like
it
in
whatever
way
the
thing
became
similar
to
it?
Or
is
it
feasible
that
the
thing
that’s
similar
not
be
similar
to
what
it
is
similar
to?
S:
That’s
not
possible.
4
George Rudebusch
P:
Then,
by
great
necessity,
must
not
the
thing
that’s
similar
to
something
share
in
some
one
thing
with
the
thing
that
it
is
similar
to?
S:
It
is
necessary.
P:
And
won’t
that
which
is
shared
in,
which
makes
the
similar
things
similar,
be
the
Form
itself?
S:
I
guess
so.
P:
Then
it
is
not
possible
for
something
to
be
similar
to
a
Form
or
for
a
Form
to
be
similar
to
something
else,
unless
-‐-‐
apart
from
that
Form
-‐-‐
another
Form
is
always
going
to
be
appearing.
And
if
that
other
Form
is
similar
to
the
first,
still
another
will
appear.
And
a
new
Form
will
never
stop
appearing,
again
and
again,
so
long
as
the
Form
is
similar
to
what
shares
in
it.
-‐-‐
Prm.
132c12-‐133a3
It
seems
that
Aristotle
gave
his
own
version
of
the
Third
Man
in
a
work
of
his
that
has
been
lost,
On
Ideas.
However,
one
of
the
best
of
the
ancient
commentators
on
Aristotle,
Alexander
of
Aphrodisias,
explains
the
argument
in
his
commentary
on
the
passage
you
have
already
read
at
passage
1
above
(M
990b17).
(9)
Here
is
the
argument
that
leads
to
the
third
man.
The
Platonists
say
that
if
something
[call
it
F-‐itself]
is
predicated
in
common
of
more
than
one
substance,
then
F-‐itself
is
legitimately
said
to
be
F,
and
that
F-‐itself
is
an
Idea.
They
also
say
that
things
[call
them
Fs]
that
are
similar
to
each
other
are
so
by
sharing
in
the
same
thing
[call
it
F-‐itself],
and
that
F-‐itself
is
legitimately
called
an
F,
and
that
F-‐itself
is
an
Idea.
Let’s
suppose
that
they’re
right,
and
that
the
thing
which
is
predicated
in
common
of
things,
if
it
is
not
the
same
as
any
of
these
things
of
which
it
is
predicated,
is
something
different
and
apart
from
these.
(This
is
why
Man
Himself
is
a
genus:
because
while
predicated
of
particular
men,
he
is
the
same
as
none
of
them.)
Then
there
will
be
a
third
man,
apart
from
the
particular
men
such
as
Socrates
and
Plato,
and
apart
from
the
Idea.
And
this
third
man
will
itself
be
one
in
number."
-‐-‐
CAG
I
83.34-‐84.7
(10)
The
third
man
is
also
proved
as
follows.
Suppose
that
that
which
is
truly
predicated
of
more
than
one
thing
is
different
and
apart
from
the
things
of
which
it
is
predicated
and
separated
from
them.
(Those
who
believe
in
Forms
are
of
the
opinion
that
they
have
proved
this.
For
this
is
why,
according
to
them,
there
exists
a
Man
Himself:
because
man
is
truly
predicated
of
the
particular
men,
who
are
numerous,
and
is
different
from
them.)
If
this
is
so,
there
will
be
a
third
man.
For
if
what
is
predicated
[that
is,
man]
is
different
from
the
things
of
which
it
is
predicated
[that
is,
the
particular
men],
and
subsists
independently,
and
5
George Rudebusch
man
is
predicated
of
particular
men
and
of
the
Idea,
there
will
be
a
third
man
apart
from
the
particular
men
and
the
Idea.
And
in
this
way
there
will
also
be
a
fourth
man,
who
is
predicated
of
the
third
man,
the
Form,
and
the
particular
men.
And
in
a
similar
way
there
will
be
a
fifth,
and
so
on
without
limit.
This
account
is
the
same
as
the
first
one
[CAG
I
83.34-‐84.7],
since
it
follows
from
the
assumption
that
things
that
are
similar
are
so
by
sharing
in
the
same
thing,
for
men
and
the
Ideas
are
similar.
-‐-‐
CAG
I
84.21-‐85.5
WA
2>>
With
reference
to
these
versions,
write
out
your
own
version
of
the
Third
Man
Argument.
Make
sure
the
following
steps
are
all
separated,
so
that
you
can
examine
each
one
in
itself:
the
fact
that
there
are
similarities
(or
that
we
make
predications),
the
one-‐over-‐
many
step,
and
the
one-‐is-‐similar-‐to-‐the-‐many
(or
self-‐predication)
step.
III.
DOES
ARISTOTLE
(DO
YOU?)
BELIEVE
THERE
IS
A
ONE
OVER
MANY?
No
one
questions
the
fact
that
there
are
similarities
(that
we
make
predications).
Nominalists
escape
from
the
clutches
of
this
argument
by
denying
that
there
is
a
one
over
many.
WA
3>>
After
studying
the
following
passages
(11
through
15),
decide
if
nominalism
is
your
own
response
and
if
it
is
Aristotle’s.
The
following
commentary
on
passage
2
above
(written
by
Alexander
of
Aphrodisias)
tells
us
how
Aristotelians
understood
the
arguments
from
the
sciences.
(11)
The
Platonists
used
the
sciences
in
more
than
one
way
to
establish
the
existence
of
the
Ideas,
as
Aristotle
says
in
book
I
of
On
Ideas.
In
this
passage
[M
990b11]
he
seems
to
have
in
mind
the
following
sorts
of
arguments.
(i)If
each
science
does
its
work
by
making
reference
to
some
thing
which
is
one
and
the
same,
not
to
any
of
the
particulars,
then
there
must
be
something
other
than
the
particulars,
apart
from
the
perceptible
things,
something
eternal
which
is
a
pattern
for
the
temporal
things
studied
by
each
of
the
sciences.
The
Idea
is
this
sort
of
thing.
(ii)Whatever
a
science
is
a
science
of
must
exist.
But
the
sciences
are
of
things
different
and
apart
from
the
particulars.
For
particulars
are
unlimited
and
undefined,
but
the
sciences
are
of
definite
things.
Therefore
things
exist
apart
from
the
particulars,
and
these
are
the
Ideas.
(iii)If
medical
science
is
not
the
science
of
this
particular
healthy
thing,
but
of
health
which
is
not
a
particular
thing,
there
will
be
a
health-‐itself.
And
if
geometry
is
not
the
science
of
this
particular
equal
thing
and
this
particular
divisible
thing,
but
of
the
equal
and
the
divisible
that
is
not
a
particular
6
George Rudebusch
thing,
there
will
be
an
equal-‐itself
and
a
divisible-‐itself,
and
these
are
the
Ideas.
Such
arguments
do
not
prove
what
they
pretend
to,
that
the
Ideas
exist.
But
they
do
prove
that
there
is
something
apart
from
particular
and
perceptible
things.
It
does
not
follow
from
the
fact
that
there
are
things
apart
from
the
particulars
that
these
things
are
the
Ideas,
for
there
are
Universals
apart
from
the
particulars.
Our
own
position
is
that
the
Universals
are
what
the
sciences
are
of."
-‐-‐
CAG
I
79.3-‐19
A
little
further
on,
Alexander
(commenting
on
M
990b13)
gives
the
Aristotelian
position
on
the
one-‐over-‐many
inference.
(12)
The
Platonists
also
used
the
following
argument
to
establish
the
existence
of
the
Ideas.
(i)
Each
of
the
many
men
is
man,
and
each
of
the
many
animals
is
animal,
and
likewise
for
all
the
others.
(ii)
It
cannot
be
that
the
same
thing
is
being
predicated
of
itself
in
each
case,
but
rather
there
is
something
which
is
predicated
of
all
men
(etc.)
but
which
is
the
same
as
none
of
them.
(iii)
Therefore
there
is
something
that
has
to
do
with
particular
men,
apart
from
them,
separated
from
them.
(iv)
This
thing
is
eternal
(for
it
is
always
predicated
in
the
same
way
of
all
the
numerically
different
particulars).
(v)
Whatever
is
one
over
many,
separated
from
them
and
eternal,
is
an
Idea.
(vi)
Therefore
the
Ideas
exist.
Aristotle
is
saying
that
this
argument
establishes
the
existence
of
Ideas
even
for
negations,
that
is,
for
things
that
are
not
F
[for
any
given
F].
For
even
a
negation
[call
it
not
F]
is
one
and
the
same
thing
predicated
of
many
things,
that
is,
of
the
things
that
are
not
F.
And
not
F
is
the
same
as
none
of
the
things
of
which
it
is
true.
For
not
man
is
predicated
of
horse
and
dog
and
everything
apart
from
the
man.
Therefore
it
is
one
over
many
and
it
is
the
same
as
none
of
the
things
of
which
it
is
predicated.
Furthermore,
a
negation
is
always
true
of
similar
things
in
the
same
way.
For
not
cultured
is
true
of
many
things
(of
everything
that
is
not
cultured).
And
not
man
is
true
in
the
same
way
of
everything
that
is
not
man.
And
so
there
will
be
Ideas
of
negations.
But
this
is
absurd.
For
how
could
there
be
an
idea
of
what
is
not
F
[for
any
given
F]?
For
if
this
is
so,
there
will
be
a
single
Idea
which
is
a
pattern
of
7
George Rudebusch
things
which
are
not
even
in
the
same
genus
and
differ
in
every
respect
-‐-‐
as
it
might
happen,
of
a
line
and
a
man,
for
neither
of
these
are
horses.
Furthermore,
there
will
even
be
a
single
Idea
of
the
unlimited.
.
.
.
It
is
clear
that
the
one-‐over-‐many
argument
does
not
validly
show
that
there
are
Ideas.
It,
like
the
others,
proves
that
the
thing
predicated
in
common
is
something
different
from
the
particulars
of
which
it
is
predicated.
-‐-‐
CAG
I
80.8-‐81.10
Here
are
some
words
straight
out
of
Aristotle
making
the
same
sort
of
point
as
just
seen
in
Alexander’s
commentary:
you
do
need
a
one-‐
over-‐many,
but
not
a
Form!
(13)
For
there
to
be
scientific
reasoning,
you
do
not
need
the
existence
of
a
Form
or
some
one
thing
apart
from
the
many
things.
However,
you
do
need
it
to
be
true
to
say
some
one
thing
of
many
things.
For
unless
you
have
this
much,
there
will
not
be
a
Universal.
And
if
you
don’t
have
a
Universal,
you
won’t
have
any
generality,
or,
therefore,
any
scientific
reasoning.
So
there
has
to
be
something
over
the
many
that
is
one
and
the
same
and
non-‐homonymous.4
-‐-‐
APo
i.11
77a5-‐9
(14)
Whenever
you
have
some
one
definition
and
the
Universal
is
not
homonymous
[see
note
5
above],
you
have
some
one
thing
that
is
no
less
one
than
some
of
the
particulars.
Indeed
it
is
more
one,
inasmuch
as
the
definitions
are
imperishable,
while
the
particulars
are
more
perishable.
But
remember,
there
is
no
need
to
draw
the
conclusion
that
something
is
apart
from
the
particulars,
just
because
a
one
shows.
Think
of
other
cases
where
there
is
no
such
need:
to
say
how
much
does
not
indicate
something
[apart
from
the
particulars,
just
because
one
quantity
shows],
nor
to
say
what
sort
4
You
will
be
running
across
the
word
‘homonymous’
now
and
again
in
Aristotle.
Aristotle
defines
‘homonymous’
in
the
first
sentences
of
the
Categories:
When
things
have
only
a
name
in
common,
and
the
definition
of
the
substance
is
different
for
each
name,
they
are
called
‘homonymous’.
For
example,
both
a
man
and
a
line
drawing
are
an
animal.
[Think
how,
if
someone
were
to
ask
you,
‘What
is
that?’
about
both
a
man
and
a
line
drawing,
the
answer
in
both
cases
might
be,
‘That’s
an
animal.’]
Here
only
the
name
is
the
same,
while
the
definition
of
the
substance
is
different
for
each
name.
For
if
someone
were
to
give
an
explanation
of
what
it
is
to
be
an
animal
for
each
of
these,
he
would
give
distinct
definitions
for
each.
[Part
of
the
‘definition
of
the
substance’
of
the
man
animal
will
be
Natural
Substance,
specifically,
Living
Thing;
part
of
the
‘definition
of
the
substance’
of
the
animal
drawing
will
be
Artifact,
specifically,
Representation.]
8
George Rudebusch
[which
shows
one
quality],
nor
to
say
in
relation
to
what
[which
shows
one
relation],
nor
to
say
what
doing
[which
shows
one
action].
So
if
someone
were
to
draw
the
conclusion
that
because
there
is
a
one
there
is
something
apart
from
the
particulars,
there
would
be
no
logical
-‐-‐
only
a
psychological
–
reason
for
what
they
have
done.
-‐-‐
APo
i.24
88b15-‐22
The
next
passage
is
from
a
part
of
the
Metaphysics
where
Aristotle
is
introducing
some
of
the
puzzles
he
will
examine
in
that
work.
(15)
Connected
to
the
puzzles
about
genera
and
species
as
principles
is
another
puzzle
which
is
the
most
difficult
of
all
and
which
we
need
most
to
examine.
.
.
.
If
there
is
nothing
apart
from
the
particulars,
and
the
particulars
are
unlimited,
how
is
it
possible
to
get
scientific
understanding
of
the
unlimited?
For
it
is
insofar
as
there
is
something
that
is
one
and
the
same,
it
is
insofar
as
there
is
something
universal,
that
we
have
knowledge
of
anything.
But
if
this
is
necessary
-‐-‐
that
is,
if
there
must
be
something
apart
from
the
particulars
-‐
-‐
then
the
genera
must
exist
apart
from
the
particulars,
whether
the
ones
that
so
exist
are
the
most
specific
or
the
most
abstract
of
them.
But
we
have
already
shown
that
to
be
impossible
[see
passages
1,
2,
and
3
above].
.
.
.
If
there
is
nothing
apart
from
the
particulars,
then
the
object
of
reasoning
cannot
be
one
thing.
Everything
would
be
an
object
of
perception,
nothing
an
object
of
scientific
understanding
-‐-‐
unless
someone
were
to
say
that
knowledge
is
perception.
Furthermore,
if
there
is
nothing
apart
from
the
particulars,
there
will
be
nothing
eternal
or
unchangeable
(for
all
perceptible
objects
perish
and
are
in
flux).
But
if
nothing
is
eternal,
there
cannot
be
a
process
of
change.5
-‐-‐
M
iii.4
999a24-‐b6
IV.
IS
ARISTOTLE
(ARE
YOU)
A
NOMINALIST
OR
CONCEPTUALIST?
Are
Aristotle’s
Universals
just
words?
Aristotle,
as
you
have
seen,
thinks
there
must
be
"something
predicated
in
common."
This
certainly
sounds
like
a
linguistic,
not
a
metaphysical
object.
Perhaps
most
suggestive
is
this
statement
which
you
saw
in
passage
13.
(16)
You
do
not
need
the
existence
of
a
Form
or
some
one
thing
apart
from
the
many
things.
However,
you
do
need
it
to
be
true
to
say
some
one
thing
of
many
things.
For
unless
you
have
this
much,
there
will
not
be
a
Universal."
5
Aristotle’s
account
of
change
(mainly
in
Physics
i.7
and
v)
-‐-‐
and
why
it
requires
immovable
objects
-‐-‐
is
different
from
Plato’s
refutation
of
the
Flux
Theory
in
the
Theaetetus,
but
clearly
descended
from
it.
9
George Rudebusch
If
Aristotle
does
think
that
the
only
thing
that
can
be
a
one
over
many
is
a
word,
he
is
a
nominalist.
In
a
classic
statement
of
the
twentieth
century,
Willard
Quine
explains
how
such
a
nominalism
would
work.
(17)
One
may
admit
that
there
are
red
houses,
roses,
and
sunsets,
but
deny,
except
as
a
popular
and
misleading
manner
of
speaking,
that
they
have
anything
in
common.
The
words
‘houses’,
‘roses’,
and
‘sunsets’
are
true
of
sundry
individual
entities
which
are
houses
and
roses
and
sunsets,
and
the
word
‘red’
or
‘red
object’
is
true
of
each
of
sundry
individual
entities
which
are
red
houses,
red
roses,
red
sunsets;
but
there
is
not,
in
addition,
any
entity
whatever,
individual
or
otherwise,
which
is
named
by
the
word
‘redness’,
nor,
for
that
matter,
by
the
word
‘househood’,
‘rosehood’,
‘sunsethood’.
That
the
houses
and
roses
and
sunsets
are
all
of
them
red
may
be
taken
as
ultimate
and
irreducible,
and
it
may
be
held
that
[the
Platonist]
is
no
better
off,
in
point
of
real
explanatory
power,
for
all
the
occult
entities
which
he
posits
under
such
names
as
‘redness’.6
(Do
you
see
the
similarity
between
the
passages
16
and
17?
For
the
record,
Quine
does
not
believe
we
can
be
nominalists
about
every
one
over
many.)
But
the
following
passage
seems
to
rule
out
a
nominalist
interpretation
of
Aristotle.
It
is
from
M
i.9,
which,
as
you
saw
above
(passages
1
and
2),
raises
problems
for
the
theory
of
Forms.
Here
is
the
context:
Aristotle
considers
the
possibility
that
a
Platonist
might
try
to
deny
that
there
is
any
third
F
shared
by
the
Form
F
and
the
particular
Fs
(perhaps
the
Platonist
would
try
this
as
a
way
to
escape
from
the
problem
of
the
third
man).
Aristotle
points
out
the
problem
this
would
raise
for
the
Platonist:
(18)
If
the
Form
F
and
the
particular
Fs
do
not
share
the
same
thing,
some
third
F,
then
the
Form
F
and
the
particular
Fs
would
be
homonymous
[see
note
5],
that
is,
it
would
be
exactly
as
if
someone
who
had
observed
nothing
in
common
between
them
were
to
call
both
Callias
and
a
wooden
image
‘man’.-‐
-‐
M
i.9
991a5-‐8
WA
4>>
If
two
things
just
share
a
name
in
common,
they
are
homonymous
and
"one
can
observe
nothing
in
common
between
them."
But,
as
we
have
seen,
Aristotle
thinks
that
such
a
result
is
absurd.
If
this
is
all
there
is
to
the
similarity
between,
say,
two
men,
scientific
reasoning
would
be
impossible.
Quote
from
the
passages
above
to
show
that
this
is
Aristotle’s
view.
6
"On
What
There
Is,"
p.
10
in
From
a
Logical
Point
of
View,
edn.
2
11
George Rudebusch
not
thereby
shown
to
exist!
But
the
argument,
to
my
way
of
thinking,
is
only
a
particular
sort
of
argument
from
science.
Find
arguments
from
science
which
Aristotle
apparently
accepts
in
the
passages
above
and
quote
them.
Does
Aristotle
think
that
either
science,
scientific
reasoning,
or
thought
(as
opposed
to
perception)
is
possible
without
there
being
something,
common
to
many
particulars,
of
which
the
science,
reasoning,
or
thought
is
of?
WA
7>>
The
third
and
final
problem
which
I
shall
raise
for
conceptualism
is
this:
how
does
it
escape
from
the
Third
Man
Argument?
What
I
mean
is
this.
Suppose
that
the
only
difference
between
a
Platonic
Form
and
an
Aristotelian
Universal
is
that
the
Form
is
somehow
outside
the
mind
while
the
Universal
is
somehow
in
the
mind.
Show
that
the
Third
Man
Argument
works
just
as
well
in
either
case.
You
may
be
interested
to
compare
your
effort
with
two
twentieth
century
philosophers,
Ludwig
Wittgenstein
and
Gilbert
Ryle,
who
direct
the
third
man
(or
third
flower
or
third
proposition)
argument
against
mental,
not
platonic,
objects.
(20)
If
I
give
someone
the
order
‘fetch
me
a
red
flower
from
that
meadow’,
how
is
he
to
know
what
sort
of
flower
to
bring,
as
I
have
only
given
him
a
word?
[This
is
a
case,
it
seems,
where
one
needs
thought,
not
mere
perception.]
Now
the
answer
one
might
suggest
first
is
that
he
went
to
look
for
a
red
flower
carrying
a
red
image
in
his
mind,
and
comparing
it
with
the
flowers
to
see
which
of
them
had
the
colour
of
the
image.
Now
there
is
such
a
way
of
searching,
and
it
is
not
at
all
essential
that
the
image
we
use
should
be
a
mental
one.
In
fact
the
process
may
be
this:
I
carry
a
chart
co-‐ordinating
names
and
coloured
squares.
When
I
hear
the
order
‘fetch
me
etc.’
I
draw
my
finger
across
the
chart
from
the
word
‘red’
to
a
certain
square,
and
I
go
and
look
for
a
flower
which
has
the
same
colour
as
the
square.
But
this
is
not
the
only
way
of
searching
and
it
isn’t
the
usual
way.
We
go,
look
about
us,
walk
up
to
a
flower
and
pick
it,
without
comparing
it
to
anything.
To
see
that
the
process
of
obeying
the
order
can
be
of
this
kind,
consider
the
order
‘imagine
a
red
patch’.
You
are
not
tempted
in
this
case
to
think
that
before
obeying
you
must
have
imagined
a
red
patch
to
serve
you
as
a
pattern
for
the
red
patch
which
you
were
ordered
to
imagine.
-‐-‐Wittgenstein,
p.
3,
The
Blue
and
Brown
Books
(New
York:
Harper
and
Row,
1958).
(21)
To
do
something
thinking
what
one
is
doing
is,
according
to
this
[‘intellectualist’]
legend,
always
to
do
two
things:
namely,
to
consider
certain
appropriate
propositions,
or
prescriptions,
and
to
put
into
practice
what
these
propositions
or
prescriptions
enjoin.
It
is
to
do
a
bit
of
theory
and
then
to
do
a
bit
of
practice.
Certainly
we
often
do
not
only
reflect
before
we
act
but
reflect
in
order
to
act
properly.
The
chess-‐player
may
require
some
time
in
which
to
plan
his
moves
before
he
makes
them.
Yet
the
general
assertion
that
all
intelligent
12
George Rudebusch
performance
requires
to
be
prefaced
by
the
consideration
of
appropriate
propositions
rings
unplausibly,
even
when
it
is
apologetically
conceded
that
the
required
consideration
is
often
very
swift
and
may
go
quite
unmarked
by
the
agent.
I
shall
argue
that
the
intellectualist
legend
is
false
and
that
when
we
describe
a
performance
as
intelligent,
this
does
not
entail
the
double
operation
of
considering
and
executing.
.
.
.
The
crucial
objection
to
the
intellectualist
legend
is
this.
The
consideration
of
propositions
is
itself
an
operation
the
execution
of
which
can
be
more
or
less
intelligent,
less
or
more
stupid.
But
if,
for
any
operation
to
be
intelligently
executed,
a
prior
theoretical
operation
had
first
to
be
performed
and
performed
intelligently,
it
would
be
a
logical
impossibility
for
anyone
ever
to
break
into
the
circle.
Let
us
consider
some
salient
points
at
which
this
regress
would
arise.
According
to
the
legend,
whenever
an
agent
does
anything
intelligently,
his
act
is
preceded
and
steered
by
another
internal
act
of
considering
a
regulative
proposition
appropriate
to
this
practical
problem.
But
what
makes
him
consider
the
one
maxim
which
is
appropriate
rather
than
any
of
the
thousands
which
are
not?
Why
does
the
hero
not
find
himself
calling
to
mind
a
cooking-‐recipe
or
a
rule
of
Formal
Logic?
Perhaps
he
does,
but
then
his
intellectual
process
is
silly
and
not
sensible.
Intelligently
reflecting
how
to
act
is,
among
other
things,
considering
what
is
pertinent
and
disregarding
what
is
inappropriate.
Must
we
then
say
that
for
the
hero’s
reflections
how
to
act
to
be
intelligent
he
must
first
reflect
how
best
to
reflect
how
to
act?
The
endlessness
of
this
implied
regress
shows
that
the
application
of
the
criterion
of
appropriateness
does
not
entail
the
occurrence
of
a
process
of
considering
this
criterion."
-‐-‐Ryle,
pp.
29-‐31,
The
Concept
of
Mind
(New
York:
Harper
and
Row,
1948).
V.
THE
SIMILARITY
(OR
SELF-‐PREDICATION)
STEP
The
Third
Man
Argument
has
only
a
couple
of
steps.
If
we
accept
the
one-‐over-‐many
step,
the
only
other
step
to
question
seems
to
be
the
similarity
step,
which
claims
that
the
way
in
which
men
are
similar
-‐-‐
call
this
Man-‐himself
-‐-‐
is
itself
similar
to
men.
Review
the
passages
which
contain
arguments
like
the
third
man
-‐-‐
7,
8,
9,
10,
and,
for
those
who
like
a
challenge,
20
and
21
-‐-‐
to
see
how
in
each
argument
this
step
is
essential
to
getting
the
regress
going.
Does
Aristotle
escape
from
the
third
man
by
denying
this
step?
Many
interpreters
in
the
past
century
have
thought
that
the
similarity
(or,
as
they
usually
call
it,
the
‘self-‐predication’)
step
is
not
true.
Man-‐
himself
is
an
abstraction:
so
it
does
not
have
a
material
body,
nor
does
it
change
or
move
about
in
space,
nor
is
it
alive
or
rational.
So
it
does
not
seem
to
be
similar
to
particular
men.
Indeed
for
the
first
third
of
the
twentieth
century,
there
were
technical
reasons,
having
to
do
with
the
resolution
of
Russell’s
paradox,
to
call
statements
of
self-‐predication,
like
‘Largeness
is
large’
or
‘Man-‐himself
is
man’,
not
just
false
but
meaningless.
But
it
was
13
George Rudebusch
recognized
in
the
thirties
that
Gödel’s
work
showed
that
there
is
no
necessary
incoherence
in
statements
of
self-‐predication.
If
the
similarity
thesis
is
obviously
false
(or
nonsense),
we
might
expect
that
Aristotle
would
never
make
the
mistake
of
believing
it.
It
does
become
a
problem,
of
course,
in
explaining
how
Plato
could
ever
have
believed
it!
I
myself
see
nothing
wrong
in
the
similarity
step.
The
one
over
the
many,
the
thing
that
is
predicated
in
common
of
many,
is
an
abstraction.
No
concrete
object,
no
matter
how
large
or
how
man,
could
ever
be
Largeness
or
Man-‐himself.
But
it
does
not
follow
that
there
is
no
relevant
similarity
between
Largeness
and
particular
large
objects,
or
between
Man-‐himself
and
particular
men.
We
have
already
seen
passages,
in
the
Republic
(523-‐526),
which
point
out
a
relevant
similarity.
Both
Largeness
and
large
objects
are
similar
in
this
way:
they
both
provide
answers
to
the
question,
What
is
it
to
be
large?
Likewise
both
Man-‐himself
and
particular
men
provide
answers
to
the
question,
What
is
it
to
be
man?
Aristotle
seems
to
insist
on
this
sort
of
similarity
between
universal
and
particular.
(22)
What
in
the
world
do
[Platonists]
mean
by
‘a
thing
itself’,
if
(as
is
the
case)
in
Man-‐himself
and
in
a
particular
man
the
account
of
man
[that
is,
the
answer
you
give
to
the
question,
What
is
it
to
be
man?]
is
one
and
the
same?
For
insofar
as
they
are
man,
they
will
in
no
way
differ.-‐-‐
NE
i.6
1096a34-‐b2
Indeed
you
have
already
seen
passages
where
Aristotle
insists
that
the
universal
and
particular
must
share
something
more
than
a
mere
name;
in
his
jargon,
they
cannot
be
homonymous.
(WA
8>>
Quote
those
passages.)
So
he
must
accept
the
similarity
step.
As
we
would
expect,
then,
Aristotle
finds
the
notion
of
self-‐predication
to
make
sense
and
be
true.
(23)
Each
kind
of
predicate,
if
either
it
be
asserted
of
itself
[for
example,
‘man
is
man’],
or
its
genus
be
asserted
of
it
[for
example,
‘man
is
animal’]
signifies
[an
answer
to
the
question]
what
it
is."
-‐-‐
T
i.9
103b35-‐37
The
question
gets
more
and
more
intriguing:
if
Aristotle
accepts
the
one-‐over-‐many
step
and
the
similarity
(or
self-‐predication)
step,
then
why
does
he
think
the
Third
Man
Argument
demolishes
Plato’s
theory
of
Forms,
but
leaves
Aristotle’s
theory
of
Universals
unharmed?
VI.
WHAT
MISTAKE
DOES
THE
THEORY
OF
FORMS
MAKE?
14
George Rudebusch
We
have
seen
that
Aristotle
cannot
think
Plato’s
mistake
is
accepting
the
one-‐over-‐many
or
the
similarity
step.
Indeed
he
never
says
either
step
is
a
mistake.
So
what,
in
his
view,
is
Plato’s
mistake?
There
are
two
famous
slogans
used
by
Aristotelians
to
describe
Plato’s
mistake.
The
first
is
that
Plato’s
Forms
turn
universals
into
particulars
(or
turn
a
‘such’
into
a
‘this’).
In
a
work
on
fallacies
known
as
Sophistical
Refutations,
Aristotle
mentions
the
third
man.
(24)
There
is
also
the
argument
that
there
is
a
third
man
apart
from
Man-‐himself
and
particular
men.
The
fallacy
is
that
man
and
everything
predicated
in
common
is
not
a
‘this’
but
either
a
‘such’
or
a
‘in
relation
to
something’
or
a
‘how’
or
the
like.
-‐-‐
SE
xxii
178b36-‐179a1
In
the
Metaphysics
he
repeats
that
turning
a
‘such’
into
a
‘this’
is
a
mistake,
and
mentions
another
sort
of
absurdity
it
would
lead
to.
(25)
If
first
principles
are
universal,
they
will
not
be
substances.
For
nothing
predicated
in
common
indicates
a
‘this’;
it
indicates
a
‘such’.
But
substance
is
a
‘this’.
And
if
the
thing
predicated
in
common
is
made
out
to
be
a
this
and
one
thing,
Socrates
will
be
many
animals!
-‐-‐
himself,
man,
and
animal!
-‐-‐
this
will
happen
if
man
and
animal
each
indicates
a
‘this’
and
one
thing."
-‐-‐
M
iii.6
1003a7-‐12
The
question
is,
What
in
the
world
does
it
mean
to
say
Plato
turns
a
‘such’
into
a
‘this’?
We
have
seen
enough
of
Plato
to
be
able
to
guess
a
reply
he
could
make
to
this
accusation:
Aristotle,
don’t
you
agree
with
the
following
conclusion?
(26)
-‐-‐
Since
beautiful
and
ugly
are
opposites,
they
are
two
in
number.
-‐-‐
They
have
to
be.
-‐-‐
And
since
they
are
two,
each
is
one.
-‐-‐
This
has
to
be,
too.
-‐-‐
The
same
reasoning
holds
concerning
just
and
unjust,
good
and
bad,
and
all
the
other
Forms:
each
itself
is
one
thing.
But
each
one
seems
to
be
many
things
when
it
appears
everywhere,
shared
in
common
by
actions
and
bodies
and
other
things.
-‐-‐
Republic
v
475e9-‐476a7
Those
who
have
read
the
Euthyphro
may
remember
this
passage,
too.
(27)
15
George Rudebusch
"Tell
me
what
sort
of
thing
the
pious
and
impious
are,
in
the
case
of
murder
and
everything
else.
Or
don’t
you
think
that
the
holy
itself
is,
in
itself,
the
same
thing
in
every
action,
and
that
the
unholy
is
completely
opposite
to
the
holy,
and
that
the
unholy
itself
is
like
itself
in
every
action,
and
that
it
has
some
one
form,
which
will
be
found
in
everything
that
is
unholy?"
-‐-‐
Euthyphro
5c5-‐d9
So
it
seems
to
me
that
Plato
can
fairly
ask:
Aristotle,
if
each
Form,
or
Universal,
or
whatever
you
want
to
call
it,
is
one
thing,
why
isn’t
it
a
particular
individual?
Why
isn’t
it,
in
fact,
a
‘this’?
WA
9>>
We
have
seen
that
Aristotle
has
to
agree
that
each
abstraction
-‐-‐call
it
‘Form’,
‘Universal’,
‘thing
predicated
in
common’,
a
‘such’
or
whatever
-‐-‐
is
one
thing.
Quote
where
Aristotle
says
this
in
passages
11,
13
and
14.)
So
what
does
Aristotle
mean?
WA
10>>
As
I
said
above,
there
is
another
slogan
used
by
Aristotelians
to
describe
Plato’s
mistake.
Plato’s
mistake
is
that
he
"separates"
the
Universal.
It’s
not
wrong
to
think
of
the
thing
predicated
in
common
as
one
thing;
it’s
wrong
to
think
it
is
something
apart
from
("separated
from")
the
many
particulars.
Find
where
Aristotle
makes
this
accusation
in
passage
14.
Now
quote
from
passages
13,
15,
and
16
to
show
that
this
is
seen
as
the
problem
in
those
passages,
too.
Again,
it
is
easy
to
imagine
Plato’s
reply:
Aristotle,
if
the
Universal
is
one
and
the
particulars
are
many,
doesn’t
the
Universal
have
to
be
different
from
the
particulars?
And
if
it
is
different,
why
isn’t
it
something
apart
-‐-‐
or
separated
-‐-‐
from
them?
WA
11>>
Quote
from
passage
12
to
show
that
Alexander,
at
least,
explicitly
admits
that
the
universal
and
particular
are
different.
What
do
you
see
in
passages
9
and
10
to
indicate
that
there,
too,
the
Aristotelians
are
ready
to
admit
that
there
is
a
difference
-‐-‐
but
not
a
separation?
If
they
are
different,
why
aren’t
they
separate?
What
does
Aristotle
mean?
(Actually
there
are
two
other
slogans
used
by
Aristotelians:
Plato’s
mistake
is
that
he
puts
the
Universal
over
the
many
particulars;
it
is
in
the
many!
What’s
the
difference?
We
have
already
seen
that
Aristotle
thinks
it
is
absurd
to
think
of
abstractions
as
being
like
paint
pigment
-‐-‐
WA
12>>
quote
from
passage
2
to
show
this.
Some
use
fancier
words
and
say
that
Plato’s
Forms
are
transcendent;
Aristotle’s
Universals
are
immanent.
‘Immanent’
means
in,
but
not
in
as
pigment
is
in.
Is
that
clear?)
Look
again
at
this
argument:
(28)
If
the
thing
predicated
in
common
is
made
out
to
be
a
this
and
one
thing,
Socrates
will
be
many
animals!
-‐-‐
himself,
man,
and
animal!
-‐-‐
this
will
16
George Rudebusch
happen
if
man
and
animal
each
indicates
a
‘this’
and
one
thing-‐-‐
M
iii.6
1003a7-‐12
Here
is
another
argument
that
is
not
spelled
out,
but
is
similar:
(29)
There
is
also
the
sophists’
question
whether
Coriscus
and
cultured
Coriscus
are
the
same
or
different-‐-‐
SE
179a1-‐2
The
argument
seems
to
work
this
way.
Coriscus
and
cultured
Coriscus
cannot
be
the
same,
since
they
come
into
existence
at
different
times
-‐
-‐
we
may
suppose
that
Coriscus
was
uncultured
for
his
first
twenty
or
thirty
years.
So
they
must
be
different.
But
if
they
are
different,
won’t
Coriscus,
absurdly,
be
two
people?
Here’s
where
we
stand.
Both
Plato
and
Aristotle
would
agree
to
the
following.
(i)
Socrates
is
one.
(ii)
Man
is
one.
(iii)
It
is
not
the
case
that
Socrates
and
man
are
the
same.
But
Aristotle
thinks
it
is
absurd
to
conclude
that
(iv)
Socrates
and
man
are
two!
To
draw
this
conclusion,
which
Plato
must
do,
is
to
make
the
mistake
of
separating
the
universal.
But
how
can
Aristotle
avoid
drawing
the
same
conclusion?
VII.
AN
EXPLANATION
OF
ARISTOTLE’S
ESCAPE
FROM
THE
ARGUMENT
Consider
the
doctrine
set
out
by
Gilbert
Ryle.
Imagine
a
foreigner
who
visits
NAU
for
the
first
time
who
is
shown
a
number
of
colleges,
the
administrative
office,
the
dormitories,
the
recreation
centers,
and
the
library.
(30)
He
then
asks
‘But
where
is
the
University?
I
have
seen
where
the
members
of
the
Colleges
live,
where
the
Registrar
works,
where
the
scientists
experiment
and
the
rest.
But
I
have
not
yet
seen
the
University
in
which
reside
and
work
the
members
of
your
University’.
It
has
then
to
be
explained
to
him
that
the
University
is
not
another
collateral
institution,
some
ulterior
counterpart
to
the
colleges,
laboratories
and
offices
which
he
has
seen.
The
University
is
just
the
way
in
which
all
that
he
has
already
seen
is
organized.
When
they
are
seen
and
when
their
co-‐ordination
is
understood,
the
17
George Rudebusch
University
has
been
seen.
His
mistake
lay
in
the
innocent
assumption
that
it
was
correct
to
speak
of
[the
Skydome,
Cline
Library,
Babbitt
Administrative
Center]
and
the
University,
to
speak,
that
is,
as
if
‘the
University’
stood
for
an
extra
member
of
the
class
of
which
these
other
units
are
members.
He
was
mistakenly
allocating
the
University
to
the
same
category
as
that
to
which
the
other
institutions
belong.
The
same
mistake
would
be
made
by
a
child
witnessing
the
march-‐past
of
a
division,
who,
having
had
pointed
out
to
him
such
and
such
battalions,
batteries,
squadrons,
etc.,
asked
when
the
division
was
going
to
appear.
He
would
be
supposing
that
division
was
a
counterpart
to
the
units
already
seen,
partly
similar
to
them
and
partly
unlike
them.
He
would
be
shown
his
mistake
by
being
told
that
in
watching
the
battalions,
batteries
and
squadrons
marching
past
he
had
been
watching
the
division
marching
past.
The
march-‐past
was
not
a
parade
of
battalions,
batteries,
squadrons
and
a
division;
it
was
a
parade
of
the
battalions,
batteries
and
squadrons
of
a
division.
.
.
.
These
illustrations
of
category
mistakes
have
a
common
feature
that
must
be
noticed.
The
mistakes
were
made
by
people
who
did
not
know
how
to
wield
the
concepts
University
or
division.
Their
puzzles
arose
from
inability
to
use
certain
items
in
the
English
vocabulary.
The
theoretically
interesting
category-‐mistakes
are
those
made
by
people
who
are
perfectly
competent
to
apply
concepts,
at
least
in
the
situations
with
which
they
are
already
familiar,
but
are
still
liable
in
their
abstract
thinking
to
allocate
those
concepts
to
logical
types
to
which
they
do
not
belong.
.
.
.
When
two
terms
belong
to
the
same
category,
it
is
proper
to
construct
conjunctive
propositions
embodying
them.
Thus
a
purchaser
may
say
that
he
bought
a
left-‐hand
glove
and
a
right-‐hand
glove,
but
not
that
he
bought
a
left-‐hand
glove,
a
right-‐hand
glove
and
a
pair
of
gloves."
-‐-‐Ryle,
pp.
16-‐22,
Concept
of
Mind.
Ryle
would
freely
admit
all
of
the
following:
(i)
One
of
the
items
I
bought
is
this
left-‐hand
glove.
(ii)
One
of
the
items
I
bought
is
this
right-‐hand
glove.
(iii)
One
of
the
items
I
bought
is
this
pair
of
gloves.
(iv)
It
is
not
the
case
that
either
this
left-‐hand
glove,
this
right-‐hand
glove
or
this
pair
of
gloves
are
the
same
item.
But
Ryle
-‐-‐
and
don’t
you
agree?
-‐-‐
thinks
it
is
absurd
to
conclude
that
(v)
Therefore
I
bought
three
items:
a
left-‐hand
glove,
a
right-‐hand
glove,
and
a
pair
of
gloves.
18
George Rudebusch
WA
13>>
What
would
Ryle
say
about
the
arguments
you
have
seen
that
Socrates
and
man
are
two,
or
that
Coriscus
and
cultured
Coriscus
are
two?
Would
you
agree?
When
Aristotle
says
that
Plato
must
call
Socrates
three
animals
(passage
28
above),
and
that
this
is
to
make
the
mistake
of
separating
the
universal,
he
has
in
mind
the
sort
of
mistake
Ryle
calls
a
category-‐
mistake.
This
is
his
escape
from
the
Third
Man
Argument.
As
a
matter
of
fact
Ryle
did
not
invent
the
notion
of
a
category
mistake.
The
idea,
like
the
name,
comes
from
Aristotle,
who
wrote
a
work
called
Categories.
We
have
seen
that
in
the
Sophistical
Refutations
Aristotle
discusses
the
Third
Man
Argument
(passage
24).
In
that
work
he
classifies
the
third
man
as
a
fallacy
due
to
grammatical
form,
which
he
defines
as
follows.
(31)
A
fallacy
due
to
grammatical
form
occurs
when
what
is
not
the
same
is
expressed
in
the
same
form,
for
example,
when
.
.
.
quality
is
expressed
by
a
quantity
or
quantity
by
quality
or
an
active
by
a
passive
or
a
condition
by
an
active
and
so
on
according
to
the
distinctions
drawn
earlier.
For
it
is
possible
for
something
that
is
not
in
the
category
of
actions
to
wear,
grammatically,
the
sign
of
something
that
is
in
the
category
of
actions.
For
example,
‘to
flourish’
is
of
the
same
grammatical
form
as
‘to
cut’
or
‘to
build’,
yet
‘to
flourish’
refers
to
a
kind
of
quality,
namely,
a
condition,
while
‘to
cut’
and
‘to
build’
each
refer
to
a
kind
of
action.
It
works
the
same
way
in
the
other
cases.
-‐-‐
SE
iv
166b10-‐19
Aristotle
says
that
we
can
deal
with
these
sorts
of
fallacies,
"since
we
possess
the
different
kinds
of
categories"
(SE
xxii
178a4-‐6).
It
is
time
to
look
at
his
idea
of
categories.
(32)
Some
things
that
are
said
are
said
linked
together.
Other
things
are
said
without
being
linked.
Examples
of
things
that
are
said
linked
together
are
‘man
runs’
or
‘man
wins’.
Examples
of
things
that
are
said
without
being
linked
together
are
‘man’,
‘ox’,
‘runs’,
‘wins’.
-‐-‐
C
ii
1a16-‐19
(33)
Of
the
things
that
are
said
without
being
linked
in
any
way,
each
indicates
either
what
it
is
[that
is,
its
substance]
or
how
much
of
it
there
is
[its
quantity]
or
what
sort
it
is
[its
quality]
or
in
what
relation
it
is
to
something
[its
relation]
or
where
it
is
[its
location]
or
when
it
is
[its
time]
or
how
it
lies
[its
orientation
or
posture]
or
what
state
it
is
in
[its
state]
or
what
it
is
doing
[its
action]
or
what
is
being
done
to
it
[its
passion].
To
give
a
rough
idea,
here
are
some
examples.
substance:
man,
horse
quantity:
one
meter,
two
meters
quality:
pale,
literate
19
George Rudebusch
20
George Rudebusch
21
George Rudebusch
Can
you
see
a
way
to
treat
the
Third
Man
Argument
as
a
fallacy
due
to
grammatical
form
-‐-‐
a
fallacy
that
Aristotle’s
Universals
can
escape
but
which
Plato’s
Forms
cannot?
What
is
the
confusion
of
thinking
of
Socrates,
Plato,
and
man?
Remember
Ryle’s
statement
in
passage
30
above:
“When
two
terms
belong
to
the
same
category,
it
is
proper
to
construct
conjunctive
propositions
embodying
them.
Thus
a
purchaser
may
say
that
he
bought
a
left-‐hand
glove
and
a
right-‐hand
glove,
but
not
that
he
bought
a
left-‐hand
glove,
a
right-‐hand
glove
and
a
pair
of
gloves.”
VIII.
MORE
PRACTICE
ON
FALLACIES
DUE
TO
GRAMMATICAL
FORM
Aristotle’s
Sophistical
Refutations
is
a
study
of
fallacies
in
argument.
We
are
interested
in
fallacies
due
to
grammatical
form,
which
it
treats
at
some
length.
So
far
we
have
only
read
a
few
small
snips
of
this
work.
Below
is
a
lengthy
excerpt
-‐-‐
almost
the
whole
of
chapter
22
-‐-‐
to
give
you
a
sense
of
its
delights.
Many
of
the
examples
of
fallacious
arguments
which
he
gives
are
as
silly
as
my
story
above.
But
they
illustrate
a
powerful
philosophical
technique:
the
theory
of
categories.
About
three
fourths
of
the
way
through
this
chapter,
you
will
hear
Aristotle
boast,
justifiably,
that
whereas
others
have
had
to
deal
with
these
fallacies
by
quibbling,
in
an
unsatisfactory
way,
with
this
or
that
premise,
Aristotle,
because
of
his
understanding
of
the
categories,
is
able
to
grant
all
the
premises
of
such
arguments
yet
avoid
their
silly
conclusions.
Since
these
fallacies
depend
on
grammatical
form
and
Greek
has
a
different
grammar
than
English,
many
of
Aristotle’s
illustrative
examples
do
not
translate
well.
I
have
omitted
those.
Even
some
of
the
ones
I
have
translated,
you
will
notice,
are
somewhat
strained.)
(34)
Here
are
some
more
fallacies
due
to
grammatical
form:
[A.
We
begin
with
an
undeniable
definition:]
(i)
If
you
once
have
something
and
later
do
not
have
it,
then
you
have
lost
it.
(ii)
[Suppose
that
you
had
ten
dice,
but
then
you
lost
one
-‐-‐
only
one.]
[In
that
case,
you
have
to
admit
that]
(iii)
You
have
lost
only
one
die.
[But
in
that
case
you
also
have
to
admit
that]
22
George Rudebusch
(iv)
[You
once
had
ten
dice,
and
now,
later,]
you
do
not
have
ten
dice.
[But,
according
to
definition
i,
you
now
have
to
admit
that]
(v)
[You
have
lost
ten
dice!]
[And,
of
course,
statements
iii
and
v
contradict
each
other.]
[Aristotle’s
analysis
of
this
fallacy
is
that
definition
i
does
hold
true
for
substances,
but
not
for
quantities.]
It
is
true
that
when
you
once
had
a
substance
which
you
now
do
not
have,
you
have
lost
it.
But
it
does
not
follow
that
when
you
once
had
an
amount
and
no
longer
have
that
much,
then
you
have
lost
that
amount.
Definition
i
concerns
what
you
have;
statement
iv
concerns
how
much
you
have,
for
ten
was
how
much.
If
the
proposed
definition
had
been
(vi)
If
you
once
have
a
certain
amount
of
something
[say,
ten
of
them]
and
later
do
not
have
that
much,
then
that
[ten]
is
how
much
you
have
lost,
no
one
would
have
agreed
to
it.
One
would
say
that
in
that
case
you
have
lost
either
the
whole
amount
or
part
of
it.
Here
is
another
such
argument.
B.
(i)
[Obviously,
in
order
to
give
away
something,
you
have
to
have
it.]
[But
suppose
that]
(ii)
[You
have
ten
dice.]
[In
that
case,
it
is
possible
that]
(iii)
[You
give
away
only
one
of
them.]
(iv)
You
did
not
have
only
one
die
[you
had
ten].
(v)
Therefore
you
have
given
away
what
you
did
not
have!
The
fact
is,
you
have
not
given
away
what
you
did
not
have
but
how
you
did
not
have
the
one
die.
For
‘only’
signifies
not
this
or
such
or
even
how
much,
but
rather
how
it
stands
in
relation
to
others:
that
it
is
not
with
anything
else.
See
how
it
is
similar
to
this
argument:
C.
(i)
Obviously,
in
order
to
give
away
something,
you
need
to
have
got
it.
(ii)
[Suppose
that
it
takes
you
fifty
years
to
get
a
collection
of
ten
dice.]
23
George Rudebusch
(iii)
[Suppose
that
you
then
give
them
away
in
half
a
second.]
(iv)
Then
you
have
given
away
quickly
what
you
have
not
got
quickly.
(v)
Therefore
you
can
give
away
something
which
you
have
not
got!
Here
it
is
really
obvious
that
the
conclusion
does
not
follow.
For
giving
‘quickly’
is
not
giving
some
thing
but
is
giving
in
a
certain
manner.
And
you
can
give
something
in
a
manner
in
which
you
did
not
get
it.
For
example,
you
can
get
with
pleasure
and
give
with
pain.
All
the
following
arguments
work
the
same
way
as
A,
B,
and
C.
D.
Could
you
hit
with
a
hand
which
you
don’t
have?
E.
Could
you
see
with
an
eye
which
you
don’t
have?
-‐-‐
For
you
don’t
have
only
one
hand
or
only
one
eye.
[WA
15>>
Pick
either
D
or
E
and
spell
it
out
as
I
have
done
with
arguments
A,
B,
and
C.]
Now
some
people
try
to
escape
from
arguments
like
E
by
saying
that
even
if
you
have
more
than
one
eye
(or
whatever),
you
might
also
have
only
one.
For,
they
say,
whatever
you
have,
you
have
gotten.
Then
suppose
I
give
you
only
one
pebble.
In
that
case
[even
if
you
have
than
one
pebble
already,]
you
have
only
one
from
me.
[So
you
have
more
than
one
and
only
one!]
Other
people
try
to
escape
by
directly
disputing
the
first
premise:
they
say
that
it
is
possible
to
have
what
you
have
not
gotten.
For
example,
you
can
have
gotten
drinkable
wine
but
have
spoiled
wine
if
it
went
bad
while
you
were
in
possession.
All
these
sorts
of
escape
might
satisfy
the
person
who
uses
them,
but
they
don’t
really
escape
the
argument.
.
.
.
We
[who
understand
how
the
categories
work]
can
grant
all
the
premises
in
the
above
arguments,
yet
still
deny
that
the
conclusion
follows.
Here
are
some
more
arguments
of
this
type
[WA
16>>
Pick
one
of
these
and
spell
it
out
as
I
have
done
with
arguments
A,
B,
and
C.]
F.
Is
what
the
learner
learns
that
which
he
learns?
-‐-‐
Someone
might
learn
slow
music
quickly.
The
solution
to
F
is
that
‘quickly’
refers
not
to
what
he
learns
but
to
how
he
learns
G.
Don’t
you
have
to
step
on
that
which
you
walk
through?
-‐-‐
You
might
walk
through
a
whole
day.
The
solution
to
G
is
that
‘the
whole
day’
refers
not
to
what
you
walk
through
but
to
when
you
walk.
H.
Don’t
you
have
to
drink
that
which
you
drink?
24
George Rudebusch
7
This
is
a
difficult
sentence
to
translate.
On
what
seems
the
most
natural
reading
of
the
Greek,
Aristotle
is
contradicting
what
he
says
in
the
sentence
just
before
and
after
this
one.
I
have
given
a
less
natural
reading
to
the
Greek
-‐-‐
perhaps
an
impossible
one.
I’m
not
sure
I’ve
translated
it
right.
25
George Rudebusch
(a)
Some
are
said
of
a
subject
but
are
not
in
any
subject.
For
example,
man
is
said
of
a
subject,
a
particular
man
[such
as
Socrates],
but
man
is
not
in
any
particular
subject.
(b)
Others
are
in
a
subject
but
are
not
said
of
any
subject.
(‘In
a
subject’
means
what
is
in
something,
not
as
a
part,
and
cannot
exist
separated
from
what
it
is
in.)
For
example,
some
particular
literacy
is
in
a
subject,
a
soul,
but
it
is
not
said
of
any
soul.
Another
example:
some
particular
pale
is
in
a
subject,
the
body
-‐-‐
for
all
color
is
in
a
body
-‐-‐
but
it
is
not
said
of
any
body.
(c)
Others
are
both
said
of
a
subject
and
in
a
subject.
For
example,
knowledge
is
in
a
subject,
the
soul;
and
it
is
said
of
a
subject,
literacy.
(d)
Others
are
neither
in
any
subject
nor
said
of
any
subject.
For
example,
a
particular
man
or
a
particular
horse
-‐-‐
for
nothing
of
this
sort
is
in
any
subject
or
said
of
any
subject.
Things
that
are
individual,
that
is,
one
in
number,8
are
without
exception
never
said
of
any
subject.
But
nothing
keeps
some
individuals
from
being
in
a
subject.
For
instance,
some
particular
literacy
is
one
of
the
things
in
a
subject
which
is
never
said
of
any
subject."-‐-‐
C
ii
1a20-‐1b9
Aristotle
goes
on
to
distinguish
ten
categories.
See
passage
33.
WA
19>>
Figure
1
arrays
the
categories
of
things
that
are.
Draw
lines
connecting
each
genus
to
its
species
(e.g.
a
line
from
Substance
to
Living).
Draw
a
dotted
line
with
label
around
each
of
the
four
types
Aristotle
has
distinguished.
8
To
be
‘one
in
number’
or
to
be
‘numerically
one
and
the
same’
are
expressions
to
be
understood
in
contrast
to
‘one
in
species
(or
genus)’
and
‘specifically
(or
generically)
one’.
You
and
I
are
two
in
number,
but
one
in
species
(and
genus),
since
we
share
the
same
species
-‐-‐
man
(and
genus
-‐-‐
animal).
My
cat
and
I
are
two
in
number,
two
in
species,
but
generically
one
and
the
same,
since
we
share
the
same
genus
-‐-‐
animal.
WA
18>>
Review
question:
I
am
not
the
same
as
my
skin
color
(pale):
am
I
and
pale
two
in
number?
In
species?
In
genus?
26
FIGURE
1:
THE
CATEGORIES
SUCHES
THISES
MOST
GENERAL
GENUS
<-‐-‐
-‐
-‐
-‐
-‐
-‐
-‐
-‐
-‐
-‐
-‐
-‐-‐>
MOST
SPECIFIC
SPECIES
PARTICULARS
man
Socrates
Plato
animal
horse
Bucephalus
(living)
Substance
(non-‐living)
pale-‐in-‐Socrates
pale
pale-‐in-‐Plato
color
dark
Quality
literacy
Plato’s
literacy
knowledge
Quantity
Relation
Location
Time
Orientation
State
Action
George Rudebusch
Passion
28
George Rudebusch
29
George Rudebusch
An
example
of
things
that
are
said
of:
animal
is
said
of
man,
therefore
it
is
also
said
of
the
particular
man.
(For
if
animal
were
said
of
none
of
the
particular
men,
it
could
not
be
said
of
man
in
general.)
An
example
of
things
that
are
in:
color
is
in
body,
therefore
it
is
also
in
a
particular
body.
(For
if
it
were
not
in
one
of
the
particular
bodies,
it
would
not
be
in
body
in
general.)
So
all
other
things
are
either
said
of
the
primary
substances
or
in
the
primary
substances.
Therefore
when
primary
substances
do
not
exist,
it
is
impossible
for
any
of
the
others
to
exist.
Of
the
secondary
substances,
the
species
is
more
of
a
substance
than
the
genus,
for
it
is
nearer
to
the
primary
substances.
Here’s
why.
[Suppose
I
point
at
something
and
say
‘what
is
this?’
I
am
asking
what
a
particular
primary
substance
is.]
When
you
tell
me
what
a
particular
primary
substance
is,
if
you
tell
me
its
species
you
are
giving
more
information
and
giving
a
more
appropriate
answer
than
if
you
tell
me
its
genus.
For
example,
if
I
asked
about
a
particular
man,
you
would
give
more
information
by
saying
‘man’
than
by
saying
‘animal’.
After
all,
the
one
answer
is
very
specific,
the
other
is
very
general.
Again,
it
is
more
informative
to
say
of
a
particular
tree
that
it
is
a
tree
than
that
it
is
a
plant.
Here
is
another
reason
why
species
is
more
of
a
substance
than
genus.
We
have
seen
that
primary
substances
are
substance
in
the
most
important
sense
because
they
are
the
subjects
underlying
everything
else,
that
is,
everything
else
is
either
said
of
these
things
or
in
them.
Well,
as
primary
substances
are
to
everything
else,
in
that
same
way
the
species
is
to
the
genus.
For
a
species
is
a
subject
underlying
the
genera.
Also,
though
genera
are
predicated
of
species,
species
do
not
turn
around
and
get
predicated
of
genera
But
of
the
species
themselves,
that
is,
the
ones
that
are
not
genera,
none
is
more
a
substance
than
another.
For
it
is
no
more
appropriate
to
tell
me
about
a
particular
man
that
it
is
man
than
it
is
to
tell
me
about
a
particular
horse
that
it
is
a
horse.
Likewise
none
of
the
primary
substances
is
more
a
substance
than
another.
A
particular
man
is
no
more
a
substance
than
a
particular
ox.
On
the
other
hand,
it
is
fitting
that,
after
primary
substances,
their
species
and
genera
should
be
the
only
other
things
called
secondary
substances.
For
only
they,
of
things
predicated,
make
clear
what
the
primary
substance
is.
[Suppose
again
that
I
point
to
something
-‐-‐
say,
a
particular
man
-‐-‐
and
ask
you
what
it
is.]
When
you
say
about
that
particular
man
what
it
is,
if
you
tell
me
its
species
or
genus
you
will
be
giving
an
appropriate
answer.
(Of
course,
it
will
make
a
more
informative
answer
to
say
man
than
to
say
animal.)
But
anything
else
you
might
tell
me
would
be
out
of
place
as
an
answer.
For
example,
if
I
have
asked
what
it
is,
it
would
be
out
of
place
to
tell
me
‘It’s
pale’
or
‘It’s
running’
or
anything
like
that.
That’s
why
it
is
fitting
that
these
should
be
the
only
other
things
called
substances.
Here
is
another
reason
why
[besides
primary
substances]
only
the
species
and
genera
of
primary
substances
should
be
called
substances.
We
have
seen
that
primary
substances
are
most
correctly
called
substances
because
they
are
the
subjects
underlying
everything
else.
Well,
as
primary
substances
are
to
everything
else,
in
that
same
way
the
species
and
genera
of
primary
substances
are
to
all
the
rest.
For
all
the
rest
[quantities,
qualities,
relations,
30
George Rudebusch
etc.]
are
predicated
of
these.
For
if
you
will
say
that
a
particular
man
is
literate,
then
you
will
also
say
that
a
man
is
literate
and
an
animal
is
literate.
[If
you
said,
"Socrates
is
literate,"
then
you
would
also
have
to
admit,
"A
man
is
literate,"
and
"An
animal
is
literate."]
Likewise
in
other
cases.-‐-‐
C
v
2a11-‐3a6
Aristotle
describes
the
characteristics
common
to
substance:
Every
substance
seems
to
indicate
a
this.
[Suppose
that
someone
asks
what
you
are
talking
about.
If
it
is
a
substance,
it
would
be
possible
for
you
to
point
to
it
and
say
‘this’.
Try
pointing
at
two
o’clock
or
larger
or
literacy:
the
best
you’ll
be
able
to
do
is
point
to
a
substance
-‐-‐
like
a
clock
or
a
man.]
Now
in
the
case
of
primary
substances
it
is
indisputably
true
that
each
indicates
a
this.
[Suppose
that
you
are
talking
about
a
primary
substance,
and
that
someone
asks
what
you
are
talking
about.
You
point
at
the
clock
or
man
or
whatever
and
say,
"I’m
talking
about
this."]
The
thing
that
you
show
will
be
individual,
that
is,
one
in
number.
In
the
case
of
secondary
substance
it
appears
from
the
form
of
expression
-‐-‐
you
say
‘man’
or
‘animal’
–
that
you
are
likewise
indicating
a
this.
But
in
fact
you
are
indicating
a
sort
of
thing.
For
here
your
subject
is
not
one
thing
in
the
way
that
a
primary
substance
is,
for
it
is
of
many
things
that
you
say
‘man’
and
‘animal’.
On
the
other
hand,
we
can’t
just
say
that
secondary
substance
indicates
what
sort
in
the
way
that
qualities
like
pale
do.
Pale
indicates
nothing
but
what
sort;
by
contrast,
the
species
and
the
genus
mark
off
the
sort
of
substance
-‐-‐
they
indicate
some
sort
of
substance.
-‐-‐
C
v
3b10-‐20
The
most
distinctive
mark
of
substance
leads
us
into
the
topic
of
change:
The
most
distinctive
mark
of
substance
seems
to
be
that
a
substance
which
is
numerically
one
and
the
same
is
able
to
receive
opposites.
In
no
other
case
-‐-‐
in
no
case
of
non-‐substances
-‐-‐
can
you
find
something
that
is
able
to
receive
opposites
while
remaining
one
in
number.
For
example,
a
color
which
is
numerically
one
and
the
same
will
not
be
pale
and
dark,
nor
will
numerically
one
and
the
same
action
be
thoughtful
and
thoughtless,
and
so
on
for
everything
else
that
is
not
a
substance.
But
a
substance
which
is
numerically
one
and
the
same
is
able
to
receive
opposites.
For
example,
one
and
the
same
particular
man
becomes
pale
at
one
time
and
dark
at
another,
and
hot
and
cold,
and
thoughtless
and
thoughtful."
-‐-‐
C
v
4a10-‐21
So
far
we
have
just
considered
what
Aristotle
says
in
the
Categories.
His
position
is
unambiguous:
substance
in
the
truest
sense
is
the
underlying
subject:
a
particular
man
or
horse
or
ox.
In
the
Metaphysics
he
comes
to
have
reservations
about
this
easy
answer.
It
is
possible
that
Aristotle
changed
his
view
between
the
earlier
Categories
and
the
later
Metaphysics,
or
perhaps
the
Categories
31
George Rudebusch
are
not
written
by
Aristotle
at
all,
but
are
a
simplification
of
his
position
written
by
a
follower
who
did
not
appreciate
or
preferred
to
ignore
the
subtleties
of
the
Metaphysics.
WA
23>>
In
any
case,
note
down
the
differences
you
see
between
the
two
works
as
you
read
the
following
selection
from
the
Metaphysics.
The
subject
is
that
of
which
other
things
are
said,
but
which
itself
is
not
said
of
anything
else.
Let’s
figure
out
what
this
is
before
we
do
anything
else,
for
that
which
is
a
subject
for
everything
else
seems
to
be
substance
more
than
everything
else.
In
one
way,
matter
is
said
to
be
the
subject
for
everything
else;
in
another
way,
structure
is;
and
in
a
third
way,
the
compound
from
these.
By
‘matter’
I
mean,
for
example,
the
bronze;
by
‘structure’,
the
plan
of
the
shape;
and
by
‘compound’,
the
statue
(the
concrete
thing).
[But
which
of
these
-‐-‐
matter,
structure
or
form,
or
compound
-‐-‐
is
substance
more
than
anything
else?]
If
the
form
is
subject
for
matter
and
therefore
more
of
a
substance
than
the
matter,
then
form
will
also
be
more
of
a
substance
than
the
compound,
for
the
same
reason.
We
just
said
that
substance
is
that
which
is
not
said
of
a
subject
but
which
is
the
subject
of
which
other
things
are
said.
This
is
roughly
true,
but
it
cannot
be
all
there
is
to
substance;
it
is
insufficient.
For
this
definition
is
obscure.
Even
worse,
on
this
definition
matter
proves
to
be
substance.
For
matter
fits
that
definition
[‘subject
of
everything
else’]
better
than
anything
else.
For
when
all
else
is
taken
away,
evidently
nothing
but
matter
remains.
For
the
other
things
are
affections,
products,
and
capacities
of
bodies.
Take
those
away,
and
all
that
is
left
to
a
body
is
length,
breadth,
and
depth.
But
length,
breadth,
and
depth
are
particular
quantities,
not
substances
(for
quantity
is
not
substance).
Substance
is
going
to
be
that
to
which
all
these
things
belong
in
the
first
place.
But
if
we
take
away
length,
breadth,
and
depth,
we
see
nothing
left
over,
except
whatever
is
bounded
by
these.
And
so,
by
looking
at
substance
according
to
this
definition,
it
will
appear
necessary
that
the
matter
is
the
only
substance.
Here
‘matter’
means
that
which
in
itself
is
neither
a
particular
thing
nor
of
a
particular
quantity
nor
of
any
of
the
other
categories
of
being.
Matter
is
something
of
which
each
of
these
other
categories
is
predicated.
Its
being
is
different
from
the
categories.
For
the
other
categories
are
predicated
of
the
category
substance,
while
substance
is
predicated
of
matter
[as
in
“This
flesh-‐
and-‐bones
is
a
man,
Socrates.”]
And
so
the
ultimate
subject
of
predication
in
itself
is
neither
something
nor
some
quantity
nor
anything
else.
.
.
.
Therefore,
if
we
look
at
matter
according
to
this
definition
[‘subject
for
everything
else’],
it
follows
that
matter
is
substance.
But
that
is
impossible,
for
being
determinate
and
being
something
seem
to
belong
to
substance
most
of
all.
That
is
why
both
the
form
and
the
compound
seem
to
be
substance
more
than
matter.-‐-‐
M
vii.3
1028b36-‐1029a30
32
George Rudebusch
WA
24>>
By
the
following
standard,
which
is
more
of
a
substance,
Socrates
or
man?
Things
are
said
to
be
in
many
ways.
.
.
.
In
one
way,
it
means
what
it
is
and
a
this.
In
another
way,
it
means
a
quality
or
quantity
or
any
other
of
the
categories.
But
of
all
these
ways
in
which
things
are
said
to
be,
it
is
evident
that
the
primary
way
says
what
it
is:
it
is
in
that
way
that
we
refer
to
substance.
For
when
we
say
what
sort
a
thing
is,
we
say
[e.g.]
‘good’
or
‘bad’,
not
‘three
meters’
or
‘man’.
But
when
we
say
what
it
is,
we
do
not
say
‘pale’
or’
hot’
but
‘man’
or
‘god’.
-‐-‐M
vii.1
1028a1-‐18
X.
ARISTOTLE
ON
THE
SOUL
Let
us
begin
by
considering
The
Dualist
Argument.
I
take
it
that
the
following
two
premises
are
obvious:
(i)
My
body
exists
(it
is
something;
indeed
it
is
some
one
thing).
(ii)
My
mind
exists
(it
is
something;
indeed
it
is
some
one
thing).
The
next
premise
is
only
slightly
less
obvious.
(iii)
It
is
not
the
case
that
my
mind
is
a
kind
of
body,
or
that
my
body
is
a
kind
of
mental
object.
After
all,
bodies
take
up
space,
and
they
change
in
time.
Minds,
while
they
do
change
in
time,
do
not
take
up
space.
If
this
is
true,
a
body
cannot
be
mental,
nor
can
a
mind
be
a
body.
It
is
natural
to
conclude
from
these
obvious
premises
that
(iv)
People
are,
or
are
made
up
of,
two
kinds
of
thing:
body
and
mind.
But
once
you
admit
conclusion
iv,
that
is,
once
you
become
a
dualist,
it
is
impossible
to
avoid
a
mess
of
philosophical
puzzles.
Let
me
briefly
describe
only
two.
There
is
the
Problem
of
Interaction:
(35)
The
problem
how
a
person’s
mind
and
body
influence
one
another
is
notoriously
charged
with
theoretical
difficulties.
What
the
mind
wills,
the
legs,
arms
and
the
tongue
execute;
what
affects
the
ear
and
the
eye
has
something
to
do
with
what
the
mind
perceives;
grimaces
and
smiles
betray
the
mind’s
moods
and
bodily
castigations
lead,
it
is
hoped,
to
moral
improvement.
But
the
actual
transactions
between
the
episodes
of
the
private
history
and
those
of
the
public
history
remain
mysterious,
since
by
definition
they
can
belong
to
neither
series.
33
George Rudebusch
9
Passages
35
and
36
are
from
Ryle,
pp.
12-‐15,
Concept
of
Mind.
34
George Rudebusch
substance
is
shape
or
form:
that
which
enables
you
to
point
to
something
and
say
‘this’.
And
the
third
kind
of
substance
is
the
composite
out
of
these."
-‐
-‐
An
ii.1
412a2-‐9
Continuing,
Aristotle
rules
out
soul
as
either
matter
or
composite.
Matter
is
potentiality
and
form
is
actuality.
.
.
.
Now
bodies,
especially
natural
bodies
(which
are
the
origins
of
the
others),
seem
most
of
all
to
be
substances.
Some
natural
bodies
[the
ones
with
souls]
have
life,
others
[the
ones
without
souls]
do
not
have
life.
Life
is
that
by
which
we
can
speak
of
bodies
nourishing
themselves,
growing,
and
ailing.
Therefore
every
natural
body
that
partakes
of
life
[that
has
a
soul]
is
a
substance
of
the
third
kind,
composite.
Moreover,
since
a
body
is
the
sort
of
thing
that
has
a
soul,
the
soul
is
not
a
body
[nor,
therefore,
matter].
For
the
body
is
not
the
sort
of
thing
that
is
predicated
of
a
subject.
Rather,
the
body
serves
as
subject,
that
is,
matter.
[Has
a
soul
or
has
life
are
predicated
of
bodies,
not
vice
versa.]
-‐-‐
An
ii.1
412a9-‐19
Thus
Aristotle
defines
soul
as
a
kind
of
form
or
actuality.
Necessarily,
therefore,
the
soul
is
a
substance
as
the
form
of
a
physical
body
which
has
the
potential
to
have
life.
The
substance,
form,
is
actuality.
Thus
soul
is
the
actuality
of
such
a
body."
-‐-‐
An
ii.1
412a19-‐22
Aristotle
distinguishes
two
kinds
of
actuality
(form).
There
are
two
ways
in
which
something
is
said
to
be
an
actuality:
first,
in
the
way
in
which
knowledge
[having
understanding]
is
an
actuality,
second,
in
the
way
in
which
contemplation
[using
understanding]
is
an
actuality.-‐-‐
An
ii.1
412a22-‐23
Evidently,
first-‐order
actuality
is
the
form
of
a
subject;
second-‐order
actuality
is
the
form
of
a
form
of
a
subject.
A
particular
subject
(a
man,
say)
may
or
may
not
have
knowledge
(first-‐order).
And
having
it,
he
may
or
may
not
use
it.
Other
examples:
the
subject
may
or
may
not
have
the
form
cutter
or
seer
(first-‐order
actualities).
And
the
cutter
or
seer
may
or
may
not
be
cutting
or
seeing
(second-‐order
actualities):
when
the
carpenter
quits
for
the
day,
she
is
no
longer
cutting,
but
she
is
still
a
carpenter;
and
when
a
sighted
person
closes
his
eyes,
he
is
no
longer
seeing,
but
is
still
sighted.
When
I
am
balancing
my
checkbook,
I
use
my
arithmetical
understanding;
but
even
when
I
am
not
adding,
I
still
have
arithmetical
knowledge.
WA
25>>
In
the
following
examples
label
the
first-‐order
actuality
‘A1’,
the
actuality
of
an
actuality
(second-‐order
actuality)
‘A2’,
and
potentiality
(of
a
[first
order]
actuality)
‘P’:
35
George Rudebusch
36
George Rudebusch
alternative
would
be
that
it
means,
‘Why
is
it
itself?’
-‐-‐
which
is
to
ask
nothing.
.
.
.
Therefore
it
is
clear
that
one
does
not
ask,
‘Why
is
what
is
man
man?’
One
asks,
instead,
why
something
is
predicated
of
something
else.
For
example,
why
does
it
thunder?
-‐-‐
Why
is
a
noise
produced
in
clouds?
In
this
way
the
question
asks
why
one
thing
[noise]
is
predicated
of
another
[clouds].
Or
‘Why
are
these
things
-‐-‐for
example,
bricks
and
stones
-‐-‐
a
house?
Plainly
such
a
question
looks
for
something
that
will
provide
the
explanation."-‐-‐
M
vii.17
1041a6-‐28
About
those
bricks
and
stones.
Someone
might
try
to
say
that
the
bricks
and
stones
are
all
there
is
to
a
house.
WA
27>>
What
would
the
analogous
statement
be
with
regard
to
whether
there
is
a
one
over
the
many
or
a
soul?
WA
28>>
Why
is
such
a
view
of
houses
wrong?
Figure
out
Aristotle’s
answer
from
the
next
passage.
Some
things
are
composed
out
of
others
in
such
a
way
that
the
whole
is
one
-‐
-‐
not
as
a
heap
is
one
but
as
a
syllable
is
one.
The
syllable
is
not
its
elements:
a
‘b’
and
an
‘a’
are
not
the
same
as
‘ba’.
Nor
is
flesh
fire
and
earth
[nor
-‐-‐
for
those
of
you
who
are
up
on
the
latest
science
–
is
it
carbon-‐based
molecules].
For
after
the
flesh
and
the
syllable
are
decomposed,
the
flesh
and
syllable
no
longer
exist,
but
the
elements
still
do.
The
fire
and
earth
[or
carbon-‐based
molecules]
will
still
exist.
Therefore
the
syllable
is
something,
and
not
just
the
elements
–
the
vowel
and
consonant
-‐-‐
but
something
else.
And
the
flesh
is
not
just
fire
and
earth
or
the
hot
and
the
cold
but
something
else.
.
.
.
-‐-‐
M
vii.17
1041b11-‐19
In
view
of
the
convincing
argument
which
you
have
just
written
for
WA
28,
someone
might
be
driven
to
say
that,
since
the
house
is
not
just
bricks
and
stones,
it
has
another
element:
the
house
is
the
bricks
and
stones
and
Composition.
WA
29>>
What
would
the
analogous
statement
be
with
regard
to
whether
there
is
a
one
over
the
many
or
a
soul?
You
can,
perhaps,
guess
Aristotle’s
response
to
this
move
even
before
reading
the
following.
Evidently,
the
syllable
is
not
the
elements
and
composition,
nor
is
the
house
bricks
and
composition.-‐-‐
M
viii.3
1043b4-‐6
Aristotle
gives
an
argument
(it
is
a
continuation
of
the
second
passage
above)
that
refutes
the
view
that
the
house
is
bricks
and
stones
and
Composition.
WA
30>>
Restate
the
following
argument
to
show
how
it
is
like
the
Third
Man
Argument.
37
George Rudebusch
.
.
.
And
the
flesh
is
not
just
fire
and
earth
or
the
hot
and
the
cold
but
something
else.
Now
suppose
the
something
else
is
either
an
element
or
composed
from
elements.
If
the
something
else
is
an
element,
the
same
reasoning
applies:
[when
the
flesh
is
decomposed,
it
will
no
longer
exist,
but
the
elements
-‐-‐
fire,
earth,
and
Composition
-‐-‐
still
do.
So
there
must
be
some
other
element.]
And
then
the
flesh
will
be
composed
of
fire,
earth,
Composition,
and
something
else.
And
so
on
to
infinity.
On
the
other
hand,
if
the
something
else
is
composed
from
elements,
then
obviously
it
must
be
composed
not
from
one
but
from
many
elements
(otherwise
it
would
be
that
one
element).
Therefore
we
can
again
use
the
same
argument
that
we
first
used
in
the
case
of
flesh
and
syllable.
-‐-‐
M
vii.17
1041b17-‐25
Now
comes
Aristotle’s
own
position:
It
would
seem
that
the
something
else
does
exist
and
is
not
an
element.
And
it
is
this
which
provides
the
explanation
why
this
material
is
flesh
and
why
that
is
a
syllable
and
so
forth
for
all
the
other
cases.
And
this
is
the
[formal]
substance
that
explains
each
[perceptible]
thing.
-‐-‐
M
vii.17
1041b25-‐28
It
remains
for
me
to
say
what
that
formal
substance
is
which
explains
each
perceptible
thing.
[My
view
is
like
that
of
Democritus.]
Democritus
seemed
to
think
[that
formal
substance
was
the
way
one
and
the
same
matter
can
differ
and]
that
there
are
three
ways
of
differing
[which
explain
all
perceptible
things].
He
thought
that
the
underlying
stuff,
the
matter,
is
one
and
the
same.
[And
that
what
explains
all
the
different
perceptible
things
in
the
world
are]
differences
in
what
he
called
(1)
‘rhythm’,
that
is,
shape;
(2)
‘turning’,
that
is,
position;
and
(3)
‘inter-‐contact’,
that
is,
structure.
But
I
think
it
is
obvious
that
the
formal
substances
[are
not
limited
to
just
three
ways
of
differing];
there
are
many
ways
of
differing.
The
explanation
of
some
perceptible
things
is
given
by
the
composition
of
their
matter
–
by
mixture,
for
instance,
as
in
the
case
of
syrup.
The
explanation
of
others
is
given
by
their
being
tied
together,
for
example
a
bundle.
Others
by
being
glued,
for
example
a
book.
Others
by
being
nailed,
for
example
a
box.
Others
in
more
than
one
of
these
ways.
Others
by
placement,
for
example
a
threshold
and
lintel:
for
these
differ
in
how
they
are
placed.
Others
by
time,
for
example
dinner
and
breakfast.
Others
by
direction,
for
example
the
winds.
Others
in
the
experience
you
get
when
you
perceive
them,
for
example
hardness
and
softness,
thickness
and
thinness,
dryness
and
wetness,
and
some
things
by
some
of
these
qualities,
others
by
all
of
them.
And
in
general
by
excess
and
defect.
So
it
is
clear
that
the
‘is’
[in
‘why
X
is
Y’]
will
be
explained
in
just
as
many
ways.
[For
example,
suppose
that
we
are
looking
for
the
formal
substance
which
explains
some
perceptible
thing,
say
a
threshold.
We
ask:]
Why
is
this
a
threshold?
[The
answer
in
this
case
would
be:]
Because
it
is
placed
here.
The
‘being’
[in
‘being
a
threshold]
refers
to
being
placed
here
[-‐-‐
that
is
what
the
formal
substance
is
in
this
case].
38
George Rudebusch
And,
[to
take
another
example,
suppose
that
we
are
looking
for
the
formal
substance
which
explains
ice.
We
ask:
why
is
this
ice?
Because
it
is
solidified
in
such-‐and-‐such
a
way.
The
‘being’
in]
‘being
ice’
refers
to
being
solidified
in
such-‐and-‐such
a
way
[-‐-‐that
is
what
the
formal
substance
is
in
this
case].-‐-‐
M
viii.2
1042b10-‐28
So,
in
our
example
of
a
house,
Aristotle
does
believe
that
a
formal
substance
exists
which
is
something
other
than
the
bricks
and
stones.
This
sounds
like
Platonism.
Platonists
would
try
to
define
the
house
as
bricks
and
something
else,
something
apart
from
the
material
of
the
house.
But,
as
we
saw
above,
Aristotle
rejects
Platonism.
Evidently,
the
syllable
is
not
the
elements
and
composition,
nor
is
the
house
bricks
and
composition.-‐-‐
M
viii.3
1043b4-‐6
Instead,
Aristotle
says:
Suppose
that
we
had
to
define
threshold.
We
would
say
that
a
threshold
is
wood
or
stone
placed
here
[in
contrast
to
‘wood
or
stone
and
Placement’].
And
suppose
that
we
had
to
define
house.
We
would
say
that
a
house
is
bricks
and
stones
put
together
thus
[in
contrast
to
‘bricks
and
stones
and
Put-‐togetherness’].-‐-‐
M
viii.2
1043a7-‐9
Not
‘bricks
and
stone
and
placement’
but
‘bricks
and
stones
in
place’.
A
niggling
difference?
The
first,
Platonic,
definition
is
made
absurd
by
what
we
might
call
the
Third
Placement
Argument.
WA
31>>
State
the
Third
Placement
Argument.
Can
that
sort
of
argument
be
made
to
work
against
the
second,
Aristotelian
definition?
Try
to
do
so.
How,
if
at
all,
does
that
argument
break
down?
Hence
Aristotle
has
three
kinds
of
substance:
matter
or
potentiality,
form
or
actuality,
and
the
composite
of
the
two.
In
defining
what
a
house
is,
those
who
define
it
as
stones-‐bricks-‐boards
are
explaining
[only]
what
is
potentially
a
house,
for
these
things
are
the
material
substance
of
the
house.
Those
who
define
it
as
a
sheltering
enclosure
for
bodies
and
property,
or
who
propose
some
other
definition
of
this
sort,
are
explaining
[only]
the
actuality
of
a
house
[for
these
sorts
of
characteristics
are
the
formal
substance
of
the
house].
But
those
who
define
it
by
combining
both
of
these
are
explaining
the
third
kind
of
substance
which
is
composed
of
the
other
two
[and
this
third
substance
is
the
perceptible
house].
The
explanation
of
the
form,
that
is,
the
actuality,
seems
to
be
provided
by
the
ways
of
differing.
In
contrast,
the
explanation
of
the
matter,
that
is,
the
potentiality,
seems
to
be
provided
by
the
raw
material.
The
sort
of
definition
accepted
by
Archytas
was
of
the
third
sort,
for
his
definitions
are
a
combination
of
the
other
two.
For
example,
what
is
nēnemia
[‘calm-‐weather’]?
[His
definition
was
that]
it
is
motionlessness
in
a
volume
of
air.
The
air
is
the
potentiality
or
material
substance;
the
motionlessness
is
39
George Rudebusch
the
actuality
or
formal
substance.
Or
what
is
galēnē
[‘quiet-‐sea’]?
His
definition
was
that
it
is
smoothness
of
the
water.
The
underlying
material
substance
is
the
water;
the
actuality
or
structural
[that
is,
formal]
substance
is
the
smoothness.
It
should
be
clear
from
this
discussion,
then,
what
perceptible
substances
[such
as
a
house,
a
quiet
sea,
calm
weather,
a
threshold,
a
man,
etc.]
are
-‐-‐
that
is,
how
they
are:
potentially,
as
matter;
in
actuality,
as
structure
[form];
and
the
third
way,
as
a
combination
of
these
two.
-‐-‐
M
viii.2
1043a14-‐28
XI.
HISTORICAL
INFLUENCE
OF
THE
THEORY
OF
CATEGORIES
The
theory
of
categories
has
been
important
in
the
history
of
philosophy.
Since
most
philosophy
in
the
millennium
and
a
half
following
Aristotle
took
place
within
the
boundaries
of
commentaries
on
Aristotle,
it
is
no
surprise
that
in
this
historical
period,
late
antiquity
and
the
middle
ages,
the
theory
of
categories
was
accepted,
so
far
as
I
know
(which
isn’t
very
far)
without
question.
Descartes
ushered
in
the
period
known
as
modern
philosophy
(really,
18th
Century
philosophy)
by
reintroducing
the
sort
of
skeptical
problems
you
saw
raised
in
the
Theaetetus.
Attention
to
categories
of
being
ceases
to
be
a
centerpiece
of
philosophical
solutions.
Ryle,
and
he
is
not
alone
in
making
this
diagnosis,
attributes
the
metaphysics
of
modern
philosophy
-‐-‐
fantastic
dualism,
crude
materialism,
and
incredible
idealism
-‐-‐
to
a
failure
to
appreciate
the
categories:
My
.
.
.
purpose
is
to
show
that
a
family
of
radical
category-‐mistakes
is
the
source
of
the
double-‐life
[that
is,
dualist]
theory.
The
belief
that
there
is
a
polar
opposition
between
Mind
and
Matter
is
the
belief
that
they
are
terms
of
the
same
logical
type.
It
will
also
follow
that
both
Idealism
and
Materialism
are
answers
to
an
improper
question.10
At
the
end
of
the
nineteenth
century,
the
category
theory
resurfaces
in
the
work
of
Gottlob
Frege,
and,
at
the
beginning
of
the
twentieth
century,
because
of
Frege’s
influence,
Bertrand
Russell.
Both
of
these
philosophers
incorporate
the
key
ideas
of
the
theory
of
categories
into
systems
of
formal
(that
is,
symbolic)
logic
and
mathematics.
Kurt
Gödel
gives
this
summary
of
Russell’s
‘theory
of
simple
types’.
By
the
theory
of
simple
types
I
mean
the
doctrine
which
says
that
the
objects
of
thought
(or,
in
another
interpretation,
the
symbolic
expressions)
are
divided
into
types;
namely,
individuals,
properties
of
individuals,
relations
between
individuals,
properties
of
such
relations,
etc.
.
.,
and
that
sentences
of
the
form:
‘a
has
the
property
·Ì·’,
‘b
bears
the
relation
T
to
c’,
etc.
are
10
The
first
quote
is
from
page
18,
the
second
from
page
22
of
Ryle’s
Concept
of
Mind.
40
George Rudebusch
meaningless,
if
a,
b,
c,
R,
·Ì·
are
not
types
fitting
together.
Mixed
types
(such
as
classes
containing
individuals
and
classes
.
.
.)
are
excluded.11
The
very
last
sentence
is
what,
in
this
formal
system,
rules
out
the
third
man,
just
as
Ryle,
informally,
rules
out
phrases
like
‘The
left-‐
hand
glove,
the
right-‐hand
glove,
and
the
pair
of
gloves’.
(‘Informally’
means
in
ordinary
(or
natural)
language
as
opposed
to
formal
or
symbolic
language.
Aristotle
does
both
formal
and
informal
work
-‐-‐
indeed
he
is
the
inventor
of
formal
logic!
-‐-‐
but,
because
this
is
an
introductory-‐level
discussion,
I
have
restricted
our
readings
to
his
informal
work.)
Ryle
was
a
student
of
both
Aristotle
and
Russell.
It
should
be
obvious,
from
the
passages
in
Ryle
which
you
have
read,
that
he
learned
his
lessons
well.
We
have
read
only
from
Ryle’s
work
in
philosophy
of
mind,
but,
in
his
other
work,
he
informally
uses
the
theory
of
categories
to
solve
a
wide
range
of
philosophical
problems.
Another
philosopher
of
this
century
to
use
the
theory
of
categories
is
Ludwig
Wittgenstein.
He
relies
on
this
theory
both
in
his
early,
systematic
work,
the
Tractatus
Logico-‐Philosophical,
and
his
later
informal
remarks,
such
as
the
following
excerpt,
which
acknowledges
his
debt
to
Frege,
and
uses
Aristotle’s
very
example:
To
say
that
a
red
circle
is
composed
of
redness
and
circularity,
or
is
a
complex
with
these
component
parts,
is
a
misuse
of
these
words
and
is
misleading.
(Frege
was
aware
of
this
and
told
me.)
It
is
just
as
misleading
to
say
that
the
fact
that
this
circle
is
red
(that
I
am
tired)
is
a
complex
whose
component
parts
are
a
circle
and
redness
(myself
and
tiredness).
Neither
is
a
house
a
complex
of
bricks
and
their
spatial
relations;
i.e.
that
goes
against
the
correct
use
of
the
word.12
So
the
theory
of
categories
has
remained
a
player
throughout
the
history
of
philosophy.
Why
do
I
say
it
is
a
‘player’,
rather
than
that
it
provides
the
perennial
answer,
the
final
solution,
to
deep
philosophical
problems?
-‐-‐
Because
there
is
a
problem,
to
my
mind
an
insurmountable
problem,
with
the
theory.
XII.
IS
THE
THEORY
OF
CATEGORIES
COHERENT?
The
Aristotelian
escape
from
the
‘third
man’
type
of
argument
depends
upon
the
following
sorts
of
claims:
11
Gödel,
p.
218,
in
a
footnote,
of
Philosophy
of
Mathematics:
Selected
Readings,
Paul
Benacerraf
and
Hilary
Putnam,
eds.
(Englewood
Cliffs,
New
Jersey:
Prentice-‐Hall,
1964).
12
Wittgenstein,
"Complex
and
Fact,"
p.
302
in
Philosophical
Remarks,
Rush
Rhees,
ed.,
and
R.
Hargreaves
and
R.
White
(Chicago:
University
of
Chicago
Press,
1975).
41
George Rudebusch
(1a)
When
you
use
the
phrase
‘the
left-‐hand
glove
and
the
pair
of
gloves’
you
are
making
a
category
mistake,
which
means
that
what
you
say
is
not
true.
(1b)
When
you
use
the
phrase
‘bricks
and
shape’
you
are
making
a
category
mistake,
which
means
that
what
you
say
is
not
true.
(1c)
When
you
use
the
phrase
‘mind
and
body’
you
are
making
a
category
mistake,
which
means
that
what
you
say
is
not
true.
(1d)
When
you
use
the
phrase
‘Socrates
and
man’
you
are
making
a
category
mistake,
which
means
that
what
you
say
is
not
true.
Twentieth-‐century
wielders
of
logical
categories
typically
add
that
what
you
say
in
each
case
is
nonsense
or
meaningless,
so
it
is
not
even
false!
-‐-‐
such
an
addition
requires
a
crudely
blinkered
view
of
natural
language.
In
any
case
it
doesn’t
affect
the
problems
I
will
raise.
Why
is
it
a
category
mistake?
Because,
as
Aristotle
says,
"We
have
the
categories"
(SE
xxii
178a4-‐6).
In
particular,
the
following
sorts
of
claims
have
to
be
true:
(2a)
The
left-‐hand
glove
and
the
pair
of
gloves
belong
to
different
categories
of
being.
(2b)
Bricks
and
shapes
belong
to
different
categories
of
being.
(2c)
Mind
and
body
belong
to
different
categories
of
being.
(2d)
Socrates
and
man
belong
to
different
categories
of
being.
If
these
statements
were
not
true,
the
corresponding
phrases
in
1a,
1b,
1c,
and
1d
would
not
be
category
mistakes.
But
the
problem
is
obvious:
if
statement
1a
is
true,
statement
2a
cannot
be
true:
it
itself
is
a
category
mistake!
-‐-‐
because
2a
uses
the
very
phrase
forbidden
by
1a:
‘the
left-‐hand
glove
and
the
pair
of
gloves’.
And
likewise
with
all
the
other
statements.
This
shows
that
the
theory
of
categories
is
incoherent,
that
is,
if
it
is
true,
it’s
false.
So
it’s
false.
Now
there
is
a
standard
reply
to
this
sort
of
problem
that
is
available
to
category
theorists.
It
is
to
claim
that
there
is
a
categorical
difference
between
dialectical
or
philosophical
questions
(such
as
‘are
there
substances?’
[Physics
185a27])
and
scientific
questions
(such
as
‘are
there
centaurs?’
[APo
89b32]).
[The
study
of
dialectic
is
useful]
in
relation
to
the
principles
used
in
the
branches
of
science.
For
it
is
impossible
to
discuss
them
at
all
from
the
42
George Rudebusch
principles
proper
to
the
particular
science
in
hand,
seeing
that
the
principles
are
prior
to
everything
else:
it
is
through
reputable
opinions
about
them
that
these
have
to
be
discussed,
and
this
task
belongs
properly,
or
most
appropriately,
to
dialectic;
for
dialectic
is
a
process
of
criticism
wherein
lies
the
path
to
the
principles
of
all
inquiries.
-‐-‐
T
i.2
101a36-‐b4
For
your
comparison,
here
is
a
more
recent,
but
equally
categorical,
distinction
between
questions
prior
to
and
appropriate
to
an
investigation:
My
statements
[in
this
book]
make
things
clear
in
the
following
way.
Anyone
who
understands
me
recognizes
them
as
meaningless
when,
at
the
end,
by
means
of
them,
he
has
stepped
up
on
top
of
them
and
gone
above
them.
(You
might
say
that
he
has
to
throw
the
ladder
away
after
he
has
stepped
up
it.)
He
must
rise
above
these
statements;
then
he
will
see
the
world
right.13
The
categorical
distinction
would
allow
us
to
say
that
what
is
nonsense
in
one
sort
of
inquiry
may
have
a
point
in
another.
It
will
be
nonsense
to
say
‘Socrates
and
man
are
each
man’
but
not
to
say
‘Socrates
and
man
belong
to
different
categories’.
The
category
theorist
can
have
his
cake
and
eat
it
too.
I
myself
don’t
see
much
hope
for
this
move
as
a
way
to
solve
the
problem
of
incoherence.
Look
again
at
the
first
group
of
statements
-‐-‐
1a,
1b,
1c,
and
1d
-‐-‐
and
the
second
group
-‐-‐
2a,
2b,
2c,
and
2d.
For
the
solution
to
work,
one
group
would
have
to
be
radically
different
than
the
other;
but
both
seem
to
belong
to
philosophy
or
dialectic.
It
would
be
hard
to
argue
that
one
group
of
statements
exclusively
is
scientific.
In
any
case,
it
is
incredible
to
claim
that
there
is
such
a
sharp
distinction
between
science
and
philosophy.
Take
physics,
for
example.
When
Thales
theorized
that
water
was
the
underlying
substance
of
all
things,
which
was
he
doing?
Surely
both.
When
Einstein
performed
thought
experiments
about
elevators
travelling
at
the
speed
of
light,
which
was
he
doing?
Surely
both.
The
point
is,
physics
and
philosophy
aren’t
sharply
distinguished;
they
overlap
in
obvious
ways.
The
same
point
could
be
made
for
mathematics,
biology,
psychology,
and
many
other
sciences.
CONCLUSION
The
Third
Man
Argument
raises
deep
metaphysical
questions.
It
appears
to
demolish
Plato’s
position.
Aristotle’s
theory
of
categories
gives
a
neat
solution.
But
it
appears
to
have
incurable
problems
of
its
own.
Where
does
that
leave
us?
13
Wittgenstein’s
statement
6.54
of
the
Tractatus
Logico-‐philosophical,
orig.
pub.
1921.
43
George Rudebusch
44
George Rudebusch
enterprise
is
misconceived
and
the
problems
unreal.
This
makes
them
receptive
to
scientism
[or
cultural
relativism
or
grammaticism].
.
.
.
[Such
a
reaction]
is
more
than
the
usual
wish
to
transcend
one’s
predecessors,
for
it
includes
a
rebellion
against
the
philosophical
impulse
itself,
which
is
felt
as
humiliating
and
unrealistic.
It
is
natural
to
feel
victimized
by
philosophy,
but
this
particular
defensive
reaction
goes
too
far.
It
is
like
the
hatred
of
childhood
and
results
in
a
vain
effort
to
grow
up
too
early,
before
one
has
gone
through
the
essential
formative
confusions
and
exaggerated
hopes
that
have
to
be
experienced
on
the
way
to
understanding
anything.
Philosophy
is
the
childhood
of
the
intellect,
and
a
culture
that
tries
to
skip
it
will
never
grow
up.
There
is
a
persistent
temptation
to
turn
philosophy
into
something
less
difficult
and
more
shallow
than
it
is.
It
is
an
extremely
difficult
subject,
and
no
exception
to
the
general
rule
that
creative
efforts
are
rarely
successful.
I
do
not
feel
equal
to
the
problems
treated
in
this
[course].
They
seem
to
me
to
require
an
order
of
intelligence
wholly
different
from
mine.
Others
who
have
tried
to
address
the
central
questions
of
philosophy
will
recognize
the
feeling.14
You
have
seen
Nagel’s
point
already,
briefly,
made
by
Plato:
"The
sense
of
wonder
is
the
mark
of
the
philosopher."
(Theaetetus
155d).
I
hope
that
the
negative
ending
to
this
course
leaves
you
not
with
a
sense
of
disappointment
but
with
a
sense
of
wonder.
14
Nagel,
slightly
amended
version
of
pp.
11-‐12
in
The
View
From
Nowhere