2013 Exam
There were two days of written exams. 3 hours each. 68 questions each day, and a
total of a 180 points you could get each day. Some questions would ask for 7 things
(bones of the orbit), but only be worth 1 point. It was an obscure exam this year, with a
lack of any real core content. (ie. this was not on the exam: Meniere’s, BPPV, SCCD, CPA
surgery/approaches,
Day 1:
There were 68 questions total, marked out of a total 180 points. A lot of the questions
seemed a lot like ‘opinions’ rather than things you could find in any text book or old
exam/review questions. Good luck!
1) What are the three modifiable factors you can control when using laser to
modify tissue damage?
● Spot size
● irradiance (Watts)
● Exposure time and frequency
● Power
2) Describe a staging system for endoscopic grading of caustic burn to the
esophagus (4 point staging system)
1 - Erythema
2a - Exudates, not circumferential/isolated ulceration
2b - Exudates, circumferential ulceration
3a - Full thickness with minimal eschar
3b - Full thickness transmural burns/extensive
4 - perforation
3) What is the embryologic formation of the upper lip/alveolus?
Upper lip:
● Philtrum: Formed by fusion of medial nasal processes
● Lateral upper lip segments: Formed by fusion of medial nasal with
maxillary processes
Alveolus (anterior maxilla):
● Derived from the primary palate, which is also formed by the medial nasal
processes
4) What decrease in PTH is defined as success after you resect a parathyroid
adenoma if using intra-operative PTH?
● The Miami criterion (>50% drop at 10 minutes) is the accepted benchmark
for success
5) What are the four consistent landmarks used in doing endoscopic
ethmoidectomy (from anterior to posterior)
● Uncinate
● Bulla
● BL of MT
● Sphenoid face
6) What are the benefits of bilateral cochlear implantation (vs. single)?
● Binaural squelch- hear better in noise
● Binaural summation
● Better sound localization
● Less tinnitus
● Better neurodevelopment if prelingual
7) Picture of a pre-auricular pit. What is it? What is the pathophysiology? What
syndrome is it associated with?
● Failure of the 1st and second hillocks to fuse
● Associated with BOR (Melnick-Fraser) - EYA1, Xm 8
8) Inverted papilloma stem:
a. Given a picture and the diagnosis of inverted papilloma
b. What THREE treatments are you considering?
● Endoscopic removal with medial maxillectomy
● Lateral rhinotomy with medial maxillectomy
● Trans antral
c. What is the rate of malignant transformation?
● Approximately 10%
d. What is the rate of recurrence following surgery?
● 10%
9) Nasopharyngeal cancer staging question (need to know the overall stage too)
T1- Nasopharynx and nasal cavity/oropharynx
T2- PPS involvement + muscle
T3- Sinus/skull base + bone
T4- Intracranial with cranial nerves, hypopharynx, orbit, or extension to
infratemporal space/masticator space
N1- <6 unil and above supraclav or b/l <6 in retro
N2- <6 bilat and above supraclav
N3 >6 below cricoid
10)Picture of a kid with a sublingual mass (likely a ranula):
a. What is it?
- Ranula = mucocele of floor mouth
b. What does it arise from?
- Extravasated mucous from the sublingual glands
11)Thommen’s postulates theory behind pollen and allergy? (5 point question –
insanity)
12)7 bones of the orbit
- Sphenoid
- Maxilla
- Frontal
- Zygoma
- Palatine
- Ethmoid
- Lacrimal
13)What is the advantage of using blunt tip catheter in facial fillers (2)
- Avoid intra-arterial injection
14) What is the long term side effect of using triamcinolone in nasal tip
- Thinning of skin
- Telangiectasia
- Hypopigmentation
- Necrosis
15) Definition of ABRS as per the AAO guidelines (in like 5 words)
- 2007 American Taskforce: <4weeks of purulence with obstruction and/or
pain
- Should last >10 days or get better then double worsening
16)Most common bacteria in ABRS (top 3)
- Strep pneumo
- H infl
- M. catarhalis
17) CT scan T-bone identify (we think) dilated EVA and a Mondini
18) CT scan sinus (terrible scan) pointing at 3 foramen
a. ? Rotundum
b. ? Vidian canal
c. ? Palatovaginal
19) History of 25 year old female with right CHL and pulsatile tinnitus. T-bone
scan was shown. Arrows point at:
a. Carotid canal (left) for sure
b. Foramen spinosum (left) we think
c. Contralateral side asked to describe the anatomic abnormality on the
right on the promontory. Persistent stapedial artery? Glomus?
Aberrant carotid?
20) 5 prognostic factors indicating success in post-lingually deafened adult
considering undergoing cochlear implantation:
Age of onset of deafness
Age of implantation
Etiology of deafness
Completeness of deafness
Motivation
Communication mode
Using hearing aids
21) 3 fluid filled compartments of the cochlea?
- Scala vestibule
- Scala tympani
- Scale media
a. Where does the implant go?
- Scala tympani
b. Why? What are the advantages (3 points)
- Less traumatic
- Improved speech
- Better electrode neural interface
- Less vestibular symptoms
22) Neck trauma – patient unstable, and can’t control with pressure. Zone 3.
What is your immediate management?
- To OR for exploration
23) PTC – path slide shown. 5mm cancer on ONE side only, post-op
thyroglobulin is 30, what to do next in treatment?
- Check thyroglobulin antibodies
- U/S → CT → I123 → PET
24) PTC with neck mets to level IV – what neck dissection to do?
- II-Va, VI
25) PTC in a 40 and 46 year old. Asked to stage and do overall staging for both
- T1a- <1cm
- T1b- 1-2cm
- T2- 2-4cm
- T3- >4 or minimal ETE
- T4a- esophagus, larynx, soft tissue of neck, trachea, RLN
- T4b- carotid, prevert, mediastinum
26) Picture of a FAMM flap – describe it, blood supply, muscle goes with it
- Musculomucosal flap based on the facial artery that takes part of the
buccinators muscle, used in oral cavity reconstruction
27) 4 journals in ENT with best impact factor (WTF!!)
- Head and Neck
- JAMA otolaryngology
- Laryngoscope
- Rhinology & Allergy
28) HPV – percent infected with oral HPV 16 (give me a fucking break)
- 4%
a. How is it transmitted
- Sexually transmitted
b. What are the oncogenic proteins produced by it
- E6, E7
29) Beckwith-Wiedman: give 4 characteristics of the disease
- AD - Xm 11, thyroid transcription factor 2
- Macroglossia
- Omphalocele
- Visceromegaly
- Creased earlobe
- Nevus flamus
30) Retropharyngeal space infection – give 3 characteristics that you would see
on a plain film X-ray to suggest it
- Loss of cervical lordosis
- Thickening of retropharyngeal area- >7mm at C2 in a child
- Gas in the retropharyngeal space
31) What are the imiquimod and 5-FU cream dosing? (honestly)
Topical: Aldara®: Apply once daily prior to bedtime, 5 days/week for 6
weeks.
Topical: Efudex® 5%: Apply to affected lesions twice daily for 3-6 weeks;
treatment may be continued for up to 10-12 weeks
32) Radiologist tells you your patient had a stroke in Broca’s area (we’re not
neurologist)
a. Where is that EXACTLY?
-Frontal lobe, dominant hemisphere, Broadmann’s 44/45
b. What will the deficit be?
- Expressive aphasia
33) 3 physical findings of a submucous cleft
o Zona pellucida
o Notched hard palate
o Bifid uvula
a. What three syndromes do you see find VPI?
- VCF
- Treacher Collins
- Stickler
34) Old microscopy of Otosclerosis shown
a. Say disease
b. Arrow pointing to IS joint
c. Arrow to ?oval window or ?fissula ante fenestrum
35) Man with CHL and draining ear. CT scan coronal and axial given. Asked to
identify the two most important findings. (Don’t know what).
a. ? Scutum erosion
b. ? Ossicles eroded
c. Then asked diagnosis – Cholesteatoma
36) Mastoidectomy done (canal wall down) for Cholesteatoma
a. Why do a good meatoplasty? (Give two reasons)
- Facilitate debridement
- Less otorrhea
-
b. What type of tympanoplasty was done (they grafted onto intact stapes
suprastructure)
- Wullenstein Type 3
37) 6 indications for XRT post oral cancer resection
- Positive margins
- T3, T4 tumour
- ENE
- Multiple nodes positive in neck
- PNI
- LVI
38) Propanolol side effects in children (list 3 serious ones)
- Bronchospasm
- Bradycardia
- Hypoglycemia
- Fourth is hypotension
39) Lady with autophony, and hears her own breathing. Worse after she lost a
bunch of weight
a. What is the diagnosis?
- PET
b. What is the pathophysiology
- Excess loss of fat at the fat pad of Ostmann at the fossa of rosenmuller
allows the nasopharyngeal aspect of the Eustachian tube to open more
than it should
40) Mechanism of hyperparathyroidism in renal failure
a. What two surgical treatments can be offered to patients with
secondary hyperparathyroidism
- There is elevated levels of phosphate which bind to calcium, stimulating
the release of PTH in an attempt to elevate serum calcium levels
- Failure of hydroxylation of vit D to active form
- Procedures include subtotal parathyroidectomy and total
parathyroidectomy with autotransplantation (if not going to qualify for
transplant)
41) List 3 types of spasmodic dysphonia
a. Most common type?
- Abductor
- Adductor (most common)
- Mixed
42) List the 3 attachments of the conus elasticus
- Cricothyroid membrane
- Cricoid
- Thyroid cartilage
a. What does its free edge become?
- TVC - vocal ligament
43) What three things should you think about in a kid with histological
confirmation of nasal polyposis?
- CF
- PCD
- Immunodeficiency
- AFS
- Young’s
44) Something about some funny interrupted dome suture, double dome suture
(we never heard of it)… What does it do to the nasal tip? (2)
Transdomal - narrows and defines tip
Interdomal - project and narrow tip
45) What are the two layers of the nasal mucous blanket?
- Gel layer
- Sol layer
46) Osteoplastic flap for a frontal sinus mucocele – what plane do you elevate
this in? How do you know where to make your osteotomies into the frontal
sinus (give 3 answers)
- Subgaleal
- Image guidance, 6 foot Caldwell views, trephine with malleable wire,
transilluminate from below
47) What serum marker is elevated in an exacerbation of Melkersson-Rosenthal?
- ACE
48) Kid with cerebral palsy who has sialorrhea. Is having a lot of aspiration
pneumonias for this reason. Maxed out medical therapy. Which surgical
procedure would exacerbate this?
- Duct re-routing
49) 4 theories behind the pathogenesis of congenital Cholesteatoma (honestly,
no one had any idea – thought it was a mistype question)
- Epithelial rests in the middle ear fail to involute (Michel)
- Ectodermal implants trapped in the fusion plates
- Adhesive otitis that resolves early but leaves some squames behind (Tos)
- Metaplasia of inflamed middle ear mucosa
50) What agent is most likely to cause hearing loss post meningitis
- S pneumo
a. What is the likely route of entry to the middle ear
- Cochlear aqueduct
51) List 4 histologic features of a verrucous carcinoma
- Pushing borders
- Hyperkeratosis
- Parakeratosis- retention of nuclei to stratum corneum
- Acanthosis- increased thickness of stratum spinosum (prickle layer)
52) What is a Merkel cell? Function? Where does it arise from?
- Mechanoreceptor cell
- Proprioception - light touch
- Neuroendocrine
53) Where do hemangiopericytomas come from? Most common site?
- Capillary Pericytes of Zimmerman
- Nasal cavity
54) What does a cVEMP test? What does an oVEMP test?
- C- Saccule
- O- Utricle
55) What is the best location to place a myringotomy tube and why?
- Anterior-inferior
o Low risk of hitting jugular bulb, ossicles, or chorda tympani
56) What is the worst location to place a myringotomy tube and why?
- Posterior- superior
o Risk hitting the ossicles
57) What are four events that occur leading to a cavernous sinus thrombosis?
- Pre-septal cellulitis, post septal cellulitis, subperiosteal abscess, orbital
abscess?
58) What are four reasons DPOAEs would be abnormal in a newborn?
- Effusion
- Collapse of canal
- Cerumen in canal
- Background noise in the room
59) What two things does rhinomanometry measure?
- Airflow and resistance
60) Adenoidectomy 2 weeks post-op with neck stiffness. Diagnosis?
- Grisel’s syndrome
61) Gardner-Robinson definition of serviceable hearing? (No none knew this).
- WRS >50%, PTA <50dB
62) Most common location of Sarcoidosis in the larynx?
- Supraglottis (epiglottis)
Day 2:
There were 68 questions again, marked out of 180 points. CT scans/pathology and
pictures were all terrible. No stats questions! No CanMEDS questions!
1) What two serum markers would you use to follow someone with MTC?
● Calcitonin, CEA
2) What is the ideal range for TSH in a patient with low risk PTC?
● 0.1-0.5mU/L
3) Name three ways to locate the facial nerve in the stylomastoid foramen.
● Drill out the mastoid
● Retrograde it back
● Tragal pointer - 1cm anterior, inferior, deep
4) 45 year old male undergoes stapedectomy. 3 days later is still having vertigo.
CT scan was shown. What is the diagnosis?
● Piston too long
What three other common reasons can explain persistent vertigo in the early post-
operative period.
● Labyrinthine fistula
● Depressed footplate
● Infection/Serous labyrinthitis
● BPPV
5) 75 year old lady dies of lung disease. She also has a history of sinusitis and
intermittent otalgia. You are shown some histology slide
a. What is the cause of her pulmonary disease that explains the otalgia?
- Keratosis obturans
● Immotile cilia syndrome? Wegeners?
b. What is the pulmonary disease that is cause by this disease?
- Bronchiectasis
● Sudden death from GPA = pulmonary hemorrhage
● Slow death from GPA = pulmonary fibrosis
6) Diagram of a parallelogram. (Bolger’s). Asked to identify the 4 boundaries.
Then asked to draw a line to show where the “safe” zone is.
● Lat- lamina
● Sup- skull base
● Inf- basal lamella
● Medial- ST
a. What is beyond the unsafe zone?
● ICA
7) Asked for blood supply to 7 different flaps (arterial only).
a. Pec- Thoracoacromial
b. Latissimus- Thoracodorsal
c. Trap- Transverse cervical
d. Deltopectoral- 1-4th perforators of internal mammary
e. Fibula- peroneal
f. iliac crest- deep circumflex iliac artery
g. forehead (not paramedian forehead)- STA
8) CT sagittal of sphenoid opacification. 80 year old male with 4 weeks history
of headaches post URTI. What is the most likely diagnosis? Also shown a
picture of the debris they got out of the sinus.
● Sphenoiditis- AFS
a. What are 3 CT or clinical findings to suggest this.
● Double density
● Calcifications
● Bony remodeling
● Asymmetry
b. What are you looking for on pathology?
● Fungi
● Charcot-Leyden crystals
● Eosinophils
9) People who are unresponsive to medical therapy for chronic rhinitis can
benefit from dividing a nerve. What nerve is targeted?
● Vidian
10)Asked to give staging (TNM and overall) for a glottic cancer.
● T1a- confined to 1 cord
● T1b- both cords
● T2- extension to supraglottis or subglottis +/- impaired VC mvt
● T3- hemifixation of the larynx, or extenstion to the inner thyroid lamina,
paraglottis space, post-cricoid
● T4a- invades cartilage, esophagus, thyroid, soft tissue of neck, deep tongue
muscles, straps
● T4b- prevert, carotid, mediastinum
N1 <3
N2a- uni, 3-6
N2b- uni, multiple, <6
N2c- b/l or contra, <6
N3- >6
Stage I- T1
Stage II- T2
Stage III- up to T3N1
Stage IVA- up to T4aN2
Stage IVB- N3 or T4B
Stage IVC- M1
11)4 contraindications to supracricoid laryngectomy?
● B/L cord fixation
● Massive cartilage invasion
● Hyoid invasion
● Poor pulmonary function
12)What syndrome is associated with medulloblastomas and KOTs?
Gorlin syndrome
13) What are the four main symptoms to Ramsay Hunt syndrome?
● Otalgia
● CN VII paralysis -
● Vertigo
● Hearing loss/hyperacusis
Vesicles - sign
a. What virus causes it?
● Varicella zoster virus
14) Young girl with 3 episodes of meningitis. Profound hearing loss. Shown a
terrible coronal CT of something that looked like a ball.
a. What is the diagnosis?
● Common cavity
b. What surgery would you offer to prevent further meningitis?
● Blind sac closure with Eustachian tube plugging, can drill out the labyrinth
and obliterate
15) What are the indications for open repair laryngeal fractures (list 5)
● Displaced fracture
● Cartilage exposure
● Anterior commissure involvement
● VC immobility
● Airway compromise requiring tracheotomy
16) Provide the laryngeal fracture staging system (list 4)
a. It’s a 5 point scale, don’t know why they wanted just 4
● I- Edema and ecchymosis, no fracture
● II- Single, non displaced fracture, no exposed cartilage, edema
● III- Displaced fracture, exposed cartilage, VF immobility, massive edema
● IV- Multiple displaced fractures, anterior commissure injury, skeletal
insufficiency
● V- Laryngotracheal separation
17) What two parameters are you measuring when you do a VEMP?
● Amplitude and threshold
18) What gland (be specific) does a peritonsillar abscess arise in?
● Weber’s gland
19)Three causes of fluctuating hearing loss due to inner ear disease?
● AIED
● Menieres
● Syphilis
● Cogans
● Perilymphatic fistula
20) Child with aspiration on MBS but normal upper airway. How do you
diagnose a laryngeal cleft?
● Microlaryngoscopy with spontaneous ventilation, then when the larynx is
suspended in view, palpate in between the arytenoids with a blunt suction
tip
a. Give the classification system for laryngeal clefts
Benjamin Inglis
1. Interarytenoid, above cricoid
2. Into cricoid, but not through
3. Through cricoid into the cervical trachea, but not thoracic trachea
4. Into the thoracic trachea
21) MRI of an acoustic neuroma in the CPA – large one.
a. What sequence of MRI is it?
T1 hypo/T2 hyper, enhances with Gad
b. What are 4 features of the lesion you see?
● Focused on the IAC, acute angles, no calcification or hyperostosis, extends
into the IAC, can be cystic, lack of dural tail
c. What is the diagnosis?
22) What margin to excise with a 4mm nodular melanoma?
● 2cm
23) What is Vemurafinib? What genetic test do you need to do? What disease is it
used to treat?
● Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
● BRAF V600E
● Melanoma
24) Where is CSF produced? Where is it absorbed? Where is beta-2-transferrin
located? How much CSF is produced daily?
● It is produced in the choroid plexus
● It is absorbed in the arachnoid villi (granulations)
● Beta 2 transferrin is found in perilymph and vitreous humour of the eye
● 500mL
25) What laryngeal muscle has bilateral innervation? Which one is supplied by
the SLN? Which one is responsible for abduction?
● Interarytenoid
● Cricothyroid
● PCA
26) What are the three mechanisms beyond which LPR causes globus?
● Vasovagal reflex hypertonicity of cricopharyngeus by acidification/distention
of distal esophagus
● Abnormal UES function
● Esophageal dysmotility
● Direct acid effect on the mucosa
27) 65 gentleman with a cricoid chondrosarcoma. What treatment? They
showed you a CT scan. He had impaired right cord movement.
● TL- need clear margins and would be unlikely to achieve with a conservative
resection
28) What is the most common malignant tumour of the parotid gland? Of the
submandibular gland? Of the minor salivary glands?
● Muco ep
● Adenoid cystic
● Adenoid cystic
29) What is the etiology and underlying cause for necrotizing sialometaplasia?
Where does it usually occur?
● Lobular infarction with extravasation of mucus and inflammation as a result
● Felt to be due to ischemia, either from trauma, smoking etc
● Hard palate/soft palate junction often
30) Kid with bilateral nasal obstruction and a CT that looked like bone. What is
the most likely diagnosis? (Choanal atresia vs. pyriform aperture stenosis)
31) 4 features that are common and seen in all FOUR types of osteogenesis
imperfecta?
● Short stature
● Frequent fractures
● Easy bruising
● Scoliosis
● Joint laxity
32)What are the features of Pierre-Robin sequence?
● Glossoptosis
● Retrognathia
● Airway obstruction
a. What are 4 syndromes associated with PRS
● Sticklers
● Treacher-Collins
● VCFS
● Goldenhar
33) Please describe 4 steps in the technique of doing auto-spreader grafts?
● Separate the septum from the ULC
● Trim excess septum
● Fold the ULC medially on itself
● Suture into position
34) Penicillin 🡪 why does it work in vitro and not in vivo?
● Because in vivo the bacteria have b-lactamase which breaks it down
35) What type of word is ‘bath?’
● Monosyllabic
a. If an audiologist asks someone to say this, what are they testing?
● SDS
36) What are the receptors and actions for phenylephrine, epinephrine,
oxymetazoline?
Alpha1 adrenergic agonist
Alpha1 agonist, Alpha 2 beta 1/2/3
Alpha 1, partial alpha 2
37) What is the bony landmark marking the Sphenopalatine foramen?
a. What bone is it part of?
Crista ethmoidalis of the palatine bone
38) Picture of ectropion – what is the diagnosis? What causes it post resection?
● Over-resection of skin, scar contracture
a. What treatment would you offer
● Wedge resection and lateral canthoplasty
39) Eye movements that happen by stimulation of the right posterior SCC and
right superior SCC. What muscles are activated?
● Posterior
o Right SO, Left IR
● Superior
o Right SR, Left IO
40) What is the most common mutation in papillary thyroid cancer?
BRAF & RET
41) Three components of rotary chair testing
Phase, Gain, Symmetry
42) Audio of a guy with noise induced hearing loss – high frequency.
a. What type of hearing aid be best?
● Receiver-in-Canal (RIC) Hearing Aid with Open Fit design to prevents the
occlusion effect
43) Something about inserting a neo-septum with some sort of graft. This was
honestly a brutal exam. What 4 points do you anchor the neoseptum on?
● Anterior nasal spine
● Nasal bone
● LLC
● ULC
44) Post Septoplasty have bilateral tears intra-op. Give 4 options to do intra-
operatively to prevent a septal perforation.
● Suture it closed
● Cartilage graft
● Fascia graft
● Mucosal flap
● Quilting suture
45) What three planes does the basal lamella of the middle turbinate have. You
had to list them in the order from anterior 🡪 posterior (Give me a fucking
break.)
● Sagittal, then coronal, then axial
46) Kid with high pitched voice and breathing difficulty. Glottic web on exam.
What is the likely diagnosis? What test would you order to confirm this?
VCFS
FISH 22q11 microdeletion
47) How do you fix pharyngeal spasm in a patient with laryngectomy. Either
during the procedure to prevent, or post-operatively. Give 3.
● Cricopharyngeal myotomy
● Pharyngeal plexus neurectomy
● Botox
● Dilations
48) Maternal risk factors for papillomatosis (give 4).
● Young mother
● First born
● Vaginal delivery - prolonged
● Low SES
49) Audiogram showing way lower word recognition scores than expected for
the PTA. What are four non-neoplastic causes for this?
● Auditory neuropathy
● Malingering
● Neural presbyacusis
● Central processing disorder
50) What are the 5 muscle pairs of the palate?
TVP, LVP, Palatoglossus, Palaopharyngeus, Musc Uvulae
a. Which one is activated to close the velopharynx?
LVP
51) Which muscle is deficient in a submucous cleft palate?
LVP
52) What is Killian’s triangle? What type of diverticulum is a Zenker’s?
Between thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus
Pulsion-type pharyngeoesophageal pseudodiverticulum
53) Had a graph showing different patterns of fractionation and you had to
identify which type it was (accelerated, hyperfractionation and concomitant
boost)
a. What is the biologic reason for accelerated?
Less chance for tumour repair and to take advantage of the repopulation principle
54) Had a sagittal CT of a frontal sinus with arrow pointing to a frontal recess air
cell (Kuhn cell) and you had to identify it.
55) What is the significance of an overly pneumatized Agger cell?
Can block frontal recess
56) What are 3 indications to place a laryngeal stent post laryngeal fracture
repair?
● Unstable repair post ORIF
● Anterior commissure involvement
● Multiple severe endolaryngeal lacerations
● Multiple displaced fractures
57) What is the difference between a polyp and an intracordal cyst on strobe?
● Polyp has a wave
● Intracordal cyst has an adynamic segment
58) What is Cetuximab? What kind of medication is it? How does it work? What
are its main side effects?
● Monoclonal antibody
● Anti-EGFR
● It binds the receptor, blocks the ligand binding site
● S/E: rash, fever, urticarial and anaphylaxis are common- pretreatment with
Benadryl is standard
59) What type of laser is a 10,600 nm? A 532 nm? What are they absorbed by?
CO2 →Water
KTP →, Hgb
60) What is the name of the opening of the nasolacrimal duct?
Hanser's valve
61) A 32 year old female presents for evaluation regarding Rhinoplasty. You feel
she is a good candidate. She is currently taking Accutane. What do you tell
her regarding accutane and when she can have her surgery?
1 year (6 mo for sure, >12 is best)
62) What is the average fundamental frequency for women? For men?
225Hz
125Hz
63) What are the two oncoproteins involved in an HPV infection leading to
cancer formation?
E6, E7
64) Showed an MRI of a maxillary sinus tumour. Asked to describe two pertinent
findings. Again, the scans were TERRIBLE quality. If appeared as if it involved
the maxillary sinus and was ? going into the orbit.
