Chemistry

Question 1: The following are separation techniques EXCEPT...

A. Crystallization
B.
Saponification
C. Sublimation
D. Decantation

Question 2: The general principle for separation of mixtures into its constituents is based on
difference in...

A. Physical state of the constituents

B. Chemical reaction of the constituents

C.
Physical properties of the constituents
D. Chemical properties of the constituents

Question 3: A mixture of iodine crystals and copper granules can best be separated by...

A. Crystallization
B. Distillation
C.
Sublimation
D. Decantation

Question 4: The smallest particle of matter that can exist separately is called...

A. Atom
B.
Molecule
C. Ion
D. Electron

Question 5: The three chemical forms or classes of matter are...

A. Atoms, Molecules and Ions

B.
Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

C. Solids, Liquids and Gases

D. Electrons, Protons and Neutrons

Question 6: The three fundamental particles of atom are...

A. Atoms, Molecules and Ions

B. Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

C. Solids, Liquids and Gases

D.
Electrons, Protons and Neutrons

Question 7: The three particulate entities of matter are...

A.
Atoms, Molecules and Ions
B. Elements, Compounds and Mixtures
 C. Solids, Liquids and Gases
D. Electrons, Protons and Neutrons

Question 8: The mass of a proton is the same as that of a...

A.

B.
C.
D.

Question 9: An atom with 17 protons, 17 electrons and 18 neutrons has a mass number of...

A. 17
B. 18
C. 34
D.
35

Question 10: Which of the following atoms contain the highest number of electrons in the
outermost shell?

A. 8O
B.
10Ne
C. 15P
D. 19K

Question 11: Which of the following scientists discovers the nucleus of an atom?

A. Millikan
B. Thomson
C. Roentgen
D.
Rutherford

Question 12: Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of oxygen?

A. 1S22S23P2
B. 1S22S22P63S2
C.
1S22S22P4
D. 1S22S22P63S23P4

Question 13: What is the atomic number of an element with the electronic configuration, 1S 22S22P63S23P64S2?

A. 16
B. 18
C.
20
D. 22
Question 14: If the atomic number of an element, T is 11 and that of nitrogen is 7; the most
likely formula of the nitride of T is...

A.
T3N
B. TN3
C. T3N2
D. N2T

Question 15: Identify X in the following nuclear reaction;

A.
Alpha particle
B. Beta particle
C. Gamma particle
D. X-ray

Question 16: The emission of a beta particle from the nucleus of will produce...

A.
B.
C.

D.

Question 17: Which of the following is a strong acid?

A. H2CO3
B. CH3COOH
C. H3PO4
D.
H2SO4

Question 18: The following substances are alkalis EXCEPT...

A. NH4OH
B. Ca(OH)2
C.
Cu(OH)2
D. KOH

Question 19: Calculate the pH value of 0.01M Sodium hydroxide solution?

A.
12
B. 10
C. 4
D. 2

Question 20: A sample of fruit juice has a pH of 4.2. What is the concentration in moldm-3 of hydroxyl ion
[OH-] in the juice?

A. 1.58 x 10-3
 B.
1.5 x 10-10
C. 6.31 x 10-5
D. 6.31 x 10-4

Question 21:

Which of the following presents the mathematical expression for Graham’s law diffusion?

A.

Rαd

B.

R α √d

C.

R α 1/d

D.

R α 1/√d

Question 22: A fixed mass of gas has a volume of 300cm3 at 21OC. Assuming that the pressure remains
constant, what would be the temperature in OC of the gas if its volume increases to 450cm3?

A. 31.5
B. 400
C.
168
D. 196

Question 23: Calculate the mass of chlorine gas which would occupy a volume of 1.12dm 3 at STP
(Cl = 35.5). Take Vm = 22.4dm3mol-1 and R = 0.082 atmdm3mol-1K-1.

A. 1.78g
B.
3.55g
C. 7.10g
D. 15.50g

Question 24: A sample of a gas exerts a pressure of 8.2atm when confined in a volume of
2.93dm3 at 20OC. Given that R = 0.082 atmdm3mol-1K-1, the amount in moles of gas in the sample is...

A.
1.00
B. 2.00
C. 3.00
D. 4.00

Question 25: What is the ratio of rate of diffusion of carbon(iv)oxide to that of propane under
the same conditions? (H=1, C=12, O=16)

A. 3:1
B. 2:1
C. 1:2
 D.
1:1

Question 26: What mass of potassium trioxonitrate(v), KNO3 is needed to prepare 1dm3 of 0.2moldm-3
solution? (O=16, N=14, K=39)

A. 2.02g
B. 5.3g
C. 10.1g
D.
20.2g

Question 27: What is the S.I. unit for molar mass?

A. mol-1
B. mol
C.
gmol-1
D. moldm-3

Question 28: If 20cm3 of distilled water is added to 80cm3 of 0.5moldm-3 hydrochloric acid, the concentration of
the acid will change to...

A. 20.0moldm-3
B. 0.4moldm-3
C. 2.0moldm-3
D.
5.0moldm-3

Question 29: In which of the following is the oxidation number of sulphur equals to -2?

A. S8
B.
H2S
C. SO2
D. SO3

Question 30:

What is the value of ‘x’ in the following equation?

C r2O72- + 14H+ + xe- -----------> 2Cr3+ + 7H2O

A.

B.

6
 C.

D.

12

Question 31: Oxidation is a process that involves...

A. Gain of electron
B.
Loss of electron
C. Gain of hydrogen
D. Loss of hydrogen

Question 32: The chemical reaction which takes place at the anode in electrolysis is...

A.
Oxidation
B. Dissolution
C. Ionization
D. Reduction

Question 33:

In the following reaction the oxidation number of hydrogen changes from...

2 H2(g) + O2(g) ----------------> 2H2O(l)

A.

+2 to +1

B.

+1 to +2

C.

0 to -2

D.

0 to +1

Question 34: The flow of electric current through molten or fused electrolytes is due to the
movement of...

A. Electrons
B. Mobile electrons
C.
Ions
D. Charges

Question 35:

A device consisting of two half cells, capable of converting chemical energy into electrical
energy is called....

A.

Electrolytic cell

B.

Electrochemical cell

C.

Chemical potential

D.

Electrode potential

Question 36: Heat content of matter is also known as...

A.
Enthalpy
B. Entropy
C. Free energy
D. Quanta

Question 37:

Which of the following is correct about exothermic reactions?

A.

Heat is absorbed

B.

∆H = Positive

C.

Heat is released

D.

∆H = Zero

Question 38: Which of these represents decrease in entropy?

A. Melting of ice
B. Decomposition of lime stone

C.
Freezing of water
D. Decomposition of hydrogen iodide

Question 39: Which of the following does not affect rate of aqueous reactions?

A. Change in concentration of reactants

B.
Change in pressure of the system
 C. Change in temperature of the system
D. Addition of catalyst to the reaction

Question 40: A chemical reaction is said to be at dynamic equilibrium when...

A. All the reactants have been used up

B. Reactants & products do not interconvert

C. All the products have been formed

D.
Rates of forward & backward reactions are equal

Question 41: Chlorine is used in water treatment plant as...

A.
Germicide
B. Decolorizing agent
C. Antioxidant
D. Coagulating agent

Question 42: Treated town water undergoes the following steps except...

A. Coagulation
B. Sedimentation
C.
Precipitation
D. Chlorination

Question 43: Temporary hardness of water is removed by use of the following EXCEPT...

A. Boiling
B. Use of Ca(OH)2
C. Use of Na2CO3
D.
Use of alum

Question 44: The solubility of alcohol in water is due to...

A. Covalent bonding
B.
Hydrogen bonding
C. Low boiling point
D. Low melting point

Question 45: Which of the following is not a bond type between atoms?

A. Ionic Bond
B. Covalent Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D.
Hydrogen Bond

Question 46: Which of the following is the strongest bond type?

A. Ionic Bond
B.
 Covalent Network
C. Metallic Bond
D. Hydrogen bond

Question 47: Predict the type of bond between two different elements with atomic numbers 12
and16.

A.
Ionic Bond
B. Covalent Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Hydrogen Bond

Question 48: Which of the following is a property of substances resulting from metallic bond?

A.
Malleable and ductile
B. Hard and brittle
C. Easily sublime
D. Water soluble

Question 49: The following are periodic properties of elements in the periodic table EXCEPT...

A. Ionization energy
B. Electron affinity
C. Electronegativity
D.
Screening effect

Question 50: Ionic radii of cations are smaller than the corresponding atomic radii due to...

A. Decrease screening effect

B. Decrease nuclear attraction

C. Increase screening effect

D.
Increase nuclear attraction

Question 51: The gradual change of properties down the vertical columns of the periodic table
is called...

A. Periodicity
B.
Group trend
C. Periodic law
D. Periodic trend

Question 52: Group I elements are regarded as alkaline metals because...

A.
They react with water vigorously to form alkaline solution

B. They are obtained directly from the earth as alkaline salts

C. They are univalent elements

D. They are metals

Question 53: One of the impure forms of carbon is...

A. Graphite
B. Diamond
C.
Coal
D. Galena

Question 54: An allotropic form of crystalline carbon is...

A. Coke
B. Charcoal
C. Lamp black
D.
Graphite

Question 55: Which of these carbonates is not decomposed by heat?

A.
Na2CO3
B. (NH4)2CO3
C. MgCO3
D. CaCO3

Question 56: A solution of which of the following gases serves as a bleaching agent?

A. CO2
B.
Cl2
C. H2
D. CO

Question 57: Chlorine can be prepared by the action of concentrated hydrochloric acid on...

A. KOH
B. NO2
C. Na2CO3
D.
MnO2

Question 58: The gas that produces a dense white fume when brought closer to ammonia is...

A.
HCl
B. O2
C. CO
D. H2

Question 59: The function of lime stone in the extraction of iron in the blast furnace is...

A.
Removal of impurities
B. Decomposition of iron ore

C. Conversion of coke to CO
 D. Generation of heat

Question 60: Metals which react with steam only when they are red-hot include...

A. Copper
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D.
Iron

Question 61: Acid anhydrides are oxides of non- metals that dissolves in water to form...

A.
Acids
B. Alkalis
C. Salts
D. Oxides

Question 62: Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

A. SiO2
B. CaO
C.
Al2O3
D. K2O

Question 63: Oxygen in the air can be absorbed by passing it through...

A.
Caustic soda
B. Fused CaCl2
C. Alkaline pyrogallol
D. Washing soda

Question 64: The most stable allotrope of sulphur at lower temperature is...

A. Amorphous
B. Plastic
C. Monoclinic
D.
Rhombic

Question 65: The main process for the extraction of sulphur from its deposit is...

A. Haber process
B.
Frasch process
C. Electrolysis
D. Contact process

Question 66: The initial gas used in the preparation of H2SO4 is...

A. SO
B.
SO2
C. SO3
 D. SO4

Question 67: Caster process is one of the processes for the production of...

A.
Na
B. Ca
C. Cu
D. Fe

Question 68: The gas that rekindles a glowing splinter is...

A. Nitrogen
B. Chlorine
C.
Oxygen
D. Hydrogen

Question 69: Oxide of nitrogen that is used as anaesthesia in surgical operation is...

A. NO
B.
N2 O
C. NO2
D. NO3

Question 70: Oxide of nitrogen that is odourless and has no effect on the litmus paper is...

A.
NO
B. N2O5
C. N2O3
D. NO2

Question 71: Copper occur in nature in the form of...

A.
Pyrite
B. Galena
C. Limestone
D. Haematite

Question 72: The purest form of iron that contains the least amount of carbon is...

A. Pig iron
B. Wrought iron
C.
Cast iron
D. Steel

Question 73: Brass is an alloy consisting of ...

A. Fe and Cu
B.
Cu and Zn
C. Cu and Sn
D. Al, Cu and Mg
Question 74: Which of the following is not an organic compound?

A. Milk
B.
Water
C. Sugar
D. Urea

Question 75: An alkyne with relative molecular mass 82, is called

A. Butyne
B. Pentyne
C.
Hexyne
D. Heptyne

Question 76: Which of the following is not true about alkenes?

A. They undergo substitution reaction

B. They undergo addition reaction

C. They undergo rearrangement reaction

D.
They undergo esterification reaction

Question 77: Alkanes can undergo which of the following isomerism?

A.
Chain Isomerism
B. Cis-trans isomerism

C. Geometrical Isomerism
D. Optical Isomerism

Question 78: Which of the following is not a general property of organic compounds?

A. They have low melting and boiling points

B.
They are thermally stable at all temperatures

C. They are made of covalent bonds

D. They react slowly and often require catalyst

Question 79: Compounds in the same homologues series share the following characteristics
EXCEPT...

A. They have the same suffix (name ending)

B.
They have the same molecular formula

C. They have the same functional group

D. They have similar chemical properties

Question 80: This PAIR of organic compounds, CH2=C(Cl)CH3 and CH2=CHCH2Cl are called...

A. Polymers
B. Monomers
C. Isomerism
D.
 Isomers

Question 81: What is the correct IUPAC name of the compound?

A. 2-butene

B. But-2-ene

C.
trans 2-butene

D. cis 2-but-2-ene

Question 82: Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name of the compound?

A. Propylethanoic acid
B. Ethylpropanoic acid
C. Propylethanoate
D.
Ethylpropanoate

Question 83: Which of the following will give a white precipitate with silver trioxonitrate(v) .

A. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
B.
CH≡C-CH2-CH3

C. CH3-C≡C-CH3
D. CH2=CH-CH2-CH3

Question 84: The saponification of an Alkanoate to produce soap and Alkanol involves...

A. Dehydration
B. Esterification
C.
Hydrolysis
D. Oxidation

Question 85: 2,3-dimethylbut-1-ol is an example of...

A.
Primary alkahol
B. Secondary alkahol
C. Tertiary alkahol
D. Quaternary alkahol
Question 86: The final oxidation product of an alkanol, alkanal or alkanone is...

A. Alkanoate
B. Alkanamide
C. Alkoxyalkane
D.
Alkanoic acid

Question 87: An organic compound has an empirical formular CH2O and vapour density of 45. What is
its molecular formular?

A. C3H8O
B. C2H6O
C.
C3H6O3
D. C2H4O2

Question 88: Which of the following pairs are not isomers?

A. CH3OCH3 and CH3CH2OH

B. CH3COCH3 and CH3CH2CHO

C.
CH3CH2CH=CH2 and CH2=CHCH2CH3
D. CH3COOCH3 and CH3CH2COOH

Question 89: Which of the following is not an isomer of butenol?

A.
CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
B. CH3COCH2CH3

C. CH3CH2OCH=CH2
D. CH3CH2CH2CHO

Question 90: Which of the following organic compounds has the lowest boiling point?

A. CH3(CH2)2CH3
B.
CH3CH(CH3)CH3

C. CH2=CHCH2CH3
D. CH≡CCH2CH3

Question 91:

The general equation for combustion of hydrocarbons can be written as C xHy + aO2
---------------> bCO2 + cH2O Thus; a, b and c are…

A.

x + y/4, x and y/2

 B.

x + y, x and y

C.

2x + y/2, x and y/2

D.

x, y and z

Question 92: When an Alkanol reacts with an Alkanoic acid in acidic solution, the product
formed would be...

A.
Alkanoate
B. Alkanamide
C. Alkanal
D. Alkanone

Question 93: A characteristic reaction of the alkane family is...

A. Addition reaction
B. Condensation reaction

C. Elimination reaction
D.
Substitution reaction

Question 94: In the production of soap, concentrated sodium chloride is added to...

A. Saponify the soap

B.
Emulsify the soap

C.
Reduce solubility of the soap
D. Increase solubility of the soap

Question 95: Polymers that extend when pulled and regain their shape when released are
called...

A. Resins
B.
Elastomers
C. Thermoplastics
D. Fibres

Question 96: The molecules that have the lowest and highest octane rating respectively are...

A.
Normal hexane and isooctane octane
B. Isooctane and normal hexane

C. Isohexane and normal octane

D. Normal octane and isohexane
Question 97: CH3CH2COOH has higher boiling point than CH3COOCH3 due to...

A. Covalent bonding
B. Higher molecular density

C.
Hydrogen bonding
D. Higher molecular weight

Question 98: The dissolution of sodium chloride in water

A. is a chemical change
B.
is reversible

C. is accompanied by great heat change

D. can be represented by a chemical equation.

Question 99: The method by which sugar can be recovered from its solution in water is

A. evaporation
B. sublimation
C.
crystallization
D. distillation

Question 100: The scientist who is credited with the discovery of the nucleus is

A.
J. Chadwick
B. J. J. Thompson
C. Niels Bohr
D. Lord Rutherford

Question 101: A particle that contains 12neutrons, 11protons and 10electrons is

A. a negative ion
B.
a positive ion
C. a neutral ion of a non-metal
D. a neutral atom of a metal

Question 102:

The electron configuration 1s22s3violates

A.

Hund’s rule

B.

Bohr’s rule

C.

Pauli’s exclusion principle

 D.

Dalton’s rule

Question 103: The element represented as 7Q has how many unpaired electrons?

A. 2
B.
3
C. 4
D. 7

Question 104:

Consider the reaction: H+(aq) + OH–(aq) -------------------> H2O(l).

The energy change taking place in the reaction above is enthalpy of

A.

formation

B.

hydration

C.

neutralization

D.

solution

Question 105:

If the heat of combustion of hydrogen is –285.8kJ, what is the heat of formation of water?

A.

–285.8kJ

B.

+285.8kJ

C.

–571.6kJ

D.

+571.6kJ

Question 106: Consider the reaction: C(s) + H2O(g) ----------------------> H2(g) + CO(g).

ΔG for the reaction above at 500K is –34kJ. At this temperature, the reaction is

A. at equilibrium
 B. feasible
C. not feasible
D. exothermic

Question 107: An increase in the rate of a chemical reaction on heating is due to increase in

A. enthalpy
B.
entropy
C.
collision rate
D. concentration

Question 108: Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide

A. SiO2
B. CaO
C.
Al2O3
D. K2O

Question 109: The main reason for including hydrogen in group IA in the periodic table is that
it

A.
has ns1 configuration in its outermost shell
B. is the smallest element

C. forms compounds with some other metals

D. exists as a diatomic molecule

Question 110: Which of the following statements is most applicable to hydrogen? It acts as

A. a reducing agent
B. an oxidizing agent

C.
both oxidizing and reducing agent
D. neither an oxidizing nor reducing agent

Question 111: The high density of water as compared to ice is due to

A.
hydrogen bonding interaction
B. dipole-dipole interaction

C. dipole-induced dipole interaction

D. induced dipole-induced dipole interaction

Question 112: Which of the following metals cannot be used for liberating dihydrogen from
dilute hydrochloric acid?

A. Zinc
B.
Copper
C. Iron
D. Magnesium
Question 113: Which of the following is not a characteristic of an homologous series? They

A. can be represented by a general formular

B. have similar chemical properties

C. have similar methods of preparation

D.
have identical physical properties

Question 114:

The bonds present in sp2 hybridisation are

A.

1 σ bond and 3 π bonds

B.

2 σ bonds and 2 π bonds

C.

3 σ bonds and 1 π bond

D.

4 σ bonds

Question 115: The IUPAC name of the compound CCl4 is

A. carbon tetrachloride
B.
tetrachlorocarbon
C. carbon(IV) chloride
D.
tetrachloromethane

Question 116: When chloroethane is subjected to Wurtz reaction, the product obtained is

A. ethane
B. propane
C.
butane
D. pentane

Question 117: The IUPAC name of the compound C(CH3)4 is

A. carbon tetramethyl
B. tetramethylcarbon
C.
2,2-dimethylpropane
D. tetramethylmethane

Question 118: In the preparation of ethane from ethanol, the function of concentrated H2SO4 in
the reaction is as
 A. a catalyst
B.
a dehydrating agent
C. a drying agent
D. an oxidizing agent

Question 119: When two molecules of hydrogen chloride are reacted with one molecule of
propyne, the likely product that will be obtained is

A. 1,2-dichloropropane
B.
2,2-dichloropropane
C. 1,2-dichloropropyne
D. 2,2-dichloropropyne

Question 120: Which of the following can be used to improve the quality of gasoline?

A. Octane rating
B. Cracking
C.
Reforming
D. Refining

Question 121: How many structural isomers does an organic compound with the molecular
formular C4H10O have?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D.
7

Question 122: The names of the reaction and the main product formed when CH3CH2OH reacts with
CH3CH2COOH in the presence of concentrated H2SO4 are

A. esterification, propylethanoate
B. hydrolysis, ethylpropanoate

C.
esterification, ethylypropanoate
D. hydrolysis, propylethanoate

Question 123: In the nuclear equation: + --------------------------> + X,

the X represents

A. a positron
B. a gamma particle
C. a beta particle
D.
an alpha particle

Question 124: Which of the following instruments can be used to detect the presence of
radiation?
 A. Mass spectrometer
B.
Centrifuge
C.
Geiger counter
D. Cathode ray tube

Question 125: The element with the following electron configuration: 1s22s22p63s23p3 will be in

A. group IIIA and period 3 in the periodic table

B. group VA and period 3 in the periodic table

C. group IIIA and period 5 in the periodic table

D. group IIIA and period 1 in the periodic table

Question 126:

Which experiment led to the measurement of the charge on an electron?

A.

Mass spectrometric experiment

B.

Oil-drop experiment

C.

α-particle scattering experiment

D.

discharge tube experiment

Question 127:

An atom of an element Y is represented as . The basic chemical properties of Y depend

on the value of

A.

q-r

B.

r-q

C.

D.

Question 128: What is the pH of a 0.001moldm–3 solution of sodium hydroxide?

 A. 14
B. 13
C. 12
D.
11

Question 129: Which of the following factors does not affect the rate of non-gaseous reaction?

A. Concentration
B. Temperature
C. Surface area
D.
Pressure

Question 130: A reversible reaction is usually carried out

A. at low pressure
B. at high temperature
C.
in a closed vessel
D. at low temperature

Question 131: The oxidation number of T in TO43- is

A. +2
B. +3
C. +4
D.
+5

Question 132: Heavy water is obtained by

A. boiling water
B. fractional distillation of H2O

C.
prolonged electrolysis of H2O
D. reaction of heavy hydrogen with oxygen

Question 133: Action of water or dilute mineral acid on metals can produce

A. monohydrogen
B.
tritium
C. dihydrogen
D. trihydrogen

Question 134: Which of the following has the lowest melting point?

A.
LiCl
B. NaCl
C. KCl
D. RbCl

Question 135: Metallic calcium is prepared by

 A. displacement of calcium by iron from calcium tetraoxosulphate(VI) solution

B.
electrolysis of molten calcium chloride

C. reduction of lime by coke

D. electrolysis of aqueous solution of calcium trioxonitrate(V)

Question 136: The compounds of alkaline earth metals have the following magnetic nature:

A.
Diamagnetic
B. Paramagnetic
C. Ferromagnetic
D. Antiferromagnetic

Question 137: Which of the following are arranged in increasing order of solubility?

A. CaCO3 < KHCO3 < NaHCO3

B. NaHCO3 < KHCO3 < CaCO3

C. KHCO3 < NaHCO3 < CaCO3

D.
CaCO3 < NaHCO3 < KHCO3

Question 138: Among the alkaline earth metals, the element forming predominantly covalent
compounds is

A. barium
B. strontium
C. calcium
D.
beryllium

Question 139: Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than lithium because it

A. has higher atomic weight

B. is a metal
C.
is more electropositive
D. is more electronegative

Question 140: Bleaching powder loses its power on keeping for a long time because it

A. changes into calcium hypochlorate

B. changes into calcium chloride and calcium hydroxide

C. absorbs moisture
D.
changes into calcium chloride and calcium chlorate

Question 141: Solubilities of trioxocarbonates decreases down the magnesium group due to
decrease in

A. entropy of formation of solution

 B. lattice energies of solids

C. hydration energies of cations

D.
inter-ionic attraction

Question 142: The final product of the complete oxidation of butan-1-ol is

A. butanal
B. ethoxyethane
C.
butanoic acid
D. butan-2-one

Question 143: The formation of two distinct layers after about 10minutes in a Lucas test for
alkanols identifies

A. primary alkanols
B.
secondary alkanols
C. tertiary alkanols
D. quarternary alkanols

Question 144: The hydrolysis of fats and oils with caustic alkalis is known as

A. polymerization
B.
saponification
C. vulcanization
D. esterification

Question 145: The reaction between ethanol and 1-chloropropane produces

A.
ethoxypropane
B. propoxyethane
C. 1-chloropentane
D. 3-chloropentane

Question 146: In condensation polymerization, the sum of the molar masses of the monomers
is

A.
greater than the molar mass of the polymer
B. lesser than the molar mass of the polymer

C. equal to the molar mass of the polymer

D. twice the molar mass of the polymer

Question 147: The basicity of CH3COOH is

A.
1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Question 148: The property which decreases down the group in the periodic table is
 A. electropositivity
B.
ionization energy
C. atomic radius
D. metallic character

Question 149: An element will readily form an electrovalent compound if its electron
configuration is

A.
1s22s22p63s1
B. 1s22s22p63s23p2
C. 1s22s22p63s23p6
D. 1s22s22p63s23p3

Question 150: Hardness of water is caused mostly by the presence of

A. K+ and Ca2+ ions

B. Na+ and Ca2+ ions
C.
Mg2+ and Ca2+ ions
D. Ca2+ and Al3+ ions

Question 151: In the purification of water for town supply, the process of aeration is carried
out in order to

A. improve the taste of the water

B.
remove foul odour that may be present in the water

C. adjust the pH of the water

D. coagulate suspended particles

Question 152: A reducing agent is one that

A. is reduced
B.
is oxidized
C. accepts electron
D. undergoes reduction

Question 153: In the reaction: H2S(g) + Br2(g) ---------> 2HBr(g) + S(s), bromine is

A.
an oxidizing agent
B. a reducing agent
C. an acid
D. an electron donour

Question 154: In a Leclanche cell, the anode is normally

A. carbon rod
B.
zinc container
C. ammonium chloride
D. manganese(IV) oxide
Question 155: Which of the following substances decomposes when an electric current is
passed through it?

A. Copper wire
B. Glucose solution
C. Tetrachloromethane
D. Hydrochloric acid

Question 156: Which of the following substances, on being electrolysed, will produce mainly
chlorine at the anode?

A. Dilute hydrochloric acid

B. Tetrachloromethane

C. Concentrated potassium chloride solution

D.
Dilute sodium chloride solution

Question 157: Which of the following metals is purified commercially by electrolysis?

A. Copper
B. Iron
C.
Tin
D. Zinc

Question 158: The commonest feature of reaction at anode is that

A.
reduction is involved
B. oxidation is involved
C. ions are reduced
D. electrode dissolves

Question 159: The active constituents of bleaching powder is

A. Ca(OCl)2
B.
Ca(OCl)Cl
C. Ca(ClO2)2
D. Ca(ClO2)Cl

Question 160: An important ore of magnesium is

A. malachite
B. cassiterite
C.
carnallite
D. galena

Question 161: One of the general methods for the extraction of metals is

A.
reduction of sulphide ore
B. neutralization
C. double decomposition
D. titration
Question 162: When iron ore is extracted and converted to iron(III) oxide, the oxide is mixed
with ……………… in the blast furnace.

A. coke and CO2

B.
coke and limestone
C. limestone and CO2
D. CO and coke

Question 163: Cast iron is obtained from

A. the blast furnace

B. heating haematite

C.
re-melting pig iron and mixing with some scrap iron
D. heating iron ore with phosphorous and silicon

Question 164: Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

A.
Sucrose
B. Maltose
C. Lactose
D. Fructose

Question 165: Which of the following is a tertiary alkanol?

A. 2-methylbutan-1-ol
B. 3-methylbutan-2-ol
C. 3-methylbutan-1-ol
D.
2-methylbutan-2-ol

Question 166: Margarine is produced by

A. saponification of oils
B. esterification of oils
C.
catalytic hydrogenation of oils
D. polymerization of oils

Question 167: The IUPAC name of the compound below

CH3

CHCH=CH2

CH3

Is

A. 2-methylbut-3-ene
B. 1,1-dimethylprop-2-ene
C. 3,3-dimethylprop-1-ene
D.
3-methylbut-1-ene
Question 168: The octane number of a fuel whose performance is the same as that of a mixture
of 55g of 2,2,4-trimethylpentane and 45g of n-heptane is

A. 10
B. 45
C.
55
D. 100

Question 169: Which of the following is an acid salt?

A. CH3COONa
B.
NaHCO3
C. (NH4)2SO4
D. Ca3PO4

Question 170: In the equation: xKClO3 ----------------------> yKCl + zO2, the values of x, y and z are respectively

A. 2, 3, 1
B. 2, 2, 2
C.
2, 2, 3
D. 3, 2, 2

Question 171: The percentage by mass of H2O in the salt MgSO4.7H2O is

[H = 1, O = 16, Mg = 24, S = 32]

A.
51.22%
B. 26.03%
C. 13.01%
D. 9.76%

Question 172: The chemical formula of phosphorous (V) oxide is

A. PO5
B.
P 2O 5
C. P5O5
D. P2O10

Question 173: The Avogadro number of 24g of magnesium is the same as that of

[O = 16, Mg = 24, Cl = 35.5]

A. 1g of hydrogen molecules
B. 16g of oxygen molecules
C.
32g of oxygen molecules
D. 35.5g of chlorine molecules

Question 174: If a gas occupies a container of volume 146cm3 at 18oC and 0.971atm, its volume in cm3 at
s.t.p. is
 A.
133cm3
B. 146cm3
C. 266cm3
D. 292cm3

Question 175: Which of the following is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the
molecules of a gas?

A. Volume
B. Mass
C. Pressure
D.
Temperature

Question 176: If 100cm3 of oxygen pass through a porous plug in 50seconds, the time taken for the same volume of
hydrogen to pass through the same porous plug is

[H = 1, O = 16]

A. 10.0 seconds
B.
12.5 seconds
C. 17.7 seconds
D. 32.0 seconds

Question 177:

When 10g of sodium hydroxide is dissolved in 1000cm3 of water, the solution formed is approximately

[H = 1, O = 16, Na = 23]

A.

0.01moldm-3

B.

0.10moldm-3

C.

0.25moldm-3

D.

0.50moldm-3

Question 178: What volume of 0.5moldm–3 H2SO4 will exactly neutralize 20cm3 of 0.1moldm–3 NaOH solution?

A.
2.0cm3
B. 5.0cm3
C. 6.8cm3
D. 8.3cm3
Question 179: How many grammes of CaO will be produced by the thermal decomposition of
10g of limestone?

[C = 12, O = 16, Ca = 40]

A. 10g
B.
5.6g
C. 2.8g
D. 0.56g

Question 180: Calculate the mass of chlorine gas which occupies a volume of 1.12dm3 at s.t.p..

[Cl = 35.5, molar volume of gas at s.t.p. = 22.4dm3]

A. 15.50g
B. 7.10g
C.
3.55g
D. 1.80g

Question 181: In the reaction: N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) ΔH = +ve, the formation of product will be favoured by

A. decrease in temperature
B. increase in pressure
C.
decrease in pressure
D. decrease in volume

Question 182: Which of the following ions requires the largest quantity of electricity for
discharge at an electrode?

A. 4.0moles of Cl-
B. 3.0moles of Na+
C. 2.5moles of Cu2+
D.
2.0moles of Al3+

Question 183: When iron is exposed to moisture and it rusts, the value of ΔG for the reaction is

A. neutral
B. zero
C. positive
D.
negative

Question 184: How long would it take to deposit 0.08g of copper from CuCl2 solution by passing a
current of 0.5A?

[Cu = 64, 1F = 96500Cmol–1]

A. 48mins
B. 24mins
C.
8mins
D. 6mins
Question 185: A property of alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic numbers is

A. ionization energy
B.
solubility of their hydroxides
C.
solubility of their sulphates
D. electronegativity

Question 186: Alkali metals are characterized by

A.
good conduction of heat and electricity
B. high ionization potentials

C. low melting points

D. solubility in organic solvents

Question 187: A solution of sodium metal in liquid ammonia is strongly reducing due to the
presence of

A. sodium atoms
B. sodium hydroxide
C. sodium amide
D.
solvated electrons

Question 188: Which of the following can be used for drying gases?

A. calcium trioxocarbonate(IV)
B. sodium trioxocarbonate(IV)

C. sodium hydrogen trioxocarbonate(IV)

D.
calcium oxide

Question 189: Which of the following processes is used in the extractive metallurgy of
magnesium?

A.
Electrolysis of fused salt
B. Self reduction

C. Electrolysis of the aqueous solution

D. Thermite reduction

Question 190: How many grammes of bromine will be required to completely react with 10g of
propyne?

[H = 1, C = 12, Br = 80]

A. 20g
B. 40g
C. 60g
D.
80g
Question 191: The functional groups in the compound below
H

H2N – C – C – OH

H O

are

A. amine and alkanone

B. amine, alkanone and alkanol
C.
amine and alkanoic acid
D. amine, alkanol and alkanal

Question 192: Which of the following compounds is not an isomer of 2,2-dimethylbutane?

A.
2-methylbutane
B. 3-methylpentane
C. 2,3-dimethylbutane
D. 2-methylpentane

Question 193: The general formula of alkanones is

A. RCHO
B.
R2CO
C. RCOOH
D. RCOOR

Question 194: Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism?

A.
But-2-ene
B. Propene
C. 1-phenylpropene
D. 2-methylbut-2-ene

Question 195: The mass of sodium hydroxide formed when 1.15g of sodium reacts with cold
water according to the following equation is 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) -----------> 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)

A. 0.2g

B. 1.0g

C. 1.5g

D.
2.0g

Question 196: Calculate the volume of oxygen at STP needed for the complete combustion of
125cm3 of methane.

A.
250cm3

B. 125cm3
C. 100cm3

D. 25cm3