NP1: PRE-INTENSIVE EXAMINATION

Situation: Nurse Ally is a newly-graduate nurse who is planning to work in a community. As such, it is important for her to be well-
informed about the roles and responsibilities of a community health nurse.

1. Nurse Ally discovers that health is defined differently among institutions and sources. Which among the following is health, as
defined by the World Health Organization?
A. Health is the condition of being sound in body, mind, or spirit, especially freedom from physical diseases or pain.
B. Health is the capacity to lead a satisfying life, fulfill ambitions, and accommodate to change
C. Health is the soundness of body or mind; that condition in which its functions are duly and efficiently discharged.
D. Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social wellbeing, and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity

2. What differentiates a public health nurse from a community health nurse?

A. A public health nurse is someone who works outside hospital or clinical settings.
B. A public health nurse is a practicing nurse in the public sector such as national and local government health departments and public schools.
C. A public health nurse is focused on mental health and school health nurse while a community health nurse is focused on family health.
D. A public health nurse’s work is based on setting while a community health nurse’s work is based on funding.

3. During a meeting among the healthcare workers on the rural health unit, nurse Ally knows that her primary responsibility as a
community health nurse is to:
A. Educate the community on proper health practices
B. Plan and map out the municipal health plan
C. Serve as the medico-legal officer of the community
D. Maintain the environmental sanitation of the community

4. Which among the following states that social support network is a determinant of health?
A. People from higher income and social status are linked to better health.
B. Those that know more about health is healthier as composed to those who do not
C. Better health is linked to those who receive greater support from families, friends, and communities
D. Access and use of health services that prevent and treat disease influences one’s health status

5. Which among the following are the functions of public health?

I. Health situation monitoring and analysis
II. Development of policies and planning in public health
I. Regulation and enforcement to protect public health
II. Health promotion, social participation, and empowerment
III. Research, development, and implementation of innovative solutions
A. I, II, III B. II, IV, V C. I, III, V D. All of the above

Situation: As a nurse working in the community, you are tasked to take care of patients ranging from individuals, families,
population, and the community to promote their overall health.

6. Which among the following are not considered to be the primary clients of a community health nurse in the community?
A. Individuals B. Families C. Population aggregates D. A patient’s extended family

7. Which of the following best describes the family as a clientele of the community health nurse?
A. They are the goal point of care in the community
B. They are people in the community who share common characteristics and developmental needs
C. They are the entry point of care to all clients
D. They share common geographical boundaries, share

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a health community?

A. Community members with a shared sense of being a community based on history and values
B. Structures exist within the community to allow only certain subgroups to participate in decision making
C. Community resources are used equitably and efficiently
D. Conflicts within the community are managed through acceptable means

9. Which among the following specifies the role of a public health nurse as a researcher?
A. Collaborates with individuals, families, and groups for health and health services
B. Motivates changes in the health behavior of individuals, families, and communities
C. Identifies the health needs, priorities, and problems of individuals, families, and communities
D. Uses observation, interview, survey questionnaires, physical examinations, and other methods in the assessment of individuals,
families, and communities.

10. In taking care of a family who composes of Pedro and Maria as the couple, their 18-year old son who plans to go to Manila in
order to study for college, their 10-year old daughter who has a girlfriend, their 6-year old with asthma, and their two-year old who
has cerebral palsy. You know that you are taking care of which family in which stage of the family cycle?
A. Family with adolescent
B. Family with a toddler
C. Family with a pre-school aged child
D. Launching family
Situation: One of the responsibilities of a community health nurse is to be able to collaborate with different organizations and
institutions within and outside the community and to be able to navigate a patient in the RHU within the different levels of care. The
following questions revolve around our country’s healthcare delivery system

11. When a community health nurse plans to collaborate with the Department of Education in their plan to promote the expanded
program on immunization, the nurse is utilizing which type of relationship?
A. Internal referrals
B. External referrals
C. Intersectoral linkages
D. Intrasectoral linkages

12. Which among the following is not considered to be an institution providing care under the primary level?
A. Rural health unit
B. Barangay health center
C. District hospitals
D. Community hospitals

13. The following are descriptions of institutions considered to be under the public sector, except?
A. Healthcare is paid through user fees at the point of services
B. It is largely financed through a tax-based budgeting system
C. Healthcare is generally given free at the point of service
D. Budget for services comes from both the national and local levels

14. When the community health nurse who has finished assessing a patient has referred them to the rural health physician in the
barangay health center for further check-up, the nurse is utilizing which type of referral?
nurse is utilizing which type of referral?
A. Organizational referral
B. Internal referrals
C. Intra-institutional referrals
D. External referrals

15. In this level, care is given by physicians with basic health training in health facilities either privately-owned or government-
operated. What is this level of care?
A. Primary level of care
B. Secondary level of care
C. Tertiary level of care
D. Quaternary level of care

Situation: As a community health nurse, one must be aware of not only their roles and responsibilities in the health center but also
those of the other healthcare professionals so that professional collaboration can be achieved

16. The Department of Health mandates what to be the recommended ratio of a public health nurse to the population they serve?
A. 1:5000 population
B. 1:10000 population
C. 1:15000 population
D. 1:20000 population

17. The following are considered as grassroot or auxiliary health workers, except?
A. Barangay health worker
B. Barangay health volunteer
C. Traditional healers
D. Midwives

18. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the scope of practice of intermediate health workers?
A. They are the first contact of the community
B. They receive payment through honorarium
C. They consist of professionals
D. They only provide basic healthcare measures

19. These are called satellite stations which are considered as the smallest unit of the primary level of healthcare.
A. Barangay health station
B. Barangay health center
C. Rural health unit
D. Community hospitals

20. Which of the following is correct regarding the role of the public health nurse in the barangay health center?
A. They supervise the midwife and the barangay health workers
B. They are the administrator of the rural health unit
C. They plan and manage dental health programs
D. They are the ones who receive the patient in the barangay health center
Situation: Primary health care is healthcare made universally accessible to individuals and families by means acceptable to them.
The following questions revolve around primary healthcare and its different elements

21. Which of the following indicates that a certain health service is accessible?
A. Community members have lesser out-of-pocket expenses when using a service
B. Health services are within 4 kilometers away from a community member
C. Health services are according to the culture of the community members
D. Community members can avail a health service whenever they want

22. What is the goal of primary health care?

A. Health services is always available to the general population
B. The population is able to control and take care of themselves
C. There is an adequate amount of healthcare professionals for every member of the population
D. The population is aware and knowledgeable about the health services that the barangay offers

23. When was primary healthcare launched in the Philippines?

A. 1989 B. 1979 C. 1981 D. 1990

24. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the aims of primary health care?
A. Active community participation
B. Linkages used whether intrasectorally or intersectorally
C. Use of sophisticated technology for the best care
D. Available support mechanisms

25. The following are considered to be elements of primary healthcare, except?

A. Internationally-endemic diseases
B. Emergency services
C. Sanitation
D. Maternal and child health

26. In a situation where a child with conjunctivitis spread the disease their classmates in the entire classroom because they went to
the school despite being advised to be absent, what type of endemic will the school health nurse document this as?
A. Point source epidemic
B. Propagated epidemic
C. Cyclical epidemic
D. Secular variation

27. The following are the objectives of the field health service information system, except?
A. A system that enables summary, analysis, and interpretation of data
B. Serves as a basis for monitoring and evaluating community health programs
C. Minimizing the burden of barangay health professionals in handling community data
D. Standardizing the format of databases used by all facilities

28. Which of the following is not included in an individual treatment record?

A. Name, age, and sex of the patient
B. Date of check-ups of the patient
C. The diagnosis of the patient
D. The number of health services received by the patient

29. Which of the following is included in the approved herbal medicines in the Philippines under Republic Act 8423?
A. Luya B. Sibuyas C. Bawang D. Malunggay

30. Lagundi or Vitex negundo is a herbal medication known to be able to attend to various health conditions of an individual. The
following are included to be uses of lagundi, except?
A. For fever B. For headache C. For insect bites D. For fungal infection

31. Which of the following services do CEmONC facilities provide that BemONC facilities do not?
A. Administering first dose of antibiotics
B. Attending to vaginal and cesarean deliveries
C. Assisted deliveries in imminent breech delivery
D. Manual removal of placenta and remained products of conception

32. The nurse should intervene when they observe a midwife who practices which of the following during the delivery of an infant?
A. Putting the infant immediately to the skin of the mother after delivery
B. Cleaning the skin of the infant by completely drying them and washing areas where whitish substances are
C. Clamping the umbilical cord at 3 minutes
D. Advising the mother to bathe the infant only after six hours

33. Which of the following are not included in the essential intrapartal care protocol of the Department of Health?
A. Allowing a companion-of-choice to be with the mother in the labor and delivery room
B. Promoting exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months
C. Administration of IM oxytocin after making sure that all expected fetuses are delivered
D. Always performing restrictive episiotomy
34. What is the appropriate response of the nurse when asked by a mother what food should be given to an infant after birth?
A. Breastmilk and water only for the first 6 months
B. Breastmilk only for the first 12 months
C. Breastmilk and multivitamin drops for the first 6 months
D. Breastmilk only for the first 6 months

35. Which of the following statements by a community health nurse regarding newborn screening indicate that they do not need
further teaching?
A. Newborn screening sample should be acquired before the end of the first 24 hours after birth
B. Only a licensed physician and the medical technologist can acquire a sample for newborn screening
C. Newborn screening is compulsory under Republic Act 9288
D. Regular newborn screening is able to screen for six diseases

36. Which of the following actions by a nurse is correct regarding managing a clinic visit?
A. Implementing a first-come, first-serve basis in terms of prioritizing patients
B. Preparing a new family record for a patient whose consultation is 1 year ago
C. Accompanying a patient who needs a referral to another facility
D. Giving the prescription for drugs prescribed by the physician

37. Which should be the initial action of a nurse who is performing home visits?
A. Assessing the family members according to their health needs, prioritizing the critical cases first
B. Assessing the environment and home sanitation first
C. Setting the contract regarding when the home visits will start and end
D. Greeting the family and introducing oneself first

38. What is the most important factor that influences a nurse’s ability to perform home visits to families?
A. How the family accepts the nurse into their home
B. The convenience of the nurse’s schedule
C. The nature of the health problems of the family
D. The policy of the barangay health center

39. Which is considered to be the initial principle of why a nurse should always observe proper bag technique?
A. For infection prevention
B. For convenience
C. For showcasing effectiveness of care given
D. For organization and cosmetic purposes

40. Which of the following actions of a nurse who is performing a home visit is incorrect?
A. Placing the bag in a convenient place
B. Washing hands before wearing their apron
C. Pulling out all equipment inside the bag before assessing the family
D. Recording nursing care given and findings before making appointment for next visit

Situation: One of the responsibilities of a community health nurse is supervision of barangay health workers and midwives. As such,
community health nurse Steven reviews the principles and steps of supervision

41. Which of the following are situations in where a nurse should supervise a healthcare worker?
I. A midwife who is having difficulty performing Leopold’s maneuver
II. A barangay health worker who consistently makes errors in charting
III. A barangay health worker who is always absent
IV. A midwife who prioritizes the organization’s goals before their own
A. I and II B. II and IV C. I, II, III D. II, III, IV

42. Which of the following can a community health nurse use when acquiring information on the supervisory needs of workers in the
barangay health center?
I. Reviewing records and reports done
II. Observing the barangay health worker when working
III. Interviewing the barangay health worker and other employees
IV. Interviewing the clients of the barangay health worker
A. II and III B. II, III, IV C. I, II, III D. All of the above

43. In prioritizing the different supervisory needs and problems that the community health nurse has identified, they consider the
following, except?
A. Urgency of the problems and needs
B. Activities that need to be done to address the problem
C. Budget to implement the needed interventions
D. Personal timeline of the nurse and their other responsibilities

44. Which of the following actions of a nurse during a supervisory visit must be changed?
A. Explaining the objectives of the supervisory visit and its expected outcomes, process, and time frame
B. Discussing the results and recommendations of the last visit before working on the current concern
C. Maintaining a warm, open, and professional attitude during the visit
D. Expressing appreciation and support extended during the visit as part of the closure
45. Which of the following is not considered to be an indicator of evaluation in a supervisory plan?
A. Whether needs are met or unmet
B. If the quality of service has improved
C. If the performance has increased
D. Whether promotion is considered or not

Situation: After visiting the families assigned to her, nurse Jemima is starting to construct her care plans. The following are questions
regarding family health nursing care plans that she should be knowledgeable about

46. Which of the following is correct regarding constructing a first-level family health assessment?
A. Type II diabetes as a health risk to the family
B. Improper disposal of urine and feces as a wellness potential
C. Leg amputation of the mother as a health deficit
D. Entering school as a stress point

47. Which of the following is an incorrect second-level assessment statement?

A. Inability to recognize the presence of the condition or problem
B. Inability to make decisions with respect to taking appropriate health action
C. Inability to provide a home environment conducive to health and personal development
D. Inability to be knowledgeable about community health care resources

48. When prioritizing the family’s health problems, the nurse knows that the modifiability of a problem is defined as:
A. Whether the problem is a wellness state, health deficit, health threat, or foreseeable crisis
B. Whether the problem can be solved or not
C. Whether the problem will reoccur in the future or not
D. How the family perceives the problem

49. When the mother mentions that they know that their baby has a wound infection but says that they have other problems that
need more attention, the nurse knows that they will give what score to the family’s salience?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

50. Which of the following will a nurse not document in the family service and progress record?
A. The date and time of the home visit
B. The results of assessment of the family and the environmental conditions
C. The nursing care plan
D. The physician’s assessment and recommendations

Situation: Epidemiology is the science connected with factors and conditions which determine occurrence and distribution of health,
disease, disability, and death in a population. One of the responsibilities of a community health nurse is surveillance during a disease
outbreak

51. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a nurse during an epidemic?

A. Investigating close contacts of the patient
B. Active case finding
C. Calculating for vital statistics
D. Secondary and tertiary prevention interventions

52. If a nurse wants to investigate how much members of the population are infected with a disease and where they are located,
they are in what phase of the epidemiological approach?
A. Descriptive epidemiology
B. Analytical epidemiology
C. Experimental epidemiology
D. Evaluative epidemiology

53. When the nurse wants to calculate for the infant mortality rate, they will use which of the following formula?
A. Amount of deaths from maternal causes divided by live births
B. Amounts of deaths inside the uterus divided by live births
C. Amount of deaths before 28 days of life divided by live births
D. Amount of deaths below 1 year of life divided by live births

54. Also, the nurse knows that infant mortality rate reflects which of the following information regarding the community?
A. The indicator of the general safety, cleanliness, and the medical condition of the community
B. The indicator of how many pregnancy has not been successful in the community
C. The indicator of the quality of care given to postpartum patients in the community
D. The indicator of the quality of care given to prenatal care in the community

55. How soon should a nurse register births and deaths of the population upon occurrence?
A. Within 7 days since the occurrence
B. Within 14 days since the occurrence of the event
C. Within 30 days since the occurrence of the event
D. Within 40 days since the occurrence of the event
Situation:
RA 10152 is a republic act which mandates that infant and children should be immunized under the National Immunization Program.
Community health nurse Adolf reviews the ins and outs of giving vaccines to children

56. What is the best indicator that a nurse can use in order to determine if a certain vaccine is viable?
A. Monitoring the temperature of the vaccine in the RHU twice a day
B. Checking the expiration date of the vaccines
C. Ensuring that the inner square of the vial is lighter than the outer circle
D. Making sure that vaccines that should be freezed are in the freezer

57. Nurse Adolf sets the temperature of the vaccine refrigerator at what amount to ensure that the cold chain system is followed?
A. -15 C to -25 C B. -2 C to -8 C C. 2 to 8 C D. 15 to 25 C

58. What vaccine should nurse Adolf make sure to store in the refrigerator?
A. Oral vaccine against poliovirus
B. Vaccine against measles
C. Vaccine against rubella
D. Parenteral vaccine against poliovirus

59. Nurse Adolf knows that what vaccine should he give to a patient who is at 14 weeks of age?
A. The first dose of hepatitis B vaccine
B. The second dose of vaccine against diphtheria
C. The first dose of parenteral vaccine against poliovirus
D. The first dose of vaccine against measles

60. After reconstituting the BCG vaccine at 8:00 AM, nurse Adolf knows that the vaccine can be given to patients only until what
time?
A. 12:00 NN of the same day
B. 2:00 PM of the same day
C. 6:00 PM of the same day
D. 8:00 AM of the next day

Situation: Community organizing and participatory action research is the process as to which a nurse is able to help a community
empower themselves. The following are items regarding a nurse’s responsibility in COPAR.

61. When asked about community organizing, which statement by Nurse Angel indicate that they need to revisit their notes
regarding community organizing?
A. Making the people aware of social realities towards the development of local initiative
B. Addressing community conflicts through exclusive local government unit meetings
C. Prioritizing the empowerment of the disadvantaged population
D. The role of nurses in problem-solving are facilitators and they are not the ones in-charge of solving the community’s problem

62. Which of the following elements is most important to observe while doing participatory action research?
A. The community members are actively involved during the process
B. The community diagnosis team is in-charge of the assessment phase as the members’ participation is only important during the
intervention phase
C. The nurse leads the community during the whole process
D. The nurse coordinates with the LGU only throughout the process

63. What is the initial action that the nurse and the team should do during the entry phase?
A. Identifying the pressing needs of the people
B. Providing basic health services in the barangay health center
C. Creating a core group of community members with a potential to lead
D. Showing respect to both formal and informal community leaders by going to a courtesy call

64. Which of the following is not an action of the nurse during the community diagnosis stage of COPAR?
A. Data gathering
B. Profiling of the community
C. Forming a research team
D. Training potential leaders of the community

65. How does a nurse determine that the COPAR has reached the turnout and endorsement phase?
A. The research has been finished and presented
B. The team has implemented the planned programs
C. The community members have shown initiative that they can be in-charge of addressing a community health issue
D. The team has developed and implemented viable committees. Management systems, and procedures in the LGU

Situation: With the outbreak of parasitic diseases in their community, nurse Ysabel decided to implement health programs regarding
proper environmental sanitation practices for the community.
66. Which of the following is not included in the four rights of food safety?
A. Right source
B. Right processing
C. Right cooking
D. Right storage

67. Which information in the slides to be used by nurse Ysabel regarding food safety needs to be revised before presenting it to the
community?
A. Food can be left at room temperature for a maximum of 3 hours only
B. When storing food, it should be below 20 C
C. Cooking food should be done under 70 C, at least
D. In determining fresh food, one should check that it is not expired, seal is not broken, seam is properly put, and canned goods have
no dents, bulges, and deformation

68. Which characteristic of fresh meat is appropriate for nurse Ysabel to teach to the community members?
A. Meat that is sold at a lower price compared to others
B. Bloody spots in chicken meat indicate freshness
C. Eyes of fresh fish is clear, and not cloudy
D. It is better for fresh red meat to be watery and not very dry

69. Which of the following is an unapproved source of water?

A. Communal faucets
B. Stand posts
C. Waterworks system
D. Open dug wells

70. In providing health education about waste management in the hospital, nurse Ysabel knows that community hospitals who
follows proper waste management if?
A. Disposing infectious waste in green-colored bags
B. Disposing general waste in black-colored bags
C. Disposing radioactive waste in yellow-colored bags
D. Disposing infectious waste in orange-colored bags

Situation: As a community health nurse, nurse Taylor knows that she should also consider the community’s family planning methods
and overall mental health as her scope of practice

71. Which of the following is not considered a contraceptive method?

A. Pull-out method B. Diaphragm C. Condom D. Injectable implants

72. What is the appropriate age for providing sex education to children?
A. 10 years old B. 15 years old C. 18 years old D. 21 years old

73. What is the recommended interval between children as part of family planning that nurse Gab should teach?
A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 4 years D. 7 years

74. What is the mission of the mental health program of the Philippines?
A. Better quality of life through total healthcare for the Filipinos
B. A rational and unified response to mental health
C. To provide quality mental health care to the Filipinos
D. For care to be community-based and not institution-based

75. When a nurse addresses how the family members and friends of a patient with mental illness is affected by their patient’s illness,
the nurse is focusing on which burden of mental health?
A. Defined burden
B. Undefined burden
C. Hidden burden
D. Future burden

Situation: There is a growing public health problem in Brgy. Shiganshina which demands the attention of public health nurse Hange.

76. Nurse Hange discovers the spread of a mildly, communicable disease that mainly affects skin, the peripheral nerves, the eyes and
mucosa of the upper respiratory tract. What is the leading cause of communicable disease that causes permanent physical disease?
A. Leprosy B. Tuberculosis C. Schistosomiasis D. Scabies

77. Nurse Hange separates the patients according to the development of their signs and symptoms. Which is not considered as an
early sign & symptom?
A. Paralysis of Extremities
B. Thickened and/or painful nerves
C. Inability to close eyelids
D. Nasal obstruction or bleeding
78. What WHO Classification of this disease is considered to be non-infectious? Nurse Hange takes note of the duration of treatment
which lasts only for 6-9 months.
A. Multibacillary
B. Paucibacillary
C. Lepromatous
D. Opisthotonus

79. How will nurse Hange treat the disease?

A. Ambulatory Radioactive therapy
B. Domiciliary Treatment
C. DPT immunization
D. Isolation until after 3 weeks of paroxysmal cough

80. To educate the public and prevent further transmission, Nurse Hange focused her health teachings on disease prevention
through transmission and healthy habits. Which should not be part of her health teaching?
A. Avoidance of prolonged skin-to-skin contact especially with a lepromatous case
B. BCG vaccination
C. Children should be allowed close contact with active, untreated leprosy case
D. Good Personal Hygiene

Situation: Nurse Gojo recently passed the November 2023 board exam. He applied to the Nurse Deployment Program and was
assigned in remote areas.

81. Nurse Gojo gave an emphasis on the importance of learning the chain of infection. What part of the chain of infection is
considered as the place where infectious agents live, grow and reproduce?
A. Reservoir C. Susceptible Host
B. Portal of Entry D. Portal of Exit

82. Diseases have different methods of transmission. Eren said that tetanus can be transmitted airborne. Nurse Gojo corrects him by
saying that the disease transmission of tetanus is?
A. Droplet C. Direct Contact
B. Vector-borne D. Indirect Contact

83. In the epidemiologic triad of the CDC, these are organisms, usually humans or animals, which are exposed to and harbor a
disease. It can be the organism that gets sick, as well as any animal carrier (including insects and worms) that may or may not get
sick.
A. Host C. Environment
B. Agent D. Mode of transmission

84. Which of the following is not transmitted through airborne?

A. Measles C. Tuberculosis
B. Rabies D. Varicella

85. Nurse Gojo has to be knowledgeable of the time period where the infectious agent may be transferred directly or indirectly from
an infected person to another person. This is referred to as ______.
A. Generation time C. communicability period
B. Incubation period D. virulence

Situation: The Department of Health (DOH) reported that 44 out of 46 provinces in the country where lymphatic filariasis (LF) is
endemic have been declared free of the infection. It's worth noting that Filariasis is associated with a social stigma due to the
disfiguring effects it has on individuals.

86. Nurse Annie educates the people that Filariasis is caused by parasitic nematode known as ________.
A. Wucheria bancrofti C. S. haematobium
B. Necator americanus D. Plasmodium falciparum

87. The disease is transmitted to a person through bites of an infected female mosquito, known as _____.
A. Anopheles C. Culex
B. Aedes poecilus D. Aedes aegypti

88. Nurse Annie tries to identify the clinical findings of the acute stage of filariasis. Which among the choices contains all acute
findings?
A. Lymphangitis, lymphadenitis, epididymitis C. Orchitis, hydrocele, elephantiasis
B. Lymphadenitis, lymphedema and orchitis D. Lymphedema, Lymphangitis, Funiculitis

89. Nurse Annie determines the need to conduct an examination where the blood is only taken after 8:00 PM as this is one of the
main laboratory examinations for the disease. What is this diagnostic test?
A. Immunochromatographic test C. Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) test
B. Rumpel Leeds Test D. Nocturnal Blood Examination (NBE)
90. This is the drug of choice for treatment of filariasis.
A. Diethylcarbamazine Citrate (DEC) C. Chloroquine
B. Doxycycline D. Metronidazole

Situation: The malaria situation in the Philippines has rapidly evolved over the years. Since 2005, the country has reduced the
malaria cases by 92% and the deaths by 98%. In 2018, a total of 50 out of 82 provinces were officially declared malaria-free. The
remaining cases are concentrated in hard-to-reach areas of the Philippines, mostly in Palawan.

91. A mother brought her 8 month old infant for consultation because of fever, which started 5 days prior to consultation. How can
Nurse Juana detect malaria risk before further assesment?
A. Do a tourniquet test. C. Get a specimen for blood smear.
B. Ask where the family resides. D. Ask if the fever is present everyday.

92. Preventive activities are implemented to combat Malaria. Secondary prevention for malaria includes:
A. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees
B. Residual spraying of insecticides at night
C. Determining whether a place is endemic or not
D. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places

93. The use of larvivorous fish in malaria control is the basis for which strategy of malaria control?
A. Destruction of breeding places C. Stream seeding
B. Zooprophylaxis D. Stream clearing

94. A realistic method to inhibit vector habituation that involves utilizing cutting of the vegetation overhanging along stream banks
to expose the breeding stream to sunlight as strategy for malaria control.
A. Destruction of breeding places C. Stream seeding
B. House Spraying D. Stream clearing

95. There is an importance of educating the individuals, families and community of the various methods to prevent acquiring
malaria. These are the following, except:
A. Wearing of long-sleeved clothing and trousers when going out at daytime.
B. Use of insecticide aerosols and pyrethroid mosquito coils
C. Application of insect repellant to skin
D. Use of mosquito nets

Situation: Dengue remains as one of the most fatal epidemics in the country. June was declared Dengue Awareness Month
(Proclamation No. 1204) since 1998 to highlight how prevention and control of dengue would require collaborative efforts among
national and local government agencies as well as private NGOs.

96. An acute febrile infection of sudden onset with clinical manifestation of 3 stages. What stage starts abruptly as high fever,
abdominal pain and headache; later flushing which may be accompanied by vomiting, conjunctival infection and epistaxis?
A. Invasive stage C. Hemorrhagic Stage
B. Toxic Stage D. Convalescent stage

97. It is important to perform the diagnostic test correctly. What is the correct way to perform Rumpel Leads Test?
A. Inflate the blood pressure cuff on the upper arm to a point midway between the systolic and diastolic pressure for 10 minutes.
B. Release cuff and make an imaginary 2.5 cm. square just below the cuff, at the antecubital fossa.
C. Count the number of petechiae outside the box.
D. A test is (+)when 10 or more petechiae per 2.5 cm square are observed.

98. In managing DHF, supportive and symptomatic treatment is provided. What is not part of the nurse’s treatment?
A. For fever, give paracetamol for muscle pains. For headache, give aspirin.
B. Rapid replacement of body fluids is the most important treatment
C. Includes intensive monitoring and follow-up
D. Give ORESOL to replace fluid as in moderate dehydration at 75 ml/kg in 4-6 hours or up to 2-3L in adults. Continue ORS intake
until patient's condition improves

99. The Department of Health (DOH) today commemorates in Puerto Princesa, Palawan the 8th year of the ASEAN Dengue Day with
the theme “Kung Walang Lamok, Walang Dengue: Mag 4S Kontra Dengue”. The theme aims to give emphasis on vector control as a
strategy to prevent and control dengue. All are included, except:
A. Search and destroy mosquito breeding places C. Seek early consultation
B. Secure self-protection D. Support fogging/ spraying in the whole community

100. Dengue hemorrhagic fever can be fatal. The following manifestations are present in DHF, except for one.
A. Prolonged bleeding time
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Positive Rumpel Leade test
D. Thrombocytosis

NP2: PRE-INTENSIVE EXAMINATION

Situation: A nurse must be knowledgeable about a child’s normal growth pattern to be able to determine and assist parents towards
facilitating a child’s proper growth.

1. A nurse who recognizes that all infants, regardless of nationality and sex will undergo the same stage of development uses which
principle as their basis?
A. Sequential development
B. Proximodistal development
C. Secular development
D. Cephalocaudal development

2. The parent of an infant born at 4 kg asks the nurse what is their expected weight at 6 months old. What is the correct answer of
the nurse?
A. 6 kg B. 8 kg C. 10 kg D. 12 kg

3. Which developmental milestone should a nurse expect in a nine-month old infant during check-up?
A. Propelling forward with belly on the floor
B. Moving by using hands and knees or the feet with the belly off the floor
C. Walking while holding onto objects
D. Walking while holding a parent’s hand

4. Which behavior of a child at 3 months of age indicate further investigation?

A. The child can turn from front to back
B. When given an object, the child can grasp it on their own
C. The child does not produce any sound aside from crying
D. The child is achieving normal developmental milestones

5. A child who is 4 years old is at what stage of development?

A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Preschool age D. School-aged child

Situation: In dealing with pediatric patients, it is vital for a nurse to have proper and complete knowledge about the theories around
a child’s developmental stages so that they can plan and individualize their interventions properly and appropriately.

6. How can a nurse promote the psychosexual development of an infant?

A. Allow masturbation
B. Facilitate a child’s desire to be active in school or outside play
C. Do not force a child to use the toilet
D. Promote exclusive breastfeeding

7. Which of the following statements of a parent of a toddler indicate that they have adequate knowledge on the psychosocial
development of a toddler?
A. Praise the child when not having tantrums
B. Ask the toddler yes-or-no questions to decrease difficulty in answering questions
C. Punish the child by chastising them during tantrums
D. Feed the child as they cannot yet eat on their own by this stage

8. What behavior of a parent who is taking care of a 4-year old child would necessitate a nurse’s intervention?
A. Allowing the child to initiate and choose play
B. Distracting the child from playing with their imaginary friends by redirecting them to other playmates
C. Answering all the child’s questions realistically
D. Praising the child for what they did correctly

9. What behavior of a school-aged child indicate that they are achieving normal cognitive development?
A. The child talks to inanimate objects as if they are alive and they play with imaginary friends
B. The child cannot adjust to new situations and performs ritualistic behaviors
C. The child perceives that their own thoughts and needs are more important than others
D. The child recognizes that a change in shape of an object does not necessarily mean a change in size

10. Which of the following indicates the expected moral development of a 15-year old adolescent?
A. What is right or wrong for this child is based on their own morals and their set of values
B. At this stage, the child is not aware of what is right or what is wrong
C. What is right for this child is when they are rewarded
D. What is right for this child is when their parent is satisfied with their actions

Situation: A child who is hospitalized have different sets of needs that a nurse must recognize and act upon.

11. A hospitalized infant who cries, screams, physically fights stranger, and searches for their parent is at what stage of separation
anxiety?
A. Despair B. Recovery C. Detachment D. Protest

12. What is the most effective intervention that a nurse can do to comfort a toddler who is hospitalized?
A. Provide a pacifier
B. Talk about parents or others in their lives
C. Leaving a favorite toy with the child
D. Allow the child to accomplish school works

13. The nurse knows that the most effective therapy for a preschooler is play. What is the expected play behavior for this child?
A. The child plays competitively with other children of the same age
B. The child plays on their own
C. The child shares their toys with other children of the same age
D. The child plays in the presence of other children of the same age without interacting with them

14. A nurse who is taking care of 10-year old child who is hospitalized knows that they should be more considerate when performing
which of the following procedures?
A. Talking about topics regarding the child’s personality
B. Administering intravenous medications
C. Performing interventions without a parent
D. Assessing the genitourinary system

15. What is the most effective intervention that a nurse can plan to promote socialization of an adolescent who is hospitalized?
A. Always ensure that a parent is at the bedside of an adolescent
B. Introduce adolescents to other adolescents in the nursing unit
C. Recommend ways on how an adolescent dresses and grooms themselves
D. Ensure that the permission of a parent is granted in the adolescent’s self-care activities

Situation: Nurse Hans is planning a discharge teaching session for a diverse group of parents regarding proper care for children,
regardless of age.

16. What statement of a parent indicate that they have adequate understanding of promoting an infant’s nutrition?
A. Introduce different types of food simultaneously after breastfeeding to ensure complete nutrition
B. It is better to give circular-shaped food than square-shaped food
C. Egg whites should be introduced in small quantities
D. Microwaving food should only be done on a low heat setting

17. In teaching home adjustments for an infant’s safety, the nurse knows that which intervention should he include in the slides he
will use?
A. Put large, colorful toys on the child’s crib
B. The safest level of water that an infant can be left alone with is ankle height
C. Teach the infant to avoid hot objects such as the stove
D. Place cribs away from windows or curtains

18. What is the appropriate toy to be given to a toddler?

A. Puzzles
B. Crib mobiles with contrasting colors
C. Finger paints and bubbles
D. Computer games

19. Which of the following information should a parent teach to a preschooler who likes to play in a playground for their safety?
I. The preschooler’s full name
II. The full address of the preschooler
III. The name of the preschooler’s teacher
IV. The telephone number of the preschooler’s house or parents
A. I, II, III, IV B. I and IV C. I, III, IV D. I, II, IV

20. What is the main consideration in ensuring the safety of adolescents?

A. Adolescents have a natural urge to experiment and have a desire to be independent.
B. Adolescents engage in sex frequently and are more at risk for STDs
C. Adolescents are mostly at risk to engaging in activities due to pressure from their friends
D. Adolescents are influenced by social media easily compared to adults

Situation:
While preparing for the Philippine Nursing Licensure Examination, Eric is reading up on the Philippines’ Nursing Act of 2002.

21. Which of the following is not a requirement to be a member of the board of nursing in the Philippines?
A. To be a holder of an RN and MAN degree
B. At least 10 years of nursing practice with the past 2 years of such in the Philippines
C. Natural born citizen and resident of the Philippines
D. Member of a professionally-credited organization of nursing in the Philippines

22. Which of the following is not a function of the board of nursing in the Philippines
A. Administering oaths in accordance with the provisions of the republic act of nursing in the Philippines
B. Investigate any violation of the act
C. Issue, investigate, suspend, or revoke certificates of registration for the practice of nursing
D. Enforcing the provisions of RA 7164

23. Should a taker of the PNLE be unable to pass the exam, which of the following are the provisions for them to pass?
A. Someone who is unable to pass the exam is one who may have not been able to reach a general average of 75%
B. Someone who is unable to pass the exam is one who may have not been able to reach an average of 60% in one or more subjects
C. They must take the removal or renewal exam with the unpassed subject and obtain a general average of 60% on that subject
D. They must take the removal or renewal exam with the unpassed subject and obtain a general average of 75% on that subject

24. Who among the following can administer an oath of professional nurses to passers of the PNLE?
A. The president of the Association of Nursing Administrators in the Philippines
B. The president of the Philippine Nurses’ Association
C. Any local government official
D. The president of the Board of Nursing

25. Which of the following is not a provision to be admitted to taking the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination?
A. A graduate of Bachelor of Science in Nursing with at least units of intensive hospital and community health nursing
B. A citizen of the Philippines
C. A person of good moral character
D. A copy of related learning experience

Situation: You are performing an admission assessment on Kento, a 6-year-old, who has been diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome.

26. What sign will BEST support the medical diagnosis of nephrosis?
A. Gross hematuria, tea-colored, scanty urine
B. History of a streptococcal infection
C. Painful urination
D. Anasarca

27. You give health teaching to Kento’s mother about the signs of the nephrotic syndrome. She carefully listens, and tries to repeat
the instructions you have taught her. Which signs and symptoms verbalized by the mother require you to re-educate her about this
topic? Select-all-that-apply:
i. Slight proteinuria
ii. Hypoalbuminemia
iii. Edema
iv. Hyperlipidemia
v. Tea-colored urine
vi. Hypertension
A. i, ii, iii B. ii, v, vi C. i, v, vi D. i, iv, v

28. You’re collecting a urine sample on a patient who is experiencing proteinuria due to nephrotic syndrome. As the nurse, you know
the urine will appear:
A. Tea-colored B. Orange and frothy C. Dark and foamy D. Straw-colored

29. With Kento’s case, what will you includeas a nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A. Risk for infection B. Deficient fluid volume
C. Constipation D. Overflow urinary incontinence

30. Kento receives prednisone as the major treatment for his nephrosis. Which of the following actions should be observed by the
nurse in the administration of prednisone?
A. Monitor Kento’s temperature.
B. Protect Kento’s from infection.
C. Administer the drug on a full stomach.
D. All of the options.

Situation: Nurse Angie cares for children with different cardiovascular conditions.

31. She is currently assessing a 3-month old baby girl, when she documented elevated upper body blood pressure compared to her
lower extremities. There is also a bounding radial pulse, and an absent femoral pulse. What condition does the child have?
A. Coarctation of aorta
B. Patent ductus arteriosus
C. Hirschsprung’s disease
D. Intussuception

32. The patient will have a surgery to correct her condition. What is the treatment for the patient’s condition in the previous
number?
A. Balloon angioplasty with coronary stenting
B. Sengstaken-blakemore tube
C. Cheiloplasty
D. Open repair with cardiopulmonary bypass before school age
33. What is the pathognomonic sign for patent ductus arteriosus?
A. Low blood pressure in the upper body extremities
B. Bulging mass in the stomach
C. Loud machine-like murmur
D. Narrow pulse pressure

34. These drugs are usually administered to the patient with patent ductus arteriosus to close patent ductus in premature infants
and some newborns.
A. Aspirin
B. Indomethacin
C. Streptomycin
D. Captopril

35. Acyanotic heart defects can lead to complications if not managed early. Ome common symptoms in all patients are easy
fatigability, hepatomegaly and audible murmurs. What is a common complication of these defects?
A. Heart failure
B. Pulmonary Stenosis
C. Buerger’s disease
D. Tetralogy of Fallot

Situation: In comparison with acyanotic heart defects, cyanotic heart defects can be detected immediately since there is central
cyanosis, clubbing of fingers, and retarted physical growth in children. These have to be properly diagnosed and managed.

36. Infants who are cyanotic at birth or may have mild cyanosis over the first year of life is a common assessment for tetralogy of
fallot. It is a combination of 4 defining features. Which among the following is not one of its features?
A. Pulmonary stenosis
B. Right ventricular hypertrophy
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Narrowed aorta

37. The mother of a patient with TOF mentioned that she obserevd ger child to be squatting most of the time, especially when they
are out of breath. She asks if this is a normal occurrence and if this should be continued by her child?
A. “Yes, squatting helps increase the blood flow into the lungs, and can improve cyanosis.”
B. “No, the heart will be overloaded with the blood flow going into the heart.”
C. “No, the increased pressure will prevent the heart to pump blood into the body.”
D. “Yes, squatting can increase the blood flow into the vital organs of the body such as the brain to help promote breathing.”

38. Tricuspid atresia is an extremely serious disorder because the tricuspid valve is completely closed, allowing no blood to flow
from the right atrium to the right ventricle. As long as these two shunts remain open, the child can still obtain adequate
oxygenation.
A. Foramen ovale & ductus venosus
B. Foramen ovale & ductus arteriosus
C. Ductus venosus & ventriculoatrial shunt
D. Ductus arteriosus & ventriculoatrial shunt

37. The baby is observed to be cyanotic at birth, and is rushed to be operated on as will fail to thrive if not managed soon. What is
the condition in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle?
A. Transposition of great arteries
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Choanal Atresia
D. Tricuspid atresia

40. What infusion is started immediately after birth to maintain the patency of the ductus arterious and encourage mixing of blood?
A. Prostaglandin E B. Vitamin K
C. Immunoglobulin G D. Potassium

Situation: Jenny, a head nurse in the National Children’s Hospital, manages multiple cases of pediatric disorders. She is also
supervising the newly registered and reassigned nurses during their duty.

41. Kennedy, an 18-month old baby girl, recently had her cleft palate repaired through palatoplasty. Which nursing intervention
when done by the newly registered nurse would need nurse Jenny’s interference?
A. Placing the patient in supine position
B. Application of soft elbow restraints
C. Removing small and sharp objects nearby the bed
D. Securing oral packing to the palate

42. Nurse Jenny observes another patient to be having projectile vomiting after feeding. Further assessments show an olive shaped
mass in the stomach. What condition does the patient have?
A. Hirschsprung’s disease
B. Intussusception
C. Lactose Intolerance
D. Pyloric Stenosis
43. Considering the patient’s condition in the previous number, what nursing actions should she perform to care for this patient?
A. Do not provide pacifier as it does not need to meet its sucking needs
B. Monitor for signs of fluid excess
C. Withhold oral feedings
D. Withhold IV fluids

44. Intolerance to some food is also common among the pediatric population.Celiac disease is known to be the intolerance to gluten.
Which food is allowed to be given to the patient?
A. Barley
B. Rice
C. Oats
D. Wheat

45. Lactose intolerance is the inability to tolerate lactose as a result of an absence or deficiency of lactase, an enzyme found in the
secretions of the small intestine that is required for the digestion of lactose. Which nursing interventions can nurse Jenny advise to a
parent of a child with lactose intolerance?
A. Substitute soy-based formulas for cow’s milk formula or human milk
B. Provide calcium and vitamin D supplements to prevent deficiency
C. Discourage daily consumption of small amounts of dairy foods
D. Encourage consumption of hard cheese, cottage cheese, or yogurt

Situation: Conducting research involves numerous ethical tasks and responsibilities to observe.

46. The team leader approached Nurse Ligaya to inquire about the meaning of informed consent. Once Nurse Ligaya defined the
term, she was then questioned about the reasons for its use. Nurse Ligaya's response should be which of the following?
i.To comprehend fully the nature of the research and what participants can expect if they choose to partake in the study.
ii.To ensure that participants have the right to withdraw from the research at any point.
iii.To acquire comprehensive information regarding the study's objectives, procedures, data collection, potential benefits and risks,
and choices in treatment methods.
iv.To ensure clarity on how anonymity and confidentiality will be upheld.
A. i , ii & iii B. ii, iv C. All of the above D. iii, iv

47. As to observance of respecting privacy, Nurse Ligaya explained about___

A. Breach of contract
B. Anonymity
C. Ethical dilemma
D. Confidentiality

48. In nursing, Nurse Ligaya explained that the MAIN purpose of conducting a research is to:
A. Justify is the role of nurses as health care provider
B. Establish a credible body of evidence to support and improve the delivery of care
C. Determine research priorities to justify the excess of nurses
D. Develop a body of knowledge to address non-nursing problem

49. While conducting a study on music therapy, Nurse Ligaya was questioned about the type of research that would be employed
when collecting numerical data, often characterized by significant control. Her response should be:
A. Ethnographic
B. Phenomenological
C. Qualitative
D. Quantitative

50. Nurse Ligaya want to know whether the variables are associated or related through thorough description and analysis of its
relationship, and comparison of its similarities and differences. What study will she employ?
A. Phenomenological
B. Descriptive
C. Ethnological
D. Exploratory

Situation: A nurse who takes care of prenatal, antenatal, and postpartum mothers uses their knowledge on a fetus’s development
in-utero. The following questions tackle such topic.

51. When the sperm fertilizes the egg cell, the nurse knows that it is then called what?
A. Morulla
B. Embryo
C. Ovum
D. Zygote

52. Which of the following is false regarding the functions of fetal circulation?
A. There are two placental arteries which carry oxygenated blood to the fetus and there is one placental vein which carry
deoxygenated blood from the fetus
B. The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, bypassing the lungs
C. The ductus venosus connects the umbilical vein and the inferior vena cava, bypassing the liver
D. The foramen ovale is the opening between the right and left atria, bypassing the lungs
53. A newborn who cries strongly, has blue extremities, actively moves their extremities, has a heartbeat of 120 beats per minute,
and extremities that have weak flexion upon birth have which APGAR score?
A. APGAR = 6
B. APGAR = 7
C. APGAR = 8
D. APGAR = 9

54. At what age will the nurse expect that the diamond-shaped depression at the frontal surface of an infant’s cranium to close?
A. This is the anterior fontanel which should close between 2 to 3 months of age
B. This is the anterior fontanel which should close between 12 to 18 months of age
C. This is the posterior fontanel which should close between 2 to 3 months of age
D. This is the posterior fontanel which should close between 12 to 18 months of age

55. In order to maintain the effectiveness of the newborn’s circulatory system and prevent metabolic acidosis, the nurse knows that
they should perform which intervention?
A. Feed the infant early
B. Administer phytonadione
C. Weigh the diaper of the infant
D. Dry the infant immediately after birth

Situation: In the barangay where nurse Harris is working, there seems to be a rise of unwanted pregnancy. Because of this, nurse
Harris is planning to focus their health program in terms of proper family planning methods.
56. Which of the following are characteristics of a cervial mucus that is fertile?
A. Non-stretchable
B. Opaque
C. Water-like consistency
D. Thin

57. In using the basal body temperature method as a natural family planning method, what statement among the following is
correct?
A. A woman is fertile once their basal body temperature slightly increases and then drops up until 3 days after
B. A woman is fertile once their basal body temperature slightly drops and then increases up until 3 days after
C. A woman can take their basal body temperature any time of the day
D. A woman needs at least 8 hours of sleep for accurate results

58. Which statement of a midwife regarding combined oral contraceptives necessitate intervention of a nurse who is supervising
them?
A. COCs are contraindicated for people who are smoking and those with history of clotting disorders
B. Common side effects of COCs include abdominal and chest pain, severe headaches, and jaundice
C. COCs should be taken at the same time each day
D. COCs are not effective for the first 7 days which is why a woman should use a back-up method during such

59. Which of the following is the rationale why an intrauterine device disrupts ovum implantation to the uterus?
A. The effects of the string of the IUD
B. The effects of the prongs of the IUD
C. The effects of the presence of the IUD
D. The effects of the copper of the IUD

60. Which of the following statements of an adolescent after sex education regarding condoms indicate that they need further
education regarding the use of condoms during sex?
A. I must condoms on cool, dry places
B. Condoms should be worn during vaginal or anal sex only
C. Condoms must be worn one at a time and must not be reused
D. I must use water-based lubricants and not oil-based lubricants to keep the condom’s integrity

Situation: Every Wednesday in the barangay is deemed as “araw ng mga buntis.” As a student nurse, Angel is reviewing the proper
assessment and interventions for pregnant patients.

61. When the nurse is able to palpate the fundus of the mother on the lower end of their breastbone, the nurse knows that the
estimated age of gestation of the fetus is at?
A. 30 weeks
B. 32 weeks
C. 34 weeks
D. 36 weeks

62. The pregnant mother at 8 weeks AOG asks the nurse why is she getting morning sickness. Which of the following is the
appropriate response of the nurse?
A. This is because of the rise of estrogen in your body
B. This is because of calcium changes in your body
C. This is because of iron changes in your body
D. This is because of the rise of progesterone in your body

63. Which statement of a pregnant woman regarding the expected changes in their breasts and the appropriate care for it requires
clarification?
A. It is normal for my breasts to look bigger
B. It is normal for my breasts to have blue veins and my areolas to darken
C. I should wear bras that are clean and larger than my size to anticipate the enlargement of my breasts
D. When cleaning my breasts, I should not use soaps and alcohol. Only warm water.

64. If the last menstrual period of the pregnant woman is on February 13, 2024, what is their estimated date of delivery?
A. October 25, 2024
B. November 20, 2024
C. November 25, 2024
D. December 20, 2024

65. Which probable sign of pregnancy is the softening and bluing of the cervix during pregnancy?
A. Chadwick’s sign
B. Hegar’s sign
C. Goodle’s sign
D. McDonald’s sign

Situation: Nurse Kenny works in their hospital’s labor and delivery room. Her head nurse quizzes her regarding the normal care for a
woman who is undergoing labor and delivery.

66. A nurse who observes which of the following in a woman under labor will they document as under the latent stage of labor?
A. Cervix: 2 cm dilation
B. Cervix: 5 cm dilation
C. Cervix: 8 cm dilation
D. Contractions every 5 minutes

67. Which intervention written in the care plan of a nurse taking care of a woman in the active stage of labor should the head nurse
consult with them?
A. Allow significant other to stay with the woman
B. Allow patient to walk
C. Bring patient to labor room if verbalizes need to defecate
D. Patient is under NPO until after delivery

68. What cardinal movement during delivery is when the fetal head is delivered?
A. Engagement
B. Descent
C. Extension
D. Expulsion

69. What is the expected vaginal discharge if the woman is at 10 days postpartum?
A. Whitish vaginal discharge
B. Bloody vaginal discharge
C. Pinkish vaginal discharge
D. Brownish vaginal discharge

70. What is the expected behavior of a postpartum mother 2 days after giving birth?
A. The woman gives up the fantasized image of what a mother should be
B. The woman is passive and is very demanding
C. The woman defines their own role as a mother
D. The woman starts to express interest in learning how to take care of their baby

Situation: As in all nursing care, even those for pregnant and postpartum patients, a nurse must always keep in mind that everything
that they do has a legal prerogative. The following questions talk about nursing jurisprudence.

71. When the nurse does not force a pregnant woman to participate in their research and allows them to choose whether or not
they want to join, the nurse is following the ethical principle of?
A. Justice
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Autonomy

72. A nurse spends more time taking care of a pregnant mother with severe pre-eclampsia as compared to their postpartum patient
who is awaiting for discharge. What ethical principle is the nurse utilizing?
A. Beneficence
B. Fidelity
C. Justice
D. The nurse is not being ethical in her care

73. A nurse who gives the information asked by the patient in a complete and truthful manner is using what ethical principle?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Veracity
D. Fidelity
74. When a nurse threatens a pregnant woman that they will restrain the woman if she continues to scream during labor, what can
they be liable for?
A. Malpractice
B. Intentional tort
C. Negligence
D. Unintentional tort

75. When the nurse proceeded to restrain the pregnant woman as per their threat, what are they liable to?
A. Assault
B. Battery
C. Slander
D. Libel

76. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is evaluating a 16-year-old woman at 24 weeks of pregnancy. What observations would prompt the
nurse to suspect mild preeclampsia in this client?
A. Glycosuria, hypertension, seizure
B. Hypertension, edema, proteinuria
C. Hematuria, blurry vision, reduced urine output
D. Burning on urination, hypotension, abdominal pain

77. When caring for a client with preeclampsia, which action is a priority?
A. Carefully monitoring the client's labor and readying for a rapid delivery
B. Minimizing visual and auditory stimuli
C. Consistently evaluating the fetal tracing for indications of fetal distress
D. Measuring vital signs every 10 minutes to monitor potential increases in blood pressure

78. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results and
determines that which of the following magnesium levels is within the therapeutic range?
A. 7 mg/dl
B. 10 mg/dl
C. 2 mg/dl
D. 12 mg/dl

79. When caring for a client with PIH, these nursing interventions should be implemented, except?
A. Position patient at her left-side
B. Maintain a minimal stimulating environment
C. Give a high protein, and moderate sodium diet
D. Prepare protamine sulfate in case of magnesium overdose

80. The nurse continues to monitor the patient to check for signs of improvement, or complications. Which clinical manifestation
indicates the need to administer the antidote?
A. RR: 10 breaths per minute
B. DTR: Present
C. Urine output: 45 mL/hour
D. HR: 95 bpm

Situation: Vanessa, G5 P4, is a Type I diabetes mellitus (DM) since she was 7 years old. She is in her first trimester of pregnancy.
Bernadette is her nurse.

81. What could be the MOST possible effect of DM to Vanessa? She can have ______.
A. Ketoacidosis
B. Hyperinsulinism
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hypoglycemia

82. Which of the following would require an increased dose of medication once Vanessa is in the second half of pregnancy?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Beta-blockers
D. Metformin

83. She will undergo a 100-gram oral glucose test. What are the preparations she will not need for the exam?
A. NPO post midnight
B. No smoking
C. Stay seated on the morning of the test
D. Drinking water is acceptable as she might get dehydrated

84. She will drink 100-gram glucose after the baseline blood glucose is obtained. After 3 hours, to be considered normal, she should
have blood glucose level?
A. 137 mg/dL
B. 150 mg/dL
C. 163 mg/dL
D. 141 mg/dL
85. Nurse Bernadette wants to check Vanessa’s compliance in keeping her blood sugar levels in safe levels. What laboratory test will
she use?
A. Glycosylated hemoglobin test
B. Random Blood Sugar Test
C. Glucose Screening Test
D. Glucose Tolerance Test

Situation: Bleeding is one of the most common causes in maternal mortality. Prompt intervention is needed.
86. Hilda, a 38 year old woman, visited the clinic after having experienced cramping ang vaginal bleeding. Further assessment shows
a closed cervix. What type of abortion did she experience?
A. Imminent
B. Threatened
C. Complete
D. Missed

87. A woman was rushed into the ER as she reports increased sharp, abdominal, unilateral pain. She reported to have missed her
menses last month. As she reports the events to the nurses, she suddenly turned pale and fainted. She is suspected to have?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Hydatidiform mole
C. Abruptio placenta
D. Cervical Insufficiency

88. Another woman was rushed to the clinic due to profuse bleeding. She is a 27 year old patient with a large pregnancy bump, but
she mentioned that she was only 16 weeks-pregnant. She also had been diagnosed with PIH in the first trimester, and had intense
vomiting episodes. What is she suspected to have?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Hydatidiform mole
C. Abruptio placenta
D. Cervical Insufficiency

89. There are cases where the cervix prematurely dilates, and it usually starts at 20 weeks. Which of the following is not an
assessment for cervical insufficiency?
A. Pink show
B. Progression of Labor
C. Painful dilatation
D. Painless dilatation

90.Prior to surgery for the removal of an ectopic pregnancy, what signs would indicate the potential for tubal rupture?
A. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
B. Rapid pulse rate
C. Extent of vaginal bleeding
D. Significant abdominal swelling

Situation: According to the World Health Organization during the World Patient Safety Day last September 17, 2021, safety and
respect is so important in maternal and newborn care. It is important for nurses to educate mothers on the possible complications
and dangers they may experience during pregnancy. Nurse Bryan conducts a group health teaching to the maternity ward in a
tertiary hospital.

91. A 31 y/o at 38 weeks’ gestation is admitted to the hospital with complaints of vaginal bleeding following the use of cocaine 1
hour earlier. Which complication is most likely causing the client’s complaint of vaginal bleeding?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Spontaneous abortion

92. KC, 28 year old client shows up in the ER for a case of bleeding. Assessment shows bright, red and painless bleeding. There is no
signs of rigid abdomen, and the fundic height seems to be higher than normal. What is the condition of the patient?
A. Abruptio placenta B. Placenta Previa
C. Prolapsed Cord D. Preterm Labor

93. Prompt and appropriate interventions are needed when handling patients with vaginal bleeding. Which of the following indicates
the need to revisit the nursing care plan?
A. Position patient at her left-side
B. Routinely perform internal examination to check baby’s well-being
C. Administer IV fluids
D. Provide oxygenation

94. What is administered to increase fetal lung maturity?

A. Terbutaline
B. Methergine
C. Betamethasone
D. Aminocaproic acid
95. The best position for both clients with placenta previa and abruptio placenta would be:
A. Reverse trendelenburg position to reverse possible development shock
B. Semi-fowler's to prevent accumulation of blood in the uterine cavity
C. Squatting to prevent cord prolapse
D. Left lateral recumbent position ensure adequate fetoplacental perfusion

Situation: Mastering the fundamentals of nursing assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, evaluation and documentation
is important to each aspiring nurse.

96. When documenting information in a client’s medical record, the nurse should:
A. erase any errors.
B. use a #2 pencil.
C. leave one line blank before each new entry.
D. end each entry with the nurse’s signature and title.

97. Which of the following factors are major components of a client’s general background data history?
A. Allergies and socioeconomic status
B. Urine output and allergies
C. Gastric reflex and age
D. Bowel habits and allergies

98. Which procedure or practice requires surgical asepsis?

A. Hand washing
B. Nasogastric tube irrigation
C. I.V. cannula insertion
D. Colostomy irrigation

99. The nurse is performing wound care using surgical asepsis. Which of the following practices violates surgical asepsis?
A. Holding sterile objects above the waist
B. Pouring solution onto a sterile field cloth
C. Considering a 1″ (2.5-cm) edge around the sterile field contaminated
D. Opening the outermost flap of a sterile package away from the body

100. Hearing tests are used to be able to evaluate a patient’s hearing and to check for any deficits. Which one is not a correct
technique to conduct hearing assessment?
A. Use a digital watch to assess if the patient can hear the ticking sound
B. Stand 2 feet away from the patient and whisper into the ear being tested
C. Place the base of a tuning fork firmly on top of the patient’s head
D. Place the base of lightly vibrating tuning fork on mastoid bone, and close to ear canal

NP3: PRE-INTENSIVE EXAMINATION

Situation: Shinobu is a staff- nurse working in medical unit with several patients suffering from cardiovascular and peripheral disorders.
1. The heart has 3 layers which has its own respective functions. Which layer is directly responsible for the cardiac output of the
heart?
A. Endocardium C. Epicardium
B. Myocardium D. Pericardium

2. Studying the ECG, nurse Shinobu is aware of the graphic representations of the electrical impulses in the heart. Which part
indicates the atrial contraction?
A. QRS complex C. P wave
B. PR Interval D. T wave

3. She is suspecting a patient to have myocardial infarction. Which ECG will she not expect in a case of MI?
A. Presence of U wave
B. Presence of pathologic Q wave
C. Inverted T wave
D. Elevated ST segment

4. It is expected for the nursing team to also be aware of the cardiac markers for each disease condition. Which is considered as the
most definitive, important, and reliable test for MI as this can last for 3 weeks?
A. CPK C. Troponin
B. Myoglobin D. LDH

5. According to the American Heart Association 2020 guidelines, a high quality CPR must include which of the following?
i. Minimize interruptions during chest compressions
ii. “Push hard, and push fast” technique
iii. Allow full chest recoil
iv. Give rapid ventilations
v. Compression rate of 100-120 per minute
vi. Compression depth of at least 5cm
A. i, ii, iii B. i, ii, iii, v C. i, ii, iii, iv, v D. i, ii, iii, v, vi
Situation: On your first month as a medical unit nurse, you have encountered cases such as heart failure, valvular heart disorders,
and vascular diseases.
6. The patient is exhibiting clinical manifesttaions of left-sided heart failure. Which should you not expect?
A. Orthopnea C. Peripheral edema
B. Pulmonary edema D. Crackles

7. He is receiving digitalis for heart failure. Which of the following nursing action should be done by you prior to the administration
of the medicines?
A. Take the carotid pulse rate for one full minute
B. Take the heart rate for one full minute.
C. Take the respiratory rate.
D. Take the blood pressure.

8. You are still having trouble identifying the difference between venous and arterial insufficiency among the cases of your patients.
Which sign is associated with arterial insufficiency?
A. Pain with claudication C. Warm to touch
B. Edema D. Venous congestion

9. The other patient is dealing with Buerger’s disease, expressing distress due to intermittent claudication in the lower extremities.
What is the optimal nursing intervention to alleviate the patient's discomfort?
A. Allow the patient to lie flat on bed
B. Teach him foot care and leg exercises.
C. Place affected extremities in a dependent position
D. Apply hot water bag to the affected extremities

10. She is currently handling a patient who recently had stroke in the past 36 hours. She is giving heparin via subcutaneous route.
During her rounds, her fellow nurse colleague reported to have seen her patient having an episode of hematemesis. The significant
other of the patient also mentioned that she have seen blood in the patient’s stools. You will prepare to refer and administer what
antidote for a suspected overdose?
A. Vitamin K
B. Deferoxamine
C. Digibind
D. Protamine sulfate

Situation Mario, a 17-year old male student, sought for medical check-up upon complaints of pain, and nasal congestion.
11. Nurse Karen identified inflammation in the lining of the sinus. What is this type of upper respiratory tract infection?
A. Allergic Rhinitis
B. Pharyngitis:
C. Laryngitis
D. Sinusitis

12. Mario engages in a conversation with the nurse about upper respiratory infection (URI) management. What statement from
Mario suggests a need for further education?
A. "I'll consume plenty of juices and fluids to maintain good hydration."
B. "I can use nasal decongestant spray until the congestion clears up."
C. "I can use acetaminophen (Tylenol) to alleviate my sinus discomfort."
D. "I'll monitor any alterations in nasal secretions or the sputum I cough up."

13. He often complaints of pain in the back of his head, and near the mastoid process. Nurse Karen identifies the inflammation to be
at what part of the sinus?
A. Frontal C. Maxillary
B. Ethmoid D. Sphenoid

14. Nurse Karen provided teachings on the management for the acute condition. Which of the following statements indicate further
teaching is needed?
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Apply warm compress over affected area
C. Take antibiotics only when symptoms are present
D. Use saline irrigation and heat mist

15. After teaching Mario, a patient suddenly came into the ER with blood coming out of their nose after a fight with another person.
What should not be done by Nurse Karen?
A. Advise patient to look up in the sky and hold nostrils
B. Apply pressure over the soft tissues of the nose for at least 5 minutes-10 minutes
C. Apply cold compress over the nose
D. Administer topical vasoconstrictors

Situation: Nurse KC is handling multiple patients in the medicine ward. All our presenting different diagnoses of respiratory tract conditions.
16. Which part of the lungs found at the end of the terminal bronchioles does gas exchange occurs?
A. Alveoli C. Bronchioles
B. Bronchi D. Carina
17. Francis, a patient in Bed 15, suddenly complains of restlessness, and stabbing chest pain. His breathing is fast and his skin is
slowly turning blue. What is considered as the obstruction of pulmonary artery or one of its branches by a blood clot that originates
somewhere in the venous system or in the right side of the heart?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Pneumothorax
C. Empyema
D. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

18. To prevent another occurrence of the emergency in the previous number, nurse KC emphasizes its prevention.. Which among
the following is not included?
i.Active leg exercises
ii.Early ambulation
iii.Use of elastic compression stockings
iv.Avoidance of leg-crossing and sitting for prolonged periods
v.Maintain hydration
A. i , ii & iii B. ii, iv C. All of the above D. None of the above

19. She was preparing a patient who will undergo thoracic surgery. What is the treatment for bronchiectasis, bronchogenic
carcinoma, emphysematous blebs, and lung abscesses ?This usually involves removal of one lobe of the lung.
A. Lobectomy C. Lobotomy
B. Pneumonectomy D. Wedge resection

20. Picasso, a patient recently diagnosed with emphysema, asked how to manage his condition. What statement made by Picasso
indicates the need to repeat the health teaching?
A. Use of 3 or more pillows when laying on bed
B. Practice deep breathing exercises
C. Maintain high fluid intake
D. Eat low calorie, low protein, and low fat diet to prevent further compression of lungs

Situation: Mark, a 37 year old male patient, is admitted due to fever, painful swelling of hands, feet, joints, and in labor pain who
has a diagnosis of sickle cell anemia.
21. Nurse Chandria administers oxygen to the patient Mark while taking which additional measures to prevent the occurrence of a
sickling crisis.
A. Maintain strict asepsis C. Monitors the temperature
B. Maintains adequate hydration D. Reassures the patient

22. Nurse Sophie hooks a 1000 ml intravenous IV solution of D5Water as ordered by the physician at 9am to infuse 60 ml/hr. via
macro drop infusion set (20gtts = 1ml). On the assessment of the infusion at what would be the level of the remaining amount in the
IV bag at 2pm?
A. 500 mL
B. 300 mL
C. 600 mL
D. 700 mL

23. The patient began receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of packed red blood cells 30 minutes ago. The patient complains of
difficulty of breathing, itching and a tight sensation in the chest. Which is the IMMEDIATE action of the nurse?
A. Recheck the unit of blood for compatibility
B. Call the physician
C. Check the patient’s temperature
D. Stop the infusion

24. Nurse Sophie checks the gauge of the patient’s intravenous catheter. Which is the smallest gauge catheter that the nurse can
use to administer blood?
A. 22-gauge C. 20-gauge
B. 18-gauge D. 16-gauge

25. What are efficient ways to prevent potential complications and occurrence of sickle cell anemia crisis?
A. Always provide adequate hydration
B. Avoid hot temperature that may cause vasodilation
C. Protect leg from trauma and contamination to prevent leg ulcer
D. Aseptic technique

Situation: Nurse Noelle reviews the hematologic system and disorders in preparation for the May 2024 board exam.
26. The plasma is the fluid portion of blood. It contains various proteins, such as albumin, globulin, fibrinogen, and other factors
necessary for clotting, as well as electrolytes, waste products, and nutrients. What is the part of the blood that contains the plasma
minus the clotting factors?
A. Granulocytes C. Urea
B. Serum D. Hemoglobin

27. In treating patients with iron-deficiency, Nurse Noelle should be familiar as to the nature of the disease to plot out her health
teaching. She aims to teach the predisposing factors of iron-deficiency anemia. Which statement indicates further health teaching is
needed?
A. “My pregnancy causes a permanent deficiency in anemia due to the fetus’ usage of iron. I have to take folic acid and iron
supplements to combat this.”
B. “The lack of green leafy vegetables in my diet led to the inadequacy of dietary iron in my body.”
C. “Being an alcoholic led to decreased absorption of nutrients in my body.”
D. “When I am menstruating, I have to take iron supplements since I have an increased risk for iron-deficiency anemia.”

28. Her patient, Oxford, asked what he should not avoid when taking with iron. Which among the following is correct?
A. Milk C. Coffee
B. Tea D. Vitamin C

29. One of her patients is diagnosed to have aplastic anemia which is an autoimmune disorder characterized by hypoplastic marrow.
Which clinical manifestations should nurse Noelle monitor for signs of infection?
A. Ecchymoses C. Retinal hemorrhage
B. Pallor D. Exudate at IV site

30. She plans her nursing management to a client with aplastic anemia. Which of the following should she not include to her nursing
care plan?
A. Blood transfusion as ordered
B. Complete bed rest
C. Give SQ, IM, and IV injections for the medications
D. Reverse isolation due leukopenia

31. A client with chronic kidney disease has completed a hemodialysis treatment. Nurse Kira would use which of the following
standard to evaluate client’s status after dialysis?
A. Potassium & weight C. BUN & Creatinine
B. Vital signs & weight D. Vital signs & BUN

32. Prior to starting another HD session, nurse Kira wants to assess the patency of an arteriovenous fistula in the left arm of the
patient. Which finding indicates that the fistula is patent and can be used for HD?
A. Presence of radial pulse in left wrist
B. Absence of bruit upon auscultation of fistula
C. Palpation of thrill over fistula
D. Capillary refill time less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the left hand

33. Nurse Kira checks the patient’s chart prior to sending her client to the HD unit. She noted that tall and peaked T waves in the ECG
strip of the patient. Patient was ordered to have their laboratory values checked. What result supports the ECG tracing?
A. K = 8.5 mEq/L C. Ca = 9.3 mg/dL
B. Mg = 2.2 mg/dL D. Na = 3.5 mEq/L

34. Nurse Kira wants to review the ABG values of her patients to check for abnormalities. The ABG results are as follows: pH: 7.14,
PaCO2: 33, HCO3-: 14 , PaO2: 90mmHg. What does this indicate?
A. Partially Compensated Metabolic Alkalosis
B. Fully Compensated Respiratory Acidosis
C. Uncompensated Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Partially Compensated Metabolic Acidosis

35. Most patients can have the chance to receive a kidney transplant. What precautions should be exercised or has the highest
priority for the patient going home on maintenance drugs after kidney transplant?
A. Limiting the use of table salt
B. Taking weekly weights
C. Monitoring for bacterial, and fungal infections
D. Avoiding blood donations

Situation: Nurse Megumi is reassigned to help out in the medical-surgical unit for the week. He review the patients’ charts and plans
out his NCPs accordingly.
36. To determine possible causes, nurse Megumi will ask a patient admitted with acute glomerulonephritis about:
A. Recent bladder infection
B. History of kidney stones
C. Recent sore throat or fever
D. History of high blood pressure

37. A 56-yr-old female patient is admitted to the hospital with new-onset nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment data will the nurse
expect?
A. Poor skin turgor C. Elevated urine ketones
B. Recent weight gain D. Decreased blood pressure

38. He will plan to teach a 31-yr-old woman who smokes two packs of cigarettes daily about the increased risk for?
A. Kidney stones C. Bladder infection
B. Bladder cancer D. Syphilis

39. Identifying the cause of acute renal failure will help nurse Megumi formulate his treatment. He determined that the 73-year old
male patient was previously diagnosed with untreated benign prostatic hyperplasia. What is the cause of his acute renal failure?
A. Prerenal C. Intrarenal
B. Anterenal D. Postrenal

40. Renal failure has two types: acute and chronic. Which characteristic differentiates the acute renal failure from chronic renal
failure?
A. Acute renal failure can undergo kidney transplant
B. Acute renal failure is caused by sudden loss of function
C. Acute renal failure is the progressive loss of kidney function
D. Acute renal failure has to undergo hemodialysis for a lifetime

Situation: Efficient nursing management is anchored to proficient nursing assessment.

41. The nurse wants to check the patient’s oxygen saturation. Which nursing consideration is incorrect?
A. Remove nail polish
B. Hold finger dependent and motionless to improve quality of signal
C. Keep the finger sensor exposed to ambient light
D. Assess site of oximetry monitoring for perfusion because pressure ulcer may develop

42. Prior to retrieving blood for ABG, patency of the arteries must be checked using the what test?
A. Allen’s Test C. Capillary refill test
B. ABG Test D. Skin turgor test

43. Which of the following steps in performing the Allen’s test would indicate the need for the head nurse to intervene?
A. Apply direct pressure over the radial and ulnar artery simultaneously
B. While applying pressure, nurse asks patient to keep palm open
C. Release pressure over ulnar artery while maintain pressure over radial artery
D. Assess the color of extremity distal to the point

44. Upon analyzing the blood gas specimen, its findings was Metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following is the possible cause of the
abg imbalance?
A. COPD C. Diarrhea
B. Excessive mechanical ventilation D. Vomiting

45. The nurse checks the tonicity of each IV solution. Which is not classified as hypertonic?
A. 0.33 NaCl C. D5NSS
B. D5LR D. D10W

Situation: The nurse should also be competent in executing medical and nursing interventions to achieve quality patient care.
46. During blood transfusion, patient suddenly exhibits flank pain, vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, and
hemoglobinuria in his catheter bag. What transfusion reaction is happening?
A. Hemolytic C. Febrile
B. Anaphylactic D. Circulatory overload

47. With the previous number, what is the first action of the nurse?
A. Flush the line with NSS C. Report to physician
B. Take vital signs D. Stop infusion

48. A patient with thalassemia major is seen to experience iron overload. What is the antidote for the event?
A. Deferoxamine C. Vitamin K
B. Warfarin D. Glucagon

49. Which is not a component of chest physiotherapy?

A. Postural drainage C. Vibration
B. Percussion D. Suction

50. When is the worst time to conduct chest physiotherapy?

A. After meals C. Early morning
B. Bedtime D. After Nebulization

Situation: As part of the requirements for applying to the hospital as a staff nurse, nurse Jake attends the hospital’s in-service
training regarding advanced cardiac life support and disaster nurse competencies, especially triage and first-aid.
51. Which among the following criteria is not used to prioritize patients under START triage?
A. Mental status C. Blood flow
B. Movement D. Breathing

52. You are on-response to a patient who was reported to be suffering from multiple leg fractures in a highway after having been a
victim of a car collision. What is your immediate nursing action upon arrival to the scene?
A. Immobilize the fracture
B. Open the airway and secure breathing
C. Attach electrodes for the AED
D. Move the patient away

53. As a disaster nurse, part of your interventions is to conduct fire and earthquake drills to the community to augment their
knowledge and skills should a disaster come. What phase of disaster nursing are you acting upon?
A. Prevention C. Preparedness
B. Mitigation D. Response

54. What ethical principle is at use by the nurse who prioritizes those who are tagged as color green compared to those who are
tagged as color red during disasters?
A. Justice
B. Utilitarianism
C. Beneficence
D. None. The nurse should prioritize those tagged as red compared to green according to acuity

55. In an emergency situation, the nurse will approach this patient the last:
A. A 15-year old infant who has a sucking chest wound
B. A 70-year old male who has agonal breaths and penetrating head injury
C. A 25-year old pregnant woman who has leg fracture
D. A 35-year old male who is frantically crying looking for his family members

56. While talking to a patient in the hallway, they suddenly became unconscious. Upon assessment, the nurse determines the
patient has no breathing and has no pulse rate. What immediate nursing intervention should they administer?
A. Activate the code and get the E-cart
B. Perform chest compressions
C. Open the airway and provide bag-valve mask ventilation
D. Administer epinephrine

57. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse to the same patient who is 25 years old?
A. Compress at a rate of 15 compressions and 2 ventilations
B. The depth of compressions should be 1.5 inches
C. Assessment of pulse and breaths should be less than 15 seconds
D. Compressions should be done at the lower half of the sternum

58. Upon hooking the patient to the ECG, the nurse knows that defibrillation can be given to this patient if the rhythm is:
A. Torsades de pointes C. Asystole
B. Ventricular tachycardia with pulse D. Ventricular fibrillation

59. If the patient presents with supraventricular tachycardia, the nurse knows that the defibrillator should be set to cardioversion.
Before administering the shock, it is vital that the shock should be synchronized to which part of the ECG?
A. P wave C. QRS complex
B. PR interval D. T wave

60. Which of the following manifestations of the patient dictate that they have recovered?
A. Conscious, HR of 60 bpm, and conversant
B. Conscious, bradycardic, and pale
C. Unconscious, and HR of 145 bpm
D. Conversant at times, HR of 90 bpm

Situation: Nurse Krane decided to specialize in geriatric nursing care after passing the board exams. This requires them to be
knowledgeable about the different theories and principles that are specific to geriatric patients as these patients require a different
type of care compared to adult patients.
61. Nurse Jane is planning to make an education program for her older aged clients. She knows that the cut-off for defining older
people in the Philippines is what age?
A. 60 years old C. 70 years old
B. 65 years old D. 75 years old

62. In coming up with the contents of the program, nurse Jane knows that she should initially assess which of the following?
A. The budget for the event
B. Where the event will take place
C. What the audience knows and needs to know

63. In considering care for older adults, which statement of nurse Jane indicate that they do not need to refresh their knowledge on
facts about the elderly?
A. More older aged Filipinos are concentrated in the urban areas
B. More than half of older aged Filipinos are single
C. Older women are found to be associated with a higher level of experiencing functional difficulties
D. The educational profile of older Filipinos has worsened where more older Filipinos have not had finished secondary education

64. Which of the following is not included in the common difficulties of Filipino older aged people?
A. Vision C. Walking or climbing stairs
B. Hearing D. Cooking food

65. Elder abuse is the term for knowing, intentional, or negligent act by a caregiver or any other person to an older adult. What type
of elder abuse involves not providing food, housing, or medical care to older adults?
A. Financial abuse C. Physical abuse
B. Psychological abuse D. Neglect or abandonment

66. Which of the following facts are false in terms of elder abuse?
A. Only 4% of cases of elder abuse are reported
B. 90% of all abusers belong to the home of the elderly
C. There are adequate systems in place to address elder abuse
D. People who commit elder abuse commonly belong to the group of healthcare workers

67. Which of the following is not an expected physiologic change in the aging process?
A. Higher risk for burns or frostbites
B. Having dementia
C. Experiencing constipation
D. Acquiring left ventricular hypertrophy

68. This biologic theory of aging indicates that due to continued use of cells of the body, tissues wear out to the point that they
cannot regenerate itself. As a result, organs cannot repair themselves and this leads to death.
A. Wear and tear theory
B. Cross-linkage theory
C. Radical theory
D. Somatic mutation theory

69. In consideration of the psychosocial theory of development, which intervention by nurse Jane indicate that they need to revise
their care plan accordingly?
A. Distract older adults from talking about retirement and focus on how functional they have been in their work
B. Encourage older adults to look back over their accomplishments and failures
C. Allow an older adult to verbalize feelings over physical effects of aging and assist them in revising their lifestyle accordingly
D. Assist an older adult and their family to plan their funerals ahead of time

70. Which among the following should a geriatric nurse recognize as true regarding health promotion and disease prevention in
ageing?
A. Older adults have a healthier diet as compared to the younger population
B. Aerobic exercises such as zumba dance classes is the main mode of exercise among older adults
C. Older adults should be given assistance against falls as they often become nearsighted
D. Environmental adjustments should be done as older adults tend to have difficulty hearing higher frequency sounds

Situation: As the number of reported HIV cases gradually rose, the Philippines faced the growing realization that HIV was not merely
a health issue, but also a social, economic, and human rights concern. The government and various organizations, including nurses in
the Philippines, began to intensify efforts to address the multifaceted challenges posed by HIV, seeking to implement strategies that
encompassed prevention, care, treatment, and support for those affected.
71. Which among the following can most likely cause transmission of HIV from one person to another?
A. Having sex with a condom
B. Exposure of mucous membranes to sweat or saliva of a patient with HIV
C. Being tattooed with a reused needle
D. Performing oral sex only and not insertive/receptive sex

72. Which of the following statements of a patient with HIV regarding the stages of HIV infection necessitate further education?
A. There are three stages of HIV infection
B. HIV stage I is where a person is exposed to HIV but is not contagious
C. HIV stage II is when HIV is latent. There are no symptoms but the person can transmit HIV
D. Persons who are in HIV stage III have a life expectancy of about three years

73. What is the considered count of CD4+ T cells which is considered to be at the stage of AIDS?
A. Less than 1200 cells/mm3 C. Less than 300 cells/mm3
B. Less than 500 cells/mm3 D. Less than 200 cells/mm3

74. Which of the following is true regarding the protocol for HIV testing?
A. Enzyme immunosorbent assay detects HIV antigens and is the confirmatory test for HIV
B. Enzyme immunosorbent assay detects HIV antibodies and is the initial test for HIV
C. Western blot detects HIV antibody proteins and is the initial test for HIV
D. Western blot detects HIV antibody proteins and is the confirmatory test for HIV

75. A patient comes to you and mentions that they believe they have been exposed to HIV last night when they had sex. Backed up
with your knowledge in HIV transmission, what is your most appropriate advice regarding testing?
A. They should get tested immediately so they can be sure they do not HIV
B. They should go to a treatment hub to acquire pre-exposure prophylaxis
C. They will only be able to confirm their HIV status at most three months from now
D. They should consult a physician to acquire antiviral medications immediately

Situation: Nurse Theresa is assigned to the care of patients with immunological disorders. The following are vital information they
should know to provide proper care for these patients.
76. Which of the following claims of a patient most likely indicates that they have rheumatoid arthritis?
A. The first symptom I felt is extreme pain in the great toe of my left foot
B. Both my left and right elbows hurt in the morning
C. I can hear scratchy, grating sounds when I move my joints
D. My joints hurt when I wake up but it goes away after 10 minutes

77. Which of the following is not considered a deformity associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Palpable joint hypertrophy in the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints
B. Metacarpophalangeal joints become swollen and bend abnormally towards the 5th or 6th digits
C. Flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint and hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal joint
D. Flexion of the base of the finger, extension of the proximal interphalangeal joint, and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint

78. Which of the following interventions for a patient with RA indicates that a nurse has adequate understanding of their care?
A. Provide a diet high in protein
B. Group together activities to promote longer and continuous rest
C. Make sure the beddings and mattress of the patient is soft to increase comfort
D. Schedule vigorous activities to enhance the physical health of the patient

79. Upon assessment of a patient with SLE, the nurse knows that which medication increased their risk of getting the disease?
A. Diazepam
B. Digoxin
C. Isoniazid

80. Your patient with systemic lupus erythematosus is scheduled for their daily walking session at 8:00 AM. As you go to the
patient’s bedside, you assess that they have 8/10 joint pain, temperature of 38 C, and warm to touch joints. What is your
appropriate intervention?
A. Continue with the planned walking session as it will relieve the patient’s symptoms
B. Allow the patient to rest and provide tepid sponge bath
C. Administer scheduled medications before the activity
D. Contact the physician in-charge as this indicates a complication

Situation: Mia has been assigned to conduct a study assessing the satisfaction levels of patients regarding the care they received at
the hospital. Her plan is to include all adult patients admitted between June and October, on their first admission, with an average
hospital stay duration of 4-5 days and no complications.
81. What is the dependent variable of the study?
A. Patient satisfaction C. Adult patients
B. Care received by patients D. Hospital admission

82. Which of the following is an EXTRANEOUS variable of the study?

A. Age of patients C. Length of stay 4-5 days
B. Absence of complications D. Date of admission January-August

83. Which of the following variables will he likely EXCLUDE in his study?
A. Salary of nurses C. Responsiveness of staff
B. Caring attitude of nurses D. Competence of nurses

84. As part of your routine assessment, you examine your population’s temperature levels. Temperature is what type of
measurement?
A. Nominal C. Interval
B. Ordinal D. Ratio

85. You also want to group the subjects into groups according to their sex. What level of measurement is this?
A. Nominal C. Interval
B. Ordinal D. Ratio

Situation: Oikawa is a meticulous researcher wanting to understand the dynamics of how certain food groups lead ot development
of cancer. He gathered numeorus participants and engaged them in different RCTs.
86. Which criterion refers to the ability of the instrument to detect fine differences among the subjects being studied?
A. Reliability B. Sensitivity C. Objectivity D. Validity

87. Oikawa concludes that the primary contributor to cancer is the over consumption of processed foods. He proposes measures and
suggested them to many organizations worldwide. The extent to which the results of the study can be solely attributed to the action
of the independent variable and nothing else is called?
A. Reliability C. Internal validity
B. Sensitivity D. Novelty

88. Oikawa trusts the instrument he used due to its consistency to measure the concept being evaluated. What criteria does this
represent?
A. Reliability C. Internal validity
B. Sensitivity D. External validity

89. Oikawa utilized different biophysical measures to measure the variables of the study. This measurement is usually performed by
gathering the specimens of the subjects and having it measured at the laboratory. What measurement is this?
A. Ex vivo C. In vitro
B. In vivo D. In situ

90. He also assessed the vital signs of the subjects regularly upon visit at the research laboratory. He checked the blood pressure
using a sphygmomanometer, and checked for any abnormalities using physicial assessment tools. What is the measurement called
wen it is performed directly on subjects?
A. Ex vivo C. In vitro
B. In vivo D. In situ

Situation: Miche, employed as a nurse researcher at the Department of Health, has been tasked with investigating the nursing
management of nurses in the psychiatric unit. She has a designated period of 6 months to carry out the study.
91. After formulating and delimiting the research problem, which of the following will be a PRIORITY action of Miche?
A. Develop the theoretical framework of the study
B. Formulate the hypothesis
C. Plan the research design of the study
D. Conduct a literature search on the topic
92. Miche opts to incorporate only nurses with a minimum of three years of experience as psychiatric nurses. What term describes
this criterion?
A. Concept C. Hypothesis
B. Assumption D. Delimitation

93. The statement “Lived Experiences of Parents of Young Children with Psychiatric disorders Receiving Special Nursing Services ” is
an example of a/an ________.
A. Phenomenological C. Exploratory
B. Experimental D. Correlational

94. Which of the following research designs is MOST APPROPRIATE for this study if the aim is to find a relationship between two
variables in the study?
A. Phenomenological C. Exploratory
B. Experimental D. Correlational

95. This is a kind of experimental study where there is no randomization of variables.

A. True experimental C. Exploratory experimental
B. Quasi experimental D. Methodological experimental

Situation: To lead an organization, one has to be able to master the different functions of management.
96. Budgeting is under in which part of management process?
A. Directing C. Organizing
B. Controlling D. Planning

97. Time table showing planned work days and shifts of nursing personnel is:
A. Staffing C. Scheduling
B. Schedule D. Planning

98. A type of budget where it is usually expensive, and used for long-term investments:
A. Capital C. Personnel
B. Operational D. Cash

99. What is the statement of beliefs, values and principles of an organization?

A. Mission C. Vision
B. Philosophy D. Objective

100. What are the specific statements of aims and purposes that are used to carry out the goals?
A. Mission C. Vision
B. Philosophy D. Objective

NP4: PRE-INTENSIVE EXAMINATION

Situation: According to the study of Consunji et al. (2011),10 28.6% of the admitted patients in the Trauma Division of Philippine
General Hospital are due to vehicular accidents. In orthopedic medicine, orthopedic trauma includes severe injury to the
musculoskeletal system (muscles, joints, ligaments, bones, and soft tissue). These trauma injuries include fractures, dislocations, and
amputations. With this, nurse Vanessa must review how to care for patients with orthopedic conditions.
1. Which among the following patients is the least at risk for osteoarthritis?
A. Being 60 years old C. Sedentary lifestyle
B. Being a woman D. Being an athlete

2. Which joint should a patient expect to be least affected by osteoarthritis?

A. Cranium C. Lumbar spine
B. Fingers D. Hips

3. What is the priority discharge intervention of the nurse for a patient with osteoarthritis?
A. In acute pain episodes, the patient must take NSAIDs or aspirin
B. Arrange the patient for measurement of crutches or walkers, as preferred
C. Put their bed at home at the lowest level possible
D. Install assistive handles at the comfort room, kitchen, laundry areas, and stairs

4. Which of the following statements by a staff nurse indicate that they have an incorrect understanding about gout?
A. Females are more at risk for gout than males
B. An increased BMI puts a patient at risk for gout
C. There is no cure for gout
D. Eating food such as red meat, seafood, and alcohol increase the risk for gout

5. Which of the following intervention is appropriate for a patient with gout?

A. Covering the patient’s joint with a box during painful attacks
B. Putting a blanket over the patient’s joint that is painful
C. Withholding fluids during painful episodes to prevent aspiration.
D. Promoting a cool temperature for comfort of the patient in pain
6. A male patient with gout asks the nurse why he is being given a medication called probenecid. What is the correct answer of the
nurse?
A. This is an anti-tubulin NSAID which will prevent you from experiencing too much pain during gouty attacks
B. This is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor which will prevent uric acid formation
C. This medication will increase the effects of another medication you are taking which is Allopurinol
D. This will make you pee uric acid to reduce the levels inside your body

7. The attention of a nurse was called upon when they were walking on the streets because a 60-year old woman experienced
spraining of their ankle because they took a wrong step on the curb. Which intervention by this nurse will alert you to revise what
they were doing?
A. The nurse tells the patient to avoid moving the ankle
B. The nurse is looking for a warm water bag
C. The nurse applies a bandage using the figure-of-8 pattern
D. The nurse puts a bag under the patient’s ankle and asks the patient to lie down

8. When attending to a patient who was admitted to the ER due to an open fracture of the elbow, the nurse knows that the patient
is most at risk for which complication?
A. Fat embolism
B. Compartment syndrome
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Infection

9. Which of the following intervention written in the care plan of a nurse who is taking care of a patient with Buck’s traction does not
necessitate revision?
A. Apply weights on the head of the bed to serve as countertraction
B. Weights on the foot of the bed should touch the floor
C. Keep the patient at the center of the bed
D. Remove weights PRN if the patient needs to use the restroom

10. Which statement of a patient who will be discharged with a cast indicates that the nurse has been effective in their teaching?
A. When moving a wet cast, the nurse should use their fingertips compared to the palm of their hands
B. The patient can help the cast dry by using a hair dryer on heat setting
C. The patient must move their hand every hour to promote drying
D. The patient can use a comb or elongated rod to alleviate itching inside the cast

Situation: After passing the board exams, Nurse Jen is applying to become an operating room nurse in their local hospital. As part of
the application process, she was given an exam regarding the nursing responsibilities in the preoperative, intraoperative, and
postoperative stages of a patient.
11. Which laboratory values of a patient scheduled for surgery will warrant delay of the surgery?
A. Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL
B. White blood cells: 7000
C. Platelets: 100,000 cells/uL
D. Bleeding time: 5 minutes

12. When reading the charts of your patient, you read that they are scheduled to undergo contrast magnetic resonance imaging.
Which laboratory parameters must you assure to be normal?
A. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
B. Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase
C. Bleeding time, prothrombin time, and activated partial thromboplastin time
D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein

13. The nurse knows that they must monitor what laboratory values of a patient with diabetes post-operatively?
A. Red blood cells C. Mean corpuscular volume
B. White blood cells D. Arterial blood gases

14. Which member of the surgical team is in-charge of coordinating all the transactions of the operating room, including maintaining
the environment of the room and ensuring that there is proper traffic during the operation?
A. Surgeon C. Circulating nurse
B. Anesthesiologist D. Scrub nurse

15. What is the term used for the absence of microorganisms in a certain procedure?
A. Asepsis C. Disinfection
B. Sterility D. Infection control

16. Which member of the surgical team is considered to be violating the principles of asepsis?
A. A surgeon who is wearing their scrubs in the hallway outside the OR
B. A circulating nurse who is preparing the mayo table
C. A scrub nurse who is wearing pink scrubs
D. An anesthesiologist who is wearing gloves before surgical handwashing
17. What is the initial action of the nurse who receives a patient in the post-anesthesia care unit?
A. Monitor the vital signs and compare with baseline C. Check the appearance of the surgical wound
B. Ensure the patency of the patient’s airway D. Ensure that side rails are up

18. What is the most reliable basis for establishing wound infection in a postoperative patient?
A. White blood cell count C. Increased temperature
B. Presence of purulent drainage D. Wound culture and sensitivity

19. When a patient’s surgical wound reopened and the nurse assesses that intra-abdominal contents have escaped the wound, the
nurse should intervene according to what problem?
A. Dehiscence C. First degree wound healing
B. Evisceration D. Second degree wound healing

20. What postoperative nursing intervention should the nurse utilize for a patient who has a GCS score of 5 for the past one week
since the operation?
A. Early ambulation C. Deep breathing exercises
B. Coughing exercises D. Passive range of motion exercises

Situation: Understanding the Nursing Law is essential for a Philippine Registered nurse to practice their profession in the country.
21. What is a permanent, revocation of one’s license?
A. Revocation C. Illegal Dismissal
B. Suspension D. Formal Dismissal

22. The obligation to maintain efficient ethical standards in the practice of nursing belong to this body:
A. BON C. PNA
B. ANSAP D. RN

23. Which of the following information cannot be seen in the PRC identification card?
A. Registration Date C. Date of Application
B. License Number D. Signature of PRC chairperson

24. Nurses should have knowledge about professional organizations in the Philippines. Which of the following is the accredited
professional organization of nurses?
A. Maternal Child Nursing
B. Philippine Nurses Association, Inc.
C. National League of Government Nurses of the Philippines
D. Association Nursing Service Administrators of the Philippines

25. This is considered as the desired and achievable level of performance against which actual practice is compared. It also serves as
benchmark against which to plan, to implement and assess quality of services.
A. Standard C. Goal
B. Ethics D. Practice

Situation: Understanding the Nursing Law is essential for a Philippine Registered nurse to practice their profession in the country.
26. Which step of the management process includes the making of a formal structure of the organization and create the job
qualification and job description?
A. Planning C. Directing
B. Organizing D. Controlling

27. Which step of the management process is concerned with Policy making and Stating the goals and objective of the institution?
A. Planning C. Directing
B. Organizing D. Controlling

28. In the management process, the periodic checking of the results of action to make sure that it coincides with the goal of the
institution is termed as:
A. Planning C. Directing
B. Organizing D. Controlling

29. This is the process of determining and providing the acceptable number and mix of nursing personnel to produce a desired level
of care to meet the patient’s demand:
A. Staffing C. Directing
B. Scheduling D. Delegation

30. This is the process where issuance of orders, assignments and instructions occur as these enable nursing personnel to
understand what are expected.
A. Staffing C. Directing
B. Scheduling D. Delegation

Situation: In the practice of her profession as a public health nurse. Nurse Mary is guided by ethical and moral principles.
31. When managing information related to families in the community, which ethical principles should the nurse take into
consideration?
A. Confidentiality C. Justice
B. Fair treatment D. Beneficence

32. Nurse Kendra randomly chose individuals from the community to participate in a project. Before commencing the study, she
sought their consent. Which ethical principle is being adhered to by the nurse?
A. Autonomy C. Confidentiality
B. Beneficence D. Fair treatment

33. Nurse Kendra must see to it that the written consent of mentally ill patients must be taken from:
A. Nurse C. Family lawyer
B. Priest D. Parents/legal guardians

34. When Nurse Kendra does not disclose the HIV status of the patient to the non-team members of the nursing unit, what does she
practice?
A. Confidentiality C. Autonomy
B. Privacy D. Beneficence

35. Self governance, ability to choose or carry out decision without undue pressure or coercion from anyone:
A. Veracity C. Fidelity
B. Autonomy D. Beneficence

36. Kramer expressed dissatisfaction as his planned surgery was postponed due to the earthquake. The hospital personnel could be
excused due to:
A. Governance C. Force majeure
B. Respondent superior D. Res ipsa loquitor

37. Being on time, meeting deadlines and completing all scheduled duties is what virtue?
A. Fidelity C. Veracity
B. Autonomy D. Confidentiality

38. Nurse Mia is exhibiting this principle by raising the side rails for a confused and disoriented patient.
A. Fidelity C. Autonomy
B. Nonmaleficence D. Beneficence

39. Nurse Alec receives a complaint from a parent about administering the incorrect dose of vaccine to the child. This act can be
considered a form of _________.
A. Battery C. Negligence
B. Assault D. Malpractice

40. When Nurse Jil reported to the physician that she made a medication error, this is an example of ____.
A. Responsibility C. Commitment
B. Accountability D. Delegation

41. Which of the following individuals is the MOST SUITABLE to provide informed consent during a surgical procedure for a child at
the health center?
A. A 21-year-old sister undergoing dialysis.
B. A 35-year-old mother experiencing on and off seizures.
C. A 26-year-old brother struggling with drug addiction.
D. A 40-year-old illiterate father.

42. The patient arrives at the ER, unconscious with a suckling chest wound, and is in dire need for immediate surgery. To whom
should the doctor request an informed consent to push the surgery through?
A. Contact the parents immediately
B. No consent is needed as it is implied
C. Wake the patient up and have the consent signed
D. Forge the patient’s signatory in the consent form

43. A patient with severe asthma was supposed to be transferred to a tertiary hospital, but the nurse did not promptly prepare the
patient, leading to the patient's death. In this situation, what is the nurse liable for?
A. Malpractice C. Murder
B. Assault D. Battery

44. Mr. Reyes often goes on work-related trips for days. It was found out by his wife, Maria Reyes, that he is having an affair with a
certain woman every week. She also found out that the other woman is 9 weeks pregnant with Mr. Reyes’ child. Driven by her
anger, she impersonated an OBGYN and gave the other woman some abortive and lethal medications which led to the woman’s
death. What role did Maria Reyes play in this conspiracy?
A. Principal C. Accessory
B. Accomplice D. Felony

45. One of her assistants immediately hid and threw the bottles of the lethal medications away from the scene of the crime. What
role did she play?
A. Principal C. Accessory
B. Accomplice D. Felony

Situation:
Senior nurse Nikki is considering revisiting and implementing a change in the management system for the Obstetric Unit. Various
issues, including the current documentation system, have arisen, prompting the charge nurse to recognize the need for change.
46. What should be the INITIAL STEP in the process of change for the senior nurse?
A. Plan strategies to implement the change.
B. Identify potential solutions and strategies for the change
C. Perceive the need to change
D. Initiate a group meeting to discuss the identified problem

47. Nurse Nikki is organizing the patient assignments for the day and must allocate patients to both a midwife and a nursing
assistant. Which patient should be assigned to the midwife due to specific patient needs that the nursing assistant cannot fulfill?
A. Dressing change of post cesarean delivery
B. Collecting urine specimens for urinalysis testing.
C. Performing range of motion exercise twice a day.
D. Taking of Vital signs measurement every 4 hours.

48. Due to the shortage of nurses in hospital settings, various service delivery models were suggested. Which scenario represents
the primary nursing care delivery model?
A. The Nursing Aide is tasked with bed-making and other errands, while the nurses are responsible for administering medications.
B. The Nurse formulates a care plan for patients and engages in collaboration with other team members.
C. The nurse undertakes all necessary tasks to enhance the health of the individual patient.
D. The nurse attends to 4 patients, whereas the nursing aide is assigned to care for 2 patients.

49. In the ICU, a 1:1 ratio is being implemented to ensure the safe management of high-risk post partum patients. What type of
nursing care is this?
A. Primary
B. Team
C. Total Care
D. Functional

50. Durign typhoon Bokya, senior nurse Nikki joins the team of nurses being deployed in the affected areas to help take care of the
sick, do case finding, and implementing rescue operations. What nursing care system is observed?
A. Geographical
B. Team
C. Modular
D. Functional

Situation: The nurse when practicing the profession must adhere to ethical principles.
51. When the nurse shows preferential treatment to patients in the air-conditioned rooms as opposed to those in the charity wing,
she is breaching which ethical principle?
A. Veracity C. Respect
B. Justice D. Autonomy

52. The nurse has an obligation to tell the truth. When she admits mistakes promptly, she manifests________.
A. Fidelity C. Respect
B. Veracity D. Autonomy

53. The cancer patient consistently expresses pain complaints and insists on receiving the pain reliever earlier than scheduled. The
nurse is ready to administer NSS as a placebo. Which principle is she about to violate?
A. Respect C. Justice
B. Veracity D. Fidelity

54. The nurse knows that ethical dilemmas may be referred to the regulated ethics committee that the PRIMARY role to _______.
A. Prevent the physicians from making the wrong decision
B. Decide what must be done under the circumstances
C. Prevent ethical dilemmas from occurring
D. Provide guidance for healthcare terms and family of patient

55. Nurses were overheard talking about the patient and his prognosis. What ethical principle is violated?
A. Autonomy C. Non-maleficence
B. Confidentiality D. Beneficence
Situation: As a prudent nurse in the Philippines, you familiarize yourself to the different laws and regulations that is essential to the
nursing practice.
56. What law provides universal and free access to modern contraceptive methods, mandates age- and development-appropriate
reproductive health education in government schools, and recognizes a woman's right to postabortion care in the Philippines as part
of the right to reproductive healthcare?
A. RA 10354 C. RA 7600
B. RA 11036 D. RA 9262

57. Which law adopts rooming-in as a national policy to encourage, protect and support the practice of breastfeeding? It aims to
create an environment where basic physical, emotional, and psychological needs of mothers and infants are fulfilled through the
practice of rooming-in and breastfeeding.
A. RA 10354 C. RA 6425
B. RA 7600 D. RA 9262

58. What law provides a rights-based mental health bill and a comprehensive framework for the implementation of optimal mental
healthcare in the Philippines?
A. RA 10354 C. RA 7600
B. RA 11036 D. RA 10912

59. What law was passed to institute measures that will continuously improve the competence of Filipino professionals and to make
them attuned to the development and advancements in their chosen field?
A. RA 10354 C. RA 7600
B. RA 11036 D. RA 10912

60. What is a law the seeks to address the prevalence of violence against women and their children (VAWC) by their intimate
partners like their husband or ex-husband, live-in partner or former live-in partner, boyfriend/girlfriend or ex-boyfriend/ex-girlfriend,
dating partner or former dating partner?
A. RA 10354 C. RA 9262
B. RA 11036 D. RA 10912

Situation: Nurse Erwin Smith is looking to identify potential leaders in a specialized tertiary hospital for promotion as head nurses in
different units. He reviews leadership and management to guide his task.
61. Erwin Smith, himself, inspires others by obtaining emotional commitment from followers. His charm and grace , accompanied
with strong conviction, is shared among his followers. What leadership theory is he manifesting?
A. Charismatic theory C. Transactional theory
B. Great-man theory D. Contingency theory

62. The flexibility to adapt to Situation:s and the ability to shift leadership styles depending on the Situation:s puts Nurse Levi on top
of the list to be promoted as Head nurse of the Medicine Unit. What theory best exemplifies this?
A. Charismatic theory C. Transactional theory
B. Great-man theory D. Contingency theory

63. He observed that there are nurses that motivated each other to perform, but they do not hold actual positions in the
organization. What type of leaders are they?
A. Formal C. Autocratic
B. Informal D. Charismatic

64. Running a nursing unit is no easy task. Especially in the emergency unit, the nurses need to have a centralized and task-oriented
decision making ability to function well. What style of leadership should the head nurse exhibit?
A. Democratic C. Autocratic
B. Bureaucratic D. Laissez-Faire

65. Nurse Sasha wanted to complain about Nurse Connie’s, her fellow staff nurse, consistent tardiness. Reviewing the elements of
organizational structure, who will she report her complaint to?
A. Head nurse C. Nursing director
B. Chief nurse D. Other staff nurse

Situation: You are a newly registered nurse that is hired in the prestigious Philippine Cancer Center. You encountered different
scenarios in the area.
66. In Eren Jaeger's 3-month follow-up post-chemotherapy, noting the yellowish color in his skin prompts consideration for specific
blood tests. Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign?
A. Platelet count C. Complete blood count (CBC)
B. Liver function tests (LFTs) D. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

67. You are about to administer neoplastic agents to a client. What action is considered most important?
A. Use gloves and a lab coat when preparing the medication.
B. Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle.
C. Adjust the dose to the patients present symptoms.
D. Wash hands with an alcohol-based cleanser following administration.
68. Oncology patients are at a high risk for infection due to myelosuppression. What can you do to decrease the leading cause of
infection-related death in oncology patients?
A. Encourage several small meals daily.
B. Provide skin care to maintain skin integrity.
C. Assist the patient with hygiene, as needed.
D. Put pressure on injection sites immediately

69. When offering health education to a patient diagnosed with skin cancer, the significant other inquires about the distinctions
between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic sets these two cell types apart?
A. Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens.
B. Chromosomes contained in cancer cells are more durable and stable than those of normal cells.
C. Malignant cells contain more fibronectin than normal body cells.
D. The nuclei of cancer cells are unusually large, but regularly shaped.

70. While attending to a patient who smokes two packs a day, what action could the nurse take to help mitigate the patient's risk of
lung cancer?
A. Teach the patient about annual chest x-rays for lung cancer screening.
B. Discuss risks associated with cigarette smoking during each patient encounter.
C. Teach the patient about the seven warning signs of cancer
D. Plan to monitor the patient’s carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level.

Situation: Nurse Maya is the head manager of the Oncology Ward in PGH. She is overseeing multiple patients with various types of
cancer.
71. When a patient with metastatic colon cancer is facing intense vomiting following each chemotherapy session, which action, if
performed by the Nurse Maya, would be considered appropriate?
A. Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present.
B. Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy.
C. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments.
D. Give the patient a glass of a lemonade during treatments.

72. When she administers an IV vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a patient, what is the most crucial action for the nurse to
prioritize?
A. Infuse the medication over a short period of time.
B. Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site.
C. Administer the chemotherapy through a small-bore catheter.
D. Hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

73. Which snack selection by the patient with liver cancer shows that the nurse's instruction on high-protein, high-calorie diet
options has been successful?
A. Oatmeal C. Fresh Orange juice
B. Mango yogurt D. Cream cheese bagel

74. For a patient diagnosed with gastric cancer, experiencing difficulty with oral food and fluid intake due to the tumor's location
preventing enteral feeding, what intervention should the Nurse Maya recognize as most effective intervention to address the
patient's nutritional requirements?
A. Insertion of an NG tube for administration of feeds
B. Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration until treatment completion
C. Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV
D. TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter

75. Nurse Maya is looking after a pancytopenic patient, what action by the nursing attendant would signal the need for the nurse
Maya to step in?
A. The NA puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient’s toothbrush.
B. The NA has the patient rinse after meals with a saline solution.
C. The NA assists the patient to use dental floss after eating.
D. The NA adds baking soda to the patient’s saline oral rinses.

Situation: In Maria General Hospital, Nurse Mikasa is the nurse-in-charge to take care of the patients in the Scout regiment.
Numerous patients come for varied cases.
76. You are currently making a care plan for a patient undergoing shock treatment. Which of the statements provides the most
accurate description of the pathophysiology underlying this patient's health issue?
A. Cells lack an adequate blood supplywhich also leads to deprivation of oxygen and nutrients.
B. Blood is shunted from vital organs to peripheral areas of the body.
C. Circulating blood volume is decreased with a resulting change in the osmotic pressure gradient.
D. In all types of shock, hemorrhage is a result of trauma.

77. Nurse Mikasa is caring for a patient in shock due to extensive blood loss from a scouting mission. She notes that numerous
findings in the latest assessment result from compensatory mechanisms. What compensatory mechanism increases cardiac output
during hypovolemic states?
A. Tachycardia B. Fluid shifting
C. Gastric hyperacidity D. Decorticate

78. Nurse Mikasa noticed Moblit carrying Hange towards the clinic. Hange is not breathing, and Moblit said Hange was stung by a
bee in while taking plant samples. Which of the following would lead the nurse Mikasa to suspect that Hange is experiencing
anaphylactic shock?
A. Rapid onset of acute hypertension C. Rapid onset of neurologic compensation
B. Rapid onset of respiratory distress D. Rapid onset of cardiac arrest

79. One of the patients develops fluid overload from an IV that has infused too rapidly. What assessment would Mikasa expect to
find?
A. S3 heart sound C. Flattened neck veins
B. Thready pulse D. Hypoventilation

80. A client is referred for hemodialysis. Which abnormal lab value would she anticipate not being improved by hemodialysis?
A. Hypernatremia C. Hyperkalemia
B. High serum creatinine D. Low hemoglobin

Situation: Nurse Tobio is assigned to the Central ICU. He is assigned patients with fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
81. Patient is prescribed to receive potassium IV to correct hypokalemia. What should not be done by nurse Tobio in giving
medication?
A. Monitor the infusion frequently C. Adjust the drop rate according to prescription
B. Administer bolus IV potassium D. Monitor for any cardiac abnormalities

82. With the long hospital stay of an immunocompromised older adult, they had developed a urinary tract infection. There is a need
to reduce the risks for further development of infection to prevent septic shock. What action should the nurse perform to reduce the
patients risk of septic shock?
A. Assist in performing passive range-of-motion exercises unless contraindicated
B. Initiate total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
C. Apply an antibiotic ointment to the patients mucous membranes, as ordered.
D. Remove invasive devices as soon as they are no longer needed

83. Nure Tobio i currenlty studying the lab values of a patient. Which indicates immediate referral and intervention?
A. K+ = 3.8 C. Creatinine = 0.7
B. Mg= 4.5 D. Na+= 138

84. Which is not a cause of hyponatremia?

A. Too much intake of water C. Diabetes Insipidus
B. Addison’s disease D. SIADH

85. Nurse Tobio is planning care for patient who suffered with alcoholism.What is not an expected sign or symptom of
hypomagnesemia?
A. Tetany C. Chvostek’s sign
B. Hypotension D. Seizure

Situation: Historia is currently designing the methodology of her study. Her study is on the lived experiences of mothers of children
with ASD. she wants to propose measures to aid the community especially there is still a lack of support from the government for
this population. She plans to include all mothers of children with ASD as her target population.
86. Writing her sampling plan, what is the number 1 characteristic her sample should have?
A. Eligibility C. Willingness
B. Accessibility D. Representativeness

87. She plans to ask referrals from known organizations to help her get the number of sample population for the study. What
sampling method is she planning to use?
A. Judgmental C. Purposive Sampling
B. Quota sampling D. Snowball sampling

88. Her adviser emphasized the need for her participants to voluntarily agree and make their own decisions regarding their
participation in the study. This also includes the withdrawal from study, and refusal to receive treatments. What right is being
respected?
A. Right to anonymity C. Right not to be harmed
B. Right to self-determination D. Right to full disclosure

89. In preparation the analysis of data, she makes a plan to best present and analyze her collected data. In determining the average
age of her participants, which measure shall she use?
A. Median C. Mean
B. Mode D. Meter

90. In using inferential statistics, this is the measure where 3 or more sets of the population are compared to 1 variable?
A. Chi square C. Pearson r
B. T-Test D. ANOVA

Situation: Chronic hepatitis infection, alcoholic liver disease, and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease account for the most common
causes of liver disorders of adult Filipinos. Health experts agree that approximately 20% of this disease population will develop liver
cirrhosis, liver failure, and liver cancer.
91. A patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the
plan of care?
A. Instruct the patient to cough every hour.
B. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath.
C. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours.
D. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea.

92. Which focused data will the nurse monitor in relation to the 4+ pitting edema assessed in a patient with cirrhosis?
A. Hemoglobin C. Activity Level
B. Temperature D. Albumin Level

93. Which topic is most important to include in patient teaching for a 41-yr-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis?
A. Taking lactulose C. Maintaining good nutrition
B. Avoiding alcohol ingestion D. Using vitamin B supplements

94. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of
spironolactone and furosemide due. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Withhold both drugs.
B. Administer the furosemide.
C. Administer both drugs
D. Administer the spironolactone.

95. Which action should the nurse take to evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy?
A. Request that the patient stand on one foot.
B. Ask the patient to extend both arms forward.
C. Request that the patient walk with eyes closed.
D. Ask the patient to perform the Valsalva maneuver.

Situation: The prevalence of digestive diseases in the Philippines is high, but there are steps you can take to protect and promote
your digestive health. Your job as a nurse is to educate the masses on the prevalent GI diseases, and health education on health
promotion and disease prevention.
96. Upon admission to the hospital with acute gastritis and vomiting blood-streaked fluid, the nurse will inquire about potential risk
factors for gastritis by asking the patient about:
A. the dietary intake of saturated fat.
B. any family history of gastric or colon cancer.
C. a past occurrence of significant weight gain or loss.
D. the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

97. Which snack choice made by the patient three hours before bedtime suggests that the nurse's education on gastroesophageal
reflux disease (GERD) has been successful?
A. Chocolate pudding
B. Apple gelatin with fruit
C. Glass of low-fat milk
D. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich

98. When conducting a full physical assessment, which finding during abdominal auscultation indicates a need for a focused
abdominal assessment?
A. Loud gurgles
B. Absent bowel sounds
C. High-pitched gurgles
D. Frequent clicking sounds

99. When evaluating the risk of malnutrition in a 78-year-old patient who is alert and independent, what would be the most suitable
initial question?
A. "How do you typically reach the store for grocery shopping?"
B. "What are the food and meals you ate yesterday?"
C. "Do you face any challenges in preparing or consuming food?"
D. "Are you currently on any medications that might affect your taste for food?"

100. You will plan to monitor a patient with an obstructed common bile duct for?
A. Melena
B. Increased serum bilirubin level
C. Decreased cholesterol
D. Steatorrhea

NP5: PRE-INTENSIVE EXAMINATION

Situation: Student nurse Barbara knows that his weakness is their topic about nursing care for patients with neurologic disorders.
Because of this, he gives more focus in mastering this topic when he is preparing for the board exams.
1. Which part of the cerebral hemisphere is responsible for hearing, taste, speech, and language?
A. Frontal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Occipital lobe

2. When the nurse palpates the patient’s jaw to determine if they can chew and if they can clench it, they are assessing which cranial
nerve?
A. Cranial nerve IV
B. Cranial nerve V
C. Cranial nerve VI
D. Cranial nerve VII

3. The nurse should clarify with the attending physician if they read which order for a procedure to a patient with increased
intracranial pressure?
A. Lumbar puncture
B. Electroencephalography
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Computed tomography scan

4. When assessing the GCS of a patient, they replied: “Ako ay may lobo, lumipad sa hangin” when asked what their name is. The
nurse knows that she should score the patient with a verbal score of?
A. Verbal response: 1
B. Verbal response: 2
C. Verbal response: 3

5. Which of the following interventions for a patient with increased ICP is appropriate?
A. Deep breathing and coughing exercises every hour
B. Administer laxatives to soften stools
C. Put the patient in a supine position
D. Limit fluid intake to 1000 ml/day

6. Which of the following manifestations of a patient with seizure indicate that their seizure is considered as atonic seizure?
A. Patient suddenly fell upon onset of seizure due to loss of muscle tone
B. Patient fell from their seat because of a powerful arm jerk
C. Patient stared to the wall as if they were daydreaming
D. Patient lost consciousness with alternating stiffing and jerking of the body

7. Which statement by a significant other indicates that they need further education with the management of their granddaughter
during seizure?
A. My most important responsibility is to observe, monitor, and time the seizure that their granddaughter is experiencing
B. I will never put anything inside the mouth of a patient who is seizing whether it is a spoon or a tongue depressor
C. I must never leave my granddaughter during the seizure event
D. I should turn the patient to the side during seizure to prevent aspiration

8. A nurse knows that they should change which of the following in a room of a patient who is at risk for seizures?
A. Closed door
B. Adequate lighting
C. Suctioning equipment at the bedside
D. Television turned off

9. Which of the following symptoms will support that the patient is experiencing left-sided stroke?
A. Left-sided paralysis
B. Impulsivity
C. Shortened attention span
D. Inability to speak when asked a question

10. What is the correct reply of a staff nurse who will administer Mannitol to a patient with subarachnoid hemorrhage when asked
by the head nurse what is the rationale for such?
A. It potentiates the action of gamma-aminobutyric acid which reduces neuronal transmission
B. It decreases inflammation by suppression of polymorphonuclear leukocytes in the brain
C. It elevates blood plasma osmolality, resulting in enhanced flow of water from tissues, including the brain and cerebrospinal fluid,
into interstitial fluid and plasma
D. Its action is modulation of synaptic neurotransmitter release through binding to the synaptic vesicle protein SV2A in the brain.
Situation: Nurse Melanie is reviewing the basics of building a nurse-client relationship.
11. Nurse Melanie should first discuss terminating the nurse-client relationship with a client during the:
A. Orientation phase when a contract is established.
B. Working phase when the client brings it up.
C. Termination phase when discharge plans are being made.
D. Working phase when the client shows some progress.

12. What is considered to be the best tool available for the nurse to establish quality nurse-client relationship?
A. Self
B. Interview guide
C. Handcuffs
D. Candy

13. Which element of therapeutic communication is the actual response of the receiver to the message?
A. Sender
B. Message
C. Receiver
D. Feedback

14. In determining the verbal communication cues of the client, nurse Melanie has to pay attention to the smallest of details. When
she is refraining from other mental activities and concentrating exclusively on what the client says, what is she practicing?
A. Active observation
B. Active listening
C. Proxemics
D. Kinetics

15. The nurse is preparing a patient for the termination phase of the nurse-patient relationship. The nurse prepares to implement
which nursing task that is MOST APPROPRIATE for this phase?
A. Planning short-term goals
B. Making appropriate referrals
C. Developing realistic solutions
D. Identifying expected outcomes

Situation: Therapeutic communication is essential in building quality nurse- patient relationships as this aids to providing
appropriate and individualized nursing care to the patients.
16. In this nurse-client interaction, what therapeutic communication technique is being employed?
Client: “When I get angry, I usually smack my wife and punch my kids.”
Nurse: “I observe that you are smiling as you discuss this physical violence.”
A. Encouraging comparison
B. Exploring
C. Formulating a plan of action
D. Making observations

17. What therapeutic communication technique is evident in this nurse-client interaction?

Client: “My father spanked me often.”
Nurse: “Your father exhibited strict disciplinary measures.”
A. Restatement
B. Offering general leads
C. Focusing
D. Accepting

18. A patient who went through a traumatic event is admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit for assessment and medication
stabilization. Which therapeutic communication technique employed exemplifies a broad opening?
A. “What transpired before the assault, and when did you seek help at the emergency department?”
B. “What would you like to talk about?”
C. “I observe that discussing this makes you uneasy.”
D. “What measures can we take to ensure you feel secure during your time here?”

19. You are interviewing a newly admitted psychiatric client. Which nursing statement is an example of offering a “general lead”?
A. “Do you know why you are here?”
B. “Are you feeling depressed or anxious?”
C. “Yes, I see. Go on.”
D. “Can you chronologically order the events that led to your admission?”

20. A client diagnosed with dependent personality disorder asks, "Do you think I should leave my parent's house and find
employment?" What is the most suitable nursing response?
A. “It would be best to do that in order to increase independence.”
B. “Why would you want to leave a secure home?”
C. “Let’s discuss and explore all of your options.”
D. “I’m afraid you would feel very guilty leaving your parents.”
Situation: Death is an inevitable event that occurs to each one’s lives. Nurse India wants to provide the best support she can offer to
family members as they go through this situation.
21. According to Kubler-Ross's Five Stages of Grief, at which stage does the client seek new or questionable treatment modalities?
A. bargaining
B. acceptance
C. depression
D. Anger

22. What period is considered to be the most dangerous as it is the stage where suicidal thoughts may occur?
A. Depression
B. Anger
C. Denial
D. Bargaining

23. During an interview, a nurse speaks with an 96-year-old resident of a hospice facility who expresses that she has never moved
on from the death of her son three decades ago. She shares that her life unraveled after the loss, and she has never regained her
sense of self or found joy in life since. What kind of grief is this woman undergoing?
A. Abbreviated
B. Anticipatory
C. Dysfunctional
D. Inhibited

24. She observes the family who is looking depressed as the ygrive about their lolo. They also talk about fond memories about their
grandparent, saying how much they will miss him. Although their loved has not yet passed, what kind of grief are they experiencing?
A. Abbreviated
B. Anticipatory
C. Dysfunctional
D. Inhibited

25. Ymir, one of her patients, passed away a year ago. She was a devoted partner to her wife, Historia, who loved her deeply.
Historia always visited her grave, and offered flowers as often as she could. One day, she visited the grave with another man and her
daughter. While she grieved for the loss of her previous partner, she moved forward to build a family. What stage is Historia in
now?
A. Depression
B. Acceptance
C. Denial
D. Bargaining

Situation: We all go through different crises and losses in our lives. While each are different, all difficulties are valid and should be
given appropriate management.
26. Kelly, a nursing student, is a consistent honor studentl. However, this semester, she has taken on work, is in the midst of
planning a wedding, and has relocated to a new home. She was not part of this semester’s honor roll due to the significant events in
her life. Kelly now feels a sense of failure. How would you best characterize this loss?
A. Maturational C. Actual
B. Perceived D. Situational

27. John cries as his daughter moves out to another country for college. He reminisces all the good times he had shared with his
daughter. How is the loss best described?
A. Maturational C. Actual
B. Perceived D. Situational

28. The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the unit with severe depression. The client states, "My husband left me, and I feel
lost." Based on the client's statement, which type of crisis is the client experiencing?
A. Maturational C. Social
B. Situational D. Developmental

29. The nurse is conducting an initial assessment of a client in crisis. When assessing the client's perception of the precipitating event
that led to the crisis, which is the most appropriate question?
A. with whom do you live?
B. who is available to help you?
C. what led you to seek help now?
D. what do you usually do to feel better?

30. The nurse is explaining the advantages of support groups to a client. Which statement from the client suggests an understanding
of the information?
A. "I can gain insights into the challenges others face."
B. "I'll feel empowered as the leader guides the sessions."
C. "A support group might help me gain a broader perspective on things."
D. "After hearing others' experiences, my own struggles may not seem as severe."
Situation: You are a psychiatric nurse working in the Philippine Mental Health Center. You are already considered a master in
handling nurse-patient relationships, and managing crisis or aggressive patients.
31. Which is not an elemnt of a contract?
A. Time, duration, and venue of sessions
B. Termination and criteria for termination
C. Nurse’s and patient’s responsibilities
D. Payment for the session

32. Prior to the meeting, the nurse should?

A. Formulate a nursing care plan according to the diagnosis of patient
B. Read the patient’s history and assessment
C. Promote the client’s insight
D. Determine’s client’s feelings about the termination of relationship

33. Which is an example of assertive communication?

A. “I wish you would stop making me angry.”
B. “I feel angry when you walk away when I’m talking.”
C. “You never listen to me when I’m talking.”
D. “You make me angry when you interrupt me.”

34. A client is pacing in the hallway with clenched fists and a flushed face. She is yelling and swearing. In which phase of the
aggression cycle is she?
A. Anger
B. Triggering
C. Escalation
D. Crisis

35. You observe a client muttering to himself and pounding his fist in his other hand while pacing in the hallway. Which principle
should guide your action?
A. Only one nurse should approach an upset client to avoid threatening the client.
B. Clients who can verbalize angry feelings are less likely to become physically aggressive.
C. Talking to a client with delusions is not helpful, because the client has no ability to reason.
D. Verbally aggressive clients often calm down on their own if staff members don’t bother them.

Situation: With his mother as an inspiration, nurse Pepe decides to work in a clinic as a nurse who addresses patients with eyes, ear,
nose, and throat disorders.
36. What cranial nerve is being assessed if the nurse determines how clear a client can see an object across the ward?
A. Oculomotor nerve
B. Abducens nerve
C. Optic nerve
D. Trochlear nerve

37. What is the expected pupillary response when a person‘s body experiences stress and their fight or flight system is activated?
A. Dilation of pupils
B. Constriction of pupils
C. Miosis
D. Myopia

38. What does a visual acuity score of 20/200 indicate?

A. The patient is far-sighted
B. A patient at 20 feet away from an object can clearly see what a person with normal vision can see clearly at 200 feet away from an
object
C. The patient will most likely sit at the back of the audience during a lecture
D. A patient at 200 feet away from an object can clearly see what a person with normal vision can see clearly at 20 feet away from
an object

39. In the absence of contact lens solution, what should the nurse advise to the patient to use instead?
A. Distilled water
B. Saline solution
C. Tap water
D. Eyedrops

40. A patient with glaucoma asks the nurse which medication are they taking that causes their pupils to go small? The correct answer
of the nurse is that this medication is called:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Latanoprost
C. Betaxolol
D. Acetazolomide

41. Which of the following is not part of the inner ear?

A. The vestibulocochlear nerve
B. The labyrinths
C. The malleus, incus, and stapes
D. The endolymphatic fluids

42. Which of the following actions of a nurse who is talking to a patient with hearing disorder will promote proper communication
between them?
A. The nurse dims the light of the room
B. The nurse stands while talking to a patient who is sitting
C. The nurse repeats the same sentence if the patient has a hard time hearing it
D. The nurse speaks on a low-pitch tone of voice

43. Which of the following will most likely cause otitis media?
A. Bacterial infection with staphylococcus aureus
B. Direct trauma
C. Stagnant water in the ear canal after swimming
D. Untreated tonsillitis

44. A patient comes to the clinic with a hearing disorder. What set of symptoms will let the nurse suspect that this patient has
Meniere’s disease?
A. Hearing loss, headache, and inflammation of the ear
B. Purulent ear drainage, hearing loss, and tinnitus
C. Vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus
D. Tinnitus, vertigo, and ear inflammation

45. What is the appropriate intervention of a nurse for a patient who has an insect stuck inside their ear canal?
A. Instill a few drops of half-strength hydrogen peroxide to kill the insect
B. Use a water stream to irrigate the foreign body
C. Use cotton swabs to clean the ears
D. Instill mineral oil first

Situation: Nurse NIckoh is reviewing his notes on the proper steps of assessment of patients.
46. When examining the abdomen, she knows that the correct sequence of examining it would be ____.
A. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
C. Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion
D. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

47. Upon assessing the patient’s back, she found an elevated skin lesion which contains fluid of inflammatory cells and is more than
1 cm. She is correct if she identifies this as a _____.
A. papule
B. plaque
C. pustule
D. vesicle

48. This is known as the visual examination and involves using the sense of sight to inspect the patient
A. Palpation
B. Examination
C. Inspection
D. Auscultation

49. In obtaining health history, which among the following constitutes as past health history?
A. Patient’s brother previously had lung cancer
B. Patient’s symptoms started 6 months ago
C. Patient used to be a chronic drinker
D. Patient’s rib was fractured in a car crash

50. When interviewing a client, Nurse lily opted to use open-ended questions. She knows that an advantage of this is ______.
A. Questions and answers can be controlled more
B. It takes less time
C. Provide information the interviewer may not ask for
D. Responses are easily documented

Situation: In taking care of patients with psychiatric disorders, a nurse must be proficient in the symptomatologies that specifically
revolve around psychiatric patients
51. When a patient replied to the nurse that they feel “kritangtangtang” when asked how they feel, the nurse documents this
response as what?
A. Perseveration
B. Clang association
C. Verbigeration
D. Neologism

52. A patient comes to the nurse stating that they believe people are putting thoughts inside their head and they do not have any
control about it. This is an example of which thought disturbance?
A. Thought withdrawal
B. Thought insertion
C. Thought broadcasting
D. Thought blocking

53. Throughout the whole stay of the patient in the ward, they only ever showed one mood which is that they are sad even after
being exposed to different situations and contexts. Nurse Jane knows that what affect will she expect to be written in the chart of
this patient?
A. Flat affect
B. Blunt affect
C. Restrictive affect
D. Labile affect

54. When asked by the head nurse what is the difference between an illusion and a hallucination, nurse Jane answers that:
A. Hallucinations are based on reality while illusions are not
B. Illusions cannot be clarified as compared to hallucinations
C. Hallucinations are misinterpretations of reality while illusions are misinterpretations of sensations
D. Hallucinations are misinterpretations of sensory stimulus while illusions are misrepresentations of external stimulus

55. What delusion can be called to a patient who states that they have connections to all people in the Malacanang palace?
A. Erotomanic delusion
B. Somatic delusion
C. Grandiose delusion
D. Persecutory delusion

Situation: In a more recent local study by Puyat et al (2021), data on depression was collected from 19,017 young adults using the
Center for Epidemiological Studies - Depression scale. The results of this study showed that almost 1 in every 10 young adult Filipinos
suffer from Major Depressive Disorder. Nurse Karissa is a psychiatric nurse who specializes in care for patients with mood disorders.
56. What is the most important diagnostic criteria for major depressive disorder?
A. Overall depressive feeling
B. The patient is unable to go to work because of their symptoms
C. Symptoms have been lasting for at least 2 weeks
D. The patient has self-reproach and self-criticism

57. After greeting the patient with major depressive disorder and asking how they are, the patient proceeds to ignore the nurse and
does not talk to them. What is the most therapeutic response of the nurse?
A. “I’ll be here with you for 15 minutes. You can talk to me if you want”
B. “You are regressing again and we have talked about this”
C. “If you do not talk to me, I am afraid I will have to end our contract”
D. “I am disappointed in you”

58. Which statement by the nurse will most likely encourage a patient with major depressive disorder to participate in an activity?
A. “I’ll see you later at the activity room at 1 PM for the group session”
B. “You can join us whenever you want. You can take your time“
C. “Here is a list of activities. You can pick what suits your mood”
D. “I’ll help you clean the whole hospital later, as scheduled

59. Which antidepressant medication is considered as the first-line medication due to the intensity of its side effects?
A. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors

60. Which statement by the nurse who is providing health education to a patient prescribed with Escitalopram indicate that they
have adequate understanding of the medication’s action?
A. I will avoid eating food such as cheese, kimchi, and canned goods
B. I must have my ECG checked every 2 weeks due to the potential adverse effects of the medication
C. If I experience sleepiness as a side effect, I must take it in the morning
D. The medication will take 1 week before I feel its effect

61. What food is appropriate to be served to a patient who is manic?

A. Hamburger and french fries
B. Fried chicken and spaghetti
C. Chopsuey and fruit salad
D. Carrot sticks and kangkong

62. What is the appropriate intervention a nurse must do to a patient who is shouting at the nurse and other hospital workers while
demanding that they must be discharged right now?
A. Invite 5 to 6 members of the healthcare team to band together
B. Promote verbalization of the patient’s feelings
C. Restrain the patient’s mouth
D. Administer intramuscular anxiolytic medications

63. Which neurotransmitters are altered in mood disorders, including bipolar disorder?
A. Serotonin and dopamine
B. Norepinephrine and dopamine
C. Norepinephrine and serotonin
D. Dopamine and acetylcholine

64. After reading the charts of a patient who is taking lithium, the nurse knows that they must withhold the next dose of lithium if
they see what lithium level in the patient’s blood?
A. 0.6 mEq/L
B. 1.0 mEq/L
C. 1.2 mEq/L
D. 1.8 mEq/L

65. Upon going to the patient, what symptom will the nurse expect that supports the finding that the patient has too much lithium in
their blood?
A. Fine tremors
B. Diarrhea
C. Frequent urination
D. Frequent intake of water

Situation: Schizophrenia a serious mental condition of a type involving a breakdown in the relation between thought, emotion, and
behavior. In order to care for patients with schizophrenia, nurse Lena must strive to understand how to properly take care of these
patients.
66. What is the therapeutic response of a nurse to a patient who keeps looking at something in the wall behind the nurse?
A. “I do not see anything in the wall behind me”
B. “What are you looking at the wall behind me?”
C. “I notice that you keep looking behind me.”
D. “Would you look at this form and help me fill it up?”

67. What is the therapeutic response of a nurse to a patient who is terrified and claims that the people in the TV is talking about
them?
A. “Are you scared because you believe that other people are always talking about you?”
B. “What makes you think they are talking about you?”
C. “I will turn off the TV for you”
D. “They are not talking about you.”

68. Which intervention by a nurse who is taking care of a patient who is paranoid will negatively affect their therapeutic
relationship?
A. The nurse talking in a businesslike manner
B. The nurse including the patient during planning of the care plan
C. The nurse being friendly to the patient
D. The nurse making sure they do not laugh or giggle in front of the patient

69. Which of the following is not considered as a soft symptom of schizophrenia?

A. Not feeling pleasure in activities
B. Having no motivation in everyday activities
C. Talking in a fast-paced manner
D. Showing one to no emotions

70. Which of the patients of nurse Jeng does she know is the least likely to commit suicide?
A. A patient who gives away the only thing that reminds them of their parents
B. A patient who has thoughts of hurting other people
C. A patient who is sad and cries most of the time
D. A patient who cleared their schedule for the upcoming week

Situation: As a chronic disorder, schizophrenia is heavily managed by psychopharmacology. In order to properly take care of patients
with schizophrenia, a nurse must be able to be an expert in the nursing considerations revolving around antipsychotics.
71. What manifestations in a patient who has been taking thorazine necessitate the attention of the psychiatrist?
A. Tooth decay and dry mouth
B. Weight gain
C. Decreased WBC count
D. Jaundice and BP: 130/80 mmHg

72. Which intervention listed by a nurse in their care plan for a patient taking chlorpromazine needs revision?
A. Increase fiber and fluid intake
B. Assist patient in changing positions gradually
C. Provide sunscreen for patient to use when going outside
D. Provide tepid sponge bath in cases of fever

73. What is the difference between the 1st and 2nd generation antipsychotics given to patients with schizophrenia?
A. 2nd generation antipsychotics decrease dopamine levels only
B. 1st generation antipsychotics address positive/hard symptoms only
C. 1st generation antipsychotics decrease dopamine and serotonin levels
D. 1st generation antipsychotics include olanzapine, risperidone, and clozapine among others

74. Which of the following symptoms will a nurse expect in a patient who was endorsed to be having akathisia?
A. Uncontrollable muscle spasms including oculogyric crisis and dysphagia
B. Shuffling gait, masklike facies, and pill-rolling tremor
C. Tongue twisting, lip smacking, and tongue protrusion
D. Inability to sit and stand still

75. What is the initial intervention of a nurse who will give the next dose of fluphenazine as a maintenance medication but assesses
the following in the patient: T=41 C, HR=101 bpm, RR=21 cpm, BP=140/90 mmHg
A. Report the findings to the physician
B. Discontinue the drug
C. Prepare baclofen as an antidote
D. Anticipate orders of diphenhydramine for the patient

Situation: Every year, 1% to 2% of the population will develop bulimia. Around 0.3% and 1% of adolescent girls suffer from anorexia
nervosa and bulimia nervosa, respectively in the Philippines. Hence, nurse Tommy should be able to take care of a patient with an
eating disorder once that patient is admitted.
76. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the manifestations of anorexia nervosa?
A. The patient has a perfectionist attitude
B. The patient is aware that they have the disease
C. The patient knows a lot about food preparations
D. The patient is proud of their own food restriction habits

77. A nurse knows that a patient with anorexia nervosa may experience the following complications of their disease, except?
A. Malnutrition
B. Sialadenitis
C. Alopecia
D. Anemia

78. Which of the following is true about the differences between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa?
A. A patient with anorexia nervosa is overweight while a patient with bulimia nervosa is underweight
B. A patient with anorexia nervosa and a patient with bulimia nervosa may binge and purge
C. A patient with anorexia nervosa is ashamed of their behavior while a patient with bulimia nervosa boasts about their behavior
D. A patient with anorexia nervosa undergoes hunger-anger cycles while a patient with bulimia nervosa is known for their ritualistic
food behaviors

79. Which of the following nursing diagnosis should a nurse prioritize in a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A. Disturbed body image
B. Imbalanced nutrition
C. Hopelessness
D. Risk for impaired skin integrity

80. Which of the following interventions for a patient with bulimia nervosa should change in their care plan?
A. Encourage the patient to eat meals with other people such as friends or family
B. Ensure that food stored at the kitchen, room, and their car are all nutritious
C. Identify food eaten during binge episodes and avoid buying them

Situation: Mental illness has become the third most common disability in the Philippines, wherein six million Filipinos live with
depression and anxiety. Because of this, the country has the third highest rate of mental disorders in the Western Pacific (Martinez
et al., 2020). As anxiety that is not properly address can result in a disorder, nurse Angela must know how to guide patients
regarding anxiety.
81. A nurse that assess which of the following in a patient knows that this patient is experiencing moderate anxiety?
A. Pallor, chest pain, and nausea, vomiting, & diarrhea
B. Delusions, hallucinations, and seizures
C. Tachycardia, diaphoresis, and upset GI tract
D. Restlessness and GI butterflies

82. What is the appropriate intervention of a nurse for a patient who is experiencing mild anxiety?
A. Stay with the client and provide intramuscular anxiolytics
B. Help the patient by redirecting and refocusing their attention
C. Put the patient in a quiet and non-stimulating room
D. Little to no interventions from the nurse is needed

83. Which neurotransmitter is involved in anxiety and its alterations cause anxiety disorders to patients?
A. Gamma-aminobutyric acid
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Dopamine

84. Benzodiazepines are the drug-of-choice for anxiety disorders, especially during emergency situations. What medication should
the nurse prepare as an antidote for toxicity levels of benzodiazepine?
A. Glucagon
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Calcium gluconate
D. Flumazenil

85. Which of the following is the most important nursing intervention for a patient who is experiencing panic?
A. Take control of the patient by using direct and concise words
B. Restrain the patient if needed
C. Stay with the client
D. Ensure safety of the patient’s environment

Situation: Mental health problems are associated with later substance abuse. This link, often referred to as the self-medication
hypothesis, proposes that youth turn to drugs and alcohol to cope with mental health symptoms. Substance abuse can trigger
mental health problems.
86. What is the term used for when a patient’s use of a substance results in maladaptive behavior?
A. Intoxication
B. Abuse
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence

87. What is the expected behavior of a patient who is undergoing withdrawal from narcotics?
A. Sleeplessness and stained rotting teeth
B. Anxiety, restlessness, diaphoresis, rhinorrhea, and vomiting
C. Hypotension, bradycardia, bradypnea, and pupil constriction
D. Paranoid ideation, ideas of reference, and fear of losing one’s mind

88. What medication is used to safely withdraw patients from narcotics?

A. Naloxone
B. Lorazepam
C. Disulfiram
D. Methadone

89. What is a characteristic symptom of cannabis abuse?

A. Bloodshot eyes and weight gain
B. Sleeplessness and weight loss
C. Excoriated nostrils
D. Pinpoint pupils

90. Which of the following is a non modifiable risk factor for substance abuse?
A. Peer pressure
B. Family history
C. Lack of social support
D. Being prescribed powerful drugs

Situation: In 2021, Department of Health survey showed that an estimated 40 percent of Filipino adults reported drinking alcohol in
the previous month (up from 38 percent in 2019) including 33 percent who engaged in heavy drinking sessions (up from 12 percent
in 2016). Alcoholism will affect not only a person’s physiological health but also their mental health.
91. What ego defense mechanism is expected to be used by patients with alcohol abuse?
A. Acting sober even if already intoxicated
B. Lashing out on their spouse because they got fired from intoxication
C. Using alcohol as an escape from their problems
D. Does not recognize and accept that they are abusing alcohol use

92. A patient who is manifesting signs and symptoms of tachycardia, irregular breathing, and hypertension is at what stage of alcohol
abuse?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4

93. What medication is used to address the signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
A. Naloxone
B. Lorazepam
C. Disulfiram
D. Methadone

94. What intervention should the nurse anticipate to be done to a patient admitted to the emergency room presenting with signs
and symptoms of vomiting, unconsciousness, and respiratory depression due to alcohol overdose?
A. Monitoring of vital signs
B. Administration of oral doses of diazepam
C. Administration of intravenous disulfiram
D. Insertion of nasogastric tube and endotracheal tube

95. What vitamin should be increased in the diet of a patient with chronic alcohol abuse to counteract the effects of Wernicke-
Korsakoff syndrome?
A. Pyridoxine
B. Biotin
C. Thiamine
D. Riboflavin
Situation: Though given lesser light, a psychiatric nurse also addresses a person’s personality and the different facets around it.
Nurse Janice (they/them) takes care of such patients.
96. Which of the following is not included in the cluster B personality disorders?
A. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder C. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder D. Antisocial personality disorder

97. Which of the following characterizes a patient with schizotypal personality disorder?
A. Social withdrawal and aloof
B. Bizarre behaviors and magical thinking
C. Suicidal tendencies and body multilation
D. Extreme distrust and suspiciousness

98. What therapy will the nurse expect that a patient with dependent personality disorder to undergo?
A. Set firm limits
B. Cognitive restructuring
C. Teaching social skills
D. Behavioral therapy

99. Who of the following patients is the most at=risk for being diagnosed with gender dysphoria?
A. A patient who identifies as cisgender
B. A patient who expresses themselves androgynously
C. A patient who identifies as transgender
D. A patient who is a homosexual

100. A patient with premature ejaculation is experiencing disruption in what stage of the sexual response cycle?
A. Resolution
B. Excitement
C. Desire
D. Orgasm