(b) 2.

5 × 10 −4
Physics
(c) 25 × 10 −2
Section - I: Single Correct (d) 2.5 × 10 −2
This section contains a total of 45 questions. 5. A current of 6 A is flowing at 220 V in the primary of a
All questions in this section are mandatory. transformer. If the voltage produced in the secondary
For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks. coil is 1100 V and 60% of the power is lost, then the
For every incorrect response 1 mark shall be deducted.
current in the secondary coil will be
1. A horizontal disc rotating freely about a vertical axis
through its centre makes 90 revolutions per minute. A (a) 0.28 A
small piece of wax of mass m falls vertically on the disc (b) 0.36 A
and sticks to it at a distance r from the axis. If the
(c) 0.48 A
number of revolutions per minute reduces to 60, then
the moment of inertia of the disc is (d) 0.42 A

6. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass 20 kg

(a) mr2
and diameter 20 cm about the tangent to the sphere
(b)
3
mr2 is
2
(c) 2 mr2
(a) 0.24 kgm 2
(d) 3 mr2
(b) 0.14 kgm 2
2. The angular momentum of a solid cylinder rotating
about its geometric axis with angular speed 40 rad s −1 (c) 0.28 kgm 2
is 2 kg m 2 s −1 . If the radius of the cylinder is 10 cm, the (d) 0.08 kgm 2
mass of the cylinder is
7. The angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is
given by the equation θ(t) = 2t 3 − 6t 2 . Where t is time
in seconds.Find out t at which the net torque on wheel
(a) 2 kg
becomes zero?
(b) 5 kg
(a) 1 s
(c) 8 kg
(b) 0.5 s
(d) 10 kg
(c) 0.25 s
3. Three particles of each mass ′ m ′ are kept at the three
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ′ l ′ . The (d) 2 s
moment of inertia of system of the particles about any
8. A circular disk of radius R meter and mass M kg is
side of the triangle is
rotating around the axis perpendicular to the disk. An
external torque is applied to the disk such that
(a)
ml 2
θ (t) = 5t 2 − 8t, where θ (t) is the angular position of
the rotating disc as a function of time t. How much
4
(b) ml 2
power is delivered by the applied torque when t = 2 s?
(c)
3 2
(a) 60 MR 2
ml
4

(d) (b) 72 MR 2
2 2
ml
3
(c) 108 MR 2
4. A resistance of 20 Ω is connected to a source of an
alternating potential V = 200 sin(10πt). If t is the time (d) 8 MR 2
taken by the current to change from the peak value to
rms value, then ‘t’ is (in seconds). 9. When two coaxial coils having same current in same
direction are brought to each other, then the value of
(a) 25 × 10 −1 current in both the coils

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 1

 (a) Increases 14. A body of mass 1 kg is suspended by a weightless
string which passes over a frictionless pulley of mass 2
(b) Decreases
kg as shown in the figure. The mass is released from a
(c) Remains same height of 1.6 m from the ground. With what velocity
(d) Increases in one coil and decreases in other coil does it strike the ground?

10. A particle performs uniform circular motion with an

angular momentum L. If the frequeny of the particle's
motion is doubled and its kinetic energy is halved,
then its angular momentum becomes.

(a) 2L
(b) 4L

(c) (a) 16 ms-1

L
2

(d)
L (b) 8 ms-1
4
(c) 4√2 ms-1
11. An ac voltage of 10 sin ωt volt is applied to a pure
inductor of inductance 10 H. The current through the (d) 4 ms-1
inductor in ampere is
15. The physical quantity which is measured in the unit of

(a)
1 π
sin (ωt − ) Wb A-1 is
θ 2

(b) ω sin (ωt − ) (a) Self inductance

π
2
(b) Mutual inductance
(c)
1 π
(c) Magnetic flux
sin (ωt − )
ω 2

(d) ω sin (ωt − )

π
(d) Both A and B
2
2

12. The power factor of an R-L circuit is

1
. If the 16. An aeroplane is travelling horizontally towards west
√3 with a speed of 540 kmh −1 . The wing span of the plane
inductive reactance is 2 Ω, the value of the resistance is 20 m. If the horizontal component of the earth's
is magnetic field at the location is 2.5√3 × 10 −4 T and the
dip angle is 30 ∘ , the potential difference developed
(a) 2 Ω between the ends of the wing is
(b) √2 Ω
(a) 1 V
(c) 0.5 Ω
(b) 1.5 V
(d)
1
(c) 0.75 V
Ω
√2
(d) 0.5 V
13. The angular speed of a motor wheel is increased from
1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular 17. The current in a coil changes from 2A to 5A in 0.3s.
acceleration of the motor wheel is The magnitude of emf induced in the coil is 1.0V. The
value of self-inductance of the coil is
(a) 6π rad/s 2

(b) 8π rad/s 2 (a) 0.1 mH

(c) 2π rad/s 2 (b) 0.2 mH

(d) 4π rad/s 2 (c) 1.0 mH

(d) 100 mH

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 2

18. A sinusoidal voltage produced by an AC generator at (c) 10π mV
any instant t is given by an equation V = 311sin314t .
(d) 20π mV
The rms value of voltage and frequency are
respectively. 23. Consider the situation given in figure. The wire AB is
made to slide on the fixed rails with a constant
(a) 200 V, 50 Hz velocity. If the wire AB is replaced by a semicircular
wire, the magnitude of the induced current will
(b) 220 V, 100 Hz

(c) 220 V, 50 Hz
(d) 200 V, 100 Hz

19. A wheel of moment of inertia 10 kg−m2 rotates at the

rate of 10 revolutions per minute. Find the work done
in increasing its speed to 5 times of its initial value.

(a) 110 J (a) Increase

(b) 131.6 J (b) Remain same

(c) 142 J (c) Decrease

(d) 149 J Increase or decrease depending on whether the

(d) semicircle bulges towards the resistance or away
20. The current passing through a coil of 120 turns and from it
inductance 40 mH is 30 mA. The magnetic flux linked
with the coil is 24. Two circular coils of radii r 1 and r 2 (r 1 ≪ r 2 ) are placed
coaxially with their centers coinciding. The mutual
(a) 20 × 10 −6 Wb inductance of the arrangement is

(b) 5 × 10 −6 Wb μ 0 πr 22
(a)
(c) 12 × 10 −6 Wb 2r 1

(d) 10 × 10 −6 Wb (b) 2(r + r )

μ 0 πr 1 r 2
1 2

21. In the following RLC circuit, potential difference μ 0 πr 21

(c)
between points A and B measured is 40V while that 2r 2
between A and C measured is 50 V . What will be the
potential difference between point B and C? (d)
μ 0 π(r 1 + r 2 )
2r 1 r 2

25. An alternating current is given by i = i 1 sin ωt + i 2 cos ωt

. The r.m.s. current is given by

(a) 30 V
(a) √ 1
2 2
i + i2
(b) 10 V
2

(c) 90 V (b) √
i 22 + i 22

(d) 40 V
√2

(c)
i1 + i2
22. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m rotates about an axis √2
passing through its centre and perpendicular to its
plane with 10 revolutions per second in a uniform (d)
i1 − i2

transverse magnetic field of 0.1 T. The emf induced

√2

across the radius of the disc is 26. An alternating current is represented by the equation,
i = 100√2 sin(100πt) Ampere. The RMS value of current
(a) 20π mV and the frequency of the given alternating current are

(b)
2π
10
V (a) 100√2 A, 100 Hz

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 3

 31. The number of turns in primary and secondary
(b)
100
A, 100 Hz
√2 windings of a transformer are 1000 and 100
(c) 100 A, 50 Hz respectively. If 200 V dc voltage is applied across the
primary terminals, the steady state voltage across the
(d) 50√2 A, 50 Hz secondary is

27. AB is a part of an electical circuit (see figure). The

potential difference V A − V B , at the instant when (a) 22 V
current i = 2 A and is increasing at a rate of 1 (b) 2200 V
Amp/second is:
(c) 220 V
(d) zero

32. Match List I with List II:

(a) 5 Volt
(b) 6 Volt

(c) 9 Volt
(d) 10 Volt

28. X and Y are two circuits having coe cient of mutual

ffi
inductance 3 mH and resistances 10 Ω and 4 Ω
respectively. To have induced current 60 × 10 −4 A in
circuit Y, the amount of current to be changed in
circuit X in 0.02 sec is

(a) 0.6 A
(b) 0.16 A Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) 0.32 A given below:

(d) 3.2 A (a) A - (i), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (ii)

29. A transformer has an efficiency of 80% and works at 10 (b) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (ii)
V and 4 kW. If the secondary voltage is 240 V, the
(c) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)
current in the secondary coil is
(d) A - (i), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (iii)
(a) 1.59 A
33. A coil of inductance L is divided into 6 equal parts. All
(b) 15.1 A these parts are connected in parallel. The resultant
(c) 13.33 A inductance of this combination is

(d) 1.33 A
(a)
L

A train with an axle of length 1.66 m is moving towards

6
30.
north with a speed of 90 kmh −1 . If the vertical (b)
L

component of the earth's magnetic field is 0.2 × 10 −4 T

36

, the emf induced across the ends of the axle of the (c)
L

train is
24
(d) 6L
(a) 16.6 mV
34. The ratio of the number of turns per unit length of two
(b) 1.66 mV solenoids A and B is 1 : 3 and the lengths of A and B
are in the ratio 1 : 2. If the two solenoids have same
(c) 0.83 mV
cross-sectional area, the ratio of the self inductances
(d) 8.3 mV of the solenoids A and B is

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 4

 (a) 1:12 (b) 1:6 38. The readings of ammeter and voltmeter in
(c) 1:18 (d) 1:9 the following circuit are respectively

35. A transformer is used to light a 140 watt, 24 volt lamp

from 240 V AC mains. The current in the main cable is
0.7 amp. Find out the efficiency of the transformer?

(a) 48%

(b) 63.8%
(c) 83.3%
(a) 1.2 A, 120 V
(d) 90%
(b) 1.5 A, 100 V
36. A rod of length 2 m slides with a speed of 5 ms-1 on a (c) 2.7 A, 220 V
rectangular conducting frame as shown in figure.
There exists a uniform magnetic filed of 0.04 T (d) 2.2 A, 220 V
perpendicular to the plane of the figure. If the
39. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of 2 A is
resistance of the rod is3 Ω, the current through the
passed through it, the resulting magnetic ux linked
rod is

fl
with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10 −3 Wb, the self
inductance of the solenoid is

(a) 2.0 Henry

(b) 1.0 Henry

(c) 4.0 Henry
(a) 75 mA (d) 2.5 Henry
(b) 133 mA 40. A magnetic field of flux density 1.0 Wb m-2 acts normal
(c) 0.75 A to a 80 turn coil of 0.01 m2 area. If this coil is removed
(d) 1.33 A from the field in 0.2 seconds, the emf induced in it is

37. In the circuit shown in the gure with source voltage (a) 0.8 V (b) 5 V
fi
of 240 V, neglecting the source resistance, the (c) 4 V (d) 8 V
voltmeter and ammeter reading respectively are
41. A 50 Hz AC circuit has a 10 mH inductor and a 2 Ω
resistor in series. The value of capacitance to be
placed in series in the circuit to make the circuit power
factor as unity is

(a) 1.014 × 10 −6 F

(b) 1.014 × 10 −3 F
(a) 0V, 8A (c) 2.6 × 10 −3 F
(b) 150V, 3A (d) 4.125 × 10 −3 F
(c) 150V, 6A
42. An inductor and a resistor are connected in series to
(d) 0V, 3A an ac source. If the power factor of the circuit is 0.5,
the ratio of the resistance of the resistor and the
reactance of the inductor is

(a) 1:1
(b) 1:√2

(c) 1:√3

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 5

 (d) 1:2 47. Among the following, the products formed by the
reaction of anisole with HI are
43. An alternating current is givne by
i = (3 sin ωt + 4 cos ωt) A. The rms current will be
(a) Benzene + Methanol
(b) Phenol + Methane
(a)
7
A
(c) Phenol + Iodomethane
√2

(b) (d) Sodium phenate + Methanol

1
A
√2
48. An organic compound ‘X’ on treatment with PCC in
(c)
5
dichloromethane gives the compound Y. Compound ‘Y’
A
√2
reacts with I2 and alkali to form yellow precipitate of
(d)
3
triiodomethane. The compound X is
A
√2

44. In an LCR series circuit, if the potential differences (a) CH3CHO

across inductor, capacitor and resistor are 60 V, 30 V
and 40 V respectively, then the ac voltage applied to (b) CH3COCH3
the circuit is
(c) CH3CH2OH
(a) 50 V (b) 70 V (d) CH3COOH
(c) 130 V (d) 60 V
49. At 27oC 100 mL of 0.4 M HCl is mixed with 100 mL of
45. In an A.C. circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f. and current 0.5 M NaOH solution. To the resultant solution, 800
are given by mL of distilled water is added. What is the pH of the
e = 100 sin 30t final solution?
π
(a) 12 (b) 2
i = 20 sin (30t − )
4
In one cycle of A.C. the average power consumed by
(c) 1.3 (d) 1.0
the circuit and the wattless current are, respectively.

50. 15 moles of H2 and 5.2 moles of I2 are mixed and

(a)
1000
allowed to attain equilibrium at 773K. At equilibrium,
, 10
√2
the number of moles of HI is found to be 10. The
(b) equilibrium constant for the dissociation of HI is
50
,0
√2
(c) 50, 0 (a) 2 x 10–2
(d) 50, 10 (b) 50

Chemistry (c) 2 x 10–1

(d) 5.0
Section - I: Single Correct
51.
This section contains a total of 45 questions.
All questions in this section are mandatory.
For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
For every incorrect response 1 mark shall be deducted.
What is the major product A?
46. FeO 2−
+2.0 V 3+ 0.8 V 2+ −0.5 V 0
−
−
− 4 → Fe → Fe → Fe
In the above diagram, the standard electrode
potentials are given in volts (over the arrow). (a)
The value of E⊖
FeO 2− 2+ is
4 /Fe

(a) 1.7 V (b) 2.1 V (b)

(c) 1.4 V (d) 1.2 V

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 6

 57. Match List I with List II
(c)

(d)

52. Which is most VISCOUS?

(a) Ethylene glycol

Choose the correct answer from the options given
(b) Glycerol below:
(c) Methanol
(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(d) Ethanol
(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
53. What is the corqtrgate base of chloric acid?
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

(a) ClO −
4
(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

(b) ClO − 58. Addition of sodium acetate solution to acetic acid

(c) ClO − causes the following change–
2

(d) ClO −
3 (a) pH increases

54. The correct relation between Ksp and solubility (s) for (b) pH decreases
the salt KAl(SO4)2 is (c) pH remains unchanged
(d) pH becomes 7
(a) 4s3 (b) 4s4

(c) 27s4 (d) None 59. How many coulombs of electricity are required for the
oxidation of 1mole of H2O to O2.
55. The large difference between the melting and boiling
points of oxygen and sulphur may be explained on the (a) 9.65 × 104 C
basis of
(b) 4.825 × 105 C
(a) Atomic size (c) 1.93 × 105 C
(b) Atomicity
(d) 1.93 × 104 C
(c) Electronegativity
60. How can an electrochemical cell be converted into an
(d) Electron gain enthalpy electrolytic cell ?
56. Two statements are given below.
Applying an external opposite potential greater
Statement I: Molten NaCl is electrolysed using Pt (a)
than E ∘cell
electrodes. Cl2 is liberated at anode.
(b) Reversing the flow of ions in salt bridge.
Statement II: Aqueous CuSO4 is electrolysed using Pt
electrodes. O2 is liberated at cathode. Applying an external opposite potential lower
(c)
thanE ∘cell
The correct answer is
(d) Exchanging the electrodes at anode and cathode.
(a) Both statement I and II are correct
61. The molar solubility(s) of zirconium phosphate with
(b) Both statement I and II are not correct molecular formula (Zr4+)3(PO43−)4, is given by relation:
Statement I is correct but statement II is not
(c)
correct
1

(a) (
K sp 7
)
Statement I is not correct but statement II is
8435
(d)
correct

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 7

 1
(c) 9.95 (d) 11.95
(b) (
K sp 7
)
66. For lead storage battery pick the correct statements
6912
1

(c) (
K sp
)
6
A. During charging of the battery, PbSO4 on anode is
5348 converted into PbO2
B. During charging of the battery, PbSO4 on cathode is
1

(d) (
K sp 3

converted into PbO2

)
9612
C. Lead storage battery, consists of a grid of lead
62. Given below are two statements :
packed with PbO2 as an anode
Statement I: Picric acid is 2, 4, 6-trinitrotoluene.
Statement II: Phenol-2, 4-disulphuric acid is treated D. Lead storage battery has ∼38% solution of
with conc. HNO3 to get picric acid. sulphuric acid as an electrolyte

In the light of the above statement, choose the most Choose the correct answer from the options given
appropriate answer from the options given below : below:

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (a) B, D only

(a)
correct (b) B, C, D only
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (c) A, B, D only
Statement I is correct but Statement II is (d) B, C only
(c)
incorrect
67. Which of the following is dihydric alcohol
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

63. At 298 K, if emf of the cell corresponding to the (a) Glycerol

reaction, (b) Ethylene glycol
Zn (s) + 2 H (aq) → Zn (0.01 M) + H 2 (g) (1 atm) is
(c) Catechol
+ 2+

0.28 V, then the pH of the solution at the hydrogen

electrode is (d) Resorcinol

68. Identify the incorrect statement from the following-

2.303RT
( = 0.06 V), (E oZn2+ /Zn = −0.76 V)
F
Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiation
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 10 (a)
of the sun.
64. Which of the following on heating gives an ether as Depletion of ozone layer is because of its
major products? (b)
chemical reactions with chlorofluoro alkanes.
P: C6H5CH2Br + CH3ONa
(c) Ozone absorbs infrared radiation.
Q: C6H5ONa + CH3Br
Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can cause
(d)
R: (CH3)3C–Cl + CH3ONa the depletion of ozone layer.
S: C6H5CH = CHCl + CH3ONa 69. pH of a mixture of 1 M benzoic acid (pKa = 4.20) and 1
M sodium benzoate is 4.5. In 300 mL buffer, benzoic
(a) Both R and S acid is :
(b) Both P and R
(a) 200 mL
(c) Both Q and S
(b) 150 mL
(d) Both P and Q
(c) 100 mL
65. At T(K), the equilibrium constant for the reaction (d) 50 mL
H2(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ 2HBr(g) is 1.6 x 105. If 10 bar of HBr is
introduced into a sealed vessel at T(K), the equilibrium
pressure of HBr (in bar) is approximately

(a) 10.20 (b) 10.95

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 8

70. Higher yield of NO in N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO(g) can be 74. Statement I: Cl2 on reaction with NaOH (cold and
obtained at [ΔH of the reaction = +180.7 kJ mol–1] dilute) gives NaClO3.
A. Higher temperature Statement II: Cl2 gets oxidized only in this reaction.

B. Lower temperature
Statement I and Statement II are true and the
C. Higher concentration of N2 Statement II is the correct explanation of the
(a)
D. Higher concentration of O2 Statement I

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below: Statement I and Statement II are true but the
Statement II is not the correct explanation of the
(b)
(a) A, D only Statement I

(b) B, C only
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(c) B, C, D only (c)

(d) A, C, D only
Statement I and Statement II are false
(d)
71. Identify the incorrect statement:
75. As per standard reduction potential values, which is
Rhombic and monoclinic sulphur have S8
(a) the strongest reducing agent among the given
molecules. elements?
(b) S8 ring has a crown shape.
(a) Rb (b) Sr (c) Na (d) Mg
(c) S2 is paramagnetic like oxygen.
76. Correct order of limiting molar conductivity for cations
The S–S–S bond angles in the S8 and S6 rings are in water at 298 K is:
(d)
the same.
(a) H+ > Na+ > K+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+
72. Statement I: Block of magnesium are often stapped to
steel hulls of ocean going ships. (b) H+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+ > K+ > Na+
Statement II: Magnesium causes cathodic protection
of iron. (c) Mg2+ > H+ > Ca2+ > K+ > Na+

(d) H+ > Na+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+ > K+

Statement I and Statement II are true and the
(a) Statement II is the correct explanation of the 77. Which of the following statements is/are true about
Statement I equilibrium?
Statement I and Statement II are true but the (a) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a
(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of the given temperature
Statement I (b) All the measurable properties of the system remain
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false constant at equilibrium.

(d) Statement I and Statement II are false (c) Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the
inverse of the equilibrium constant for the reaction in
73. When a reversible reaction has reached the state of the forward direction.
equilibrium -
(a) Only c
Gibb’s free energy of reactants and
(a) (b) a, b and c
products becomes zero
(c) Only a
(b) Both forward and backward reactions stop
(d) Only b
Concentraions of reactants and products
(c)
become equal 78. 2.644 g of metal (M) was deposited when 8040
The total Gibb’s free energy of reactants and coulombs of electricity was passed through molten
(d) MF2 salt. What is the atomic mass of M ? (F = 96500 C
products become equal.
mol–1)

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 9

 (a) 63.47 u (a) B and D only
(b) 65.54 u (b) A and C only
(c) 31.74 u (c) B only
(d) 61.48 u (d) A, B, C and D

79. Identify the product 'Y' in the given sequence of 82. If the molar conductivity (Λm) of a 0.050 mol L–1
reactions.
solution of a monobasic weak acid is 90 S cm2 mol–1,
its extent (degree) of dissociation will be

[Assume Λ o+ = 349.6 S cm2 mol–1 and Λ o− = 50.4 S cm2

mol–1.]

(a) 0.115 (b) 0.125

(a) (c) 0.225 (d) 0.215

83. When equal volumes of pH = 4 and pH = 6 are mixed

together then the pH of the resulting solution will be
(b) [log 5 = 0.7]

(a) 4.3 (b) 4.7

(c) 5 (d) 5.3

(c) 84. In the following reaction sequence:

(d)

Which of the following is incorrect with regards to the The compound I is:
80.
reaction 2 NaNO3(s) ⇌ 2NaNO2(s) + O2(g)
(a)
(a) Kp = Kc (RT)1

If O2(g) is added to equilibrium mixture than the (b)

(b)
reaction moves backward.

If moles of NaNO3(s) taken initially is increased (c)

(c) then the partial pressure of O2(g) at equilibrium
also increases.

Increasing volume increases the degree of (d)

(d)
dissociation of NaNO3(s).

81. The property/properties that show irregularity in the 85. In the melting of ice, which one of the conditions will
first four elements of group-17 is/are: be more favourable –
(A) Covalent radius
(a) High temperature and high pressure
(B) Electron affinity
(C) Ionic radius (b) Low temperature and low pressure

(D) First ionization energy (c) Low temperature and high pressure
Choose the correct answer from the options given (d) High temperature and Low pressure
below:

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 10

86. (CH 3 ) 3 CH
KMnO 4 Cu
−
− → X →Y
573K
(c)
The number of sp3 and sp2 carbons in Y are
respectively

(a) 3, 1 (b) 1, 3
(d)
(c) 2, 2 (d) 4, 0

87. What is Ecell (in V) of the following cell at 298 K? 90.

Zn(s) | Zn2+ (0.01 M) || Ni2+ (0.1 M) | Ni(s)

\ce { E^{\ominus}_{Zn^{2_}/Zn} ~=~ -0.76 ~V; \ E^{\ominus}_{Ni^{2+}/Ni} ~=~ -0.25 ~V; \dfrac {2.303 ~ RT}{F} ~=~ 0.06 V} Respectively are

(a) 0.51 (b) 0.48

(c) 0.57 (d) 0.54 (a)

88.

(b)

Major Product (A) is:-

(c)

(a)
(d)

(b)
Zoology

Section - I: Single Correct

(c) This section contains a total of 45 questions.

All questions in this section are mandatory.
For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
For every incorrect response 1 mark shall be deducted.

(d) 91. Fnd out which of the following statements are true (T)
/ false (F) and choose the correct option.

89. Identify the products [A] and [B], respectively in the I. Renin is secreted from the juxta glomerular kidney
following reaction: cells.
II. The number of nephrons in a kidney is equal to the
number of Bowman's capsule.
III. The number of nephrons in a kidney is the sum-
total of Bowman's capsules and convoluted tubules.
IV. Blood from the glomerulus is carried away by an
a erent arteriole.
ff
(a)
(a) I - F, II - F, III - T, IV - T

(b) I - T, II - T, III - F, IV - F
(b)
(c) I - T, II - F, III - T, IV - F

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 11

 (d) I - T, II - T, III - F, IV - T 96. Which of the following is NOT a factor responsible for
maintaining high osmolarity of the renal medulla?
92. If a person’s heart beats 65 times per minute and
(i) Active transport of salt from the upper region of the
each ventricle pumps 75 ml blood with each
ascending limb of the loop of Henle
contraction, what will be the person’s cardiac output
(ii) The spatial arrangement of
in litres?
juxtamedullary nephrons
(iii) Di usion of urea from the collecting duct
(a) 3.575 (b) 4.875

ff
(iv) Di usion of salt from the descending limb of the

ff
(c) 4.525 (d) 5.350 loop of Henle

93. Read the following statements (assertion-A and (a) Only (i)
reason-R) and select the correct option.
(b) Only (iv)
A: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are (c) (ii) and (iv)
often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast
(eukaryotes). (d) (ii) and (iii)
R: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form 97. Blood platelets release:
huge populations which express the desired gene.
(a) Fibrinogens
Both A and R are true and R is correct
(a) (b) Prothrombins
explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (c) Hemoglobin
(b)
explanation of A (d) Thromboplastins
(c) A is true but R is false
98. Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:
(d) Both A and R are false statements I. Nodal tissue
II. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
94. A person passes much urine and drinks much water III. Adrenal medullary hormones
but his blood glucose level is normal. This condition IV. Adrenal cortical hormones
may be the result of Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) A reduction in insulin secretion from pancreas
A reduction in vasopressin secretion (a) I, II and III only
(b)
from posterior pituitary (b) I, II, III and IV
(c) A fall in the glucose concentration in urine (c) I, III and IV only
(d) An increase in secretion of glucagon (d) I, II and IV only
95. Mark the incorrect statements: 99. Which of the following prevent(s) blood clotting in
A. Castration is a method of contraception uninjured blood vessels?
B. MTPs have a signi cant role in decreasing the size
fi
of population, so it is legal. (a) Albumins
C. Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned in
our country (b) Histamine
D. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a (c) Heparin
year all over the world
(d) Globulins
(a) A & B only 100. If husband has blood group "O" and wife has blood
(b) C & D only group "AB", the blood group of the child cannot be
....
(c) A, B & C
(d) A, B, C & D (a) A

(b) B
(c) O or AB

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 12

 (d) A or B NaCl can pass by active transport from ltrate to
(a)

fi
the interstitial uid
101. What will happen if the diameter of a erent

fl
ff
arteriole is less than e erent arteriole? NaCl can pass by passive transport into
(b)

ff
intersititial uid

fl
(a) No e ect NaCl cannot pass from the ltrate to intersititial
(c)
ff
fi
(b) Ultra ltration reaction will be slow uid

fl
fi
(c) Ultra ltration will not be possible Water can pass freely from ltrate to interstitial
(d)

fi
fi
uid
Ultra ltration will stop and tubular secretion will

fl
(d)
fi
start 105. The condition of accumulation of urea in blood is
termed as:
102. Which of the following contraceptive method is
exclusively a terminal method of family planning (a) Uremia
in the homogametic sex of humans?
(b) Diuresis
(a) Nirodh (c) Glycosuria
(b) Vasectomy (d) Haematuria
(c) Tubectomy
106. Statement I: For the multiplication of any alien
(d) IUCDs piece of DNA in an organism it does not always
need to be a part of a chromosome which has a
103. The given gure represents a single nephron from a speci c sequence known as 'origin of replication'.
fi
mammalian kidney. Identify which of the labelled
fi
Statement II: An alien DNA is linked with the origin
parts, match with the functions and select the of replication, so that, this alien piece of DNA can
correct option. replicate and multiply itself in the host organism.

(a) Both statements are correct

(b) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect

(c) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct

(d) Both statements are incorrect

107. Which of the following diagrams is correct

with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule
of the nephron?

(i) The site of ultra ltration. (a)

fi
(ii) Particularly sensitive to ADH.
(iii) The main site for the reabsorption of glucose and
amino acids.
(iv) Largely responsible for the maintenance of blood
pH. (b)

(a) (i) – A; (ii) – E; (iii) – C; (iv) – D

(b) (i) – A; (ii) – B; (iii) – C; (iv) – D

(c) (i) – A; (ii) – B; (iii) – C; (iv) – E (c)

(d) (i) – A; (ii) – B; (iii) – D; (iv) – E

104. Through the thick segment of ascending limb of

Henle's loop the:

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 13

 Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b)
explanation of A
(d)
(c) A is true but R is false

(d) Both A and R are false

108. Read the following statements (assertion-A and 111. A contraceptive pill that continuously inhibits the
reason-R) and select the correct option: release of GnRH from the hypothalamus will:

A: Genetic engineering leads to change in the Increase the production of estrogen and
phenotype of the host organism. (a)
progesterone by ovaries
R: It alters the chemistry of genetic material (DNA
and RNA) which is introduced into the host (b) Initiate ovulation
organisms. Stimulate secretion of LH and FSH form the
(c)
posterior pituitary
Both A and R are true and R is correct
(a) Reduce the secretion of gonadotropins from the
explanation of A (d)
anterior pituitary
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b) 112. The accompanying diagram shows the uterine tubes
explanation of A
of four women (P, Q, R and S). In which two women
(c) A is true but R is false is fertilization impossible at present?
(d) Both A and R are false statements

109. What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene

of interest which is transferred into an alien
organism?
I. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself
independently in the progeny cells of the organism.
II. It may get integrated into the genome of the
recipient.
III. It may multiply and be inherited along with the
host DNA.
IV. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of
chromosome.
V. It shows ability to replicate.
Choose the correct answer from te options given (a) P and Q
below:
(b) Q and R

(a) I and II only (c) R and S

(b) IV and V only (d) S and P

(c) II and III only 113. Nucleic acid is genetic material of:
(d) I and V only
(a) Some organisms
110. Read the following statements (assertion-A and
(b) No organism
reason-R) and select the correct option:
(c) All organisms without exception
A: The latest oral female contraceptive, Saheli,
(d) Most organisms with some exception
contains a steroidal preparation.
R: There are very few side e ects to this "once a day"
ff
pill.

Both A and R are true and R is correct

(a)
explanation of A

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 14

114. Syphilis is an infectious bacterial disease caused by (a) (iii) and (iv)
Treponema pallidum with 3 stages
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(A) Infectious painless ulcers on the
(i) First (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
genitals
(B) Blindness, heart trouble, aortic (ii) (d) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
impairment Second
119. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as:
(C) Skin lesions, hairloss, swollen joints (iii) Third
Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal
Which of the following is the correct match between (a)
imbalance
the symptoms and stage?
(b) Pregnancies with genetic abnormalities
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii)
Implantation of embryo at sites other than
(c)
(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii) uterus

(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii) (d) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus

(d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i) 120. Which of the following statements is false?

115. In chemical engineering processes, it is important to

(a) Micturition is carried out by a re ex
maintain:

fl
Cholesterol is excreted in the bile and waxes are
(b)
(a) Maintain microbe-free environment excreted in the sebum

(b) Microbe-full environment (c) 8 L urine is excreted per day

(c) Sterile environment The primary function of sweat is providing

(d)
cooling e ect
(d) More than one option ff
121. Which of the following stages of syphilis is
116. Genetic information is preserved by:
characterised by a skin rash, fever and aches in the
joints and muscles?
(a) Sexual reproduction

(b) Asexual reproduction (a) Primary stage

(c) Both sexual and asexual reproduction (b) Secondary stage
(d) None of the above (c) Tertiary stage

117. Facultative absorption of water from primary urine (d) Neurosyphilis stage
is in uenced by the hormone:
122. Read the following statements (assertion-A and
fl
reason-R) and select the correct option:
(a) Androgens

(b) Epinephrine A: The Reproductive and Child Healthcare Programs

address issues related to reproduction.
(c) Vasopressin
R: It deals with raising awareness of various aspects
(d) Thyroxine of reproduction.

118. Which of the following are the characteristics of

Both A and R are true and R is correct
IUDs? (a)
explanation of A
(i) Create a hostile cervix for sperm.
(ii) Prevent semen from getting into the Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b)
female reproductive system. explanation of A
(iii) Sperm phagocytosis should be increased.
(c) A is true but R is false
(iv) Reduces sperm motility and their ability to
fertilize by releasing Cu ions. (d) Both A and R are false
(v) Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
123. Chordae tendinae in the heart are found in:
Choose the correct answer from the option
given below:
(a) Ventricles

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 15

 (b) Left auricle
(a) I, III, IV, V, VII
(c) Right auricle
(b) II, III, V, VII, VIII
(d) Interventricular septum
(c) II, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII
124. Which of the following statements is wrong? (d) I, II, IV, VI, VIII

Kidney does not play any signi cant role in the 128. Read the following statements (assertion-A and
(a)

fi
removal of ammonia reason-R) and select the correct option.

Ureotelic animals excrete most of the

(b) A: Micturition is release of urine.
nitrogenous waste as urea
R: It is also the removal of urea.
Ammonia and urea are the waste products
(c) derived from the metabolic breakdown of Both A and R are true and R is correct
(a)
proteins explanation of A

(d) None of the statements is wrong Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b)
explanation of A
125. Choose the correct statement from the following:
(c) A is true but R is false
Erythroblastosis fetalis may result when foetus is (d) Both A and R are false statements
(a)
Rh negative and mother is Rh positive
129. Unique combinations of genetic setup is naturally
Histamine, serotonin and heparin are secreted
(b) provided by:
by basophils

Atherosclerosis is often referred as angina (a) Sexual reproduction

(c)
pectoris
(b) Asexual reproduction
Person with blood group AB can donate blood to
(d) (c) Biotechnology
person with blood group A
(d) More than one option is correct
126. Read the following statements (assertion-A and
reason-R) and select the correct option. 130. The appearance of albumin in the urine is most likely
due to
A: The cardiac impulse which originates from SA
node in human heart cannot spread directly from (a) Increase in the blood pressure
atria to ventricles. (b) Decrease in the blood osmotic pressure
R: In human heart there is no continuity between
cardiac muscle bres of atria and those of ventricles (c) Damage to the Malpighian corpuscles
fi
except AV bundles. (d) Damage to the proximal convoluted tubules

Both A and R are true and R is correct 131. The system of circulation which begins as
(a) capillaries in one organ and ends as capillaries in
explanation of A
other organ without heart present in between as
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b) pumping organ, is termed as
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (a) Pulmonary circulation

(d) Both A and R are false statements (b) Portal circulation

127. From the following tools / techniques of (c) Systemic circulation

genetic engineering, identify those which are (d) Cardiac circulation
required for cloning a bacterial gene in animal cells
and choose the correct option: 132. The liquid part of blood after the brinogen is
fi
removed is
I. Endonuclease, II. Ligase, III. A. tumefaciens,
IV. Microinjection, V. Gene gun, VI. Lysozyme,
(a) Plasma
VII. Cellulase,
VIII. Electrophoresis (b) Lymph

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 16

 (c) Serum
Botany
(d) Blood

133. Identify the correct statement regarding the Section - I: Single Correct
ZIFT procedure: This section contains a total of 45 questions.
All questions in this section are mandatory.
Zygote is taken from a female donor and put into For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
(a)
the uterus For every incorrect response 1 mark shall be deducted.

Ova is taken from a female donor and placed in 136. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(b)
the uterus
A female donor's zygote is obtained, and it is 2' OH group present at every nucleotide in RNA is
(c)
then transferred to the fallopian tube (a) a reactive group and makes RNA labile and easily
degradable
To aid zygote formation, collected ova from
(d)
a female donor is placed in the fallopian tube DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical
(b)
modi cations that makes it more stable

fi
134. Compare the statements I and II:
Statement I: When the urine moves through A failure in cell division after DNA replication
(c)
the descending limb, it becomes hypertonic and as results into polyploidy
it passes through the ascending limb of Henle’s loop DNA polymerase requires a free 5' end to initiate
(d)
it becomes hypotonic. DNA synthesis
Statement II: The descending limb is permeable
to sodium ions, while the ascending limb is 137. A homozygous recessive with cd genes was crossed
impermeable to sodium ions. with dominant (++). If their hybrid is test crossed and
the following result was obtained:
(a) Statement I is correct and II is wrong ++ -900
cd -800
(b) Statement I is wrong and II is correct
+d -115
(c) Both statements I and II are wrong +c -105
(d) Both statements I and II are correct What is the distance between genes c and d?

135. Which of the following events do not occur during (a) 5.75 map units
joint diastole?
(b) 11.45 map units
I. All 4 chambers of heart are in relaxed state.
II. Tricuspid and bicuspid valves open. (c) 44 map units
III. Action potential is conducted from SAN to AVN.
(d) 90 map units
IV. Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava
ows into the left and right ventricles respectively 138. The number of glycosidic bonds associated with DNA
fl
through the left and right atria. of diploid human cell are:
V. The Semilunar valves are closed.
(a) 3.3 × 109
(a) Only V
(b) 6.6 × 109
(b) Only III
(c) 2 × 6.6 × 109
(c) Only IV
(d) Only I and II (d) 3.3 × 109 – 2

139. Which of the following enzymes

inhibit transformation of R strain bacteria to S strain?

(a) Protease

(b) RNase
(c) DNase

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 17

 (d) Both A and C (d) Hairy ear pinna inheritance

140. Mendel's law of independent assortment has its 144. Select the set of wrong statements:
basis in which of the following events of meiosis-I? I - Sexual reproduction was known to human as
a source of variation since 8000-1000 BC.
(a) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes II - Mendel succeeded as he had taken small
sampling size for experiments.
(b) Crossing over at the equator
III - Mendelian factors are actually chromosomes.
(c) Alignment of tetrads at the equator IV - ABO Blood group is an example of
(d) Separation of homologs at anaphase-I multiple allelism.

141. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non- (a) I, II, III

disjunction is
(b) II, III

(a) Down's syndrome (c) I, III, IV

(b) Klinefelter's syndrome (d) II, III, IV

(c) Turner's syndrome 145. Four genes I, II, III and IV are located on one
(d) Sickle cell anemia chromosome. The cross over frequencies between
these genes are given below:
142. Refer to the given gure showing meiosis and germ I - IV = 20%, I - III = 4%
fi
cell formation in a cell with four chromosomes. III - IV = 16%, II - III = 9%
Which of the Mendel's law can e ectively be I - II = 5%
ff
explained by this gure?
Based on above data, what is the order of gene on
fi
chromosome?

(a) I - II - III - IV

(b) II - I - III - IV

(c) III - II - I - IV
(d) III - I - II - IV

146. Which of the following is true for test cross?

(a) Law of dominance
Involves crossing of one heterozygous and one
(b) Law of segregation
(a) recessive homozygous genotype for di erent
ff
(c) Law of independent assortment traits of the same character

(d) All of the above (b) Involves crossing of two homozygous genotypes

143. The pedigree chart given below depicts: (c) Involves crossing of two heterozygous genotypes

(d) All of the above

(a) Cystic brosis

fi
(b) Myotonic dystrophy
(c) Haemophilia

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 18

147. Pedigree analysis of a particular sex-linked trait (d) More than one option is correct
in humans is depicted below:
151. 20 chromosome are present in a diploid organism, if
a chromosomal mutation found in species, than
choose correct option with respect to aneuploidy:

(a) 21 chromosomes with nullisomy

(b) 22 chromosomes with trisomy
(c) 19 chromosomes with monosomy

(d) 21 chromosomes with tetrasomy

The trait represented (
152. DNA is better genetic material than RNA, because:
- a ected male and -
DNA is chemically less reactive and structurally
ff
(a)
more stable as compared to RNA
a ected female) in the above pedigree chart is
Presence of thymine at the place of uracil
ff
(b)
provides additional stability to DNA
(a) Dominant Y - linked
(c) DNA being stable mutates at a slow rate
(b) Recessive Y - linked
(d) All of the above
(c) Recessive X - linked

(d) Dominant X - linked 153. If in one of the strands of a ds DNA

A+G
= then,
3
T+C 5
148. In male heterogametic type of sex determination: what will be the ratio of in the other strand?
A+G
T+C

(a) Male parent produces dissimilar gametes

(a)
5
(b) Male parent produces similar gametes 3

(c) Males do not produce gametes (b)

2
3
(d) Female parent produces dissimilar gametes
(c)
3
2
149. In the given pedigree chart, if III-2 married to a
(d)
1
normal female, what will be the chances of their rst
fi
5
child being diseased?
154. Observe the pedigree chart given below:

(a) 25% (b) 50%

(c) 75% (d) 0%
In the above pedigree, the genotypes of father (F),
150. In F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross (TTVV mother (M) in the Ist generation and husbands (H1
× ttvv):
and H2) of daughters in the IInd generation are:

Tall plants and violet owered plants are

(a) (a) F = AA, M = AA, H1 = Aa, H2 = aa
fl
obtained in 1 : 1 frequency
(b) Ratio of parental and non-parental plants is 1 : 15 (b) F = AA, M = aa, H1 = AA, H2 = AA

Recombinant plants are obtained in 1 : 1 (c) F = aa, M = Aa, H1 = Aa, H2 = Aa

(c)
frequency

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 19

 (d) F = AA, M = aa, H1 = aa, H2 = aa 159. A segment of DNA molecule contains 20,000 base
pairs. What is the number of phosphate molecule in
155. Which of the following is present in DNA? this DNA molecule?

(a) dATP (a) 20,000

(b) GMP (b) 40,000
(c) dUMP (c) 10,000
(d) Deoxyribonucleoside monophosphate (d) 5,000

156. Which of the following nucleic acids is present in an 160. A man of A blood group marries a woman of AB
organism having both 80s and 70s ribosomes? blood group. Which type of progeny would indicate
that man is heterozygous A?
(a) ss circular DNA with Histones
(a) AB (b) A (c) O (d) B
(b) ds circular DNA without Histones

(c) ss linear DNA without Histones 161. Determine the sequence of genes along a
chromosome based on the following recombination
(d) ds linear DNA with Histones
frequencies:
157. Which of the following statements are true? A – B = 8%
i. Genes located on di erent chromosomes A – C = 28%
ff
always show linkage. A – D = 25%
ii. Homologous non-sister chromatids participate B – C = 20%
in crossing over during gamete formation. B – D = 33%
iii. The frequency of crossing over between any
two genes is generally proportional to the (a) ABCD (b) BADC
distance between them on the chromosome. (c) CBDA (d) DABC
iv. Two non-sister chromatids participating
in crossing over at any given point will lead to 162. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome
the formation of one type of gamete. indicates
v. The number of linkage groups in any organism
is proportional to its haploid chromosome number. (a) Transcription is occurring
(b) DNA replication is occurring
(a) i, iv only
(c) The DNA is condensed into a chromatin Fibre
(b) ii, v only
(d) The DNA double helix is exposed
(c) ii, iii, v only
163. A molecular biologist analysed a nucleic acid sample
(d) i, v only
and found that it contained the N2 bases in following
158. In a practical examination, the following proportion - A = 20%, T = 15%, C = 35%, G = 30%. This
pedigree chart was given as a spotter for data indicates that:
identi cation. The students identify the given
fi
pedigree chart as: (a) Nucleic acid in the sample is single stranded DNA
Nucleic acid in the sample is double stranded
(b)
DNA

Nucleic acid in the sample is double stranded

(c)
RNA
(d) Nucleic acid in the sample is single stranded RNA
(a) Sex-linked dominant
(b) Sex-linked recessive 164. Find the incorrect statement among the following:

(c) Autosomal dominant In sex linked recessive traits, the gene is

(d) Autosomal recessive (a) transmitted from una ected carrier female to
ff
some of male progeny

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 20

 Accumulation of phenylpyruvic acid in brain 168. Match List I with List II:
(b)
results in mental retardation
Individuals a ected by Down’s Syndrome will
ff
(c) have congenital heart defect and are more
intelligent

Turner's Syndrome is caused due to the absence

(d)
of one X-chromosome

165. Proteins cannot act as genetic material because: Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(a) It is not a macromolecule
(a) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)
(b) It is chemically highly unstable
(b) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
(c) It cannot generate its own replica
(c) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i)
(d) None of these
(d) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)
166. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
genetic material? 169. Read the following statements (assertion-A and
reason-R) and select the correct option.
It should be able to express itself in the form of
(a) A: The sugar-phosphate backbone of the two
'Mendelian characters'
strands of a dsDNA has antiparallel polarity.
DNA is chemically less reactive and structurally R: The phosphodiester bonds in one strand runs
(b)
more stable than RNA from 3'-carbon of one nucleotide to a 5'-carbon of
RNA can directly code for the synthesis of adjacent nucleotide, whereas in the complementary
(c) strand runs form 5'-carbon of one nucleotide to a 3'-
proteins
carbon of adjacent nucleotide in both chains are
(d) Only DNA is able to mutate analysed in the same direction.
167. Refer the gure of nuccleosome and select the
Both A and R are true and R is correct
fi
option that correctly identi es the part I, II and III: (a)
explanation of A
fi
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b)
explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) Both A and R are false statements

170. A cow with red coat is crossed with a bull having

white coat. Their o spring produced in F1 generation
ff
showed roan coat. This e ect is produced due to
ff
juxtaposition of small patches of red and white
(a) I - DNA, II - Histone octamer, III - H1 histone colour. What can be assumed about the gene
controlling coat colour in cattle?
(b) I - Histone octamer, II - H1 histone, III - DNA
The alleles of gene controlling coat colour show
(c) I - Histone octamer, II - DNA, III - H1 histone (a)
a perfect dominant recessive relationship
(d) I - DNA, II - H1 histone, III - Histone octamer
The alleles of gene controlling coat colour
(b)
are incompletely dominant
The alleles of gene controlling coat colour are co-
(c)
dominant

(d) None of these

171. What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 21

 (a) Mendelian inherilance pattern 175. Match the columns
(b) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern Column I Column II
(c) Autosomal dominant pattern 3.3 × 109
A. ϕX 174 I.
bp
(d) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
4.6 × 106
B. λ phage DNA II.
172. Read the following statements (assertion-A and bp
reason-R) and select the correct option. C. E. coli DNA III. 48502 bp
Haploid content of human
A: Independent assortment occurs when the genes D. IV. 5386 bases
DNA
under study are located on di erent non-
ff
homologous chromosomes.
R: Unlinked genes show independent assortment. (a) A = IV; B = III; C = II; D = I
(b) A = I; B = II; C = III; D = IV
Both A and R are true and R is correct
(a)
explanation of A (c) A = II; B = III; C = IV; D = I
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (d) A = I; B = IV; C = II; D = III
(b)
explanation of A
176. Match Column I with Column II and choose the
(c) A is true but R is false correct option from the codes given below:
(d) Both A and R are false statements

173. Read the following steps and arrange them in

correct sequence of occurrence:
P - Entry of an allele in gamete
Q - Fertilization
R - Segregation of alleles
S - Formation of recombinants
(a) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)

(a) P Q S R (b) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (ii)

→
→
→
(b) P R Q S (c) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (iii)
→
→
→
(c) R P Q S (d) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv)
→
→
→
(d) R P S Q 177. Map units on linkage map cannot be relied upon to
→
→
→
calculate physical distances on a chromosome for
174. Read the following statements:
which of the following reasons?
(i) RNA is chemically more stable than DNA.
(ii) The presence of thymine at the place of uracil
The relationship between recombination
destabilizes DNA.
(a) frequency and map units is di erent in every
(iii) RNA being stable mutates faster.
ff
individual
(iv) DNA is preferred storage genetic material and for
transmission of genetic information, RNA is better. Physical distances between genes change during
(b)
(v) RNA was the rst genetic material to evolve. the course of cell cycle
fi
Which of the above statements are correct? Linkage map distances are identical between
(c)
males and females

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) The frequency of crossing over varies along the
(d)
length of the chromosome
(b) (iii) only
178. Find out the frequency of AabbCcDdee if parents are
(c) (iv) only
AabbCCddEe and AabbccDdee
(d) (iv) and (v)
(a) 0.78% (b) 12.5%
(c) 25% (d) 50%

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 22

179. Test cross in pea plant is: (d) Law of Dominance - Flower colour in Snapdragon

A cross between F2 tall plant and recessive

(a)
parent
A cross between F2 dwarf plant and recessive
(b)
parent

A cross between F2 tall plant with dominant

(c)
parent

(d) A cross between two F1 plants

180. Select the correct match:

G. J. Mendel - Chromosomal theory of

(a)
Inheritance

DNA as a genetic material - Hershey-Chase

(b)
experiment
(c) Double Helix model of DNA - T. H. Morgan

12th NEET (17-08-2025) 23