DSSSB Exam July 2025

Participant ID 238081202069635
Participant Name AKANKSHA BHARDWAJ
Test Center Name iON Digital Zone iDZ 2 Sector 62
Test Date 24/07/2025
Test Time 2:00 PM - 5:00 PM
Subject PGT Biology

Section : Mental Ability and Reasoning Ability

Q.1 In the following series, only one letter-cluster is incorrect. Select the INCORRECT letter-
cluster.

XFN, CKS, HPX, MUP, RZH, WEM2927

Ans 1. CKS

2. MUP

3. HPX

4. WEM

Question ID : 441009841257
Option 1 ID : 4410093318098
Option 2 ID : 4410093318097
Option 3 ID : 4410093318099
Option 4 ID : 4410093318096

Q.2 Aman starts from Point A and walks 40 m towards the east. He takes a right turn, walks 25 m
and then takes a right turn, walks 18 m, reaches Point B and stops. Avika starts from Point Z,
which is 63 m towards the east of Point A. She walks 12 m towards the north, takes a right
turn, walks 51 m, turns right and walks 63 m, turns right and walks 92 m and stops at Point Y.
What is the shortest distance between Point B and Point Y? (All turns are 90 degree turns
only.)3187
Ans 1. 38 m

2. 51 m

3. 37 m

4. 26 m

Question ID : 441009841517
Option 1 ID : 4410093319136
Option 2 ID : 4410093319139
Option 3 ID : 4410093319138
Option 4 ID : 4410093319137

Q.3 In the following series, only one letter-cluster is incorrect. Select the INCORRECT letter-
cluster.

JGO LIR NKS PMU ROW TQY

Ans 1. NKS

2. ROW

3. PMU

4. LIR

Question ID : 441009841428
Option 1 ID : 4410093318781
Option 2 ID : 4410093318783
Option 3 ID : 4410093318782
Option 4 ID : 4410093318780
Q.4 In a certain code,
'to the world what' is coded as 'qw sc fe du',
'world what you have' is coded as 'fe du ia sl',
'given is the not' is coded as 'oq pz sc xt',
and 'world have got is' is coded as 'fe sl yn pz'.
(Note: All the codes are two letter coded only.)

What is the possible code for ‘not’?

Ans 1. Either 'xt' or 'oq'

2. Either 'sc' or 'pz'

3. Either 'pz' or 'xt'

4. Either 'xt' or 'sc'

Question ID : 441009840951
Option 1 ID : 4410093316874
Option 2 ID : 4410093316872
Option 3 ID : 4410093316873
Option 4 ID : 4410093316875

Q.5 If ‘+’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘−’ means ‘multiplication’, ‘×’ means ‘division’ and ‘÷’ means
‘addition’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

15 − 4 ÷ 5 + 20 × 2 = ? 616
Ans 1. 55

2. 21

3. 53

4. 25

Question ID : 441009844660
Option 1 ID : 4410093331505
Option 2 ID : 4410093331506
Option 3 ID : 4410093331504
Option 4 ID : 4410093331507

Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
Some cars are trucks.
Some trucks are buses.
Some buses are planes.

Conclusions:
(I) Some cars are buses.
(II) Some trucks are planes.3188
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

2. Both conclusions I and II follow.

3. Only conclusion I follows.

4. Only conclusion II follows.

Question ID : 441009841518
Option 1 ID : 4410093319142
Option 2 ID : 4410093319143
Option 3 ID : 4410093319140
Option 4 ID : 4410093319141
Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

256, 238, 220, 202, 184, ?

543
Ans 1. 148

2. 142

3. 154

4. 166

Question ID : 441009844587
Option 1 ID : 4410093331212
Option 2 ID : 4410093331213
Option 3 ID : 4410093331214
Option 4 ID : 4410093331215

Q.8 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, X and Y has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday
and ending on Sunday of the same week. Only two people have an exam after X. S has an
exam on the starting day of the week. Only R has an exam between Q and Y. Only three
people have an exam between T and Y. Who has an exam on Sunday and Thursday,
respectively?3294
Ans 1. T and Q

2. P and Y

3. P and Q

4. T and R

Question ID : 441009841624
Option 1 ID : 4410093319566
Option 2 ID : 4410093319565
Option 3 ID : 4410093319564
Option 4 ID : 4410093319567

Q.9 Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing 4 people each in such a way that there
is equal distance between adjacent persons.

In row 1, A, U, T and O are seated and all of them are facing south.
In row 2, G, E, L and S are seated and all of them are facing north.

Thus, each person faces another person from the other row. A sits third to the right of O. The
one facing L is an immediate neighbour of O. The one facing T is an immediate neighbour of
L. The one facing A is an immediate neighbour of S. G sits at some place to the left of E. Who
among the following faces S?3022
Ans 1. O

2. U

3. T

4. A

Question ID : 441009841352
Option 1 ID : 4410093318479
Option 2 ID : 4410093318477
Option 3 ID : 4410093318478
Option 4 ID : 4410093318476
Q.10 This question is based on the following letter-cluster.

(Left) LEI LOP KAF HES (Right)

In each of the letter-clusters, each vowel is changed to the letter immediately following it in
the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately
preceding it in the English alphabetical order. In how many letter-clusters thus formed, will no
vowel appear? 2604
Ans 1. Two

2. More than two

3. Zero

4. One

Question ID : 441009840934
Option 1 ID : 4410093316806
Option 2 ID : 4410093316807
Option 3 ID : 4410093316804
Option 4 ID : 4410093316805

Q.11 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. HM-IL

2. LQ-MP

3. DI-EG

4. RW-SV

Question ID : 441009841567
Option 1 ID : 4410093319338
Option 2 ID : 4410093319339
Option 3 ID : 4410093319337
Option 4 ID : 4410093319336

Q.12 In the following number pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Which numbers should replace X and Y so that
the pattern followed by the two numbers on the left side of :: is same as that on the right side
of ::?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

X : 140 :: 13 : Y571
Ans 1. X = 12, Y = 169

2. X = 11, Y = 168

3. X = 12, Y = 165

4. X = 14, Y = 165

Question ID : 441009844615
Option 1 ID : 4410093331326
Option 2 ID : 4410093331327
Option 3 ID : 4410093331325
Option 4 ID : 4410093331324
Q.13 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is
related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

11 : 110 :: 21 : ? :: 31 : 310530
Ans 1. 210

2. 220

3. 240

4. 300

Question ID : 441009844574
Option 1 ID : 4410093331160
Option 2 ID : 4410093331161
Option 3 ID : 4410093331162
Option 4 ID : 4410093331163

Q.14 In this question, a statement is given followed by two courses of action, numbered I and II.
You must assume everything in the statement to be true, and on the basis of the information
given in the statement, decide which of the given courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.

Statement: Hospital F in Region C is facing a critical shortage of essential medicines and

medical supplies, resulting in disruptions to patient care.

Courses of action:
(I) The hospital administration of F should quickly reach out to suppliers to speed up the
delivery of pending orders and consider exploring other procurement options.
(II) The government of Region C should implement a temporary ban on elective surgeries to
conserve existing medical supplies.
Ans 1. Both conclusions I and II follow.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

4. Only conclusion II follows.

Question ID : 441009844718
Option 1 ID : 4410093331738
Option 2 ID : 4410093331736
Option 3 ID : 4410093331739
Option 4 ID : 4410093331737

Q.15 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in
the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. NP-RM

2. OQ-SM

3. GI-KF

4. JL-NI

Question ID : 441009841438
Option 1 ID : 4410093318823
Option 2 ID : 4410093318820
Option 3 ID : 4410093318822
Option 4 ID : 4410093318821
Q.16 This question is based on the following words.

(Left) ZIT VOX TUX TAD (Right)

In each of the words, each vowel is changed to the letter immediately following it in the
English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately
preceding it in the English alphabetical order. In how many letter-clusters thus formed, will no
vowel appear? 2606
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Two

4. Three

Question ID : 441009840936
Option 1 ID : 4410093316812
Option 2 ID : 4410093316815
Option 3 ID : 4410093316814
Option 4 ID : 4410093316813

Q.17 Which of the given letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship
followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right
side of ::?

# : MDQ :: FND : %3274

Ans 1. # = JLX, % = IGD

2. # = LIW, % = KNB

3. # = LMZ, % = KOF

4. # = JIT, % = IIA

Question ID : 441009841604
Option 1 ID : 4410093319486
Option 2 ID : 4410093319484
Option 3 ID : 4410093319485
Option 4 ID : 4410093319487

Q.18 In a certain code language,

‘A % B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A * B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,
‘A & B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A ! B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
How is F related to H if ‘Q & F % G ! R * H’?3063
Ans 1. Father's sister

2. Husband's sister

3. Mother

4. Daughter

Question ID : 441009841393
Option 1 ID : 4410093318642
Option 2 ID : 4410093318641
Option 3 ID : 4410093318640
Option 4 ID : 4410093318643
Q.19 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way the second term is related
to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.

13 : 49:: 17 : ? :: 15 : 55528
Ans 1. 62

2. 63

3. 61

4. 64

Question ID : 441009844572
Option 1 ID : 4410093331154
Option 2 ID : 4410093331153
Option 3 ID : 4410093331155
Option 4 ID : 4410093331152

Q.20 A certain number of people are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits at the extreme right end.
Only four people sit between A and P. B sits fifth to the left of P. B sits third from the left end.
If no other person is sitting in the row, how many people in total are sitting to the left of A?
Ans 1. 12

2. 13

3. 11

4. 14

Question ID : 441009841415
Option 1 ID : 4410093318731
Option 2 ID : 4410093318729
Option 3 ID : 4410093318730
Option 4 ID : 4410093318728

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which Indian-origin US scientist was awarded the prestigious Shaw Prize in Astronomy for
2024?
Ans 1. Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar

2. Shrinivas R Kulkarni

3. Raj Reddy

4. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

Question ID : 441009704798
Option 1 ID : 4410092773222
Option 2 ID : 4410092773223
Option 3 ID : 4410092773225
Option 4 ID : 4410092773224

Q.2 Where was the inaugural season of the National Women’s Hockey League 2024-2025 held?
Ans 1. New Delhi

2. Pune

3. Ranchi

4. Bhubaneswar

Question ID : 441009704825
Option 1 ID : 4410092773332
Option 2 ID : 4410092773333
Option 3 ID : 4410092773331
Option 4 ID : 4410092773330
Q.3 The Middle Kingdom period in India encompassed how many eras, and what were these?
Ans 1. It encompassed three eras: Classical or Ancient India, early Medieval India from 500 CE
onwards, and the Medieval period.
2. It encompassed two eras: Classical or Ancient India, from the Mauryan Empire until
the end of the Gupta Empire in 500 CE, and early Medieval India from 500 CE onwards.
3. It encompassed a single era: Classical or Ancient India, from the Maurya Empire until
the end of the Gupta Empire in 500 CE.
4. The Middle Kingdom period encompassed no chronological era/s but is an amorphous
span of time.

Question ID : 441009868341
Option 1 ID : 4410093426397
Option 2 ID : 4410093426395
Option 3 ID : 4410093426396
Option 4 ID : 4410093426398

Q.4 Which of the following which committees underlined the need of an organised money market
in India?
Ans 1. Vaghul Committee

2. Dave Committee

3. C Rangrajan Committee

4. Chakravarthy Committee

Question ID : 441009867408
Option 1 ID : 4410093422663
Option 2 ID : 4410093422665
Option 3 ID : 4410093422666
Option 4 ID : 4410093422664

Q.5

Ans 1. (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (iii)

2. (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i)

3. (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv)

4. (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (ii)

Question ID : 441009892662
Option 1 ID : 4410093524722
Option 2 ID : 4410093524724
Option 3 ID : 4410093524723
Option 4 ID : 4410093524725
Q.6 According to the Census of India, 2011, which of the following statements are correct?

A. The total literacy rate of India recorded was 74.04%.

B. The total male literacy rate of India recorded was 82.14%.
C. The total literacy rate of India recorded was 65.46%.
Ans 1. Only A and B are correct.

2. Only A and C are correct.

3. All A, B and C are correct.

4. Only B and C are correct.

Question ID : 441009867035
Option 1 ID : 4410093421172
Option 2 ID : 4410093421173
Option 3 ID : 4410093421175
Option 4 ID : 4410093421174

Q.7 Which of the following options is referred to as the cell's power house?
Ans 1. Red blood cells

2. Mitochondria

3. Cytoplasm

4. Nucleolus

Question ID : 441009891495
Option 1 ID : 4410093519960
Option 2 ID : 4410093519961
Option 3 ID : 4410093519962
Option 4 ID : 4410093519963

Q.8 Who was selected for the Padma Shri Award 2024 from Jharkhand for planting lakhs of trees
in villages?
Ans 1. Suresh Kumar

2. Rajesh Singh

3. Meena Devi

4. Chami Murmu

Question ID : 441009704791
Option 1 ID : 4410092773195
Option 2 ID : 4410092773197
Option 3 ID : 4410092773196
Option 4 ID : 4410092773194

Q.9 With the aim of providing social justice for the people belonging to the so-called untouchable
and backward classes, Jyotiba Phule established an institution named _____.
Ans 1. Satya Kalyan Samaj

2. Dalit Shodhak Samaj

3. Dalit Kalyan Samaj

4. Satya Shodhak Samaj

Question ID : 441009868261
Option 1 ID : 4410093426078
Option 2 ID : 4410093426075
Option 3 ID : 4410093426077
Option 4 ID : 4410093426076
Q.10 Which of the following statements regarding the festival of Diwali is/are correct?

I. Diwali is also called the festival of lights.

II. Goddess Laxmi is worshiped.

Ans 1. Only II

2. Neither I nor II

3. Only I

4. Both I and II

Question ID : 44100970623
Option 1 ID : 441009281104
Option 2 ID : 441009281106
Option 3 ID : 441009281103
Option 4 ID : 441009281105

Q.11 Which of the following is the correct order of plant groups from primitive to advanced?
Ans 1. Bryophyta – Thallophyta – Gymnosperms – Angiosperms

2. Thallophyta – Bryophyta – Gymnosperms – Angiosperms

3. Angiosperms – Thallophyta – Bryophyta – Gymnosperms

4. Gymnosperms – Thallophyta – Bryophyta – Angiosperms

Question ID : 441009891507
Option 1 ID : 4410093520010
Option 2 ID : 4410093520008
Option 3 ID : 4410093520009
Option 4 ID : 4410093520011

Q.12 Which of the following delta systems has a sub-division known as Moribund Delta?
Ans 1. Parana Delta

2. Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta

3. Mekong Delta

4. Amazon Delta

Question ID : 441009867019
Option 1 ID : 4410093421110
Option 2 ID : 4410093421109
Option 3 ID : 4410093421111
Option 4 ID : 4410093421108

Q.13 The world's first Cheetah Rehabilitation Project was launched by the Government of India in
the year 2022 at which National Park?
Ans 1. Tadoba

2. Gir

3. Kanha

4. Kuno

Question ID : 441009867023
Option 1 ID : 4410093421124
Option 2 ID : 4410093421125
Option 3 ID : 4410093421127
Option 4 ID : 4410093421126
Q.14 As per Article 323, Reports of the Union Service Commissions are submitted to the _____.
Ans 1. Advocate General

2. Prime Minister

3. President of India

4. Governor

Question ID : 441009870687
Option 1 ID : 4410093435702
Option 2 ID : 4410093435701
Option 3 ID : 4410093435703
Option 4 ID : 4410093435700

Q.15 Where is the Ziro Festival celebrated?

Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Arunachal Pradesh

4. Manipur

Question ID : 441009363392
Option 1 ID : 4410091419822
Option 2 ID : 4410091419823
Option 3 ID : 4410091419824
Option 4 ID : 4410091419825

Q.16 Whose removal from office is in a like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the
Supreme Court?
Ans 1. Attorney General of India

2. Solicitor General of India

3. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

4. Chairman of UPSC

Question ID : 441009870735
Option 1 ID : 4410093435892
Option 2 ID : 4410093435895
Option 3 ID : 4410093435893
Option 4 ID : 4410093435894

Q.17 The ‘Ur’ was a village assembly found in areas where the land owners were NOT _____.
Ans 1. chieftains

2. merchants

3. kshatriyas

4. brahmins

Question ID : 441009868334
Option 1 ID : 4410093426368
Option 2 ID : 4410093426369
Option 3 ID : 4410093426367
Option 4 ID : 4410093426370
Q.18 In India, the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act provides guaranteed
wage employment of how many days in a financial year?
Ans 1. At least 100 days

2. At least 90 days

3. At least 110 days

4. At least 120 days

Question ID : 44100981234
Option 1 ID : 441009322523
Option 2 ID : 441009322522
Option 3 ID : 441009322524
Option 4 ID : 441009322525

Q.19 In September 2020, the Government of India launched a scheme named _____ in collaboration
with NITI Aayog, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and Ministries of Defence,
Health and Family Welfare, housing and urban affairs and food processing industries to
promote research and innovation among Indian start-ups and MSMEs.
Ans 1. Ubharte Sitaare

2. RISE

3. STHAPAN

4. Aatmanirbhar Bharat ARISE-ANIC

Question ID : 441009867409
Option 1 ID : 4410093422667
Option 2 ID : 4410093422670
Option 3 ID : 4410093422668
Option 4 ID : 4410093422669

Q.20 A group discussion in a college class led to a heated discussion with religious comments to
each other. Which of the following Fundamental Duties is the teacher expected to explain to
the students in such a situation?
Ans 1. To develop scientific temper and humanism

2. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood

3. To protect and improve the natural environment

4. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

Question ID : 441009870697
Option 1 ID : 4410093435741
Option 2 ID : 4410093435743
Option 3 ID : 4410093435742
Option 4 ID : 4410093435740

Section : Numerical Aptitude and Data Interpretation

Q.1 Aman takes four times as long as Bheema and Chetna together require to do a job. Bheema
takes five times as long as Aman and Chetna together require to do the same work. If all the
three working together can complete the job in 28 days, then find the number of days that
Aman alone will take to finish the job.
Ans 1. 120 days

2. 148 days

3. 130 days

4. 140 days

Question ID : 441009836247
Option 1 ID : 4410093298104
Option 2 ID : 4410093298107
Option 3 ID : 4410093298105
Option 4 ID : 4410093298106
Q.2 The outer and inner radii of a hollow sphere are 14 m and 7 m, respectively. Find the volume
of the sphere.

[Use π = ]

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 441009836769
Option 1 ID : 4410093300192
Option 2 ID : 4410093300194
Option 3 ID : 4410093300193
Option 4 ID : 4410093300195

Q.3 The value of an object, when increased by 29%, becomes ₹2,064. Find the original value of
this object (in ₹).
Ans 1. 1700

2. 1800

3. 1600

4. 1720

Question ID : 441009836239
Option 1 ID : 4410093298074
Option 2 ID : 4410093298072
Option 3 ID : 4410093298075
Option 4 ID : 4410093298073

Q.4 A discount of 10% on the bill amount was offered for online payment of electricity bills. If
Ruchira paid a sum of ₹45 online for her bill for a month, then her actual bill amount for the
month was:
Ans 1. ₹65

2. ₹50

3. ₹45

4. ₹55

Question ID : 441009836359
Option 1 ID : 4410093298555
Option 2 ID : 4410093298552
Option 3 ID : 4410093298553
Option 4 ID : 4410093298554
Q.5

Ans 1. 9

2. 6

3. 7

4. 8

Question ID : 441009836281
Option 1 ID : 4410093298243
Option 2 ID : 4410093298240
Option 3 ID : 4410093298241
Option 4 ID : 4410093298242

Q.6 By selling an article for ₹640, a person faced a loss of 20%. At what price should he sell it to
make a profit of 20%?
Ans 1. ₹840

2. ₹960

3. ₹760

4. ₹800

Question ID : 441009836376
Option 1 ID : 4410093298622
Option 2 ID : 4410093298621
Option 3 ID : 4410093298623
Option 4 ID : 4410093298620

Q.7 At what rate (in percentage) per annum will a sum of money double itself in 16 years on
simple interest?
Ans 1. 6.25%

2. 8.25%

3. 12.5%

4. 4.25%

Question ID : 441009836123
Option 1 ID : 4410093297608
Option 2 ID : 4410093297611
Option 3 ID : 4410093297609
Option 4 ID : 4410093297610

Q.8 There are 30 students in a class. The average weight of 5 of them is 57 kg, of 10 other
students is 54 kg, of 12 others is 50 kg, and of the remaining 3 students is 65 kg. Determine
the average weight (in kg) of all the students in the class.
Ans 1. 52

2. 54

3. 57

4. 55

Question ID : 441009836308
Option 1 ID : 4410093298348
Option 2 ID : 4410093298350
Option 3 ID : 4410093298351
Option 4 ID : 4410093298349
Q.9 Find the interest (in ₹) on ₹500 at 15% per annum for 2 years 4 months, where the interest is
compounded annually for the first two years, and on the amount accrued at the end of two
years, simple interest at the same rate is offered for the remaining four months. [Give the
answer correct to two decimal places.]
Ans 1. 195.12

2. 194.31

3. 199.31

4. 196.31

Question ID : 441009836388
Option 1 ID : 4410093298670
Option 2 ID : 4410093298668
Option 3 ID : 4410093298671
Option 4 ID : 4410093298669

Q.10 Two cyclists, A and B, are participating in a 100 km race. Cyclist A starts the race 20 minutes
after Cyclist B. Cyclist A rides at a constant speed of 30 km/hr, while Cyclist B rides at a
constant speed of 24 km/hr. However, to compensate for the late start, Cyclist A is allowed a
head start of 5 kilometres (i.e., he starts 20 minutes late but begins from the 5 km mark, not
the starting line). Who among A and B finishes the race first, and by how many minutes?
Ans 1. Cyclist A finishes the race 40 minutes before Cyclist B.

2. Cyclist B finishes the race 20 minutes before Cyclist A.

3. Cyclist B finishes the race 40 minutes before Cyclist A.

4. Cyclist A finishes the race 20 minutes before Cyclist B.

Question ID : 441009836348
Option 1 ID : 4410093298508
Option 2 ID : 4410093298511
Option 3 ID : 4410093298509
Option 4 ID : 4410093298510

Q.11 The ratio of the scores of A and B is 5 : 7 and that of B and C is 8 : 11. If A’s score is 80, what
is C’s score?
Ans 1. 125

2. 136

3. 154

4. 112

Question ID : 441009836346
Option 1 ID : 4410093298500
Option 2 ID : 4410093298503
Option 3 ID : 4410093298502
Option 4 ID : 4410093298501

Q.12 The total surface areas of two hemispheres are 286 sq. cm and 1144 sq. cm, respectively.
Find the ratio of their radii.
Ans 1. 1 : 2

2. 2 : 1

3. 3 : 2

4. 2 : 3

Question ID : 441009836741
Option 1 ID : 4410093300081
Option 2 ID : 4410093300083
Option 3 ID : 4410093300082
Option 4 ID : 4410093300080
Q.13

Ans 1. 15

2. 20

3. 25

4. 10

Question ID : 441009836459
Option 1 ID : 4410093298953
Option 2 ID : 4410093298954
Option 3 ID : 4410093298955
Option 4 ID : 4410093298952

Q.14

Ans 1. 245 GW

2. 405 GW

3. 415 GW

4. 650 GW

Question ID : 441009836370
Option 1 ID : 4410093298598
Option 2 ID : 4410093298596
Option 3 ID : 4410093298599
Option 4 ID : 4410093298597

Q.15 The average of 13 numbers is 8. If each of these numbers is multiplied by 3, then what will
the new average be?
Ans 1. 13

2. 3

3. 24

4. 8

Question ID : 441009836161
Option 1 ID : 4410093297763
Option 2 ID : 4410093297762
Option 3 ID : 4410093297760
Option 4 ID : 4410093297761
Q.16 A and B can complete a piece of work in 24 days and 36 days, respectively. They completed
the work in 12 days with the help of C. How long (in days) will C take to complete it alone?
Ans 1. 63

2. 72

3. 48

4. 54

Question ID : 441009836269
Option 1 ID : 4410093298194
Option 2 ID : 4410093298192
Option 3 ID : 4410093298195
Option 4 ID : 4410093298193

Q.17 By selling an article for ₹21.5, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he
increase his selling price (in ₹, rounded to the nearest paise) so as to make a profit of 50%?
Ans 1. 7.82

2. 9.82

3. 8.82

4. 10.82

Question ID : 441009835509
Option 1 ID : 4410093295152
Option 2 ID : 4410093295154
Option 3 ID : 4410093295153
Option 4 ID : 4410093295155

Q.18 A dealer has announced 18% discount on the marked price of an article. If the selling price of
the article is ₹410, then the marked price of the article is:
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 441009836416
Option 1 ID : 4410093298783
Option 2 ID : 4410093298782
Option 3 ID : 4410093298780
Option 4 ID : 4410093298781

Q.19 If ₹234 is divided among A, B, and C in the ratio of 3 : 7 : 8, the share of B exceeds that of A
by:
Ans 1. ₹52

2. ₹93

3. ₹13

4. ₹58

Question ID : 441009836358
Option 1 ID : 4410093298549
Option 2 ID : 4410093298551
Option 3 ID : 4410093298548
Option 4 ID : 4410093298550
Q.20 A train running at a speed of 90 km/hr crosses a 500 metre long platform in 45 seconds. The
length of the train (in metres) is:
Ans 1. 625

2. 500

3. 635

4. 580

Question ID : 441009835519
Option 1 ID : 4410093295192
Option 2 ID : 4410093295195
Option 3 ID : 4410093295193
Option 4 ID : 4410093295194

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

A pack of ______ dogs ran barking and yelping across the street.
Ans 1. soothing

2. ill-bred

3. subdued

4. calm

Question ID : 44100922783
Option 1 ID : 44100990859
Option 2 ID : 44100990860
Option 3 ID : 44100990862
Option 4 ID : 44100990861

Q.2 Select the most appropriate one-word substitute for the underlined segment in the given
sentence.

The essay followed a/an clear and logical arrangement of ideas and sentences that made it
easy to follow.
Ans 1. incoherent

2. coherent

3. ambiguous

4. redundant

Question ID : 44100930482
Option 1 ID : 441009121426
Option 2 ID : 441009121424
Option 3 ID : 441009121427
Option 4 ID : 441009121425
Q.3 Select the most appropriate adjective to fill in the blank.

Manjusha remained _______ to her husband, Mr. Moorthy, despite the rumours.

Ans 1. low

2. lazy

3. l​oyal

4. mysterious

Question ID : 441009842732
Option 1 ID : 4410093323997
Option 2 ID : 4410093323998
Option 3 ID : 4410093323996
Option 4 ID : 4410093323999

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.

Without money and good health, the family is caught in a catch-22 situation.
Ans 1. situation of debt

2. situation of emotional breakdown

3. situation where they cannot decide what to do

4. burden of day-to-day expenses

Question ID : 441009845710
Option 1 ID : 4410093335712
Option 2 ID : 4410093335714
Option 3 ID : 4410093335715
Option 4 ID : 4410093335713

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Jack: The artist’s work is truly exquisite.

Emma: Yes, every detail is beautifully crafted.
Ans 1. Flawed

2. Homely

3. Ethereal

4. Drab

Question ID : 44100987862
Option 1 ID : 441009349376
Option 2 ID : 441009349374
Option 3 ID : 441009349373
Option 4 ID : 441009349375

Q.6 Select the wrongly spelt word from the options given below:
Ans 1. Acquiesce

2. Juxtaposition

3. Vicisitude

4. Wistful

Question ID : 441009298315
Option 1 ID : 4410091160339
Option 2 ID : 4410091160341
Option 3 ID : 4410091160338
Option 4 ID : 4410091160340
Q.7 Select the most appropriate question tag to fill in the blank.

Everyone enjoys the new policy, ______________?

Ans 1. doesn't he

2. do they

3. don't they

4. doesn't they

Question ID : 441009380497
Option 1 ID : 4410091487793
Option 2 ID : 4410091487795
Option 3 ID : 4410091487794
Option 4 ID : 4410091487796

Q.8 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Ammendment

2. Constitution

3. Jurisdiction

4. Litigation

Question ID : 44100989792
Option 1 ID : 441009357340
Option 2 ID : 441009357338
Option 3 ID : 441009357337
Option 4 ID : 441009357339

Q.9 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. However, the agricultural system practiced today can hardly be called sustainable due to
the increasing strain it puts on our planet's scarce resources.
B. Especially with the growing population projected to peak at nearly 11 billion by 2100,
agriculture will struggle to meet the needs of the world population.
C. It is also an essential industry that will remain at the centre of human activity for many
centuries to come.
D. Agriculture has long been the major source of food for mankind.
E. It has the potential to end world hunger and boost the economies of developing nations.
Ans 1. DECAB

2. EDABC

3. BCAED

4. BADCE

Question ID : 441009837883
Option 1 ID : 4410093304626
Option 2 ID : 4410093304625
Option 3 ID : 4410093304624
Option 4 ID : 4410093304627
Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The _____ puppy played with its toys.

Ans 1. funny

2. cute

3. nearby

4. angry

Question ID : 44100928902
Option 1 ID : 441009115089
Option 2 ID : 441009115086
Option 3 ID : 441009115087
Option 4 ID : 441009115088

Q.11 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. Almost all countries of the world will have more than one religious group living in them.
B. This tyranny of the majority could result in the discrimination, coercion and at times even
the killing of religious minorities.
C. Within these religious groups, there will most likely be one group that is in a majority.
D. If this majority religious group has access to State power, then it could quite easily use this
power and financial resources to discriminate against and persecute persons of other
religions.
Ans 1. CBAD

2. ABCD

3. DACB

4. ACDB

Question ID : 441009837881
Option 1 ID : 4410093304618
Option 2 ID : 4410093304617
Option 3 ID : 4410093304619
Option 4 ID : 4410093304616

Q.12 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. These farms use sophisticated systems to control temperature, humidity and light.
B. Urban farming involves growing food in densely populated city areas.
C. This method helps reduce the need for space and increases the efficiency of production.
D. Vertical farming is one advanced form of urban agriculture.
E. It allows for year-round farming, independent of external weather conditions.
Ans 1. ADCEB

2. DBACE

3. BDAEC

4. EDCAB

Question ID : 441009837884
Option 1 ID : 4410093304629
Option 2 ID : 4410093304630
Option 3 ID : 4410093304628
Option 4 ID : 4410093304631
Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.

The completion of assignments and research work is the only option left to impress the boss.
Ans 1. last step

2. last point

3. last resort

4. last stage

Question ID : 441009845700
Option 1 ID : 4410093335674
Option 2 ID : 4410093335673
Option 3 ID : 4410093335675
Option 4 ID : 4410093335672

Q.14 Select the most appropriate question tag to fill in the blank.

Hardly anyone knows the truth, _______?

Ans 1. does he

2. don’t they

3. do they

4. doesn’t he

Question ID : 44100993267
Option 1 ID : 441009370779
Option 2 ID : 441009370778
Option 3 ID : 441009370777
Option 4 ID : 441009370780

Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Isabella: His tumultuous career was full of controversies and unexpected changes.
Daniel: Yes, there was never a moment of peace or stability.
Ans 1. Mild

2. Riotous

3. Boisterous

4. Raucous

Question ID : 44100987847
Option 1 ID : 441009349309
Option 2 ID : 441009349312
Option 3 ID : 441009349310
Option 4 ID : 441009349311
 Comprehension:
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Electric vehicles (EVs) are increasingly perceived as a panacea for climate change, yet their
environmental benefits are more nuanced than commonly portrayed. While EVs emit zero
tailpipe emissions, their overall ecological footprint hinges on factors like battery production,
mining of rare earth metals, and electricity generation sources. Manufacturing EV batteries is
energy-intensive and often depends on lithium, cobalt, and nickel—resources predominantly
extracted under ethically questionable conditions. Moreover, the carbon impact of EVs varies
geographically; in regions reliant on coal-fired power plants, EVs may contribute to indirect
emissions. Nonetheless, technological advances in battery recycling and the global shift
towards renewable energy offer a promising outlook. Despite these complexities, EV adoption
is accelerating due to policy incentives, reduced operating costs, and growing consumer
awareness. The challenge lies in striking a balance between innovation and sustainability to
truly harness the green potential of electric mobility.

SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Which three metals are primarily involved in EV battery production?
Ans 1. Gold, Silver, and Platinum

2. Lithium, Cobalt, and Nickel

3. Aluminium, Copper, and Zinc

4. Iron, Lead, and Graphite

Question ID : 441009105665
Option 1 ID : 441009420790
Option 2 ID : 441009420788
Option 3 ID : 441009420787
Option 4 ID : 441009420789

Comprehension:
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Electric vehicles (EVs) are increasingly perceived as a panacea for climate change, yet their
environmental benefits are more nuanced than commonly portrayed. While EVs emit zero
tailpipe emissions, their overall ecological footprint hinges on factors like battery production,
mining of rare earth metals, and electricity generation sources. Manufacturing EV batteries is
energy-intensive and often depends on lithium, cobalt, and nickel—resources predominantly
extracted under ethically questionable conditions. Moreover, the carbon impact of EVs varies
geographically; in regions reliant on coal-fired power plants, EVs may contribute to indirect
emissions. Nonetheless, technological advances in battery recycling and the global shift
towards renewable energy offer a promising outlook. Despite these complexities, EV adoption
is accelerating due to policy incentives, reduced operating costs, and growing consumer
awareness. The challenge lies in striking a balance between innovation and sustainability to
truly harness the green potential of electric mobility.

SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 Based on the passage, what can be inferred about regions using renewable energy?
Ans 1. Battery production is cleaner in these areas.

2. EVs are less effective in such areas.

3. EVs have a lower overall environmental impact in these regions.

4. EV adoption is banned in these regions.

Question ID : 441009105675
Option 1 ID : 441009420836
Option 2 ID : 441009420835
Option 3 ID : 441009420837
Option 4 ID : 441009420838
 Comprehension:
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Electric vehicles (EVs) are increasingly perceived as a panacea for climate change, yet their
environmental benefits are more nuanced than commonly portrayed. While EVs emit zero
tailpipe emissions, their overall ecological footprint hinges on factors like battery production,
mining of rare earth metals, and electricity generation sources. Manufacturing EV batteries is
energy-intensive and often depends on lithium, cobalt, and nickel—resources predominantly
extracted under ethically questionable conditions. Moreover, the carbon impact of EVs varies
geographically; in regions reliant on coal-fired power plants, EVs may contribute to indirect
emissions. Nonetheless, technological advances in battery recycling and the global shift
towards renewable energy offer a promising outlook. Despite these complexities, EV adoption
is accelerating due to policy incentives, reduced operating costs, and growing consumer
awareness. The challenge lies in striking a balance between innovation and sustainability to
truly harness the green potential of electric mobility.

SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Why might battery recycling be considered crucial for EV sustainability?
Ans 1. It reduces reliance on freshly mined metals.

2. It enhances EV performance.

3. It increases the price of EVs.

4. It eliminates the need for electricity.

Question ID : 441009105679
Option 1 ID : 441009420852
Option 2 ID : 441009420854
Option 3 ID : 441009420851
Option 4 ID : 441009420853

Comprehension:
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Electric vehicles (EVs) are increasingly perceived as a panacea for climate change, yet their
environmental benefits are more nuanced than commonly portrayed. While EVs emit zero
tailpipe emissions, their overall ecological footprint hinges on factors like battery production,
mining of rare earth metals, and electricity generation sources. Manufacturing EV batteries is
energy-intensive and often depends on lithium, cobalt, and nickel—resources predominantly
extracted under ethically questionable conditions. Moreover, the carbon impact of EVs varies
geographically; in regions reliant on coal-fired power plants, EVs may contribute to indirect
emissions. Nonetheless, technological advances in battery recycling and the global shift
towards renewable energy offer a promising outlook. Despite these complexities, EV adoption
is accelerating due to policy incentives, reduced operating costs, and growing consumer
awareness. The challenge lies in striking a balance between innovation and sustainability to
truly harness the green potential of electric mobility.

SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word in the passage.

Accelerating
Ans 1. Promoting

2. Sustaining

3. Observing

4. Dwindling

Question ID : 441009105690
Option 1 ID : 441009420897
Option 2 ID : 441009420896
Option 3 ID : 441009420898
Option 4 ID : 441009420895
 Comprehension:
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Electric vehicles (EVs) are increasingly perceived as a panacea for climate change, yet their
environmental benefits are more nuanced than commonly portrayed. While EVs emit zero
tailpipe emissions, their overall ecological footprint hinges on factors like battery production,
mining of rare earth metals, and electricity generation sources. Manufacturing EV batteries is
energy-intensive and often depends on lithium, cobalt, and nickel—resources predominantly
extracted under ethically questionable conditions. Moreover, the carbon impact of EVs varies
geographically; in regions reliant on coal-fired power plants, EVs may contribute to indirect
emissions. Nonetheless, technological advances in battery recycling and the global shift
towards renewable energy offer a promising outlook. Despite these complexities, EV adoption
is accelerating due to policy incentives, reduced operating costs, and growing consumer
awareness. The challenge lies in striking a balance between innovation and sustainability to
truly harness the green potential of electric mobility.

SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 What major factor influences the carbon impact of EVs across regions?
Ans 1. The cost of EVs

2. The colour of the vehicle

3. The number of charging stations

4. The source of electricity generation

Question ID : 441009105668
Option 1 ID : 441009420799
Option 2 ID : 441009420802
Option 3 ID : 441009420800
Option 4 ID : 441009420801

Section : Hindi Language and Comprehension

Q.1 "रहीमदास ने कहा है कि सहनशीलता हमें धरीत्री से सीखनी चाहिए |" वाक्य में अशुद्ध भाग का चयन कीजिए |

Ans 1. हमें धरीत्री से

2. सीखनी चाहिए |

3. कि सहनशीलता

4. रहीमदास ने कहा

Question ID : 441009843948
Option 1 ID : 4410093328662
Option 2 ID : 4410093328663
Option 3 ID : 4410093328661
Option 4 ID : 4410093328660

Q.2 निम्नलिखित वाक्य को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़ें और त्रुटि पहचान कर शुद्ध वाक्य चुनें।
समूद्र के जिवजन्तु बहुत अद्भुत् होते हैं, कई ऐसी जातिया हैं, जिसे पहले कभी किसी ने नही देखा।
Ans 1. समुद्र के जीवजन्तू बहुत अद्भूत होते है, कई ऐसी जातीयाँ हैं, जिसे पहले कभी किसी ने नहीं दैखा।
2. समुद्र के जीवजन्तु बहुत अद्भुत होते हैं, कई ऐसी जातियाँ हैं, जिन्हें पहले कभी किसी ने नहीं देखा।
3. समुद्र के जीवीजन्तु बहुत अदभूत होते है, कई ऐसी जातिया हैं, जीसे पहले कभि किसी ने नहि दैखा।
4. समूद्र के जिवजन्तू बहुत अतभूत होते हैं, कई ऐसी जातीयाँ हैं, जिसे पेहले कभी किसी ने नहीं देखा।

Question ID : 441009843882
Option 1 ID : 4410093328397
Option 2 ID : 4410093328396
Option 3 ID : 4410093328399
Option 4 ID : 4410093328398
Q.3 वाक्य क्रम में लिखिए-
बेटे को अफीम (अ/पुश्तैनी घर से निकली थी (ब/सुरजीत कौर अपने मासूम (स/चटाकर मुल्तान के अपने (द।
Ans 1. स अ द ब

2. स ब अ द

3. ब स अ द

4. अ ब स द

Question ID : 441009842029
Option 1 ID : 4410093321187
Option 2 ID : 4410093321185
Option 3 ID : 4410093321186
Option 4 ID : 4410093321184

Q.4 माँ ने बच्चे ........ खिलाया।

वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान को कर्म कारक से पूर्ण करें।
Ans 1. के लिए
2. को

3. पर

4. से

Question ID : 441009837136
Option 1 ID : 4410093301665
Option 2 ID : 4410093301666
Option 3 ID : 4410093301667
Option 4 ID : 4410093301664

Q.5 निम्नलिखित वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द के स्थान पर कोई अन्य सही पर्यायवाची शब्द दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनिए-
समुद्र का जल सूर्य से आलोकित हो रहा है।
Ans 1. प्रकाशित

2. आंदोलित

3. चाँदनी

4. आलोड़ित

Question ID : 441009843853
Option 1 ID : 4410093328282
Option 2 ID : 4410093328280
Option 3 ID : 4410093328283
Option 4 ID : 4410093328281

Q.6 निम्नलिखित वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द के स्थान पर कोई अन्य सही पर्यायवाची शब्द दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनिए-
मेरी अभीप्सा है कि मेरे मानस में तुम्हारी ही इच्छा का साम्राज्य हो।
Ans 1. वेदना

2. इच्छा

3. प्यास

4. लालायित

Question ID : 441009843852
Option 1 ID : 4410093328278
Option 2 ID : 4410093328279
Option 3 ID : 4410093328277
Option 4 ID : 4410093328276
Q.7 ‘आनाकानी करना’ मुहावरे का उपयुक्त अर्थ क्या है ?

Ans 1. टालमटोल करना |

2. समझौता करना |

3. आसान काम |

4. गप-शप करना |

Question ID : 441009843966
Option 1 ID : 4410093328734
Option 2 ID : 4410093328733
Option 3 ID : 4410093328735
Option 4 ID : 4410093328732

Q.8 जल में रहकर मगर से बैर - लोकोक्ति के सही अर्थ का चयन कीजिए।
Ans 1. किसी से दुश्मनी नहीं करनी चाहिए

2. जल में डरकर रहना चाहिए

3. आश्रयदाता से बैर असंभव है

4. सबसे बैर लेना चाहिए

Question ID : 441009843991
Option 1 ID : 4410093328835
Option 2 ID : 4410093328832
Option 3 ID : 4410093328833
Option 4 ID : 4410093328834

Q.9 श्याममोहन जी_______व्यक्ति हैं। प्रस्तुत रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति सटीक विशेषण से कीजिए -
Ans 1. मिलनसार

2. चतुरता

3. कर्तव्य

4. आलस्य

Question ID : 441009837252
Option 1 ID : 4410093302128
Option 2 ID : 4410093302131
Option 3 ID : 4410093302130
Option 4 ID : 4410093302129

Q.10 मंच पर _______________ लड़कियाँ और लड़के नाच रहे थे।

इस वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान पर सही विशेषण भरिए।
Ans 1. अच्छा - अच्छा

2. अच्छी – अच्छे

3. अच्छे – अच्छे

4. अच्छी – अच्छी

Question ID : 441009837243
Option 1 ID : 4410093302095
Option 2 ID : 4410093302094
Option 3 ID : 4410093302092
Option 4 ID : 4410093302093
Q.11 ‘जंगल में लगने वाली आग’ वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द होगा-
Ans 1. दावानल

2. अनावृष्टि

3. बड़वानल

4. जठराग्नि

Question ID : 441009842133
Option 1 ID : 4410093321602
Option 2 ID : 4410093321600
Option 3 ID : 4410093321601
Option 4 ID : 4410093321603

Q.12 ‘जिसे भेदना या तोड़ना कठिन हो’ वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द होगा-
Ans 1. दुर्जेय

2. दुर्भेद्य

3. अभेद्य

4. दुर्बोध

Question ID : 441009842130
Option 1 ID : 4410093321588
Option 2 ID : 4410093321591
Option 3 ID : 4410093321589
Option 4 ID : 4410093321590

Q.13 गुणवाचक विशेषण शब्द से दिये गये वाक्य का रिक्त स्थान पूर्ण करें--

_______ लड़का आता है।

Ans 1. अपना सा

2. किसी का

3. अच्छा

4. हमारा

Question ID : 441009837260
Option 1 ID : 4410093302162
Option 2 ID : 4410093302161
Option 3 ID : 4410093302163
Option 4 ID : 4410093302160

Q.14 ‘लक्ष्मण _________ सेवक मिलना दुर्लभ है|’ उपरोक्त वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान में कौन सा विशेषण प्रयोग होगा ?
Ans 1. धनी

2. सीधा

3. समान

4. हल्का

Question ID : 441009837239
Option 1 ID : 4410093302078
Option 2 ID : 4410093302079
Option 3 ID : 4410093302076
Option 4 ID : 4410093302077
Q.15 एक सार्थक गद्यांश के निर्माण हेतु निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का सही क्रम क्या होगा ?
A. सूरदास के विषय में कहा जाता है कि वे जन्मांध थे ।
B. उन्होंने अपने को 'जन्म को आँधर ' कहा भी है ।
C. सूरदास के काव्य में चित्रित सौन्दर्य से नहीं लगता की वे जन्मांध थे ।
D. किन्तु इसके शब्दार्थ पर अधिक नहीं जाना चाहिए ।

Ans 1. ABDC

2. ADBC

3. BACD

4. CDBA

Question ID : 441009842021
Option 1 ID : 4410093321153
Option 2 ID : 4410093321152
Option 3 ID : 4410093321155
Option 4 ID : 4410093321154

Comprehension:
दिए गए गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
आज की अर्थ प्रधान व्यवसायिक दुनिया में साहित्य के मूल्यांकन के लिए लेखक, प्रकाशक और पाठक के व्यावसायिक
परिप्रेक्ष्य को उपेक्षित करना संभव नहीं है। सामाजिक सरोकारों के साथ आर्थिक सरोकारों की भी अपनी मुख्य भूमिका है,
जिससे साहित्य का रूप निर्धारित होता है। साहित्य की रचना प्रक्रिया के जो तीन मुख्य पक्ष हैं - रचना, रचनाकार और पाठक,
इनमें से किसी एक पक्ष को ही अब तक की आलोचना-पद्धतियाँ अपने विवेचन का कें द्र बनाती रही हैं । साहित्य का
समाजशास्त्र एक साथ इन तीनों का विवेचन विश्लेषण करता है। उसका लक्ष्य लेखक और रचना, लेखक और पाठक तथा
पाठक और रचना के अंतरसंबंधों की व्याख्या करना होता है। क्या कारण है कि ‘वर्दी वाला गुंडा’ की 20 लाख प्रतियाँ हाथों
हाथ बिक गईं और शिव प्रसाद सिंह का ‘नीला चाँद’ या सुरेंद्र वर्मा का ‘मुझे चाँद चाहिए’ पुरस्कृ त होने के बावजूद मात्र
पुस्तकालयों की शोभा बढ़ा रहे हैं। यहाँ मूल्य की भूमिका भी प्रमुख नहीं है, क्योंकि यदि ऐसा होता तो बीस रूपये कीमत
वाले सभी पेपरबैक संस्करण की मांग सस्ते और बाजारू उपन्यासों के बराबर हो जाती। अपनी समग्रतावादी दृष्टि के कारण
साहित्य का समाजशास्त्र इन सारे कारणों की जाँच पड़ताल करता है।
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 दिए गए गद्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक का चयन कीजिए।
Ans 1. सामाजिक अलगाव

2. साहित्य का समाजशास्त्र

3. सामाजिक सद्भाव की भावना

4. श्रम की भावना

Question ID : 441009843330
Option 1 ID : 4410093326188
Option 2 ID : 4410093326190
Option 3 ID : 4410093326189
Option 4 ID : 4410093326191
 Comprehension:
दिए गए गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
आज की अर्थ प्रधान व्यवसायिक दुनिया में साहित्य के मूल्यांकन के लिए लेखक, प्रकाशक और पाठक के व्यावसायिक
परिप्रेक्ष्य को उपेक्षित करना संभव नहीं है। सामाजिक सरोकारों के साथ आर्थिक सरोकारों की भी अपनी मुख्य भूमिका है,
जिससे साहित्य का रूप निर्धारित होता है। साहित्य की रचना प्रक्रिया के जो तीन मुख्य पक्ष हैं - रचना, रचनाकार और पाठक,
इनमें से किसी एक पक्ष को ही अब तक की आलोचना-पद्धतियाँ अपने विवेचन का कें द्र बनाती रही हैं । साहित्य का
समाजशास्त्र एक साथ इन तीनों का विवेचन विश्लेषण करता है। उसका लक्ष्य लेखक और रचना, लेखक और पाठक तथा
पाठक और रचना के अंतरसंबंधों की व्याख्या करना होता है। क्या कारण है कि ‘वर्दी वाला गुंडा’ की 20 लाख प्रतियाँ हाथों
हाथ बिक गईं और शिव प्रसाद सिंह का ‘नीला चाँद’ या सुरेंद्र वर्मा का ‘मुझे चाँद चाहिए’ पुरस्कृ त होने के बावजूद मात्र
पुस्तकालयों की शोभा बढ़ा रहे हैं। यहाँ मूल्य की भूमिका भी प्रमुख नहीं है, क्योंकि यदि ऐसा होता तो बीस रूपये कीमत
वाले सभी पेपरबैक संस्करण की मांग सस्ते और बाजारू उपन्यासों के बराबर हो जाती। अपनी समग्रतावादी दृष्टि के कारण
साहित्य का समाजशास्त्र इन सारे कारणों की जाँच पड़ताल करता है।
SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17 गद्यांश में प्रयुक्त 'मुख्य' का विलोम शब्द होगा -
Ans 1. प्रमुख

2. आख़िरी

3. द्वितीय

4. गौण

Question ID : 441009843331
Option 1 ID : 4410093326193
Option 2 ID : 4410093326195
Option 3 ID : 4410093326194
Option 4 ID : 4410093326192

Comprehension:
दिए गए गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
आज की अर्थ प्रधान व्यवसायिक दुनिया में साहित्य के मूल्यांकन के लिए लेखक, प्रकाशक और पाठक के व्यावसायिक
परिप्रेक्ष्य को उपेक्षित करना संभव नहीं है। सामाजिक सरोकारों के साथ आर्थिक सरोकारों की भी अपनी मुख्य भूमिका है,
जिससे साहित्य का रूप निर्धारित होता है। साहित्य की रचना प्रक्रिया के जो तीन मुख्य पक्ष हैं - रचना, रचनाकार और पाठक,
इनमें से किसी एक पक्ष को ही अब तक की आलोचना-पद्धतियाँ अपने विवेचन का कें द्र बनाती रही हैं । साहित्य का
समाजशास्त्र एक साथ इन तीनों का विवेचन विश्लेषण करता है। उसका लक्ष्य लेखक और रचना, लेखक और पाठक तथा
पाठक और रचना के अंतरसंबंधों की व्याख्या करना होता है। क्या कारण है कि ‘वर्दी वाला गुंडा’ की 20 लाख प्रतियाँ हाथों
हाथ बिक गईं और शिव प्रसाद सिंह का ‘नीला चाँद’ या सुरेंद्र वर्मा का ‘मुझे चाँद चाहिए’ पुरस्कृ त होने के बावजूद मात्र
पुस्तकालयों की शोभा बढ़ा रहे हैं। यहाँ मूल्य की भूमिका भी प्रमुख नहीं है, क्योंकि यदि ऐसा होता तो बीस रूपये कीमत
वाले सभी पेपरबैक संस्करण की मांग सस्ते और बाजारू उपन्यासों के बराबर हो जाती। अपनी समग्रतावादी दृष्टि के कारण
साहित्य का समाजशास्त्र इन सारे कारणों की जाँच पड़ताल करता है।
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 साहित्य की रचना प्रक्रिया के कितने मुख्य पक्ष हैं ?
Ans 1. सौन्दर्य

2. प्रकृ ति

3. रचना, रचनाकार और पाठक

4. आम आदमी

Question ID : 441009843329
Option 1 ID : 4410093326184
Option 2 ID : 4410093326185
Option 3 ID : 4410093326187
Option 4 ID : 4410093326186
 Comprehension:
दिए गए गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
आज की अर्थ प्रधान व्यवसायिक दुनिया में साहित्य के मूल्यांकन के लिए लेखक, प्रकाशक और पाठक के व्यावसायिक
परिप्रेक्ष्य को उपेक्षित करना संभव नहीं है। सामाजिक सरोकारों के साथ आर्थिक सरोकारों की भी अपनी मुख्य भूमिका है,
जिससे साहित्य का रूप निर्धारित होता है। साहित्य की रचना प्रक्रिया के जो तीन मुख्य पक्ष हैं - रचना, रचनाकार और पाठक,
इनमें से किसी एक पक्ष को ही अब तक की आलोचना-पद्धतियाँ अपने विवेचन का कें द्र बनाती रही हैं । साहित्य का
समाजशास्त्र एक साथ इन तीनों का विवेचन विश्लेषण करता है। उसका लक्ष्य लेखक और रचना, लेखक और पाठक तथा
पाठक और रचना के अंतरसंबंधों की व्याख्या करना होता है। क्या कारण है कि ‘वर्दी वाला गुंडा’ की 20 लाख प्रतियाँ हाथों
हाथ बिक गईं और शिव प्रसाद सिंह का ‘नीला चाँद’ या सुरेंद्र वर्मा का ‘मुझे चाँद चाहिए’ पुरस्कृ त होने के बावजूद मात्र
पुस्तकालयों की शोभा बढ़ा रहे हैं। यहाँ मूल्य की भूमिका भी प्रमुख नहीं है, क्योंकि यदि ऐसा होता तो बीस रूपये कीमत
वाले सभी पेपरबैक संस्करण की मांग सस्ते और बाजारू उपन्यासों के बराबर हो जाती। अपनी समग्रतावादी दृष्टि के कारण
साहित्य का समाजशास्त्र इन सारे कारणों की जाँच पड़ताल करता है।
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 साहित्य के समाजशास्त्र का लक्ष्य क्या होता है ?
Ans 1. लेखक,रचना और पाठक के अंतरसंबंधों की व्याख्या
2. सेवा भाव की भावना

3. परोपकार करना

4. पैसा कमाना

Question ID : 441009843328
Option 1 ID : 4410093326181
Option 2 ID : 4410093326183
Option 3 ID : 4410093326180
Option 4 ID : 4410093326182

Comprehension:
दिए गए गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
आज की अर्थ प्रधान व्यवसायिक दुनिया में साहित्य के मूल्यांकन के लिए लेखक, प्रकाशक और पाठक के व्यावसायिक
परिप्रेक्ष्य को उपेक्षित करना संभव नहीं है। सामाजिक सरोकारों के साथ आर्थिक सरोकारों की भी अपनी मुख्य भूमिका है,
जिससे साहित्य का रूप निर्धारित होता है। साहित्य की रचना प्रक्रिया के जो तीन मुख्य पक्ष हैं - रचना, रचनाकार और पाठक,
इनमें से किसी एक पक्ष को ही अब तक की आलोचना-पद्धतियाँ अपने विवेचन का कें द्र बनाती रही हैं । साहित्य का
समाजशास्त्र एक साथ इन तीनों का विवेचन विश्लेषण करता है। उसका लक्ष्य लेखक और रचना, लेखक और पाठक तथा
पाठक और रचना के अंतरसंबंधों की व्याख्या करना होता है। क्या कारण है कि ‘वर्दी वाला गुंडा’ की 20 लाख प्रतियाँ हाथों
हाथ बिक गईं और शिव प्रसाद सिंह का ‘नीला चाँद’ या सुरेंद्र वर्मा का ‘मुझे चाँद चाहिए’ पुरस्कृ त होने के बावजूद मात्र
पुस्तकालयों की शोभा बढ़ा रहे हैं। यहाँ मूल्य की भूमिका भी प्रमुख नहीं है, क्योंकि यदि ऐसा होता तो बीस रूपये कीमत
वाले सभी पेपरबैक संस्करण की मांग सस्ते और बाजारू उपन्यासों के बराबर हो जाती। अपनी समग्रतावादी दृष्टि के कारण
साहित्य का समाजशास्त्र इन सारे कारणों की जाँच पड़ताल करता है।
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 गद्यांश में पयुक्त 'चाँद' का पर्यायवाची शब्द कौन सा नहीं है ?
Ans 1. तारके श

2. तमाल

3. शशि

4. विभाकर

Question ID : 441009843332
Option 1 ID : 4410093326197
Option 2 ID : 4410093326199
Option 3 ID : 4410093326196
Option 4 ID : 4410093326198

Section : Discipline1
Q.1 Which of the following is correct regarding the bark?
Ans 1. The bark includes secondary xylem, primary xylem, cortex and periderm.

2. The bark includes secondary phloem, primary xylem, cortex and periderm.

3. The bark includes secondary phloem, primary phloem, cortex and periderm.

4. The bark includes secondary phloem, primary phloem, cortex and pith.

Question ID : 441009650987
Option 1 ID : 4410092558207
Option 2 ID : 4410092558205
Option 3 ID : 4410092558206
Option 4 ID : 4410092558208

Q.2 The meristematic tissue, present between the xylem and phloem, that contributes in the
growth of thickness of a stem is present in:

Ans 1. rice

2. China rose

3. corn

4. banana

Question ID : 441009651272
Option 1 ID : 4410092559345
Option 2 ID : 4410092559347
Option 3 ID : 4410092559348
Option 4 ID : 4410092559346

Q.3 Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the frog’s skeletal system that
distinguishes it from the skeletal systems of most other amphibians?
Ans 1. Highly flexible rib cage

2. Presence of a highly specialized collarbone (clavicle)

3. Fusion of vertebrae in the spine

4. A completely ossified (bony) pelvis

Question ID : 441009651235
Option 1 ID : 4410092559198
Option 2 ID : 4410092559199
Option 3 ID : 4410092559197
Option 4 ID : 4410092559200

Q.4 Identify the group of organisms with chlorophyll a and c, alginic acid in the cell wall, majority
in marine habitats with 2 lateral and unequal flagella.
Ans 1. Rhodophyceae

2. Xanthophyceae

3. Chlorophyceae

4. Phaeophyceae

Question ID : 441009651133
Option 1 ID : 4410092558790
Option 2 ID : 4410092558792
Option 3 ID : 4410092558789
Option 4 ID : 4410092558791
Q.5 Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement I: On the basis of the structure and location, there are five types of tissue systems
in the plant body.
Statement II: All the tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles constitute the ground
tissue.
Ans 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

4. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

Question ID : 441009945113
Option 1 ID : 4410093734014
Option 2 ID : 4410093734017
Option 3 ID : 4410093734016
Option 4 ID : 4410093734015

Q.6 Which of the following statements about taxonomic category is INCORRECT?

Ans 1. Each genus may have one or more than one specific epithet representing different
organisms.
2. Species are group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities and are
capable of interbreeding.
3. Genus comprises a group of related species that has more characteristics in common
in comparison to species of other genera.
4. Families are characterised only on the basis of vegetative features of plant species.

Question ID : 441009944994
Option 1 ID : 4410093733547
Option 2 ID : 4410093733549
Option 3 ID : 4410093733546
Option 4 ID : 4410093733548

Q.7 In dicotyledonous plants, which of the following tissues is located on the inner side of the
endodermis and appears above the phloem in the form of semilunar patches of
sclerenchyma?
Ans 1. Xylem

2. Pith

3. Endodermis

4. Pericycle

Question ID : 441009945077
Option 1 ID : 4410093733874
Option 2 ID : 4410093733876
Option 3 ID : 4410093733877
Option 4 ID : 4410093733875

Q.8 Among the various divisions of the plant kingdom, _________ represent the first group of
terrestrial plants to possess true vascular tissues-xylem and phloem, but lack seeds.
Ans 1. algae

2. bryophytes

3. gymnosperm

4. pteridophytes

Question ID : 441009945025
Option 1 ID : 4410093733673
Option 2 ID : 4410093733671
Option 3 ID : 4410093733672
Option 4 ID : 4410093733670
Q.9 Which of the following is a characteristic feature of dicot root anatomy?
Ans 1. Vascular bundles are many and scattered.

2. Xylem is endarch and polyarch.

3. Xylem is exarch and polyarch.

4. Xylem is exarch and diarch to tetrarch.

Question ID : 441009937855
Option 1 ID : 4410093705139
Option 2 ID : 4410093705141
Option 3 ID : 4410093705140
Option 4 ID : 4410093705142

Q.10 Match the structures given in column A with their symbol in Column B as per floral formula.
Column A Column B
P) Perianth i) ⊕
Q) Zygomorphic ii) K
R) Calyx iii) %
S) Actinomorphic iv) P
Ans 1. P – iv, Q – ii, R – iii, S - i

2. P – iv, Q – iii, R – ii, S - i

3. P – iii, Q – i, R – iv, S - ii

4. P – iii, Q – iv, R – i, S - ii

Question ID : 441009935122
Option 1 ID : 4410093694203
Option 2 ID : 4410093694201
Option 3 ID : 4410093694204
Option 4 ID : 4410093694202

Q.11 Which of the following animal groups is classified as deuterostomes?

Ans 1. Arthropoda

2. Cnidaria

3. Echinodermata

4. Mollusca

Question ID : 441009651084
Option 1 ID : 4410092558594
Option 2 ID : 4410092558596
Option 3 ID : 4410092558595
Option 4 ID : 4410092558593

Q.12 Viruses and viroids have not been given a place in the five kingdom classification of
Whittaker, because:
Ans 1. they do not possess DNA and RNA

2. they are not truly living

3. they do not have plasma membrane

4. they all are cellular organisms

Question ID : 441009651346
Option 1 ID : 4410092559643
Option 2 ID : 4410092559641
Option 3 ID : 4410092559644
Option 4 ID : 4410092559642
Q.13 Which of the following structures in an earthworm is primarily responsible for the excretion
of waste products?
Ans 1. Crop

2. Nephridia

3. Setae

4. Clitellum

Question ID : 441009651083
Option 1 ID : 4410092558592
Option 2 ID : 4410092558589
Option 3 ID : 4410092558590
Option 4 ID : 4410092558591

Q.14 Which of the following infectious agents is the cause of potato spindle tuber disease?
Ans 1. Bacteria

2. Viruses

3. Prions

4. Viroids

Question ID : 441009651438
Option 1 ID : 4410092560011
Option 2 ID : 4410092560009
Option 3 ID : 4410092560010
Option 4 ID : 4410092560012

Q.15 Plants with solitary, bisexual, actinomorphic and hypogynous flowers with persistent calyx
and swollen placenta belong to which family?
Ans 1. Brassicaceae

2. Solanaceae

3. Papilionaceae

4. Poaceae

Question ID : 441009651271
Option 1 ID : 4410092559342
Option 2 ID : 4410092559344
Option 3 ID : 4410092559341
Option 4 ID : 4410092559343

Q.16 Which plant of the family Brassicaceae has a hypogynous, bisexual and zygomorphic flower,
tetradynamous stamens, polypetalous cruciform corolla and bicarpellary gynoecium with
parietal placentation?
Ans 1. Brassica campestris

2. Raphanus sativus

3. Iberis amara

4. Brassisca alba

Question ID : 441009651096
Option 1 ID : 4410092558644
Option 2 ID : 4410092558643
Option 3 ID : 4410092558641
Option 4 ID : 4410092558642
Q.17 Owing to different cell wall structures, these organisms are found in extreme conditions.
Identify these organisms from the given options.
Ans 1. Archaebacteria

2. Cyanobacteria

3. Mycoplasma

4. Eubacteria

Question ID : 441009651348
Option 1 ID : 4410092559650
Option 2 ID : 4410092559649
Option 3 ID : 4410092559652
Option 4 ID : 4410092559651

Q.18 The female sex organ in bryophytes, called archegonium, is flask shaped and produces
________ cell.
Ans 1. double

2. quadruple

3. a single

4. triple

Question ID : 441009651359
Option 1 ID : 4410092559694
Option 2 ID : 4410092559696
Option 3 ID : 4410092559693
Option 4 ID : 4410092559695

Q.19 Which of the following is an example of a jawless vertebrate?

Ans 1. Stingray

2. Rohu

3. Lamprey

4. Shark

Question ID : 441009941366
Option 1 ID : 4410093719124
Option 2 ID : 4410093719126
Option 3 ID : 4410093719125
Option 4 ID : 4410093719123

Q.20 Cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocyst, with
examples being:
Ans 1. Halophiles and Anabaena

2. Halophiles and Methanogens

3. Nostoc and Anabaena

4. Nostoc and halophiles

Question ID : 441009651440
Option 1 ID : 4410092560020
Option 2 ID : 4410092560019
Option 3 ID : 4410092560017
Option 4 ID : 4410092560018

Section : Discipline2
Q.1 During the biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis, which of the following enzymes catalyses
reduction of carbon dioxide?
Ans 1. Phosphoglycerate kinase

2. Glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase

3. Sedoheptulose bisphosphatase

4. Ribulose bisphosphate corboxylase

Question ID : 441009651069
Option 1 ID : 4410092558533
Option 2 ID : 4410092558534
Option 3 ID : 4410092558536
Option 4 ID : 4410092558535

Q.2 Which of the following pigments shows a yellow-orange colour?

Ans 1. Chlorophyll c

2. Carotenoids

3. Chlorophyll a

4. Chlorophyll b

Question ID : 441009944507
Option 1 ID : 4410093731599
Option 2 ID : 4410093731598
Option 3 ID : 4410093731596
Option 4 ID : 4410093731597

Q.3 Which of the following force is responsible for bulk flow of water in xylem tissue in a rapidly
transpiring plant?
Ans 1. Osmotic potential gradient

2. Water potential gradient

3. Diffusion pressure deficit

4. Pressure potential gradient

Question ID : 441009651211
Option 1 ID : 4410092559102
Option 2 ID : 4410092559101
Option 3 ID : 4410092559104
Option 4 ID : 4410092559103

Q.4 The rates of enzyme catalyzed reactions are altered by certain ions which behave as
activators; among the following, which enzyme requires Cl− ions for such activity?
Ans 1. Carbonic anhydrase

2. Amylases

3. Enolase

4. Phenol oxidase

Question ID : 441009651432
Option 1 ID : 4410092559985
Option 2 ID : 4410092559986
Option 3 ID : 4410092559987
Option 4 ID : 4410092559988
Q.5 In a ping-pong mechanism, what is the characteristic feature of the enzymatic reaction?
Ans 1. Both substrates bind to the enzyme simultaneously

2. One substrate binds, releases product, followed by the second substrate

3. The reaction is irreversible

4. The enzyme is covalently modified during the reaction

Question ID : 441009977125
Option 1 ID : 4410093861298
Option 2 ID : 4410093861299
Option 3 ID : 4410093861301
Option 4 ID : 4410093861300

Q.6 During rapid transpiration, large amount of water moves through the plant body by apoplastic
and symplastic pathways. Which of the following is correct with respect to these pathways?
Ans 1. Symplastic pathway allows more water movement due to less resistance.

2. Apoplastic pathway allows more water movement due to less resistance.

3. Symplastic pathway allows more water movement due to high resistance.

4. Apoplastic pathway allows less water movement due to high resistance.

Question ID : 441009651207
Option 1 ID : 4410092559085
Option 2 ID : 4410092559087
Option 3 ID : 4410092559086
Option 4 ID : 4410092559088

Q.7 Which type of enzyme-substrate interaction is described by Michaelis-Menten kinetics?

Ans 1. Single-substrate enzymes

2. Non-competitive enzymes

3. Multiple substrates

4. Allosteric enzymes

Question ID : 441009650977
Option 1 ID : 4410092558166
Option 2 ID : 4410092558168
Option 3 ID : 4410092558165
Option 4 ID : 4410092558167

Q.8 Who demonstrated that Gibberellins caused de novo synthesis of hydrolytic enzyme during
seed germination?
Ans 1. Kogl and Kosremann in 1934

2. Bapsen Jensen, Kogl and Kosremann in 1960

3. JE Varner, GR Chandra and MJ Chrispeels in 1960

4. F W Went

Question ID : 441009651100
Option 1 ID : 4410092558659
Option 2 ID : 4410092558660
Option 3 ID : 4410092558657
Option 4 ID : 4410092558658
Q.9 Which of the following enzymes is a classical example of competitive inhibition, with succinic
acid as its substrate?
Ans 1. Monoamine oxidase

2. Dihydrofolate reductase

3. Acetylcholine esterase

4. Succinate dehydrogenase

Question ID : 441009651431
Option 1 ID : 4410092559983
Option 2 ID : 4410092559981
Option 3 ID : 4410092559982
Option 4 ID : 4410092559984

Q.10 Exposure of enzymes to ultraviolet, beta, gamma, and X-rays inactivates certain enzymes due
to the formation of peroxides. Which of the following enzyme's activity is inhibited by UV
rays?
Ans 1. Cytochrome oxidase

2. Salivary amylase

3. Pyruvate oxidase

4. Xanthine oxidase

Question ID : 441009651428
Option 1 ID : 4410092559971
Option 2 ID : 4410092559972
Option 3 ID : 4410092559969
Option 4 ID : 4410092559970

Q.11 During photosynthetic electron transport, ATP is synthesised by using electrochemical

proton gradient across thylakoid membrane. Which of the following proteins acts as an
enzyme for synthesis of ATP?
Ans 1. CF0 Subunit

2. CF1 Subunit

3. Cyt.b6f complex

4. ATPase

Question ID : 441009651066
Option 1 ID : 4410092558521
Option 2 ID : 4410092558522
Option 3 ID : 4410092558524
Option 4 ID : 4410092558523

Q.12 Which of the following reactions takes place in cytoplasm during glycolysis and also involves
substrate level phosphorylation?
Ans 1. Conversion of Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate to Bisphosphoglycerate

2. Conversion of 3-Phosphoglycerate to 2- Phosphoglycerate

3. Conversion of 2-Phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate

4. Conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate

Question ID : 441009650816
Option 1 ID : 4410092557524
Option 2 ID : 4410092557522
Option 3 ID : 4410092557521
Option 4 ID : 4410092557523
Q.13 What is the role of PEP carboxylase in C4 plants?
Ans 1. To reduce photorespiration

2. To fix CO2 into a 4-carbon compound

3. To regenerate PEP

4. To fix CO2 into a 3-carbon compound

Question ID : 441009977223
Option 1 ID : 4410093861689
Option 2 ID : 4410093861687
Option 3 ID : 4410093861688
Option 4 ID : 4410093861686

Q.14 Crevices or pocket made in the tertiary structure of enzymes are called _____.
Ans 1. substrate unbinding sites

2. active sites

3. inactive sites

4. product binding sites

Question ID : 441009937427
Option 1 ID : 4410093703466
Option 2 ID : 4410093703463
Option 3 ID : 4410093703464
Option 4 ID : 4410093703465

Q.15 Most of the enzymes of higher organisms show optimum activity around neutral pH (6-8), but
some enzymes like pepsin, acid phosphatase, and alkaline phosphatase show exceptional pH
value. Among the given options, what is the optimum pH value for the enzyme pepsin?
Ans 1. 4-5

2. 1-2

3. 10-11

4. 7-10

Question ID : 441009651429
Option 1 ID : 4410092559975
Option 2 ID : 4410092559976
Option 3 ID : 4410092559973
Option 4 ID : 4410092559974

Q.16 The activity of an enzyme is also sensitive to the presence of specific chemicals that binds to
the enzyme. When the binding of the chemical shuts off enzyme activity, the process is called
_______ and the chemical is called ________ .
Ans 1. hydrolysis; catalyst

2. denaturation; substrate

3. activation; activator

4. inhibition; inhibitor

Question ID : 441009946478
Option 1 ID : 4410093739428
Option 2 ID : 4410093739427
Option 3 ID : 4410093739425
Option 4 ID : 4410093739426
Q.17 How many molecules of pyruvic acids are formed in glycolysis?

Ans 1. Two molecules

2. Ten molecules

3. One molecule

4. Six molecules

Question ID : 441009651044
Option 1 ID : 4410092558436
Option 2 ID : 4410092558434
Option 3 ID : 4410092558435
Option 4 ID : 4410092558433

Q.18 Which of the following is correct regarding cyclic photophosphorylation?

Ans 1. Release of NADPH2

2. ATP synthesis

3. Splitting of water

4. Involve both PS I and PS II

Question ID : 441009651102
Option 1 ID : 4410092558667
Option 2 ID : 4410092558668
Option 3 ID : 4410092558665
Option 4 ID : 4410092558666

Q.19 Which of the following statements about enzyme action is INCORRECT?

Ans 1. The properties of the enzyme change after the reaction.

2. Enzyme substrate-complex is highly reactive.

3. Enzyme substrate-complex is short-lived.

4. Enzyme has a substrate-binding site.

Question ID : 441009945737
Option 1 ID : 4410093736471
Option 2 ID : 4410093736470
Option 3 ID : 4410093736469
Option 4 ID : 4410093736468

Q.20 Assess the impact of increase in light intensity on the rate of CO2 fixation from the given
options.
Ans 1. Net increase is more in C3 plants.

2. Net increase is less in C4 plants.

3. Decreases in C4 plants

4. There is a linear relationship between incident light and CO2 fixation rates at low light
intensity.

Question ID : 441009651249
Option 1 ID : 4410092559255
Option 2 ID : 4410092559256
Option 3 ID : 4410092559254
Option 4 ID : 4410092559253

Section : Discipline3
Q.1 Cardiac cycle is initiated by spontaneous generation of an action potential in sino-atrial node
(SAN), which is located on the superior lateral wall of which of the following?
Ans 1. Right atrium

2. Left atrium

3. Right ventricle

4. Left ventricle

Question ID : 441009650752
Option 1 ID : 4410092557265
Option 2 ID : 4410092557267
Option 3 ID : 4410092557266
Option 4 ID : 4410092557268

Q.2 Which of the following enzymes is used by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) to multiply
itself?
Ans 1. Fummarase

2. Amylase

3. Cellulase

4. Reverse transcriptase

Question ID : 441009650942
Option 1 ID : 4410092558026
Option 2 ID : 4410092558027
Option 3 ID : 4410092558028
Option 4 ID : 4410092558025

Q.3 Which of the following chemicals are released by glands or specialised cells into the
circulating blood and influence the functions of target cells at another location in the body?
Ans 1. Autocrine

2. Ectohormones

3. Endocrine hormones

4. Neurotransmitters

Question ID : 441009650962
Option 1 ID : 4410092558107
Option 2 ID : 4410092558108
Option 3 ID : 4410092558106
Option 4 ID : 4410092558105

Q.4 According to necrohormone theory, formation of adventive embryos is stimulated by:

Ans 1. Meiosis taking place in megaspore mother cell

2. Fusion of male gamete with secondary nucleus

3. Fusion of two polar nuclei

4. Degenerating cells of nucellus

Question ID : 441009651205
Option 1 ID : 4410092559080
Option 2 ID : 4410092559078
Option 3 ID : 4410092559079
Option 4 ID : 4410092559077
Q.5 Which of the following hormones is secreted by the adrenal medulla during the "fight or
flight" response?
Ans 1. Testosterone

2. Cortisol

3. Epinephrine

4. Aldosterone

Question ID : 441009650760
Option 1 ID : 4410092557300
Option 2 ID : 4410092557298
Option 3 ID : 4410092557299
Option 4 ID : 4410092557297

Q.6 Which of the following clotting factors is synonym to prothrombin?

Ans 1. Factor XII

2. Factor XIII

3. Factor I

4. Factor II

Question ID : 441009650969
Option 1 ID : 4410092558135
Option 2 ID : 4410092558136
Option 3 ID : 4410092558133
Option 4 ID : 4410092558134

Q.7 When an excited state of chlorophyll is NOT rapidly quenched by excitation transfer or
photochemical reaction, then it leads to:
Ans 1. photochemical scavenging

2. production of molecular oxygen

3. photolysis of water

4. production of singlet oxygen

Question ID : 441009651071
Option 1 ID : 4410092558544
Option 2 ID : 4410092558542
Option 3 ID : 4410092558541
Option 4 ID : 4410092558543

Q.8 Which component is NOT typically found in lymph?

Ans 1. Proteins

2. White blood cells

3. Red blood cells

4. Lipids

Question ID : 441009977260
Option 1 ID : 4410093861830
Option 2 ID : 4410093861833
Option 3 ID : 4410093861832
Option 4 ID : 4410093861831
Q.9 In a typical angiosperm, during embryogenesis, embryo development occurs at:
Ans 1. In the nucellar region of ovule

2. In the centre of the embryo sac

3. Micropylar end of the embryo sac

4. Chalazal end of the embryo sac

Question ID : 441009651203
Option 1 ID : 4410092559072
Option 2 ID : 4410092559070
Option 3 ID : 4410092559071
Option 4 ID : 4410092559069

Q.10 What is the primary immunological mechanism involved in kidney transplant rejection?
Ans 1. Activation of macrophages

2. Activation of B cells

3. Activation of T cells

4. Activation of neutrophils

Question ID : 441009977277
Option 1 ID : 4410093861900
Option 2 ID : 4410093861898
Option 3 ID : 4410093861899
Option 4 ID : 4410093861901

Q.11 In double fertilisation, which of the following is formed immediately after the triple fusion?
Ans 1. Zygote

2. Embryo

3. Primary Endosperm Nucleus

4. Endosperm

Question ID : 441009947890
Option 1 ID : 4410093745065
Option 2 ID : 4410093745068
Option 3 ID : 4410093745067
Option 4 ID : 4410093745066

Q.12 The period during which the sexual cycle ceases and the female sex hormones diminish to
almost none is called:
Ans 1. Secretory Phase

2. Menopause

3. Proliferative Phase

4. Menarche

Question ID : 441009650943
Option 1 ID : 4410092558032
Option 2 ID : 4410092558030
Option 3 ID : 4410092558031
Option 4 ID : 4410092558029
Q.13 All the seminiferous tubules of a testis come together and form a plexus called as:
Ans 1. fallopian tube

2. infundibulum

3. rete testis

4. ureter

Question ID : 441009650737
Option 1 ID : 4410092557206
Option 2 ID : 4410092557208
Option 3 ID : 4410092557205
Option 4 ID : 4410092557207

Q.14 Which of the following is a common symptom of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
(COPD)?
Ans 1. Sharp chest pain during inhalation

2. Persistent cough with mucus

3. Sudden weight gain

4. High fever

Question ID : 441009651075
Option 1 ID : 4410092558560
Option 2 ID : 4410092558558
Option 3 ID : 4410092558559
Option 4 ID : 4410092558557

Q.15 Occasionally, the acidophilic, growth hormone producing cells of the anterior pituitary gland
become excessively active, and sometimes even acidophilic tumors occur in the gland. As a
result, large quantities of which of the following hormones are produced?
Ans 1. Growth hormone

2. Mucin

3. Melatonin

4. Villikinin

Question ID : 441009650961
Option 1 ID : 4410092558101
Option 2 ID : 4410092558102
Option 3 ID : 4410092558103
Option 4 ID : 4410092558104

Q.16 Identify the process in which NADH+H+ is oxidised into NAD+ rather slowly and glucose is
only partially oxidised so that, there is net gain of only 2 ATP molecules for each molecule of
glucose degraded.
Ans 1. Fermentation

2. Photorespiration

3. TCA Cycle

4. Oxidative phosphorylation

Question ID : 441009651219
Option 1 ID : 4410092559135
Option 2 ID : 4410092559136
Option 3 ID : 4410092559133
Option 4 ID : 4410092559134
Q.17 In which of the following disorders is the patient likely to experience a sudden onset of
dyspnea and hemoptysis, typically following a period of immobility?
Ans 1. Pneumothorax

2. Pulmonary Embolism

3. Bronchitis

4. Cystic Fibrosis

Question ID : 441009651215
Option 1 ID : 4410092559120
Option 2 ID : 4410092559118
Option 3 ID : 4410092559119
Option 4 ID : 4410092559117

Q.18 Sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialised endoplasmic reticulum present in which of the

following tissues?
Ans 1. Skeletal muscle

2. Salivary gland

3. Nerve fibre

4. Tooth

Question ID : 441009650966
Option 1 ID : 4410092558122
Option 2 ID : 4410092558123
Option 3 ID : 4410092558121
Option 4 ID : 4410092558124

Q.19 Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of digestive enzymes and
gastrointestinal hormones?
Ans 1. Pepsin, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the pancreas and helps in the digestion of
fats.
2. Amylase, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the stomach and breaks down proteins
into amino acids.
3. Gastrin, a gastrointestinal hormone, is released by the small intestine and inhibits
gastric acid secretion.
4. Cholecystokinin (CCK) stimulates the release of bile from the gallbladder and also
promotes the secretion of pancreatic enzymes.

Question ID : 441009651218
Option 1 ID : 4410092559129
Option 2 ID : 4410092559132
Option 3 ID : 4410092559131
Option 4 ID : 4410092559130

Q.20 During embryogenesis in angiosperm, a six to nine celled structure called suspensor is
formed. Which of the following options is true for the function of the suspensor?
Ans 1. Performs photosynthesis to nourish embryo

2. Attaches embryo with vascular system of the plant

3. Attaches embryo with cells of nucellus

4. Forms shoot to root axis of the future plant

Question ID : 441009650798
Option 1 ID : 4410092557451
Option 2 ID : 4410092557450
Option 3 ID : 4410092557449
Option 4 ID : 4410092557452

Section : Discipline4
Q.1 Which of the following biomolecules carries out all the processes of life without the help of
protein or DNA?
Ans 1. Lipid

2. RNA

3. Carbohydrate

4. Vitamin

Question ID : 441009650823
Option 1 ID : 4410092557550
Option 2 ID : 4410092557552
Option 3 ID : 4410092557551
Option 4 ID : 4410092557549

Q.2 In an experiment involving mutagenesis, a point mutation was found, that had no impact on
appearance, viability or ability to reproduce in the organism. What would you conclude from
this observation?
Ans 1. Mutation must have occured in coding sequence of the concerned gene.

2. Mutation has not occured in the intronic sequences.

3. Mutation has changed the protein significantly.

4. Mutation must have occured at the wobble position of the codon.

Question ID : 441009651198
Option 1 ID : 4410092559049
Option 2 ID : 4410092559051
Option 3 ID : 4410092559052
Option 4 ID : 4410092559050

Q.3 The unique frequency of genes that arise in population derived from small bands of
colonizers has been called:
Ans 1. Incidental effect

2. Founder effect

3. Territory effect

4. Development effect

Question ID : 441009650672
Option 1 ID : 4410092556947
Option 2 ID : 4410092556945
Option 3 ID : 4410092556948
Option 4 ID : 4410092556946

Q.4 Select the correct statement for sex linked genes present on non-homologous parts of X and
Y chromosomes in XY-chromosomal system of sex determination.
Ans 1. Males can be hemizygous only for these genes.

2. Females can be only heterozygous for these genes.

3. Females can be only homozygous for these genes.

4. Males can be only heterozygous for these genes.

Question ID : 441009650784
Option 1 ID : 4410092557396
Option 2 ID : 4410092557395
Option 3 ID : 4410092557393
Option 4 ID : 4410092557394
Q.5 Some scientists like Richter of the 19th century assumed that this planet was ‘seeded’ from
space. One such theory is called:
Ans 1. Cosmozoic theory

2. Special creation theory

3. Theory of chemical evolution

4. Theory of spontaneous origin of life

Question ID : 441009650680
Option 1 ID : 4410092556977
Option 2 ID : 4410092556980
Option 3 ID : 4410092556979
Option 4 ID : 4410092556978

Q.6 Which of the following is an X-linked recessive disorder in humans?

Ans 1. Haemophilia

2. Sickle cell anaemia

3. Thalassemia

4. Phenylketonuria

Question ID : 441009951177
Option 1 ID : 4410093758095
Option 2 ID : 4410093758093
Option 3 ID : 4410093758096
Option 4 ID : 4410093758094

Q.7 Which of the following hypothesis speculates that mitochondria were formerly oxygen-
respiring bacteria and established permanent residence within the hosts to form first
eukaryotic animal cell?
Ans 1. Hypothesis of Panspermia

2. Invagination of surface membrane hypothesis

3. Endosymbiotic hypothesis

4. Neutral theory of protein evolution

Question ID : 441009650676
Option 1 ID : 4410092556964
Option 2 ID : 4410092556962
Option 3 ID : 4410092556961
Option 4 ID : 4410092556963

Q.8 _______________ used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same
chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes, and 'mapped' their position on the
chromosome.
Ans 1. Gregor Mendel

2. Francis Harry Compton Crick

3. Alfred Sturtevant

4. James Dewey Watson

Question ID : 441009651420
Option 1 ID : 4410092559939
Option 2 ID : 4410092559938
Option 3 ID : 4410092559940
Option 4 ID : 4410092559937
Q.9 Which of the following factors is most commonly associated with increased sexual activity
among adolescents?
Ans 1. Higher academic achievement

2. Strong family communication

3. Participation in extracurricular activities

4. Peer pressure

Question ID : 441009651167
Option 1 ID : 4410092558925
Option 2 ID : 4410092558926
Option 3 ID : 4410092558928
Option 4 ID : 4410092558927

Q.10 RNA molecules used in a variety of applications in research and medicine are:
Ans 1. t-RNA

2. SnRNPs

3. HnRNA

4. Ribozymes

Question ID : 441009651186
Option 1 ID : 4410092559001
Option 2 ID : 4410092559003
Option 3 ID : 4410092559004
Option 4 ID : 4410092559002

Q.11 Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for work on RNA molecules working as ribozymes?
Ans 1. Thomas R Cech and Sidney Altman

2. Robert Tijan

3. JE Vainer, GR Chandra and MJ Chrispeels

4. H Temin and D Baltimore

Question ID : 441009650822
Option 1 ID : 4410092557545
Option 2 ID : 4410092557547
Option 3 ID : 4410092557546
Option 4 ID : 4410092557548

Q.12 Which of the following scientists recovered the fossil of Australopithecus afarensis called
'Lucy' from Afar locality Hadar, Ethiopia in 1973?
Ans 1. RA Dart

2. Donald Johanson

3. Robert Broom

4. Leaky

Question ID : 441009650707
Option 1 ID : 4410092557087
Option 2 ID : 4410092557085
Option 3 ID : 4410092557086
Option 4 ID : 4410092557088
Q.13 Read the following statements about flower and select the correct option.

Statement A: To a biologist, flowers are morphological and embryological marvels.

Statement B: Flowers are the sites of sexual reproduction.
Ans 1. Statement B is correct & Statement A is incorrect

2. Both Statement A & B are correct

3. Statement A is correct & Statement B is incorrect

4. Both Statement A & B are incorrect

Question ID : 441009937861
Option 1 ID : 4410093705164
Option 2 ID : 4410093705165
Option 3 ID : 4410093705163
Option 4 ID : 4410093705166

Q.14 A mother with blood group AB (genotype IAIB) and a father with blood group A (genotype IAi)
CANNOT have a child with which of the following blood groups?
Ans 1. AB

2. B

3. A

4. O

Question ID : 441009948896
Option 1 ID : 4410093749060
Option 2 ID : 4410093749062
Option 3 ID : 4410093749059
Option 4 ID : 4410093749061

Q.15 Which of the following scientist(s) received the Nobel Prize in 1989 for their work on RNA
molecules working as ribozyme?
Ans 1. H Temin and D Baltimore

2. R Dulbecco

3. Thomas R Cech and Sidney Altman

4. SL McKnight

Question ID : 441009651388
Option 1 ID : 4410092559811
Option 2 ID : 4410092559812
Option 3 ID : 4410092559809
Option 4 ID : 4410092559810

Q.16 The idea that both gene frequencies and genotype frequencies will remain constant from
generation to generation in an infinitely large interbreeding population in which mating is at
random and no selection, migration or mutation occurs, was given by:
Ans 1. TH Jukes

2. S Spiegelman

3. Darwin and Wallace

4. Hardy and Weinberg

Question ID : 441009650929
Option 1 ID : 4410092557976
Option 2 ID : 4410092557975
Option 3 ID : 4410092557974
Option 4 ID : 4410092557973
Q.17 Colour-blindness is a:
Ans 1. Autosomal-linked recessive disorder

2. Sex-linked recessive disorder

3. Sex-linked dominant disorder

4. Autosomal-linked dominant disorder

Question ID : 441009651419
Option 1 ID : 4410092559935
Option 2 ID : 4410092559933
Option 3 ID : 4410092559934
Option 4 ID : 4410092559936

Q.18 The term adaptive radiation, for explaining evolution from a single ancestor of a number of
descendants with a great variety of adaptation to different niches, was coined by whom
among the following?
Ans 1. GG Simpson

2. Stanley

3. HF Osborn

4. David Lack

Question ID : 441009650937
Option 1 ID : 4410092558006
Option 2 ID : 4410092558008
Option 3 ID : 4410092558007
Option 4 ID : 4410092558005

Q.19 Which of the following was NOT the reason for Mendel to select the pea plant for his
hybridisation experiments?
Ans 1. Longer life span

2. Occurrence of well-defined discrete characters

3. Bisexual flowers

4. Predominant self fertilisation

Question ID : 441009650797
Option 1 ID : 4410092557447
Option 2 ID : 4410092557445
Option 3 ID : 4410092557446
Option 4 ID : 4410092557448

Q.20 Which of the following is NOT involved in inheritance?

Ans 1. Nucleus

2. Ribosome

3. Mitochondria

4. Chloroplast

Question ID : 441009651400
Option 1 ID : 4410092559857
Option 2 ID : 4410092559859
Option 3 ID : 4410092559860
Option 4 ID : 4410092559858

Section : Discipline5
Q.1 How many ATP molecules are produced directly in one round of the Krebs cycle?
Ans 1. 3

2. 2

3. 1

4. 4

Question ID : 441009650918
Option 1 ID : 4410092557931
Option 2 ID : 4410092557930
Option 3 ID : 4410092557929
Option 4 ID : 4410092557932

Q.2 In 1927, GD Karpechenko, a Russian geneticist, reported a cross between Raphanus sativus
(2n = 18) and Brassica oleracea (2n = 8) to produce an F1 hybrid which was completely
sterile. This is a classical example of:
Ans 1. Tetraploidy

2. Autopolyploidy

3. Monoploidy

4. Allopolyploidy

Question ID : 441009651387
Option 1 ID : 4410092559806
Option 2 ID : 4410092559807
Option 3 ID : 4410092559805
Option 4 ID : 4410092559808

Q.3 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about auxin?

Ans 1. Term ‘auxin’ is applied to the indole-3-acetic acid (IAA)

2. Auxins promote flowering e.g. in pineapples

3. NAA (naphthalene acetic acid) and 2, 4-D (2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic) are natural
auxins
4. Generally produced by the growing apices of the stems and roots

Question ID : 441009965233
Option 1 ID : 4410093814200
Option 2 ID : 4410093814202
Option 3 ID : 4410093814203
Option 4 ID : 4410093814201

Q.4 Genes that are generally silent under a specific environment and may be activated in a few
individuals of a population in another environment are known as_____.
Ans 1. overlapping genes

2. cryptic genes

3. split genes

4. pseudogenes

Question ID : 441009650762
Option 1 ID : 4410092557306
Option 2 ID : 4410092557308
Option 3 ID : 4410092557305
Option 4 ID : 4410092557307
Q.5 In genome of eukaryotes, multigene families are found. Such families of genes have been
significant for molecular evolution and are supposed to have arisen by:
Ans 1. Translocation of mobile genetic elements

2. Addition of same genes

3. Duplication of same genes

4. Insertion of same genes

Question ID : 441009651192
Option 1 ID : 4410092559027
Option 2 ID : 4410092559028
Option 3 ID : 4410092559026
Option 4 ID : 4410092559025

Q.6 Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of enzyme catalysis
according to the induced fit model?
Ans 1. The enzyme-substrate complex is stabilised through covalent bonding only.

2. The enzyme changes shape after substrate binding to fit the substrate more tightly.

3. The active site of enzyme is rigid and does not accommodate the substrate.

4. The substrate is permanently modified before binding.

Question ID : 441009951670
Option 1 ID : 4410093760077
Option 2 ID : 4410093760075
Option 3 ID : 4410093760078
Option 4 ID : 4410093760076

Q.7 Which of the following techniques is used to observe live cells?

Ans 1. Fluorescence microscope

2. Phase-contrast microscope

3. Spectrophotometer

4. Electron microscope

Question ID : 441009651072
Option 1 ID : 4410092558546
Option 2 ID : 4410092558547
Option 3 ID : 4410092558548
Option 4 ID : 4410092558545

Q.8 What is Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)?

Ans 1. Genetic disorder

2. Molecular Glue

3. Molecular marker

4. Molecular scissor

Question ID : 441009651395
Option 1 ID : 4410092559840
Option 2 ID : 4410092559838
Option 3 ID : 4410092559839
Option 4 ID : 4410092559837
Q.9 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding B-chromosomes?
Ans 1. B-chromosomes are always inherited in a Mendelian fashion.

2. When B-chromosomes are present in high number, they suppress vigour and sterility.

3. B-chromosomes are not required for normal growth and development.

4. B-chromosomes are not homologous with any of the basic A-chromosomes.

Question ID : 441009950358
Option 1 ID : 4410093754872
Option 2 ID : 4410093754870
Option 3 ID : 4410093754869
Option 4 ID : 4410093754871

Q.10 Where does the Krebs cycle take place within a cell?
Ans 1. Mitochondrial matrix

2. Cytoplasm

3. Nucleus

4. Cell membrane

Question ID : 441009651057
Option 1 ID : 4410092558487
Option 2 ID : 4410092558485
Option 3 ID : 4410092558486
Option 4 ID : 4410092558488

Q.11 Which of the following HLA class molecules presents endogenous antigens to cytotoxic T
cells?
Ans 1. HLA-DQ

2. HLA-A

3. HLA-DR

4. HLA-DP

Question ID : 441009963084
Option 1 ID : 4410093805699
Option 2 ID : 4410093805701
Option 3 ID : 4410093805700
Option 4 ID : 4410093805698

Q.12 Which of the following acts as a barrier to invading pathogens and protects the cell from
mechanical and ionic stresses in prokaryotic cells?
Ans 1. Lignin

2. Peptidoglycan

3. Chitin

4. Cellulose

Question ID : 441009651413
Option 1 ID : 4410092559911
Option 2 ID : 4410092559912
Option 3 ID : 4410092559910
Option 4 ID : 4410092559909
Q.13 Which of the following statement is correct about glycolysis?
Ans 1. Glycolysis is often referred to as EMJ pathway.

2. It was given by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof only.

3. In glycolysis glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form two molecules of pyruvic

acid.
4. Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria of the cell.

Question ID : 441009950924
Option 1 ID : 4410093757100
Option 2 ID : 4410093757097
Option 3 ID : 4410093757099
Option 4 ID : 4410093757098

Q.14 What does the removal of phosphorus and nitrogen during tertiary sewage treatment help to
prevent?
Ans 1. Increased oxygen levels

2. Air pollution

3. Soil degradation

4. Eutrophication

Question ID : 441009650909
Option 1 ID : 4410092557896
Option 2 ID : 4410092557894
Option 3 ID : 4410092557895
Option 4 ID : 4410092557893

Q.15 In which stage of meiosis, the microtubules of the spindle are attached with the centromeres
of the homologous chromosomes of each tetrad, and the centromere of each chromosome is
directed towards the opposite poles?
Ans 1. Metaphase I

2. Prophase I

3. Anaphase I

4. Telophase I

Question ID : 441009651391
Option 1 ID : 4410092559822
Option 2 ID : 4410092559821
Option 3 ID : 4410092559823
Option 4 ID : 4410092559824

Q.16 The genes that have a close homology to the functional genes, but have been disabled by
mutations that prevent their expression are called as:
Ans 1. orthologous genes

2. paralogous genes

3. pseudogenes

4. homologous genes

Question ID : 441009650777
Option 1 ID : 4410092557368
Option 2 ID : 4410092557366
Option 3 ID : 4410092557367
Option 4 ID : 4410092557365
Q.17 Which hormone acts as an antagonist to gibberellins and increases the tolerance of plants to
various kinds of stresses?
Ans 1. Auxins

2. Cytokinins

3. Ethylene

4. Abscisic acid

Question ID : 441009651374
Option 1 ID : 4410092559753
Option 2 ID : 4410092559754
Option 3 ID : 4410092559756
Option 4 ID : 4410092559755

Q.18 What chromosomal variation is associated with Turner syndrome?

Ans 1. XO

2. XXY

3. Trisomy 21

4. XYY

Question ID : 441009651060
Option 1 ID : 4410092558499
Option 2 ID : 4410092558498
Option 3 ID : 4410092558497
Option 4 ID : 4410092558500

Q.19 In the cytoplasm, an elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures is

collectively referred to as the cytoskeleton. Which of the following structures is NOT a part of
it?
Ans 1. Microfilaments

2. Microtubules

3. Intermediate filaments

4. Microbodies

Question ID : 441009651426
Option 1 ID : 4410092559963
Option 2 ID : 4410092559961
Option 3 ID : 4410092559964
Option 4 ID : 4410092559962

Q.20 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of meiosis?

Ans 1. It results in four genetically identical haploid cells

2. Occurrence of two successive nuclear divisions without an intervening S phase

3. Reduction of chromosome number to half in daughter cells

4. Synapsis and crossing over occur during prophase I

Question ID : 441009947764
Option 1 ID : 4410093744571
Option 2 ID : 4410093744570
Option 3 ID : 4410093744572
Option 4 ID : 4410093744569

Section : Discipline6
Q.1 What is the function of the thick cuticle on the leaf surface of many desert plants?
Ans 1. To protect from grass

2. To help in mineral absorption

3. To minimise water loss through transpiration

4. To provide mechanical support

Question ID : 441009651442
Option 1 ID : 4410092560027
Option 2 ID : 4410092560028
Option 3 ID : 4410092560025
Option 4 ID : 4410092560026

Q.2 What is a major benefit of utilising pest-resistant genetically modified (GM) crops?
Ans 1. Reduced crop yield

2. Increased use of chemical pesticides

3. Decreased environmental pollution

4. Increased pest population

Question ID : 441009650887
Option 1 ID : 4410092557806
Option 2 ID : 4410092557805
Option 3 ID : 4410092557807
Option 4 ID : 4410092557808

Q.3 What does the term 'sticky ends' refer to in molecular biology?
Ans 1. DNA sequences that cannot be ligated

2. Overhanging single-stranded DNA fragments generated by restriction enzymes

3. Double-stranded blunt ends

4. DNA sequences that are highly reactive

Question ID : 441009651048
Option 1 ID : 4410092558451
Option 2 ID : 4410092558450
Option 3 ID : 4410092558452
Option 4 ID : 4410092558449

Q.4 Which of the following correctly represents the steps of each cycle of the Polymerase chain
reaction (PCR)?
Ans 1. Denaturation; Annealing; and Extension

2. Annealing; and Extension

3. Denaturation; and Annealing

4. Denaturation; and Extension

Question ID : 441009965411
Option 1 ID : 4410093814904
Option 2 ID : 4410093814907
Option 3 ID : 4410093814906
Option 4 ID : 4410093814905
Q.5 Which of the following diseases refers to a deficiency of the immune system acquired during
the lifetime of an individual, indicating that it is NOT a congenital disease?
Ans 1. AIDS

2. Filariasis

3. Pneumonia

4. Allergy

Question ID : 441009651369
Option 1 ID : 4410092559736
Option 2 ID : 4410092559733
Option 3 ID : 4410092559734
Option 4 ID : 4410092559735

Q.6 What is the primary advantage of using viral vectors in gene therapy?
Ans 1. Ability to transduce dividing and non-dividing cells

2. High cargo capacity

3. Limited gene size

4. Low immunogenicity

Question ID : 4410091004063
Option 1 ID : 4410093967841
Option 2 ID : 4410093967840
Option 3 ID : 4410093967842
Option 4 ID : 4410093967839

Q.7 What causes primary immunodeficiency disorders?

Ans 1. Environmental factors

2. Poor nutrition

3. Acquired infections

4. Genetic mutations

Question ID : 441009651053
Option 1 ID : 4410092558471
Option 2 ID : 4410092558472
Option 3 ID : 4410092558469
Option 4 ID : 4410092558470

Q.8 What is the primary purpose of using transgenic animals in research?

Ans 1. To create new animal species

2. To improve livestock growth

3. To replace natural populations

4. To study human diseases

Question ID : 441009650888
Option 1 ID : 4410092557811
Option 2 ID : 4410092557812
Option 3 ID : 4410092557810
Option 4 ID : 4410092557809
Q.9 Who proposed the term ecosystem?
Ans 1. Arthur George Tansley in 1935

2. Robert Braun in 1864

3. DK Awasthi in 1950

4. Alfred Sturtevant in 1935

Question ID : 441009650964
Option 1 ID : 4410092558113
Option 2 ID : 4410092558116
Option 3 ID : 4410092558115
Option 4 ID : 4410092558114

Q.10 Which technique is commonly employed in molecular diagnostics to amplify DNA?

Ans 1. Northern blotting

2. ELISA

3. Western blotting

4. PCR

Question ID : 441009651033
Option 1 ID : 4410092558391
Option 2 ID : 4410092558392
Option 3 ID : 4410092558389
Option 4 ID : 4410092558390

Q.11 The Bt toxin gene, expressed in plants to provide resistance from insects without the need of
insecticides, has been cloned from which of the following bacteria?
Ans 1. Bacillus amyloliquefaciens

2. Bacillus mycoides

3. Bacillus thuringiensis

4. Bacillus subtilis

Question ID : 441009651333
Option 1 ID : 4410092559591
Option 2 ID : 4410092559590
Option 3 ID : 4410092559592
Option 4 ID : 4410092559589

Q.12 Human immunodeficiency, characterised by immunosuppression, secondary neoplasms, and

neurological manifestations, is caused by which microorganism?
Ans 1. Mites

2. Bacteria

3. Fungi

4. Virus

Question ID : 441009651365
Option 1 ID : 4410092559720
Option 2 ID : 4410092559717
Option 3 ID : 4410092559719
Option 4 ID : 4410092559718
Q.13 What indicates a positive result in an ELISA test?
Ans 1. The formation of a precipitate

2. A rise in temperature

3. A measurable colour change

4. No colour change

Question ID : 441009650882
Option 1 ID : 4410092557788
Option 2 ID : 4410092557787
Option 3 ID : 4410092557786
Option 4 ID : 4410092557785

Q.14 Presently, transgenic models exist for many human diseases, EXCEPT:
Ans 1. Typhoid

2. Cystic fibrosis

3. Rheumatoid arthritis

4. Alzheimer’s

Question ID : 441009651335
Option 1 ID : 4410092559600
Option 2 ID : 4410092559597
Option 3 ID : 4410092559598
Option 4 ID : 4410092559599

Q.15 Which of the following is correct about somatic hybrids produced by somatic hybridisation?
Ans 1. Fusion of protoplasts obtained from same varieties of plant

2. Fusion of protoplasts obtained from two different varieties of plant

3. Protoplast without fusion

4. Protoplast with one plant only

Question ID : 441009965386
Option 1 ID : 4410093814805
Option 2 ID : 4410093814804
Option 3 ID : 4410093814807
Option 4 ID : 4410093814806

Q.16 The dsRNA-mediated RNA interference work was recognised by the award of Nobel prize, to
the following which two American scientists?
Ans 1. F Jacob and J Monod

2. Andrew Fire and Craig Mello

3. Britten and Davidson

4. Sydney Brenner and Robert Horvitz

Question ID : 441009651330
Option 1 ID : 4410092559578
Option 2 ID : 4410092559579
Option 3 ID : 4410092559577
Option 4 ID : 4410092559580
Q.17 Which of the following is a high protein content wheat variety?
Ans 1. Atlas 66

2. Atlas 666

3. Atlas 6

4. Atlas 6666

Question ID : 441009651404
Option 1 ID : 4410092559873
Option 2 ID : 4410092559874
Option 3 ID : 4410092559875
Option 4 ID : 4410092559876

Q.18 Which of the following is a symbiont microbe and is commonly used as a biofertilizer to fix
atmospheric nitrogen?
Ans 1. Azotobacter

2. Actinobacter

3. Azospirillum

4. Rhizobium

Question ID : 441009982457
Option 1 ID : 4410093882295
Option 2 ID : 4410093882296
Option 3 ID : 4410093882297
Option 4 ID : 4410093882294

Q.19 Which of the following is a major advantage of using microbes like Methylophilus
methylotrophus for Single Cell Protein production?
Ans 1. They convert protein to nucleic acid

2. Rapid biomass doubling time and reduced land use.

3. They produce small quantities of secondary metabolites like antibiotics

4. Their low rate of biomass production and growth

Question ID : 441009951034
Option 1 ID : 4410093757530
Option 2 ID : 4410093757531
Option 3 ID : 4410093757532
Option 4 ID : 4410093757529

Q.20 Which of the following vectors is commonly utilised in gene therapy?

Ans 1. Fungi

2. Bacteria

3. Viruses

4. Yeast

Question ID : 441009651034
Option 1 ID : 4410092558395
Option 2 ID : 4410092558393
Option 3 ID : 4410092558394
Option 4 ID : 4410092558396

Section : Discipline7
Q.1 Which of the following is the name of the pathogenic virus that causes common cold and
infects nose, throat, sinuses and trachea?
Ans 1. Polio virus

2. Encephalitis virus

3. Rhabdovirus

4. Rhinovirus

Question ID : 441009650662
Option 1 ID : 4410092556908
Option 2 ID : 4410092556907
Option 3 ID : 4410092556906
Option 4 ID : 4410092556905

Q.2 What is the exposure unit of high noise level produced by a jet plane or rocket taking off,
which might damage the ear drums, thus causing permanent impaired hearing ability?
Ans 1. 90 dB or more

2. 110 dB or more

3. 150 dB or more

4. 100 dB or more

Question ID : 441009651308
Option 1 ID : 4410092559489
Option 2 ID : 4410092559491
Option 3 ID : 4410092559492
Option 4 ID : 4410092559490

Q.3 Which of the following is INCORRECT with respect to the storage method of nuclear waste?
Ans 1. Discard the waste in water bodies

2. Buried within the rocks, about 500 m deep below the earth’s surface

3. With suitably shielded containers

4. With sufficient pre-treatment

Question ID : 441009651311
Option 1 ID : 4410092559504
Option 2 ID : 4410092559503
Option 3 ID : 4410092559502
Option 4 ID : 4410092559501

Q.4 In the hierarchical organisation of the living system from molecule to biosphere, which one of
the following represents the first complete unit having all components necessary for
survival?
Ans 1. Biome

2. Population

3. Ecosystem

4. Community

Question ID : 441009650689
Option 1 ID : 4410092557015
Option 2 ID : 4410092557014
Option 3 ID : 4410092557016
Option 4 ID : 4410092557013
Q.5 What is the global warming potential (GWP) of methane?
Ans 1. 45

2. 12

3. 100

4. 27

Question ID : 441009651027
Option 1 ID : 4410092558367
Option 2 ID : 4410092558365
Option 3 ID : 4410092558368
Option 4 ID : 4410092558366

Q.6 What is a key characteristic of T cell epitopes?

Ans 1. They are short peptide fragments presented by MHC molecules.

2. They are only found on the surface of antigens.

3. They are recognized by B cells.

4. They are recognised by antibodies.

Question ID : 4410091004117
Option 1 ID : 4410093968060
Option 2 ID : 4410093968061
Option 3 ID : 4410093968059
Option 4 ID : 4410093968062

Q.7 What is the primary cause of pebrine in silkworms?

Ans 1. Protozoan infection

2. Bacterial infection

3. Viral infection

4. Fungal infection

Question ID : 441009650681
Option 1 ID : 4410092556984
Option 2 ID : 4410092556982
Option 3 ID : 4410092556983
Option 4 ID : 4410092556981

Q.8 CD8+ T- cells recognise antigens that are combined with ___________.
Ans 1. Neither class I nor class II MHC molecules

2. Class II MHC molecules

3. Class I MHC molecules

4. Both class I & II MHC molecules

Question ID : 441009965522
Option 1 ID : 4410093815339
Option 2 ID : 4410093815337
Option 3 ID : 4410093815336
Option 4 ID : 4410093815338
Q.9 When did the Government of India pass the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act?
Ans 1. 1986

2. 1981

3. 1974

4. 1960

Question ID : 441009651383
Option 1 ID : 4410092559789
Option 2 ID : 4410092559790
Option 3 ID : 4410092559791
Option 4 ID : 4410092559792

Q.10 Catalytic converters, installed in automobiles for reducing the emission of poisonous gases,
possess which of the following metals as catalyst?
Ans 1. Cadmium

2. Platinum

3. Hydrocarbons

4. Polychlorinated biphenyls

Question ID : 441009651316
Option 1 ID : 4410092559521
Option 2 ID : 4410092559523
Option 3 ID : 4410092559524
Option 4 ID : 4410092559522

Q.11 Which one of the following measures CANNOT help control global warming?
Ans 1. Reducing forestation

2. Improving efficiency of energy usage

3. Slowing down the growth of human population

4. Cutting down the use of fossil fuel

Question ID : 441009651314
Option 1 ID : 4410092559514
Option 2 ID : 4410092559515
Option 3 ID : 4410092559516
Option 4 ID : 4410092559513

Q.12 Antibody binding marks or tags invading microorganisms for destruction by making it easier
for a phagocytic cell to ingest them. Such antibodies are called:
Ans 1. Effector

2. Opsonins

3. Precipitin

4. Complement

Question ID : 441009650666
Option 1 ID : 4410092556924
Option 2 ID : 4410092556921
Option 3 ID : 4410092556923
Option 4 ID : 4410092556922
Q.13 What type of reproduction do earthworms primarily exhibit, and how does this contribute to
their ecological role in vermiculture?
Ans 1. Asexual reproduction, allowing rapid population growth

2. Budding, enabling colony formation

3. Parthenogenesis, allowing for reproduction without mating

4. Sexual reproduction, promoting genetic diversity

Question ID : 441009650709
Option 1 ID : 4410092557093
Option 2 ID : 4410092557095
Option 3 ID : 4410092557096
Option 4 ID : 4410092557094

Q.14 Which international agreement was established to reduce ozone depleting substances?
Ans 1. Paris Agreement

2. Basel Convention

3. Montreal Protocol

4. Kyoto Protocol

Question ID : 441009651026
Option 1 ID : 4410092558362
Option 2 ID : 4410092558364
Option 3 ID : 4410092558363
Option 4 ID : 4410092558361

Q.15 What is the role of pioneer species in ecological succession?

Ans 1. To outcompete existing species

2. To stabilise the ecosystem

3. To facilitate the growth of other species

4. To disperse seeds

Question ID : 4410091004075
Option 1 ID : 4410093967887
Option 2 ID : 4410093967889
Option 3 ID : 4410093967888
Option 4 ID : 4410093967890

Q.16 Molecules that communicate among cells of the immune system are referred to as:
Ans 1. Cytokines

2. Cytochrome b

3. Cholecystokinin

4. Cytochrome c

Question ID : 441009650900
Option 1 ID : 4410092557857
Option 2 ID : 4410092557858
Option 3 ID : 4410092557860
Option 4 ID : 4410092557859
Q.17 As the plant succession progresses, niche specialisation changes from:
Ans 1. Broad to narrow range

2. Closed to open range

3. Open to closed range

4. Narrow to broad range

Question ID : 441009650684
Option 1 ID : 4410092556994
Option 2 ID : 4410092556996
Option 3 ID : 4410092556995
Option 4 ID : 4410092556993

Q.18 Which of the following is considered a sustainable method for treating solid waste?
Ans 1. Incineration

2. Landfilling

3. Recycling

4. Open dumping

Question ID : 441009651021
Option 1 ID : 4410092558344
Option 2 ID : 4410092558342
Option 3 ID : 4410092558343
Option 4 ID : 4410092558341

Q.19 Full range of environmental variables and resources that a species can possibly tolerate and
use and which is free from any sort of interference from other species, is called:
Ans 1. Niche overlap

2. Realized niche

3. Fundamental niche

4. Niche breadth

Question ID : 441009651162
Option 1 ID : 4410092558905
Option 2 ID : 4410092558906
Option 3 ID : 4410092558907
Option 4 ID : 4410092558908

Q.20 Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a vaccine?
Ans 1. To provide immediate treatment for acute infections

2. To prevent the spread of pathogens within a community

3. To stimulate the immune system to recognise and fight specific pathogens

4. To cure diseases after infection has occurred

Question ID : 441009651117
Option 1 ID : 4410092558728
Option 2 ID : 4410092558726
Option 3 ID : 4410092558727
Option 4 ID : 4410092558725

Section : Discipline8
Q.1 The scientific name for the green stink bug, a cosmopolitan insect in Southeast Asia that
damages developing vegetables, such as potato, sweet potato, tomato and cotton, is:
Ans 1. Leucosolenia complicata

2. Hydra vulgaris

3. Blattela germanica

4. Nezara viridula

Question ID : 441009650637
Option 1 ID : 4410092556807
Option 2 ID : 4410092556808
Option 3 ID : 4410092556806
Option 4 ID : 4410092556805

Q.2 Which of the following crop diseases is caused by a fungal pathogen?

Ans 1. Loose smut of wheat

2. Mad cow disease

3. Potato spindle tuber disease

4. Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

Question ID : 441009968683
Option 1 ID : 4410093827889
Option 2 ID : 4410093827891
Option 3 ID : 4410093827890
Option 4 ID : 4410093827892

Q.3 In human placentation, the chorionic villi become most firmly attached at the:
Ans 1. Chorion laeve

2. Decidua basalis

3. Amniotic cavity

4. Decidua capsularis

Question ID : 441009989484
Option 1 ID : 4410093910189
Option 2 ID : 4410093910191
Option 3 ID : 4410093910192
Option 4 ID : 4410093910190

Q.4 Which of the following glands is responsible for the secretion of royal jelly in worker
honeybees?
Ans 1. Mandibular glands

2. Wax glands

3. Hypopharyngeal glands

4. Nasonov glands

Question ID : 441009989520
Option 1 ID : 4410093910333
Option 2 ID : 4410093910334
Option 3 ID : 4410093910332
Option 4 ID : 4410093910335
Q.5 Which of the following stem cell types have the ability to develop into a complete organism?
Ans 1. Unipotent stem cells

2. Multipotent stem cells

3. Totipotent stem cells

4. Pluripotent stem cells

Question ID : 441009965638
Option 1 ID : 4410093815795
Option 2 ID : 4410093815794
Option 3 ID : 4410093815792
Option 4 ID : 4410093815793

Q.6 Which of the following scientists is referred to as the 'Father of Modern Taxonomy'?
Ans 1. Jean-Henri Fabre

2. Edward O Wilson

3. Charles Darwin

4. Carl Linnaeus

Question ID : 441009651092
Option 1 ID : 4410092558627
Option 2 ID : 4410092558628
Option 3 ID : 4410092558626
Option 4 ID : 4410092558625

Q.7 Which of the following best explains the role of earthworm gut microflora in
vermicomposting?
Ans 1. It reduces nitrogen mineralisation.

2. It aids in enzymatic digestion and humification.

3. It accelerates the carbon mineralisation only.

4. It helps in pathogen proliferation.

Question ID : 441009989462
Option 1 ID : 4410093910104
Option 2 ID : 4410093910103
Option 3 ID : 4410093910101
Option 4 ID : 4410093910102

Q.8 The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/explant is called _______.
Ans 1. micro-propagation

2. somatic hybrid

3. totipotency

4. biofortification

Question ID : 441009968798
Option 1 ID : 4410093828345
Option 2 ID : 4410093828346
Option 3 ID : 4410093828347
Option 4 ID : 4410093828348
Q.9 What type of reproduction is primarily associated with fungi?
Ans 1. Binary fission

2. Fragmentation

3. Spore formation

4. Budding

Question ID : 441009650703
Option 1 ID : 4410092557071
Option 2 ID : 4410092557072
Option 3 ID : 4410092557069
Option 4 ID : 4410092557070

Q.10 Which of the following crop diseases is primarily soil-borne and infects the host through root
tips and wounds?
Ans 1. Wilt of pigeonpea (Fusarium udum)

2. Late blight of potato

3. Bacterial blight of rice

4. Powdery mildew of pea

Question ID : 441009989470
Option 1 ID : 4410093910135
Option 2 ID : 4410093910134
Option 3 ID : 4410093910136
Option 4 ID : 4410093910133

Q.11 Which type of blastula is found in reptiles, birds and fishes that have large yolky eggs?
Ans 1. Coenoblastula

2. Stereoblastula

3. Periblastula

4. Discoblastula

Question ID : 441009650889
Option 1 ID : 4410092557813
Option 2 ID : 4410092557816
Option 3 ID : 4410092557814
Option 4 ID : 4410092557815

Q.12 Which of the following is the parasitic fungus found on mustard?

.

Ans 1. Mucor

2. Puccinia

3. Albugo

4. Rhizopus

Question ID : 441009651285
Option 1 ID : 4410092559400
Option 2 ID : 4410092559398
Option 3 ID : 4410092559397
Option 4 ID : 4410092559399
Q.13 Sheet lac when dissolved in water, produces a white or orange-coloured lac called as:
Ans 1. kirri lac

2. seed lac

3. shellac

4. stick lac

Question ID : 441009650638
Option 1 ID : 4410092556811
Option 2 ID : 4410092556810
Option 3 ID : 4410092556812
Option 4 ID : 4410092556809

Q.14 What type of cleavage pattern is characteristic of deuterostomes?

Ans 1. Spiral cleavage

2. Holoblastic cleavage

3. Radial cleavage

4. Meroblastic cleavage

Question ID : 4410091007223
Option 1 ID : 4410093980497
Option 2 ID : 4410093980494
Option 3 ID : 4410093980496
Option 4 ID : 4410093980495

Q.15 Fire blight disease of apples and pears is caused by:

Ans 1. Pseudomonas rubi

2. Erwinia amylovora

3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

4. Clostridium aurantifolia

Question ID : 441009650679
Option 1 ID : 4410092556973
Option 2 ID : 4410092556976
Option 3 ID : 4410092556975
Option 4 ID : 4410092556974

Q.16 What is the primary symptom of bacterial leaf spot disease caused by Pseudomonas
syringae?
Ans 1. Abnormal growth patterns

2. Wilting of plants

3. Yellowing of leaves

4. Necrotic lesions on leaves

Question ID : 4410091007160
Option 1 ID : 4410093980245
Option 2 ID : 4410093980244
Option 3 ID : 4410093980242
Option 4 ID : 4410093980243
Q.17 Which of the following structures is derived from the outer epidermis?
Ans 1. Bone

2. Cornea

3. Heart

4. Lungs

Question ID : 441009966156
Option 1 ID : 4410093817835
Option 2 ID : 4410093817833
Option 3 ID : 4410093817832
Option 4 ID : 4410093817834

Q.18 Which of the following is the ‘human flea’ that attacks men, cats, dogs, rats and horses?
Ans 1. Celerio

2. Pulex irritans

3. Cicada

4. Drosophila

Question ID : 441009650648
Option 1 ID : 4410092556852
Option 2 ID : 4410092556849
Option 3 ID : 4410092556851
Option 4 ID : 4410092556850

Q.19 Which of the following diseases is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes?

Ans 1. Cancer

2. Chikungunya

3. Common cold

4. Malaria

Question ID : 441009951508
Option 1 ID : 4410093759420
Option 2 ID : 4410093759418
Option 3 ID : 4410093759419
Option 4 ID : 4410093759417

Q.20 Which of the following molecules is primarily involved in mediating cell adhesion during cell-
to-cell interactions?
Ans 1. Cadherins

2. Transcription factors

3. Kinases

4. Cytokines

Question ID : 441009650701
Option 1 ID : 4410092557062
Option 2 ID : 4410092557064
Option 3 ID : 4410092557063
Option 4 ID : 4410092557061

Section : Discipline9
Q.1 In ultracentrifugation, which of the following rotors is best suited for separating components
based on density gradient?
Ans 1. Horizontal rotor

2. Vertical rotor

3. Swinging bucket rotor

4. Fixed angle rotor

Question ID : 441009989718
Option 1 ID : 4410093911125
Option 2 ID : 4410093911124
Option 3 ID : 4410093911123
Option 4 ID : 4410093911122

Q.2 Which blood group is likely to trigger an immune reaction when transfused into an individual
with type A blood?
Ans 1. O-

2. B+

3. A-

4. O+

Question ID : 441009650849
Option 1 ID : 4410092557653
Option 2 ID : 4410092557655
Option 3 ID : 4410092557656
Option 4 ID : 4410092557654

Q.3 Which of the following describes the representation of normal distribution of random
variables in graphic form?
Ans 1. Normal probability dissociation curve

2. Normal probability distribution curve

3. Non-probability curve

4. Diffusion curve

Question ID : 441009966264
Option 1 ID : 4410093818265
Option 2 ID : 4410093818264
Option 3 ID : 4410093818267
Option 4 ID : 4410093818266

Q.4 How is the coefficient of variation (CV) calculated?

Ans 1. Range / Mean x 100

2. Mean / Standard Deviation x 100

3. Variance / Mean x 100

4. Standard Deviation / Mean x 100

Question ID : 4410091007337
Option 1 ID : 4410093981009
Option 2 ID : 4410093981007
Option 3 ID : 4410093981010
Option 4 ID : 4410093981008
Q.5 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the use of F-distribution?
Ans 1. F-test is used for testing the significance of an observed sample multiple correlation.

2. F-test is used to determine the variation within a set of data and to compare two sets
of data.
3. F-test is used for testing the linearity of regression.

4. F-test is used for testing the equality of several population means.

Question ID : 441009651233
Option 1 ID : 4410092559189
Option 2 ID : 4410092559192
Option 3 ID : 4410092559190
Option 4 ID : 4410092559191

Q.6 What does an elevated white blood cells in pleural fluid (pleocytosis) typically indicate?
Ans 1. Bacterial infection

2. Viral meningitis

3. Dehydration

4. Hypoxia

Question ID : 441009651003
Option 1 ID : 4410092558270
Option 2 ID : 4410092558269
Option 3 ID : 4410092558271
Option 4 ID : 4410092558272

Q.7 Which of the following is a spectroscopic technique, applied to the study of protein
secondary and tertiary structure?
Ans 1. UV/Visible spectroscopy

2. Fluorescence spectroscopy

3. Multidimensional nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy

4. Mass spectrometry

Question ID : 441009651295
Option 1 ID : 4410092559437
Option 2 ID : 4410092559440
Option 3 ID : 4410092559438
Option 4 ID : 4410092559439

Q.8 Which software package for phylogenetic analysis was created by Ziheng Yang and is a
collection of programs for phylogenetic inference of molecular sequences using maximum
likelihood?
Ans 1. PAUP

2. fastDNAml

3. Phylip

4. PAML

Question ID : 441009651224
Option 1 ID : 4410092559154
Option 2 ID : 4410092559156
Option 3 ID : 4410092559153
Option 4 ID : 4410092559155
Q.9 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding DNA microarrays?
Ans 1. A large number of nucleosides probes are immobilised at defined positions on the
solid surface, made up of either polyester or plastic.
2. The probes can be short DNA molecules such as cDNAs or synthetic oligo-nucleotides.

3. DNA microarrays are the fastest growing technology for DNA sequencing as a result of
the advances made in automation and miniaturisation.
4. For the preparation of high density arrays, oligonucleotides are synthesised in situ and
its results are interpreted in an oligonucleotide chip rather than a DNA chip.

Question ID : 441009651289
Option 1 ID : 4410092559414
Option 2 ID : 4410092559415
Option 3 ID : 4410092559413
Option 4 ID : 4410092559416

Q.10 Regarding an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) test, which statement is INCORRECT?
Ans 1. An ESR test alone diagnose what condition is causing the inflammation.

2. Faster ESR rates mean higher levels of inflammation.

3. The speed of a test result is a sign of how much inflammation is present.

4. If a person's ESR test shows that their red blood cells sink faster than normal, it may
mean that person has a medical condition causing inflammation.

Question ID : 441009651260
Option 1 ID : 4410092559300
Option 2 ID : 4410092559299
Option 3 ID : 4410092559298
Option 4 ID : 4410092559297

Q.11 Which of the following is NOT part of the PCR process?

Ans 1. Annealing

2. Transcription

3. Elongation

4. Denaturation

Question ID : 441009650856
Option 1 ID : 4410092557682
Option 2 ID : 4410092557684
Option 3 ID : 4410092557683
Option 4 ID : 4410092557681

Q.12 Which one of the following statements represents the advantage of graphical representation?
Ans 1. It does not show details or all the facts.

2. Graphical representation can reveal only the approximate position.

3. It shows the trend and tendency of values of the variable.

4. Only few characteristics can be depicted on a graph. However, in the case of many
figures, it is difficult to follow the graph.

Question ID : 441009651243
Option 1 ID : 4410092559229
Option 2 ID : 4410092559230
Option 3 ID : 4410092559231
Option 4 ID : 4410092559232
Q.13 In which of the following diseases are glucose biosensors widely used in clinical
applications?
Ans 1. Tetanus

2. Diabetes mellitus

3. Asthma

4. Tubeculosis

Question ID : 441009950444
Option 1 ID : 4410093755202
Option 2 ID : 4410093755204
Option 3 ID : 4410093755201
Option 4 ID : 4410093755203

Q.14 Which statement is INCORRECT regarding the secondary structure prediction with multiple
methods for globular proteins?
Ans 1. It is desirable to combine predictions from multiple programs with the hope of further
improving the accuracy.
2. In many cases, the consensus-based prediction method has been shown to perform
slightly better than any single method.
3. It measures the relative propensity of each amino acid belonging to a certain
secondary structure element.
4. In fact, a number of web servers have been specifically dedicated to making
predictions by drawing consensus from results by multiple programs.

Question ID : 441009651223
Option 1 ID : 4410092559149
Option 2 ID : 4410092559151
Option 3 ID : 4410092559152
Option 4 ID : 4410092559150

Q.15 In which type method for pathogen detection are generally two types of agar - one nutrient
agar with selective agents like antibiotics and the other with a chromogenic compound for
colour differentiation used?
Ans 1. PCR technology

2. Immunoassay on Lateral Flow Sheets

3. Conventional method with culture media

4. Enzyme technology on SimPlate

Question ID : 441009651245
Option 1 ID : 4410092559240
Option 2 ID : 4410092559238
Option 3 ID : 4410092559237
Option 4 ID : 4410092559239

Q.16 Which of the following statements is true for both scanning electron microscopy (SEM) and
transmission electron microscopy (TEM)?
Ans 1. Both require the sample to be coated in gold

2. Both can be used to observe living cells

3. Both provide 3D images

4. Both use a beam of electrons to visualize specimens

Question ID : 441009651012
Option 1 ID : 4410092558306
Option 2 ID : 4410092558308
Option 3 ID : 4410092558305
Option 4 ID : 4410092558307
Q.17 Which tool is commonly used for performing pairwise sequence alignment?
Ans 1. MUSCLE

2. ClustalW

3. MAFFT

4. BLAST

Question ID : 441009650841
Option 1 ID : 4410092557622
Option 2 ID : 4410092557623
Option 3 ID : 4410092557624
Option 4 ID : 4410092557621

Q.18 The results of a person's crossmatching test will help a doctor decide whether it is safe to
receive specific donor blood or organs for that person. If one's blood cells clump when mixed
with a donor sample, the donor blood or organ is incompatible with one's blood. Which of the
following statements is INCORRECT in relation to the clumping of blood cells?
Ans 1. Only anti-B antibodies, if one has type B blood.

2. Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, one has either type A blood or type B blood.

3. If one's blood cells do not clump when mixed with either anti-A or anti-B antibodies,
they have type O blood.
4. Only anti-A antibodies, if one has type A blood.

Question ID : 441009651257
Option 1 ID : 4410092559286
Option 2 ID : 4410092559287
Option 3 ID : 4410092559288
Option 4 ID : 4410092559285

Q.19 Which statement is correct in relation to peritoneal fluid?

Ans 1. Found in the space between the membranes that separate the chest and lungs

2. Found in the space between the membranes lining the belly

3. Found in the sac around the heart

4. Found in joints

Question ID : 441009651256
Option 1 ID : 4410092559283
Option 2 ID : 4410092559281
Option 3 ID : 4410092559282
Option 4 ID : 4410092559284

Q.20 If in a given series, we calculate the deviation of each point from the arithmetic mean, then
the arithmetic mean of the squares of these deviations is known as ___________.
Ans 1. mode

2. median

3. mean

4. variance

Question ID : 441009964578
Option 1 ID : 4410093811620
Option 2 ID : 4410093811621
Option 3 ID : 4410093811619
Option 4 ID : 4410093811618

Section : Teaching Methodology

Q.1 _________ is the branch of philosophy that explores the nature of art, creation and expression
of beauty in various forms of art.
Ans 1. Aesthetics

2. Morphology

3. Entemology

4. Epistemology

Question ID : 441009918929
Option 1 ID : 4410093629724
Option 2 ID : 4410093629727
Option 3 ID : 4410093629726
Option 4 ID : 4410093629725

Q.2 Individuals or communities affected by _______ are prevented from fully participating in the
social, economic and political aspects of the society they live in.
Ans 1. assimilation

2. accommodation

3. social exclusion

4. social inclusion

Question ID : 441009993589
Option 1 ID : 4410093926450
Option 2 ID : 4410093926451
Option 3 ID : 4410093926449
Option 4 ID : 4410093926448

Q.3 Which of the following terms refers to designing lesson goals for classroom use?
Ans 1. ​Instructional planning

2. Budgeting

3. Administration

4. Supervision

Question ID : 441009924099
Option 1 ID : 4410093650541
Option 2 ID : 4410093650543
Option 3 ID : 4410093650540
Option 4 ID : 4410093650542

Q.4 Writing and speaking are manifestations of:

Ans 1. physical effort

2. emotions

3. memory

4. thinking

Question ID : 441009904208
Option 1 ID : 4410093570695
Option 2 ID : 4410093570693
Option 3 ID : 4410093570696
Option 4 ID : 4410093570694
Q.5 What is the common sequence of puberty in girls?
Ans 1. Beard growth, voice deepening, height increase

2. Weight gain, breast enlargement, pubic hair

3. Decrease in height, pubic hair, menstruation

4. Weight loss, breast shrinkage, hair loss

Question ID : 441009924166
Option 1 ID : 4410093650827
Option 2 ID : 4410093650825
Option 3 ID : 4410093650826
Option 4 ID : 4410093650824

Q.6 Which theorist is known for the concept of "zone of proximal development"?
Ans 1. Jean Piaget

2. Lev Vygotsky

3. Albert Bandura

4. B.F. Skinner

Question ID : 441009654462
Option 1 ID : 4410092572142
Option 2 ID : 4410092572143
Option 3 ID : 4410092572145
Option 4 ID : 4410092572144

Q.7 Which of the following statements is most aligned with the concept of a discipline?
Ans 1. It ignores relationships.

2. It’s a structured, logical field of knowledge.

3. It discourages conceptual thinking.

4. It’s completely random.

Question ID : 441009905049
Option 1 ID : 4410093574061
Option 2 ID : 4410093574060
Option 3 ID : 4410093574062
Option 4 ID : 4410093574059

Q.8 In humanistic learning theory, which of the following is considered the primary driver of
learning?
Ans 1. Memorisation techniques

2. Environmental conditioning

3. Intrinsic motivation

4. External rewards

Question ID : 441009902468
Option 1 ID : 4410093563759
Option 2 ID : 4410093563760
Option 3 ID : 4410093563761
Option 4 ID : 4410093563758
Q.9 Work experience is emphasised under which principle?
Ans 1. Forward looking

2. Individual differences

3. Community-centredness

4. Utility

Question ID : 441009924116
Option 1 ID : 4410093650610
Option 2 ID : 4410093650611
Option 3 ID : 4410093650609
Option 4 ID : 4410093650608

Q.10 What is the first sign of puberty in boys?

Ans 1. Increase in weight and height

2. Voice cracking

3. Nocturnal discharge

4. Facial hair

Question ID : 441009924172
Option 1 ID : 4410093650850
Option 2 ID : 4410093650848
Option 3 ID : 4410093650851
Option 4 ID : 4410093650849

Q.11 What is gender inequality?

Ans 1. Biological sex assigned at birth.

2. How individuals perceive themselves and present themselves to others.

3. Unequal treatment or opportunities based on gender.

4. Physical appearance and behavior.

Question ID : 441009654441
Option 1 ID : 4410092572059
Option 2 ID : 4410092572060
Option 3 ID : 4410092572061
Option 4 ID : 4410092572058

Q.12 What does the principle of flexibility emphasise?

Ans 1. Adjustability to student needs

2. Strict routines

3. Fixed schedules

4. Standardised testing

Question ID : 441009924112
Option 1 ID : 4410093650594
Option 2 ID : 4410093650595
Option 3 ID : 4410093650593
Option 4 ID : 4410093650592
Q.13 According to Connectivism, which of the following is crucial for learning in the digital age?
Ans 1. Teacher-centred instruction

2. Rote memorisation technique

3. Ability to find information

4. Rigid and closed mindset

Question ID : 441009902510
Option 1 ID : 4410093563847
Option 2 ID : 4410093563848
Option 3 ID : 4410093563846
Option 4 ID : 4410093563849

Q.14 Diagnostic assessment is used to:

Ans 1. Certify learning improvement

2. Test handwriting speed

3. Intervene with remedy

4. Rank students

Question ID : 441009924602
Option 1 ID : 4410093652551
Option 2 ID : 4410093652550
Option 3 ID : 4410093652549
Option 4 ID : 4410093652548

Q.15 What is a common characteristic of gender roles?

Ans 1. They are flexible across societies.

2. They are biologically fixed.

3. They never change.

4. They are based solely on ability.

Question ID : 441009922847
Option 1 ID : 4410093645533
Option 2 ID : 4410093645536
Option 3 ID : 4410093645535
Option 4 ID : 4410093645534

Q.16 The concept of 'Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)' is associated with which theorist?
Ans 1. BF Skinner

2. John Dewey

3. Jean Piaget

4. Lev Vygotsky

Question ID : 441009902403
Option 1 ID : 4410093563576
Option 2 ID : 4410093563577
Option 3 ID : 4410093563575
Option 4 ID : 4410093563574
Q.17 Which of the following is NOT a part of instructional planning?
Ans 1. Setting educational goals

2. Grouping students

3. ​Marking attendance

4. Designing learning activities

Question ID : 441009924101
Option 1 ID : 4410093650549
Option 2 ID : 4410093650548
Option 3 ID : 4410093650550
Option 4 ID : 4410093650551

Q.18 When the performance of an Examinee is compared to that of other people it refers
to_______________
Ans 1. Annual Examination

2. Criterion-referenced scores

3. Norm-referenced scores

4. Mid-Term Examination

Question ID : 441009655573
Option 1 ID : 4410092576583
Option 2 ID : 4410092576582
Option 3 ID : 4410092576581
Option 4 ID : 4410092576584

Q.19 What is used to validate knowledge within a discipline?

Ans 1. A set of rules

2. Group consensus

3. ​Personal beliefs

4. Historical events

Question ID : 441009905063
Option 1 ID : 4410093574119
Option 2 ID : 4410093574120
Option 3 ID : 4410093574117
Option 4 ID : 4410093574118

Q.20 According to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), children with disabilities
should be educated in the:
Ans 1. Least restrictive environment possible

2. Least diverse environment possible

3. Most restrictive environment possible

4. Most challenging environment possible

Question ID : 441009654417
Option 1 ID : 4410092571964
Option 2 ID : 4410092571965
Option 3 ID : 4410092571962
Option 4 ID : 4410092571963