MEGEDUCATIONS.

COM
Assistant Inspector of Excise under the Commissioner of Excise 2025 advt 2024

PART—A : GENERAL ENGLISH (Marks : 100)

Each question carries 2 marks
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) : Read the following passage and answer the questions by selecting the
answer choice from the alternatives given. Mark the correct answer in your answer sheet.
Have you ever failed at something so miserably that the thought of attempting to do it again was the
last thing on your mind? If your answer is yes, then you should understand that you are not a robot.
Unlike robots, we human beings have feelings, emotions, and dreams. We are all meant to grow
despite our circumstances and limitations. Flourishing and trying to make our dreams come true feels
great when life goes our way. But what happens when it does not? What happens when you fail
despite all your hard work? Do you stay down and accept defeat or do you get up again? If you tend to
persevere and keep going, you have what experts call 'grit'.
Falling down or failing is one of the most agonizing, embarrassing, and scary human experiences. But
it is also one of the most educational, empowering, and essential parts of living a successful and
fulfilling life. Did you know that perseverance (grit) is one of the seven qualities that has been
described as the key to personal success and betterment in society? The other six are curiosity,
gratitude, optimism, self-control, social intelligence, and zest. Thomas Edison is an example of grit
for trying more than 1000 times to invent the light bulb. If you are reading this with the lights on in
your room, you will realize the importance of his success. When asked why he kept going despite
hundreds of failures, he merely stated that they had not been failures, they were hundreds of attempts
towards creating the light bulb. This statement not only revealed his grit but also his optimism for
looking at the bright side.
Grit can be learnt to help you become more successful. One of the techniques that helps is
mindfulness. Mindfulness is a practice that makes an individual stay at the moment by bringing
awareness of his or her experience without judgement. This practice has been used to quieten the
noise of fears and doubts. Through this simple practice of mindfulness, individuals have the ability to
stop the self-sabotaging downward spiral of hopelessness, despair, and frustration.
1. The reason, why you are not a robot, is that
(A) you fail miserably at tasks
(B) failure and success can affect your emotions
(C) you work hard
(D) you have limitations
Correct Answer: (B) failure and success can affect your emotions
Explanation: The passage highlights that, unlike robots, human beings possess feelings, emotions,
and dreams. These attributes mean that our experiences of failure and success deeply impact our
emotional state, distinguishing us from machines that lack such emotional responses.

2. To develop perseverance, one must

(A) become more aware
(B) work hard
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(C) be in the moment and be aware without judgement
(D) seek guidance
Correct Answer: (C) be in the moment and be aware without judgement
Explanation: The passage mentions mindfulness as a technique to cultivate perseverance (grit).
Mindfulness involves staying present and bringing awareness to one's experiences without judgment,
which helps individuals manage fears and doubts, thereby enhancing their perseverance.

3. What do you understand from the following line?

"Falling down or failing is one of the most agonizing, embarrassing, and scary human experiences."
(A) Falling down makes us angry
(B) Failure can deeply affect our emotions
(C) Stay positive and be optimistic
(D) Self-control is empowering
Correct Answer: (B) Failure can deeply affect our emotions
Explanation: The passage clearly states that failure can be one of the most emotionally impactful
experiences, describing it as "agonizing, embarrassing, and scary." This aligns with option (B), which
emphasizes the emotional toll failure can have. For instance, failing an important exam or losing a
competition often triggers feelings of frustration, sadness, or regret.

4. How does mindfulness help?

(A) It creates awareness
(B) It quietens the noise of fears and doubts
(C) It helps one become successful
(D) It helps develop focus
Correct Answer: (B) It quietens the noise of fears and doubts
Explanation: The passage highlights that mindfulness is a technique that helps individuals stay
present and aware without judgment. This practice is specifically mentioned as a way to reduce self-
sabotaging thoughts, fears, and doubts. For example, someone practicing mindfulness might focus on
their breathing to calm anxiety before a stressful presentation.

5. What is the message conveyed in the last paragraph of the passage?

(A) Always aim for the best
(B) Live life king size
(C) Through mindfulness we can overcome the negative impact of failure
(D) Social intelligence is crucial for a successful life
Correct Answer: (C) Through mindfulness we can overcome the negative impact of failure
Explanation: The passage's final paragraph emphasizes mindfulness as a key method for overcoming
negative and self-sabotaging feelings tied to failure. For instance, someone who repeatedly faces
rejection in job applications might use mindfulness to stay calm and motivated without giving in to
frustration or hopelessness.
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Direction (6-10): For the given idioms, choose the best alternative which expresses the closest
meaning of the idiom. Mark the correct in your answer sheet.
6. Keep at bay
(A) keep at a distance
(B) keep at the seashore
(C) keep in mind
(D) keep thinking about something
Correct Answer: (A) keep at a distance
Explanation: The idiom "keep at bay" means to maintain a safe distance from something harmful or
undesirable. For example, exercising regularly and eating healthy helps keep illnesses at bay.

7. A man of straw
(A) a man with no means
(B) a generous man
(C) a man of character
(D) a man of no substance
Correct Answer: (D) a man of no substance
Explanation: "A man of straw" refers to someone who lacks real influence, strength, or credibility.
For example, in politics, a "man of straw" may appear powerful but actually holds no real authority.

8. Pull your socks up

(A) to get ready
(B) to improve
(C) to start
(D) to finish
Correct Answer: (B) to improve
Explanation: The idiom "pull your socks up" means to make an effort to improve your performance
or behavior. For example, a student might be told to "pull your socks up" after receiving poor grades
in order to improve academically.

9. Cap it all
(A) to cover everything
(B) to seize everything
(C) to finish
(D) to occur
Correct Answer: (C) to finish
Explanation: "Cap it all" refers to concluding or finishing something, often after a series of events.
For instance, "He struggled all day at work, and to cap it all, his car broke down on the way home."

10. Spick and span

(A) spotlessly clean
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(B) watch the weather
(C) to be wise
(D) deceive somebody
Correct Answer: (A) spotlessly clean
Explanation: The phrase "spick and span" refers to something that is extremely clean and tidy. For
example, a freshly cleaned kitchen or a newly renovated room might be described as "spick and span."

Direction (11-15): In the following questions, substitute each with a single word from among the
given alternatives. Mark the correct answer sheet
11. A place to bury dead bodies (A) Catacomb
(B) Crypt
(C) Cemetery
(D) Sepulcher
Correct Answer: (C) Cemetery
Explanation: A cemetery is a designated ground for the burial of dead bodies, commonly organized
and maintained for public use. While 'Catacomb' and 'Crypt' refer to underground chambers, and
'Sepulcher' is a specific type of burial tomb, 'Cemetery' is the most common term for a public burial
ground. For example, Arlington National Cemetery is a famous burial site for American soldiers.

12. A person who studies stars, planets and other heavenly bodies
(A) Astrologer
(B) Raconteur
(C) Flounder
(D) Astronomer
Correct Answer: (D) Astronomer
Explanation: An astronomer is a scientist who studies celestial objects, space, and the universe.
'Astrologer' predicts events based on star positions, 'Raconteur' is a storyteller, and 'Flounder' means
to struggle clumsily. For instance, Galileo Galilei was a famous astronomer known for advancing the
heliocentric theory.

13. A handwriting which cannot be easily read

(A) Illegible
(B) Lucid
(C) Legible
(D) Edible
Correct Answer: (A) Illegible
Explanation: 'Illegible' refers to handwriting that is difficult or impossible to read. 'Lucid' means
clear, 'Legible' means easily readable, and 'Edible' refers to food fit for consumption. For example, a
doctor’s rushed prescription notes are often considered illegible.

14. Place where birds are kept

(A) Zoo
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(B) Apiary
(C) Armory
(D) Aviary
Correct Answer: (D) Aviary
Explanation: An aviary is a large enclosure for keeping birds in a controlled environment. 'Zoo' is a
general place for animals, 'Apiary' is for bees, and 'Armory' is a place for weapons. For instance, large
wildlife parks often have dedicated aviaries for exotic birds.

15. One who is unable to read or write

(A) Genius
(B) Illiterate
(C) Palisade
(D) Pulverize
Correct Answer: (B) Illiterate
Explanation: 'Illiterate' refers to a person who cannot read or write. 'Genius' refers to someone highly
intelligent, 'Palisade' is a defensive fence, and 'Pulverize' means to crush into small pieces. For
example, literacy programs focus on educating illiterate adults.

Direction (16-20): In the following questions, choose a word that is opposite the given
alternatives. Mark the correct answer in your answer sheet.
16. Demise
(A) Death
(B) Distance
(C) Birth
(D) Short
Correct Answer: (C) Birth
Explanation: 'Demise' refers to death or the end of something, and its opposite is 'Birth,' which
signifies the beginning of life. 'Distance' and 'Short' are unrelated terms. For instance, the demise of a
great leader may mark the birth of new leadership ideas.

17. Prohibit
(A) Allow
(B) Outlaw
(C) Failure
(D) Achievement
Correct Answer: (A) Allow
Explanation: 'Prohibit' means to forbid or restrict, while 'Allow' means to permit. 'Outlaw' refers to
declaring something illegal, 'Failure' is the lack of success, and 'Achievement' is accomplishing a goal.
For instance, smoking is prohibited in hospitals, but patients are allowed to have visitors.

18. Timid
(A) Tired
(B) Brave
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(C) Gentle
(D) Snicker
Correct Answer: (B) Brave
Explanation: 'Timid' refers to someone who is shy or fearful, while 'Brave' refers to courage in facing
fear. 'Tired' refers to exhaustion, 'Gentle' means kind, and 'Snicker' is a soft laugh. For instance, a
timid student may hesitate to ask questions, while a brave one confidently speaks up.

19. Modern
(A) Updated
(B) Recent
(C) Latest
(D) Ancient
Correct Answer: (D) Ancient
Explanation: 'Modern' refers to current trends or ideas, while 'Ancient' relates to old or historical
times, making it the correct opposite. 'Updated,' 'Recent,' and 'Latest' are synonyms of modern. For
example, smartphones are a modern invention, while the wheel is an ancient discovery.

20. Amicable
(A) Hostile
(B) Unfriendly
(C) Haughty
(D) Unpleasant
Correct Answer: (A) Hostile
Explanation: 'Amicable' refers to being friendly and cooperative, while 'Hostile' means aggressive or
unfriendly, making it the correct opposite. 'Unfriendly,' 'Haughty' (arrogant), and 'Unpleasant' are
related but not as precise.
For instance, two neighbours maintaining an amicable relationship avoid hostile confrontations

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25): In the following questions, choose a word that is most similar in
meaning to the given word(s) from among the given alternatives. Mark the correct answer in
your answer sheet.
21. Massive
(A) Strong
(B) Little
(C) Gaping
(D) Huge
Correct Answer: (D) Huge
Explanation:
The word "massive" refers to something that is very large, substantial, or enormous in size or extent.
The closest synonym among the options provided is "huge". For example:
• The ship was massive in size, towering over other vessels.
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Options like "Strong" refers to power or force, "Little" means small in size, and "Gaping" refers to
something wide open, making them incorrect.

22. Stumbling block

(A) Argument
(B) Frustration
(C) Hurdle
(D) Advantage
Correct Answer: (C) Hurdle
Explanation:
A "stumbling block" is a metaphor for an obstacle or difficulty that hinders progress. The best
synonym here is "hurdle". For example:
• Lack of funding proved to be a major stumbling block in completing the project.
Options like "Argument" refers to a disagreement, "Frustration" is an emotional response, and
"Advantage" is the opposite of a stumbling block.

23. Gratify
(A) Appreciate
(B) Indulge
(C) Frank
(D) Pacify
Correct Answer: (B) Indulge
Explanation:
To "gratify" means to give pleasure or satisfy someone’s desires. "Indulge" closely matches this
meaning, as it means to yield to someone's wishes or enjoy pleasures. For example:
• She gratified her sweet tooth by indulging in some chocolate cake.
Appreciate means to recognize value, Frank means open and honest, and Pacify refers to calming
someone, none of which match the meaning of gratify.

24. Comprise
(A) Prescribe
(B) Lack
(C) Include
(D) Provide
Correct Answer: (C) Include
Explanation:
The word "comprise" means to consist of or include various elements. "Include" is the most
appropriate synonym. For example:
• The package comprises three books and a notebook.
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Prescribe means to recommend a course of action, Lack means to be without, and Provide means to
supply something, making these options incorrect.

25. Stupid
(A) Dull
(B) Rude
(C) Illiterate
(D) Obstinate
Correct Answer: (A) Dull
Explanation:
The word "stupid" refers to someone lacking intelligence or common sense. Among the given options,
"dull" is the closest synonym. For example:
• The lecture was so dull that most of the audience fell asleep.
Rude refers to impoliteness, Illiterate refers to someone unable to read or write, and Obstinate means
stubborn, making these options unrelated.

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30): In the following questions, some sentences have errors and some do
not. The underlined words are the key words where you can identify whether the sentence is
erroneous or not. From the given set of choices, choose the correct alternative for the identified
errors. Where there is no error, choose the specified option (D). Mark the correct answer in your
answer sheet.
26. The white chairs in the sitting room is made of teak.
(A) have
(B) had
(C) are
(D) No error
Correct Answer: (C) are
Explanation:
The subject "chairs" is plural, so the correct verb should be "are".
• Correct sentence: The white chairs in the sitting room are made of teak.
Using "is" incorrectly suggests the subject is singular.

27. He was asking my opinion for the film.

(A) opinion in
(B) opinion about
(C) opinion with
(D) No error
Correct Answer: (B) opinion about
Explanation:
The correct phrase is "opinion about" when referring to someone's thoughts on a subject.
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• Correct sentence: He was asking my opinion about the film.
Phrases like "opinion for" or "opinion with" are grammatically incorrect in this context.

28. He has the guts to rise from the occasion.

(A) rise for
(B) rise to
(C) rise at
(D) No error
Correct Answer: (B) rise to
Explanation:
The correct idiom is "rise to the occasion", meaning to successfully deal with a difficult situation.
• Correct sentence: He has the guts to rise to the occasion.
Rise from, rise for, and rise at are incorrect in this context.

29. Robert wished he was rich enough to travel the world.

(A) he is
(B) he will be
(C) to be
(D) No error
Correct Answer: (D) No error
Explanation:
In hypothetical or wishful statements, "he was" is grammatically acceptable in informal English.
• Example: I wish I was taller.
Although some may argue for "he were" in formal writing, "he was" is still acceptable in this context.

30. People are wanting to see the home team win the game.
(A) want
(B) feel
(C) thought
(D) No error
Correct Answer: (A) want
Explanation:
The verb "are wanting" is incorrect because "want" is a stative verb, which describes a state
rather than an action and is not normally used in continuous forms. The correct sentence should
be:
"People want to see the home team win the game."
For example:
I am wanting a new phone. (Incorrect)
I want a new phone. (Correct)
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Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35): In the following questions, the sentences have blank spaces followed
by four alternative answers. Choose the correct alternative from the given choices. Mark the
correct answer in your answer sheet.
31. The teacher said disappointedly, "There is _____ in my class who can solve this problem".
(A) anybody
(B) somebody
(C) everybody
(D) nobody
Correct Answer: (D) Nobody
Explanation:
The sentence begins with "The teacher said disappointedly..." which implies a negative tone,
suggesting that the teacher is unhappy because no one is capable of solving the problem. The word
"nobody" best fits this context as it aligns with the feeling of disappointment.
Example:
• "There is nobody in the office who can fix this issue." — This emphasizes the lack of qualified
individuals.
• "There is somebody in the office who can fix this issue." — This conveys a positive statement,
which contradicts the teacher's disappointment.

32. Yesterday, it _____ raining so heavily.

(A) was
(B) as
(C) is
(D) had
Correct Answer: (A) was
Explanation:
The correct answer is "was" because the sentence refers to a past event that happened
yesterday. The past continuous tense structure is formed by "was" + verb-ing.
For example:
Yesterday, it was raining heavily when I arrived.
Yesterday, it is raining heavily. (Incorrect tense)

33. The Mayor said that it _____ him great pleasure to be there that evening.
(A) gives
(B) gave
(C) was giving
(D) give
Correct Answer: (B) gave
Explanation:
The correct answer is "gave" because the sentence is reported speech, and the past simple tense
should follow the reporting verb "said".
For example:
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He said that it gave him great joy to participate.
He said that it gives him great joy to participate. (Incorrect tense)

34. The house _____ I was born belongs to my grandparents.

(A) in
(B) which
(C) where
(D) when
Correct Answer: (C) where
Explanation:
The correct word is "where" because "where" refers to a location. Since the sentence indicates
the place of birth, "where" is the most suitable choice.
For example:
This is the city where I was born.
This is the city which I was born. (Incorrect usage)

35. She took it _____ of her bag.

(A) from
(B) out
(C) away
(D) in
Correct Answer: (B) out
Explanation:
The correct answer is "out" because the phrasal verb "took out" means to remove something
from inside a container.
For example:
She took it out of her pocket.
She took it away of her pocket. (Incorrect usage)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40): In the following questions, a sentence is given in Direct/Indirect
speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, choose the one which best expresses the same
sentence in Indirect/Direct speech. Mark the correct answer in your answer sheet.
36. I said to him, "Why are you working so hard?"
(A) I asked him why he was working so hard.
(B) I asked him why was he working so hard.
(C) I asked him why had he been working so hard.
(D) I asked him why he had been working so hard.
Correct Answer: (A) I asked him why he was working so hard.
Explanation:
In reported speech, a present continuous tense like "are working" changes to "was working" in
the past continuous tense. The sentence structure should also follow the proper order:
I asked him why he was working so hard.
I asked him why was he working so hard. (Incorrect word order)
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37. "You can't bathe in the sea", he said to me, "It's very rough."
(A) He said that I can't bathe in this sea because it's very rough.
(B) He said that you couldn't bathe in the sea if it was very rough.
(C) He said that I couldn't bathe in that sea as it was very rough.
(D) He said that you can't bathe in this sea since it was very rough.
Correct Answer: (C) He said that I couldn't bathe in that sea as it was very rough.
Explanation:
In indirect speech, present tense verbs are converted into past tense. "Can't" changes to "couldn't" and
"this" changes to "that" for proper reference. Additionally, "as it was very rough" correctly conveys
the reason.
Example:
Direct Speech: "You can't eat this cake," she said.
Indirect Speech: She said that I couldn't eat that cake.

38. She exclaimed with sorrow that it is a miserable plight.

(A) She said with sorrow, "What a pity it is."
(B) She said, "What a mystery it is."
(C) She said, "What a miserable sight it is."
(D) She said, "What a miserable plight it is."
Correct Answer: (D) She said, "What a miserable plight it is."
Explanation:
The given statement in direct speech is an exclamation of sorrow, and the most appropriate
transformation of "miserable plight" matches option (D) exactly.
Example:
Direct Speech: "What a tragedy this is!" she exclaimed.
Indirect Speech: She exclaimed that it was a tragedy.

39. He said, "I saw a book here."

(A) He said that he saw a book here.
(B) He said that he saw a book there.
(C) He said that he had seen a book here.
(D) He said that he had seen a book there.
Correct Answer: (D) He said that he had seen a book there.
Explanation:
In indirect speech, "saw" (past tense) becomes "had seen" (past perfect), and "here" changes to "there"
to align with the speaker's reference shift.
Example:
Direct Speech: "I saw my keys here."
Indirect Speech: He said that he had seen his keys there.

40. The father warned his son that he should beware of him.
(A) The father warned his son, "Beware of him!"
(B) The father warned his son, "Watch that chap!"
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(C) The father warned his son, "Be careful about him."
(D) The father warned his son, "Don't fall into the trap."
Correct Answer: (A) The father warned his son, "Beware of him!"
Explanation:
The phrase "beware of him" is directly conveyed through option (A), which mirrors the original
warning precisely. The other options alter the intent or introduce new meanings.
Example:
Direct Speech: "Be careful of that dog!"
Indirect Speech: He warned me to beware of that dog.

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45): In the given questions, there are jumbled up sentence parts.
Rearrange these parts, which are labelled (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) to produce the correct
sentence. Choose the correct sequence from the given set of alternatives. Mark the correct
answer in your answer sheet.
41. children / the / were / the animals / fascinated by
(A) (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(B) (c), (b), (a), (e), (d)
(C) (e), (d), (c), (b), (a)
(D) (d), (c), (e), (b), (a)
Correct Answer: (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
Explanation:
The correct sentence should read: "The children were fascinated by the animals." The given order
correctly follows the logical sequence of subject, verb, and objects.
Example:
Jumbled Parts: "The / students / were / fascinated by / the teacher."
Correct Sentence: "The students were fascinated by the teacher."

42. plays an / upbringing / important / personal progress / role in

(a) / (b) / (c) / (d) / (e)
(A) (e), (b), (a), (c), (d)
(B) (b), (d), (a), (c), (e)
(C) (d), (a), (c), (e), (b)
(D) (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
Correct Answer: (D) (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
Explanation: The correct order should be: "Upbringing plays an important role in personal
progress." This sentence structure follows the standard English sentence pattern where the
subject is followed by the verb, and then the object or complement.

43. an / him popular / made / unexpected / victory

(a) / (b) / (c) / (d) / (e)
(A) (a), (e), (c), (b), (d)
(B) (a), (d), (e), (c), (b)
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(C) (c), (b), (a), (d), (e)
(D) (d), (c), (b), (a), (e)
Correct Answer: (a), (d), (e), (c), (b)
Explanation: The correct sequence forms the sentence: "An unexpected victory made him
popular." This follows the correct subject-verb-object pattern, ensuring clarity and proper
grammatical structure.

44. the coastline / the rugged / they / beauty of / admired

(a) / (b) / (c) / (d) / (e)
(A) (c), (e), (b), (d), (a)
(B) (a), (c), (e), (b), (d)
(C) (c), (a), (e), (b), (d)
(D) (d), (c), (b), (a), (e)
Correct Answer: (A) (c), (e), (b), (d), (a)
Explanation: The correct order is: " They admired the rugged beauty of the coastline." This
structure places the object (coastline) first and follows with descriptive and qualifying elements.

45. free time / with / little / left her / her job

(a) / (b) / (c) / (d) / (e)
(A) (a), (d), (e), (b), (c)
(B) (d), (a), (b), (c), (e)
(C) (e), (d), (b), (c), (a)
(D) (d), (a), (c), (b), (e)
Correct Answer: (C) (e), (d), (b), (c), (a)
Explanation:
To form a natural and grammatically correct sentence:
1. Subject: "Her job" (d)
2. Verb: "left" (a)
3. Detail about the result: "her" (b)
4. Descriptor (amount): "little" (c)
5. Preposition + Object: "with free time" (e)
Correct Sentence:
"Her job left her with little free time."
This version maintains proper grammar while sounding natural and fluent.
Final Answer: (D)
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Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50): In the following cloze passage, there are blank spaces which are
numbered. Against each number, choose the most appropriate choice in meaning from the set of
given alternatives. Mark the correct answer in your answer sheet.
Childhood is a time when there are few responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child has good
parents, he is fed, looked 46 and loved, whatever he may do. It is improbable that he will ever
again in his life be given so much without having to do anything in return. In addition, life is
always 47 new things to the child. A child finds 48 in playing in the rain or in the snow. His first
visit to the seaside is a marvellous adventure. But a child has his pains; he is not so free to do as
he wishes; he is continually being 49 not to do things or is being 50. His life is therefore not
perfectly happy.
46. If a child has good parents, he is fed, looked (46) and loved, whatever he may do.
(A) after
(B) at
(C) up
(D) around
Correct Answer: (A) after
Explanation: The correct phrase is "looked after," which means to take care of someone. For
example, "Parents look after their children."

47. In addition, life is always (47) new things to the child.

(A) donating
(B) displaying
(C) granting
(D) presenting
Correct Answer: (D) presenting
Explanation: "Presenting" is the correct word because life introduces or shows new experiences
to a child. For instance, "Life presents new opportunities every day."

48. A child finds (48) in playing in the rain or in the snow.

(A) pain
(B) progress
(C) pleasure
(D) pressure
Correct Answer: (C) pleasure
Explanation: "Pleasure" is the appropriate word here because children generally enjoy
activities like playing in the rain or snow. For example, "He found great pleasure in playing
soccer."

49. He is continually being (49) not to do things or is being 50.

(A) ordered
(B) told
(C) forbidden
(D) restricted
Correct Answer: (B) told
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Explanation: The correct word "told" fits best in the context where children are frequently
instructed or advised on their actions. For example, "He was told not to touch the stove."

50. He is continually being (49) not to do things or is being 50. His life is therefore not perfectly
happy.
(A) beaten
(B) penalized
(C) disturbed
(D) punished
Correct Answer: (D) punished
Explanation: "Punished" fits well in the context where the child faces consequences for their actions.
For example, "He was punished for breaking the rules."
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
PART – B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND APTITUDE
( Marks : 100 )
Each question carries 2 marks
51. Which is the highest civilian award of India?
(A) Vir Chakra
(B) Bharat Bhushan
(C) Padma Shri
(D) Bharat Ratna
Correct Answer: (D) Bharat Ratna
Explanation:
The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award in India. It was established in 1954 and is awarded
in recognition of exceptional service in fields such as art, literature, science, and public service.
Notably, it can be awarded posthumously and has no formal limit on the number of recipients per
year.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Vir Chakra: This is a military gallantry award, not a civilian honor. It is awarded for
acts of bravery in the battlefield.
• (B) Bharat Bhushan: No such award exists. Likely confused with Bharat Ratna or actor
Bharat Bhushan.
• (C) Padma Shri: While prestigious, it is the fourth highest civilian award in India, ranking
below the Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan, and Bharat Ratna.

52. Who among the following decides whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(A) The President
(B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(D) The Finance Minister
Correct Answer: (B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
According to Article 110(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the final
authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not.
A Money Bill is defined as one that deals exclusively with matters such as:
• Taxation
• Borrowing of money
• Consolidated Fund of India
• Payment of debts
• Custody of public money
The Speaker's decision in this regard is final and cannot be challenged in any court or questioned
even by the Rajya Sabha or President.
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM

53. The full form of LED is

(A) Light Enhancing Diode
(B) Light Enhancing Device
(C) Light Emitting Diode
(D) Light Emitting Device
Correct Answer: (C) Light Emitting Diode
Explanation:
LED stands for Light Emitting Diode. It is a semiconductor device that emits light when an electric
current passes through it. LEDs are highly efficient, durable, and widely used in various applications
such as:
• Display screens
• Indicator lights
• Household lighting
• Automobile lighting
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Light Enhancing Diode: This term is incorrect; no such technical term exists.
• (B) Light Enhancing Device: While LEDs can enhance lighting in some contexts, this is not
the correct full form.
• (D) Light Emitting Device: Although this sounds reasonable, it's not the standard term used
in electronics.
Final Answer: (C) Light Emitting Diode

54. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the places in terms of
sunrise time?
(A) Aizawl-Agartala-Imphal-Itanagar
(B) Imphal-Itanagar-Aizawl-Agartala
(C) Itanagar-Aizawl-Agartala-Imphal
(D) Agartala-Imphal-Itanagar-Aizawl
Correct Answer: (B) Imphal-Itanagar-Aizawl-Agartala.
Explanation:
• Sunrise and Longitude:
The sun rises in the east and sets in the west. Therefore, the place with the easternmost longitude will
see the sunrise first.
• Location of the Cities:
• Imphal (Manipur): Sunrise is around 5:06 AM.
• Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh): Sunrise is around 5:07 AM.
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
• Aizawl (Mizoram): Sunrise is around 5:12 AM.
• Agartala (Tripura): Sunrise is around 5:18 AM.

55. Which one of the following is called dry ice?

(A) Liquid carbon dioxide
(B) Solid carbon dioxide
(C) Liquid nitrogen
(D) Solid nitrogen
Correct Answer: (B) Solid carbon dioxide
Explanation:
Dry ice is the common name for solid carbon dioxide (CO₂). It is called "dry" because it sublimates
directly from a solid to a gas without passing through a liquid phase under normal atmospheric
conditions.
Key Properties of Dry Ice:
• Extremely cold (−78.5°C or −109.3°F)
• Commonly used in preserving perishable items, creating fog effects, and industrial
cleaning.
• Unlike regular ice, it does not leave behind any liquid residue, hence the term "dry" ice.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Liquid carbon dioxide: Exists only under high pressure and is not the same as dry ice.
• (C) Liquid nitrogen: Extremely cold but remains a liquid, not a solid like dry ice.
• (D) Solid nitrogen: Exists only under extremely low temperatures and is not commonly used
like dry ice.
Final Answer: (B) Solid carbon dioxide

56. Which one of the following is a water-borne disease?

(A) Jaundice
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Rabies
(D) Arthritis
Correct Answer: (A) Jaundice
Explanation:
Jaundice itself is a symptom rather than a disease, but it is commonly associated with hepatitis A,
which is a water-borne infection caused by consuming contaminated water or food. This condition
affects the liver and leads to yellowing of the skin and eyes.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (B) Tuberculosis: A bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which
spreads through airborne droplets, not water.
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
• (C) Rabies: A viral infection transmitted through the bite or saliva of an infected animal, not
via water.
• (D) Arthritis: A joint disorder often linked to aging, autoimmune conditions, or injury — it
is not infectious and unrelated to water contamination.
Final Answer: (A) Jaundice

57. Who amongst the following is also known as 'The Little Corporal'?
(A) Adolf Hitler
(B) Napoleon Bonaparte
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose
(D) Vladimir Lenin
Correct Answer: (B) Napoleon Bonaparte
Explanation:
Napoleon Bonaparte, the famous French military leader and emperor, was nicknamed "The Little
Corporal" (Le Petit Caporal) by his soldiers. Despite his relatively modest height (around 5'6" by
modern standards), the nickname was not meant to mock his stature. Instead, it was a term of
affection and respect earned during his early military campaigns in Italy, where he often mingled
with his troops and demonstrated impressive leadership skills.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Adolf Hitler: Known as the Führer (Leader), not "The Little Corporal."
• (C) Subhas Chandra Bose: Commonly referred to as "Netaji" (Respected Leader), not "The
Little Corporal."
• (D) Vladimir Lenin: Known as the Father of the Russian Revolution, not "The Little
Corporal."
Final Answer: (B) Napoleon Bonaparte

58. Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu is famous for

(A) oil refinery
(B) atomic power station
(C) tea production
(D) coffee production
Correct Answer: (B) Atomic Power Station
Explanation:
Kalpakkam, located in Tamil Nadu, is well-known for its Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS)
and the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR). It is one of India's key nuclear
power generation and research hubs.
Key highlights:
• MAPS is a nuclear power plant operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India
Limited (NPCIL).
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
• IGCAR is a premier nuclear research center specializing in fast breeder reactor technology.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Oil refinery: Tamil Nadu has refineries, but Kalpakkam is not known for this.
• (C) Tea production: Tea plantations are prominent in areas like Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu, not
Kalpakkam.
• (D) Coffee production: Coffee is mainly cultivated in Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil
Nadu's Western Ghats regions — Kalpakkam is not a coffee hub.
Final Answer: (B) Atomic Power Station

59. Who was the first Governor of Meghalaya?

(A) Prakash Mehrotra
(B) Bhishma Narain Singh
(C) Lallan Prasad Singh
(D) Braj Kumar Nehru
Correct Answer: (D) Braj Kumar Nehru
Explanation: The first governor was Braj Kumar Nehru, then governor of Assam who held the
additional charge of the governor of the newly created state of Meghalaya from 21 January 1972 until
his transfer on 19 September 1973. From 1972 until 1989, the Governor of Assam held the additional
charge of the Governor of Meghalaya.

60. What does an airbag, used for the safety of car driver, contain?
(A) Sodium bicarbonate
(B) Sodium azide
(C) Sodium nitrite
(D) Sodium peroxide
Correct Answer: (B) Sodium azide

Explanation:

An airbag used in cars for driver and passenger safety contains sodium azide (NaN₃). During a
collision, the car’s crash sensors trigger a chemical reaction that rapidly decomposes sodium azide to
produce a large volume of nitrogen gas, which inflates the airbag almost instantly.

Chemical Reaction:

• The released nitrogen gas inflates the airbag in milliseconds.

• The sodium (Na) produced is then neutralized using other chemicals like potassium nitrate
(KNO₃) and silicon dioxide (SiO₂) to form harmless compounds.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

• (A) Sodium bicarbonate: Used for baking and as an antacid; not involved in airbag
deployment.
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
• (C) Sodium nitrite: Used as a food preservative and in industrial applications; not for airbags.

• (D) Sodium peroxide: Used in oxygen generation and as a bleaching agent; irrelevant to
airbags.

Final Answer: (B) Sodium azide

61. The term URL, used in internet technology stands for

(A) Uniform Remote Locator
(B) Uniform Resource Locator
(C) Unique Remote Locator
(D) Unique Resource Locator
Correct Answer: (B) Uniform Resource Locator
Explanation: A URL is the web address used to access specific resources on the internet. For
example, https://www.google.com is a URL. It defines the protocol (e.g., HTTP/HTTPS), domain
name, and file path.

62. Money deposited at a bank that cannot be withdrawn for a preset fixed period of time is
known as
(A) current deposit
(B) savings bank deposit
(C) term deposit
(D) no-frills account
Correct Answer: (C) Term Deposit

Explanation:

A term deposit (also known as a fixed deposit or time deposit) is a type of bank deposit where
money is deposited for a specific fixed period (ranging from a few months to several years) and
cannot be withdrawn before maturity without incurring a penalty.

Key Features of Term Deposits:

• They offer higher interest rates compared to savings or current accounts.

• The interest rate is generally fixed for the entire term.

• Common types include Fixed Deposits (FDs) and Recurring Deposits (RDs).

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

• (A) Current Deposit: This is a business account designed for frequent transactions with no
fixed term.

• (B) Savings Bank Deposit: A personal account for saving money, allowing regular
withdrawals without a fixed term.

• (D) No-frills Account: This is a basic savings account with minimal facilities, usually for low-
income groups, and is unrelated to fixed-term deposits.

Final Answer: (C) Term Deposit

 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM

63. Where was the first-ever Meghalaya International Film Festival held?
(A) Jowai
(B) Nongpoh
(C) Shillong
(D) Tura

Correct Answer: (C) Shillong

Explanation: The first-ever Meghalaya International Film Festival was held in Shillong, the capital
city of Meghalaya. The five-day festival commenced on March 14, 2023, with a gala opening at the
Soso Tham Auditorium. The event featured screenings of over 65 films and documentaries across
four venues in the city.

64. Who among the following was a renowned musician in Akbar's court?
(A) Tansen
(B) Birbal
(C) Todarmal
(D) Abul Fazl

Correct Answer: (A) Tansen

Explanation:
Tansen was one of the greatest classical musicians in Indian history and served as a prominent figure
in Emperor Akbar's court. He was one of the Navaratnas (Nine Gems) in Akbar's court and was
renowned for his extraordinary musical skills. Tansen is credited with composing several ragas and
innovating classical Indian music.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (B) Birbal: Known for his wit and wisdom, not for music.
• (C) Todarmal: A distinguished finance minister in Akbar's court who introduced an
effective land revenue system.
• (D) Abul Fazl: A prominent historian and writer, best known for writing the Akbarnama
and Ain-i-Akbari.
Final Answer: (A) Tansen

65. The term 'Bogey' is associated with

(A) cricket
(B) swimming
(C) golf
(D) boxing

Correct Answer: (C) Golf

Explanation:
The term 'Bogey' is associated with golf. In golf, a bogey refers to completing a hole in one stroke
over par.
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
• Par is the standard number of strokes that an expert golfer is expected to take to complete a
hole.
• For example, if a hole's par is 4 and a player takes 5 strokes, that's called a bogey.
Other Related Golf Terms:
• Birdie: One stroke under par
• Eagle: Two strokes under par
• Double Bogey: Two strokes over par
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Cricket: Terms like wicket, over, and maiden are used here, not "bogey."
• (B) Swimming: Common terms include freestyle, backstroke, and butterfly, not "bogey."
• (D) Boxing: Terms like knockout, jab, and uppercut are relevant here, not "bogey."
Final Answer: (C) Golf

66. Which country is the newest member of NATO?

(A) Belgium
(B) Finland
(C) Slovenia
(D) Sweden

Correct Answer: (D) Sweden

Explanation:
Sweden became the newest member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) on March 7,
2024, upon depositing its instrument of accession to the North Atlantic Treaty with the Government of
the United States in Washington, D.C.
This expansion brought NATO's membership to a total of 32 countries.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Belgium: A founding member of NATO since its establishment in 1949.
• (B) Finland: Joined NATO on April 4, 2023, becoming the 31st member.
• (C) Slovenia: Became a NATO member on March 29, 2004.
Final Answer: (D) Sweden

67. The Cash Reserve Ratio is a tool of

(A) agricultural policy
(B) tax policy
(C) monetary policy
(D) fiscal policy
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
Correct Answer: (C) Monetary Policy
Explanation:
The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a key instrument of monetary policy used by the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) to regulate liquidity in the banking system.
• CRR refers to the percentage of a bank's total deposits that must be kept with the RBI in
the form of cash reserves.
• By adjusting the CRR, the RBI controls the amount of money banks can lend, which in turn
influences inflation, liquidity, and economic stability.
Example:
• Rising CRR → Less money available for lending → Reduces inflation.
• Lowering CRR → More money available for lending → Boosts economic growth.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Agricultural Policy: Deals with farming, crop production, and rural development,
unrelated to CRR.
• (B) Tax Policy: Involves government decisions on taxation; CRR is not a tax-related tool.
• (D) Fiscal Policy: Managed by the Government of India, focusing on taxation, spending,
and budget management. CRR is managed by the RBI, not the government.
Final Answer: (C) Monetary Policy

68. Freedom in Exile is a book authored by

(A) Dalai Lama
(B) Nelson Mandela
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Subhas Chandra Bose

Correct Answer: (A) Dalai Lama

Explanation:
"Freedom in Exile" is the autobiography of the 14th Dalai Lama, Tenzin Gyatso. Published in
1990, this book recounts his early life, spiritual journey, the Chinese invasion of Tibet, and his
subsequent exile to India in 1959. The book also reflects on his philosophy of non-violence,
compassion, and his efforts for Tibetan independence.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (B) Nelson Mandela: Mandela's famous autobiography is "Long Walk to Freedom".
• (C) Mahatma Gandhi: Gandhi’s notable autobiography is "The Story of My Experiments
with Truth".
• (D) Subhas Chandra Bose: Bose’s significant work is "The Indian Struggle".
Final Answer: (A) Dalai Lama
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
69. The 'Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana' is a government scheme that provides
(A) LPG connections
(B) health insurance
(C) home loans
(D) education for girls

Correct Answer: (B) Health Insurance

Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), also known as Ayushman Bharat, is a
flagship health insurance scheme launched by the Government of India. It aims to provide free
healthcare coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year to over 10 crore vulnerable families
(approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) for secondary and tertiary hospitalization.
Key Features of PM-JAY:
Provides cashless treatment at empaneled hospitals.
Covers a wide range of medical procedures, including surgeries, diagnostics, and pre- & post-
hospitalization expenses.
Focuses on families identified under the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) LPG connections: This relates to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY).
• (C) Home loans: This aligns with the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY).
• (D) Education for girls: This is covered under schemes like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao and
Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana.
Final Answer: (B) Health Insurance

70. Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forest known as
(A) tropical moist evergreen
(B) dry evergreen
(C) dry deciduous
(D) tropical moist deciduous

Correct Answer: (D) Tropical Moist Deciduous

Explanation:
Teak and Sal are the principal trees found in Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests. These forests are
characterized by:
Found in regions with moderate rainfall (100-200 cm annually).
Trees in these forests shed their leaves during the dry season to conserve water.
Common in parts of Central India, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha, and the foothills of the
Himalayas.
Key Characteristics of Tree Types:
• Teak: Known for its high-quality timber and is widely used in furniture making.
• Sal: Highly valued for its hardwood and is often used in construction.
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Tropical Moist Evergreen: These forests are dense, with trees like ebony, mahogany,
and rosewood; not typically teak or sal.
• (B) Dry Evergreen: Found in regions with low rainfall and characterized by small, leathery
leaves.
• (C) Dry Deciduous: While some teak may be found here, this type of forest is generally more
open and drier with less dense vegetation.
Final Answer: (D) Tropical Moist Deciduous

71. Rakhal Das Banerjee discovered which of the following Indus Valley sites?
(A) Harappa
(B) Kalibangan
(C) Mohenjo-daro
(D) Lothal

Correct Answer: (C) Mohenjo-daro

Explanation:
Rakhal Das Banerjee, a prominent Indian archaeologist, is credited with discovering the ancient
Indus Valley site of Mohenjo-daro in 1922. This significant archaeological discovery provided
crucial insights into the Harappan Civilization. Mohenjo-daro, located in present-day Sindh,
Pakistan, was one of the most important urban centers of the Indus Valley Civilization.
Key Features of Mohenjo-daro:
Known for its well-planned city layout with drainage systems, brick houses, and public baths.
The site is famous for artifacts like the Dancing Girl statue, Priest-King statue, and Great Bath.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Harappa: Discovered by Daya Ram Sahni in 1921.
• (B) Kalibangan: Discovered by Amlanand Ghosh in 1953 (located in Rajasthan, India).
• (D) Lothal: Discovered by S.R. Rao in 1954 (located in Gujarat, India).
Final Answer: (C) Mohenjo-daro

72. A 'Black Hole' is a body in space that does not allow any radiation to come out. This property is
due to its
(A) very high density
(B) very low density
(C) very small size
(D) very large size

Correct Answer: (A) Very high density

Explanation:
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
A black hole is a region in space where gravity is so intense that nothing, not even light, can escape
from it. This immense gravitational pull is due to its extremely high density — an enormous amount
of mass compressed into a very small space.
Why High-Density Matters:
The gravitational force of a body depends on its mass and density.
In a black hole, mass is concentrated in an incredibly tiny area, creating an intense gravitational field
that warps spacetime and traps everything within its event horizon.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (B) Very low density: A low-density object would have weak gravitational pull, making it
incapable of forming a black hole.
• (C) Very small size: While black holes are small relative to their mass, size alone does not
explain their immense gravitational strength — it's the high density that matters.
• (D) Very large size: Black holes can vary in size, but size itself is not the defining factor;
their density and gravitational force are what prevent radiation from escaping.
Final Answer: (A) Very high density

73. Chenab Railway Bridge, the world's highest single arch railway bridge, is in
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Uttarakhand

Correct Answer: (A) Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation:
The Chenab Railway Bridge is the world's highest single-arch railway bridge, located in the
Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir, India. It spans the Chenab River and is part of the
Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project.
Key Facts about the Chenab Bridge:
Height: 359 meters (1,178 feet) above the river — taller than the Eiffel Tower.
Length: 1,315 meters.
Material: Made using steel and concrete for strength and durability.
Designed to withstand high wind speeds (up to 260 km/h) and seismic activity in the region.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (B) Himachal Pradesh: Known for the Kangra Valley Railway, but not the Chenab Bridge.
• (C) Arunachal Pradesh: Famous for the Sela Tunnel project, not the Chenab Bridge.
• (D) Uttarakhand: Home to several mountain rail routes but not the Chenab Bridge.
Final Answer: (A) Jammu and Kashmir
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
74. The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development is called
(A) Environment Summit
(B) Water Summit
(C) Earth Summit
(D) Air Summit

Correct Answer: (C) Earth Summit

Explanation:
The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), commonly known
as the Earth Summit, was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. This landmark conference
addressed global environmental issues and sustainable development.
Key Outcomes of the Earth Summit:
Agenda 21 – A comprehensive action plan for sustainable development.
Rio Declaration on Environment and Development – Principles guiding sustainable development.
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) – To conserve global biodiversity.
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) – Leading to future
climate protocols like the Kyoto Protocol and Paris Agreement.
Forest Principles – Guidelines for sustainable management of forests.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Environment Summit: No such official term is used for this specific conference.
• (B) Water Summit: Focuses solely on water resources, not broader environmental issues.
• (D) Air Summit: Not a recognized global conference; air quality is just one aspect of
environmental concerns.
Final Answer: (C) Earth Summit

75. Which of the following words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the
42nd Amendment?
(A) Sovereign and Democratic
(B) Secular and Democratic
(C) Democratic and Republic
(D) Secular and Socialist

Correct Answer: (D) Secular and Socialist

Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act, enacted in 1976, added the words "Socialist" and "Secular" to the
Preamble of the Indian Constitution. This amendment was passed during the tenure of Prime
Minister Indira Gandhi to emphasize India's commitment to social justice and religious neutrality.
Key Changes in the 42nd Amendment:
Added the words "Socialist" and "Secular" to the Preamble.
Changed "Unity of the Nation" to "Unity and Integrity of the Nation".
Why These Words Were Added:
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
• Socialist: To promote economic equality and ensure the reduction of wealth disparity.
• Secular: To affirm that the State has no official religion and ensures equal treatment of all
religions.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• (A) Sovereign and Democratic: These words were part of the original Preamble (adopted
in 1950).
• (B) Secular and Democratic: Only "Secular" was added in 1976; "Democratic" was
already included.
• (C) Democratic and Republic: Both these terms were part of the original text of the
Preamble.
Final Answer: (D) Secular and Socialist

76. Which of the following was a Leap Year?

(A) 1998
(B) 2002
(C) 2014
(D) 2004
Correct Answer: (D) 2004
Explanation:
A leap year occurs every 4 years and must satisfy the following conditions:
The year should be divisible by 4.
If the year is a century year (e.g., 1900, 2000), it must also be divisible by 400 to be a leap year.
Step-by-Step Check:

• 1998: Not divisible by 4.

• 2002: Not divisible by 4.

• 2014: Not divisible by 4.

• 2004: Divisible by 4 → Leap Year

Final Answer: (D) 2004

77. An article is sold for ₹ 2,400 at a profit of 25%. What would have been the actual profit or
loss if it had been sold at ₹ 1,800?
(A) 6·25%
(B) 6%
(C) 6·35%
(D) 6·5%
Correct Answer: (A) 6.25%
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
Explanation:
1. Find the cost price:
• If the article is sold for ₹ 2,400 at a 25% profit, this means ₹ 2,400 represents 125% of the
cost price.
• Let the cost price be 'CP'.
• We can write the equation: 1.25 * CP = 2400
• Therefore, CP = 2400 / 1.25 = ₹ 1,920
2. Calculate the profit or loss at ₹ 1,800:
• If the article is sold for ₹ 1,800, the loss would be: ₹ 1,920 - ₹ 1,800 = ₹ 120
• To find the loss percentage, we use the formula: (Loss / Cost Price) * 100
• Loss percentage = (120 / 1920) * 100 = 6.25%
Answer:
The actual loss would have been 6.25%. Therefore, the correct answer is (A).

78. Choose the alternative which resembles the mirror image of the given combination:
BRISK

Correct Answer: (B)

Explanation:
To find the mirror image of the word "BRISK", we need to visualize how each letter appears in
reverse, as seen in a mirror.
Step 1: Reverse the Order of Letters
In a mirror image, the sequence of letters appears reversed:
BRISK →
Step 2: Identify the Correct Answer
From the options provided:
is the correct answer.
B.
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
Directions (79-82): From the given responses, find the missing number in the series
79. 2, 6, 18, 54, ?
(A) 162
(B) 108
(C) 148
(D) 216
Correct Answer: (A) 162
Explanation:
The series pattern is multiplying by 3:
2 × 3 = 6 → 6 × 3 = 18 → 18 × 3 = 54 → 54 × 3 = 162

80. 80, 10, 70, 15, 60, ?

(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 20
(D) 50
Correct Answer: (C) 20
Explanation:
Observe the alternating pattern:

• 80 → 70 → 60 (Decreasing by 10)
• 10 → 15 → ? (Increasing by 5)
Following this pattern:
• Next number in the decreasing sequence: 60 - 10 = 50
• Next number in the increasing sequence: 15 + 5 = 20

81. 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ?

(A) 56
(B) 52
(C) 96
(D) 128
Correct Answer: (A) 56
Explanation:
From the given series:
14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ?

• 14 × 2 = 28
• 28 - 8 = 20
• 20 × 2 = 40
• 40 - 8 = 32
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
• 32 × 2 = 64
• 64 - 8 = 56
The pattern is:
Multiply by 2 → Subtract 8 → Repeat

82. 544, 509, 474, 439, ?

(A) 445
(B) 420
(C) 404
(D) 414
Correct Answer: (C) 404
Explanation:
Observe the difference between consecutive terms:

• 544 - 509 = 35
• 509 - 474 = 35
• 474 - 439 = 35
The pattern shows that each number is decreasing by 35.
Step 2: Continue the pattern
439−35=404
Hence, C) 404 is the correct answer.

Directions (83-85): From the given responses, find the missing letters in the series
83. AA, BD, CI, DP, ?
(A) FY
(B) EY
(C) ER
(D) FR
Correct Answer: (B) EY
Explanation:
Step 1: Identify the pattern in the first letters
• A, B, C, D, E → These follow the sequence 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 in alphabetical order.
Step 2: Identify the pattern in the second letters
• A (1²), D (2²), I (3²), P (4²), ?
The second letters are positioned as squares of numbers:
• 1² = 1 → A
• 2² = 4 → D
• 3² = 9 → I
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
• 4² = 16 → P
• 5² = 25 → Y
Step 3: Combine the two identified patterns
• First letter: E
• Second letter: Y

84. GNPT, ETNN, CNLT, ?

(A) ANJT
(B) ATJN
(C) ANNT
(D) AJTT
Correct Answer: (B) ATJN
Explanation:

85. PK, GT, XC, OL, ?

(A) FU
(B) EV
(C) HS
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(D) GT
Correct Answer: (A) FU
Explanation:

• The alphabetical positions are:

P (16th letter) → G (7th letter) → X (24th letter) → O (15th letter) → F (6th letter)
Pattern: Each letter moves -8 steps in the alphabet.
• The alphabetical positions are:
K (11th letter) → T (20th letter) → C (3rd letter) → L (12th letter) → U (21st letter)
Pattern: Each letter moves +8 steps in the alphabet.
Hence, the correct answer is A) FU

86. Nikita is 50 years old and Nazia is 40 years old. How long ago was the ratio of their ages 3:2?
(A) 30 years
(B) 40 years
(C) 20 years
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(D) 25 years
Correct Answer: (C) 20 years
Explanation:

87. If A is the sister of C and C is the wife of D, then how is D related to A?

(A) Sister-in-Law
(B) Brother
(C) Brother-in-Law
(D) Sister
Correct Answer: (C) Brother-in-Law
Explanation:
Let's analyse the given information step by step:
1. A is the sister of C — This tells us that A and C are siblings.
2. C is the wife of D — This means C is female and married to D.
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
Now, we need to determine how D is related to A.
• Since D is married to C (who is A’s sister), D becomes A’s brother-in-law.

88. Find the odd number in the series:

8, 27, 64, 100, 125, 216, 343
(A) 100
(B) 8
(C) 27
(D) 343
Answer: (A) 100
Explanation:
This series follows the pattern of perfect cubes:

All the numbers are perfect cubes except 100, which is not a cube. This makes 100 the odd one out.

89. 'Flower' is related to 'Bud', in the same way as 'Fruit' is related to

(A) Seed
(B) Flower
(C) Tree
(D) Stem
Answer: (A) Seed
Explanation:
A bud develops into a flower, and similarly, a seed develops into a fruit.
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
90. 'Nun' is related to 'Convent', in the same way as 'Hen' is related to
(A) Cote
(B) Shed
(C) Nest
(D) Cell
Answer: (C) Nest
Explanation:
A convent is a place where nuns live, and a nest is a place where hens live.

Directions (91-92): Select the word pair which has the same relation as the given word pair
below
91. Lively : Dull
(A) Flower : Bud
(B) Employed : Jobless
(C) Factory : Labour
(D) Happy : Gay
Answer: (B) Employed : Jobless
Explanation:
'Lively' is the opposite of 'Dull', and similarly, 'Employed' is the opposite of 'Jobless'.

92. Sound : Muffled

(A) Colour : Faded
(B) Moisture : Humid
(C) Odour : Pungent
(D) Despair : Anger
Answer: (A) Colour : Faded
Explanation:
A muffled sound is a diminished form of sound, and a faded colour is a diminished form of colour.

93. Arrange the words in a meaningful sequence:

1. Protect 2. Pressure
3. Relief 4. Rain
5. Flood
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Options:
(A) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
(B) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(C) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
(D) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
Correct Answer: (C) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
Explanation:
To arrange the words in a meaningful sequence, let's analyze their logical order:
1. Pressure (2) – High atmospheric pressure changes can lead to weather disturbances.
2. Rain (4) – Due to pressure changes, rain occurs.
3. Flood (5) – Excessive rain can lead to flooding.
4. Protect (1) – Protection measures are taken to mitigate flood effects.
5. Relief (3) – After the flood, relief efforts are carried out.
So, the correct sequence is: 2 → 4 → 5 → 1 → 3
Thus, the correct option is:
(C) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3

94. Arrange the words in a meaningful sequence:

1. Probation 2. Interview
3. Selection 4. Appointment
5. Advertisement 6. Application
Options:
(A) 5, 6, 3, 2, 4, 1
(B) 5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 5, 6, 4, 2, 3, 1
(D) 6, 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
Correct Answer: (B) 5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1
Explanation:
• First comes the Advertisement of the job.
• Interested candidates submit their Applications.
• The shortlisted candidates are called for an Interview.
• The suitable candidates are Selected.
• After selection, they are Appointed to the role.
• Finally, some are kept under Probation before permanent employment.
This sequence correctly reflects the recruitment process.
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM

95. Arrange the words in a meaningful sequence:

1. Yarn 2. Plant
3. Saree 4. Cotton
5. Cloth
Options:
(A) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
(B) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
(C) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
(D) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
Correct Answer: (A) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
Explanation:
• Plant is the origin, from which Cotton is obtained.
• Cotton is then processed into Cloth.
• Cloth is converted into Yarn for further usage.
• Finally, the yarn is woven into a Saree.
This sequence reflects the logical order of textile production.

96. Arrange the words in a meaningful sequence:

1. Wall 2. Clay
3. House 4. Room
5. Bricks
Options:
(A) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
(B) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct Answer: (A) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
Explanation:
• Clay is the raw material for making Bricks.
• Bricks are used to build Walls.
• Walls are partitioned to create Rooms.
• Rooms collectively make a House.
This sequence follows the construction process accurately.
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97. Cup : Lip :: Bird : ?
Options:
(A) Bush
(B) Grass
(C) Beak
(D) Forest
Correct Answer: (C) Beak
Explanation:
A Cup touches the Lips while drinking, just as a Bird uses its Beak to eat or drink. Both comparisons
reflect the main point of contact for consuming food or liquids.

98. Flow : River :: Stagnant : ?

Options:
(A) Rain
(B) Stream
(C) Canal
(D) Pool
Correct Answer: (D) Pool
Explanation:
• Flow describes the characteristic movement of a River.
• Conversely, Stagnant water is still, and a Pool of water is often calm and unmoving.
This comparison is based on the presence or absence of motion.

99. Paw : Cat :: Hoof : ?

Options:
(A) Lamb
(B) Horse
(C) Lion
(D) Elephant
Correct Answer: (B) Horse
Explanation:
A Paw is the foot structure of a Cat, while a Hoof is the foot structure of a Horse. This analogy pairs
animals with their respective foot types.

100. Ornithology : Study of Birds :: Entomology : ?

Options:
(A) Study of Fish
(B) Study of Reptiles
(C) Study of Insects
(D) Study of Frogs
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Correct Answer: (C) Study of Insects
Explanation:
• Ornithology is the branch of biology dealing with the study of Birds.
• Similarly, Entomology is the branch of biology that deals with the study of Insects.
Both terms define specialized fields of biological study.
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PART - C : ARITHMETIC
(Marks : 100)
Each question carries 2 marks
101. If the radius of a circle is doubled, then its area becomes
(A) 2 times
(B) 4 times
(C) 6 times
(D) 8 times
Correct Answer: (B) 4 times
Explanation:

102. Given that HCF (2520, 6600) = 40 and LCM (2520, 6600) = 252k, then the value of k is
(A) 1650
(B) 1600
(C) 165
(D) 1625
Correct Answer: (A) 1650
Explanation:
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103. If TP and TQ are the two tangents to a circle with centre O so that ∠POQ = 110°, then
∠PTQ is equal to
(A) 60°
(B) 70°
(C) 80°
(D) 90°
Correct Answer: (B) 70°
Explanation:
In the above figure, OPTQ is a quadrilateral and ∠P and ∠Q are 90°

The sum of the interior angles of a quadrilateral is 360°.

Therefore, in OPTQ,
∠Q + ∠P + ∠POQ + ∠PTQ = 360°
90° + 90° + 110° + ∠PTQ = 360°
290° + ∠PTQ = 360°
∠PTQ = 360° - 290°
∠PTQ = 70°
Thus, option (B) 70° is the correct answer.

104. If one of the zeroes of cubic polynomial x3+ax2+x+1 is -1, then the product of other two
zeroes is
(A) -1
(B) 0
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(C) 1
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) 1
Explanation:
By Vieta’s formula, Given, the cubic polynomial is x³ + ax² + x + 1.

One of the zeros of the polynomial is -1.

We have to find the product of the other two zeros.

We know that, if 𝛼, ꞵ and 𝛾 are the zeroes of a cubic polynomial ax³ + bx² + cx + d, then
𝛼 + ꞵ + 𝛾 = -b/a
𝛼ꞵ + ꞵ𝛾 + 𝛾𝛼 = c/a
Where, a = coefficient of x² term

b = coefficient of x term
c = coefficient of constant term
Here, a = 1, b = a, c = 1 and d = 1
By the property of polynomials,
𝛼 + ꞵ + 𝛾 = -b/a
(-1) + ꞵ + 𝛾 = -a/1
(-1) + ꞵ + 𝛾 = -a
ꞵ+𝛾=-a+1
And
𝛼ꞵ + ꞵ𝛾 + 𝛾𝛼 = 1/1
(-1)ꞵ + ꞵ𝛾 + 𝛾(-1) = 1
ꞵ𝛾 - ꞵ - 𝛾 = 1
ꞵ𝛾 - (ꞵ + 𝛾) = 1
Substituting the value of ꞵ + 𝛾,
ꞵ𝛾 - (-a + 1) = 1
ꞵ𝛾 + a - 1 = 1
ꞵ𝛾 = 1 - a + 1
ꞵ𝛾 = 2 -a
But, 𝛼 = -1
f(-1) = 0
(-1)^3 + a(-1)^2 + (-1) +1 = 0
-1 +a -1 +1 = 0
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a=1
therefore, ꞵ𝛾 = 2 -a
ꞵ𝛾 = 2 – 1
ꞵ𝛾 = 1

105. The degree of the polynomial x^4−√𝟐x^2+2 is

(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) Degree cannot be defined
Correct Answer: (C) 4
Explanation:

106. If r is the radius of a soap bubble, then the surface area of the bubble is given by
(A) 4πr²
(B) 3πr²
(C) 2πr²
(D) πr²
Correct Answer: (A) 4πr²
Explanation:
A soap bubble has two surfaces (inner and outer).
The surface area of a sphere is given by 4πr^2. Since a bubble has both an inner and an outer surface,
its total area remains 4πr².
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107. A card is drawn from the set of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting a queen card.
(A) 1/52
(B) 1/13
(C) 1/4
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) 1/13
Explanation:
In a standard deck of 52 cards:

• There are 4 queen cards (one in each suit: hearts, diamonds, clubs, spades).
• The total number of possible outcomes (total cards) is 52.

108. If the mean of a, a+3, a+6, a+9 and a+12 is 10, then a is equal to
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Correct Answer: (D) 4
Explanation:
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109. A quadratic polynomial, the sum and product of whose zeroes are respectively -3 and 2, is
(A) x2−3x+2
(B) x2−3x−2
(C) x2+3x+2
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) x2+3x+2
Explanation:
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110. The lines 9x+3y+12=0 and 18x+6y+24=0 are,
(A) Coincident lines
(B) Parallel lines
(C) Intersecting lines
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Coincident lines
Explanation:

111. The quadratic equation 2x2−4x+3=02x^2 - 4x + 3 = 02x2−4x+3=0 has

(A) Real and equal roots
(B) Real and unequal roots
(C) Imaginary roots
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Imaginary roots
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Explanation:

112. The values of k for which the quadratic equation 2x^2+kx+2=0 has equal roots are
(A) ±4
(B) ±5
(C) ±6
(D) ±8
Correct Answer: (A) ±4
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Explanation:

113. The number of two-digit numbers which are divisible by 3 is

(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 50
Correct Answer: (B) 30
Explanation:
The smallest two-digit number divisible by 3 is 12.
The largest two-digit number divisible by 3 is 99.
This forms an arithmetic progression (AP) with:
• First term (a) = 12
• Common difference (d) = 3
• Last term (an) = 99
Using the formula for the n-th term of an AP:
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114. In a flower bed, there are 23 rose plants in the first row, 21 in the second, 19 in the third,
and so on. There are 5 rose plants in the last row. Then, the number of rows in the flower bed is
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
Correct Answer: (B) 10
Explanation:
This is an arithmetic progression (AP) with:
• First term (a) = 23
• Common difference (d) = 21 -23 = -2
• Last term (an) = 5
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115. The common difference of an AP in which a18−a14=32 is

(A) 8
(B) -8
(C) 4
(D) -4
Correct Answer: (A) 8
Explanation:

116. Which of the following cannot form a right triangle?

(A) 9 cm, 15 cm, 12 cm
(B) 2 cm, 1 cm, √5 cm
(C) 400 mm, 300 mm, 500 mm
(D) 9 cm, 5 cm, 7 cm
Correct Answer: (D) 9 cm, 5 cm, 7 cm
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Explanation:

117. In a single throw of two dice, the probability of getting a total of 8 is

(A) 5/36
(B) 1/36
(C) 7/36
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) 5/36
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Explanation:

• (2, 6)
• (3, 5)
• (4, 4)
• (5, 3)
• (6, 2)
Total Favourable outcomes = 5

118. If α and β are the roots of the quadratic equation x^2+5x+a=0 and 2α+5β=−1, then a is
equal to
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) -24
(D) -20
Correct Answer: (C) -24
Explanation:
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119. The distance of the point P(4,3) from the origin is

(A) 4 units
(B) 3 units
(C) 5 units
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) 5 units
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Explanation:

120. The volume and surface area of a sphere are numerically equal, then the radius of the
sphere is
(A) 0 unit
(B) 1 unit
(C) 2 units
(D) 3 units
Correct Answer: (D) 3 units
Explanation:
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121. The value of k for which x, 2x+k and 3x+6 are any three consecutive terms of an AP is
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Correct Answer: (A) 3
Explanation:

122. The point on axis which is equidistant from points (-1, 0) and (5, 0) is
(A) (0, 2)
(B) (2, 0)
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(C) (3, 0)
(D) (0, 3)
Correct Answer: (B) (2, 0)
Explanation:

123. A number is selected at random from the numbers 1 to 30. The probability that it is a prime
number is
(A) 2/3
(B) 1/6
(C) 1/3
(D) 11/30
Correct Answer: (C) 1/3
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Explanation:

124. If the nth term of an AP is 2n+1, then the sum of first n terms of the AP is
(A) n(n−2)
(B) n(n+2)
(C) n(n+1)
(D) n(n−1)
Correct Answer: (B) n(n+2)
Explanation:
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125. The perimeter of a triangle with vertices (0, 4), (0, 0) and (3, 0) is
(A) 9
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 12
Correct Answer: (D) 12
Explanation:

126. If the perimeter of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square, then the ratio of their areas
is
(A) 22 : 7
(B) 14 : 11
(C) 7 : 22
(D) 11 : 14
Correct Answer: (B) 14 : 11
Explanation:
Given, the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square.
We have to find the ratio of their areas.
Perimeter of circle = circumference.
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Circumference of circle = 2πr

Where, r is the radius

Perimeter of square = 4a

Where a is the side length

Given, 2πr = 4a
r/a = 4/2π
r/a = 2/π ------------ (1)
Area of circle = πr²

Area of square = a²
Now, area of circle/area of square = πr²/a²
Substitute (1) in the above expression,
= π(2/π)²
= 4/π
= 4(7)/22
= 28/22
= 14/11
Therefore, the ratio of the area of circle to the area of square is 14:11

127. If 11 times the 11th term of an AP is equal to 7 times its 7th term, then its 18th term will be
(A) 7
(B) 11
(C) 18
(D) 0
Correct Answer: (D) 0
Explanation:
The nth term of an AP is

aₙ = a + (n - 1 )d.
a = first term
aₙ = nth term
d = common difference.

As per the question,

7a₇ = 11a₁₁
Since, aₙ = a + (n - 1 )d.
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
7[a + (7 - 1)d] = 11 [a + (11 - 1)d]
7(a + 6d) = 11 (a + 10d)
7a + 42d = 11a + 110d
42d -110d = 11a - 7a
4a + 68 d = 0
2(2a + 34d) = 0
2a + 34d = 0
a + 17d = 0----------------------(1)
18th term of an AP is
a₁₈ = a + (18 - 1)d
a₁₈ = a + 17d
a₁₈ = 0.
Therefore, the a₁₈ =0.

128. The total number of outcomes, if 2 dice and a coin are tossed simultaneously, is
(A) 36
(B) 72
(C) 24
(D) 216
Correct Answer: (B) 72
Explanation:
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129. Which of the following can be the probability of an event?
(A) 3/2
(B) 8/9
(C) 9/8
(D) 4/3
Correct Answer: (B) 8/9
Explanation:

130. If tan A=cot(30∘+A), then A is equal to

(A) 45°
(B) 60°
(C) 30°
(D) 135°
Correct Answer: (C) 30°
Explanation: we know tan θ = cot (90 - θ)
tan θ = cot (30 + θ)

cot (90 - θ) = cot (30 + θ)

90 - θ = 30 + θ

90 - 30 = θ + θ

60 = 2θ

θ = 60 / 2 = 30

θ = 30
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131. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial x2+3x+k is 2, then the value of k is
(A) 10
(B) -10
(C) 5
(D) -5
Correct Answer: (B) -10
Explanation:

132. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 10 cm is
(A) 100π cm²
(B) 30π cm²
(C) 25π cm²
(D) 200π cm²
Correct Answer: (C) 25π cm²
Explanation:
Diameter of circle = side of square = 6 cm

Radius = 10/2
Radius = 5 cm
Area of circle = πr²
= π(5)²
= 25π
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Therefore, the area of the circle is 25π square cm.

133. The slant height of the frustum of a cone having radii of two ends as 5 cm and 2 cm
respectively and height 4 cm is

(A) √26 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 65 cm
(D) 25 cm
Correct Answer: (B) 5 cm
Explanation:

134. The coordinates of the diameter of a circle are (2, -5) and (2, 9). Then the coordinate of the
centre is
(A) (0, 2)
(B) (2, 3)
(C) (9, 4)
(D) (2, 2)
Correct Answer: (D) (2, 2)
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Explanation:

135. For what value of k, the pair of linear equations 2x−y−3=0 and 2kx−7y−1=0 has a unique
solution?
(A) k=7
(B) k=1
(C) k≠7
(D) k≠1
Correct Answer: (C) k≠7
Explanation:
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136. A die is thrown. What is the probability of getting a perfect square number?
(A) 1/6
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 2/3
Correct Answer: (B) 1/3
Explanation:
The possible outcomes when rolling a die are {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}.
Perfect square numbers in this range are {1, 4}.
Number of favourable outcomes = 2
Total possible outcomes = 6
Probability = 2/6=1/3

137. The class mark of the class 10–20 is

(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
Correct Answer: (C) 15
Explanation:
Class mark (also called as the Mid-Point) of a Class is calculated as:
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
𝐿𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑙𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑡+𝑈𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝐿𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑡
Class Mark = 2
10+20
Class Mark = 2
30
Class Mark = 2

Class Mark = 15

138. If sinx = cosx, then x is equal to

(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Correct Answer: (B) 45°
Explanation:
sin x=cos x
Dividing both sides by cos x:
tan x=1
This occurs when x=45
Since, tan 45 = 1
Therefore, x = 45

139. The area of a triangle with vertices A (3, 0), B (7, 0) and C (8, 4) is
(A) 14 sq. units
(B) 28 sq. units
(C) 8 sq. units
(D) 6 sq. units
Correct Answer: (C) 8 sq. units
Explanation:
The vertices of the triangle are

A (3, 0), B (7, 0) and C (8, 4)

The formula to find the area of a triangle is

Substituting the values

Area = 1/2 [3(0 - 4) + 7(4 - 0) + 8(0 - 0)]
By further calculation
 MEGEDUCATIONS.COM
Area = 1/2 [3(-4) + 7(4) + 8(0)]
Area = 1/2 [-12 + 28]
So, we get
Area = 1/2 [16]
Area = 8 sq. units
Therefore, the area of a triangle is 8 sq. units.

140. If P(a/2,4) is the midpoint of the line segment joining the points A (-6, 5) and B (-2, 3), then
a is equal to
(A) -8
(B) 3
(C) -4
(D) 4
Correct Answer: (A) -8
Explanation:
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141. The value of sin 15∘cos 75∘+cos 15∘sin 75∘ is

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) -1
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) 1
Explanation:

142. The quadratic polynomial having zeroes as 1 and -2 is

(A) x^2−x+2
(B) x^2−x−2
(C) x^2+x−2
(D) x^2+x+2
Correct Answer: (C) x^2+x−2
Explanation:
To find the quadratic polynomial with given zeroes α=1 and β=−2, we use the standard form of a
quadratic polynomial:
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143. If p and q are two prime numbers, then the HCF (p, q) is
(A) p
(B) q
(C) pq
(D) 1
Correct Answer: (D) 1
Explanation:
The Highest Common Factor (HCF) of two prime numbers is always 1 because prime numbers have
no common factors other than 1.
For example:
• Prime numbers 3 and 7 have only one common factor — 1.

144. The point P which divides the line segment joining the points A(2,−5) and B(5,−2) in the
ratio 2:3 lies in the
(A) 1st quadrant
(B) 2nd quadrant
(C) 3rd quadrant
(D) 4th quadrant
Correct Answer: (D) 4th quadrant
Explanation:
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145. A pole 6 m high casts a shadow 𝟐√𝟑 m long on the ground, then the sun's elevation is
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Correct Answer: (C) 60°
Explanation:
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146. Which number among the following is irrational?

(A) 22/7
(B) π
(C) 0.33333...
(D) 6.212121...
Correct Answer: (B) π
Explanation:
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147. The LCM of the smallest two-digit number and the smallest composite number is
(A) 12
(B) 4
(C) 20
(D) 44
Correct Answer: (C) 20
Explanation:

148. Which term of the AP 3, 8, 13,... is 78?

(A) 15
(B) 16
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(C) 17
(D) 18
Correct Answer: (B) 16
Explanation:

Final Answer: (B) 16

149. For what value of x are the points A(−3,12), B(7,6) and C(x,9) collinear?
(A) 2
(B) -2
(C) 1/2
(D) -3
Correct Answer: (A) 2
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Explanation:
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150. The value of tan 5∘ tan 25∘ tan 30∘ tan 65∘ tan 85∘ is
(A) 1
(B) 1/2
(C) √3
(D) 1/√3

Correct Answer: (D) 1/√3

Explanation:
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