ECEA114X Compilation

1) The inputs to a balance modulator are 1 MHz and a carrier of 1.5 MHz. The outputs are
a. 500 kHz
b. 2.5 MHz
c. 1.5 MHz
d. 500 kHz and 2.5 MHz

2) An antenna transmits an AM signal having a total power content of 15 kW. Determine the
power being transmitted at each of the sidebands when the percent modulation is 95%.
a. 4950 W
b. 1990 W
c. 5418 W
d. 3384 W
3) An antenna transmits an AM signal having a total power content of 15 kW. Determine the
power being transmitted at each of the sidebands when the percent modulation is 85%.
a. 2709 W
b. 5418 W
c. 4950 W
d. 1990 W
𝑚2 0.852
𝑃𝑇 = 𝑃𝐶 (1 + ) 15 × 103 = 𝑃𝐶 (1 + )
2 2
𝑃𝐶 = 11019.28375
𝑚2 0.852
𝑃𝑆𝐵 = 𝑃𝐶 ( ) 𝑃𝑆𝐵 = 11019.28375 ( )
4 4
𝑃𝑆𝐵 = 1990 𝑊
4) Determine the noise current for a diode with a forward bias of 1 mA over a 100 kHz
bandwidth.
a. 0.0057uA
b. 0.0056uA
c. 0.0024uA
d. 0.0051uA

a. 2.4 mA
b. 5.6 mA
c. 11.8 mA
d. None

5) A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of RG-8A/u

cable to an antenna that has an input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the reflection
coefficient.
a. 0.71
b. 0.77
c. 0.97
d. 0.76
6) An SSB generator has a sideband filter centered at 3.0 MHz. The modulating signal is
3kHz. To produce both upper and lower sidebands, the following carrier frequencies
must be produced:
a. 2.7 and 3.3 MHz
b. 3.3 and 3.6 MHz
c. 2997 and 3003 kHz
d. 3000 and 3003 kHz

7) A quarter wave transformer is connected to a parallel wire line in order to match the line
to a load of 1000 ohms. The transformer has a characteristic impedance of 316.23
ohms. The distance between centers is 4 inches. What is the percentage reduction in
the diameter of the line?
a. 85%
 b. 83%
c. 86%
d. 90%
8) A loudspeaker radiates an acoustic power of 1 mW if the electrical input is 10W. What is
its rated efficiency?
a. -10 dB
b. -20 dB
c. -30 dB
d. -40 dB
9) A _________ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link
layers.
a. Hub
b. Bridge
c. Router
d. Gateway
10) A _________ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and network
layers.
a. Node
b. Bridge
c. Router
d. Gateway
11) A _________ interconnects LAN that have totally different protocols and format.
a. Gateway
b. Bridge
c. Router
d. WAN
12) The scrambling techniques, HDB3 and B8ZS, were based on the rules of
a. NRZ-L
b. NRZ-I
c. Differential Manchester
d. AMI
13) Frequencies in the UHF range usually propagate by means of
a. Ground Waves
b. Sky Waves
c. Surface Waves
d. Space Waves
14) Which radio wave is primarily transmitted along the surface of the earth?
a. Direct Wave
b. Ground Wave
c. Space Wave
d. Sky Wave
15) A radio station works at 800 kHz and uses AM. If this is a public broadcast system, it
should transmit using
a. parabolic reflector to transmit all round
b. turnstile antenna for the required land
c. half wave long horizontal wave
d. a vertical antenna less than quarter for practical reasons
16) Effective Earth radius to true earth radius ratio.
a. index of refraction
b. K factor
c. Fresnel zone
d. path profile
17) Determine the minimum bandwidth required to achieve a Eb / No of 14 dB for an 8-PSK
system operating at 20 mbps with a C/N of 11 dB.
a. 60 MHz
b. 50.25 MHz
c. 40 MHz
d. 45 MHz

18) An NE602 mixer IC has a difference output of 10.7 MHz. The input is 146.8 MHz. The
local oscillator frequency is
a. 101.9 MHz
b. 125.4 MHz
c. 131.6 MHz
d. 157.5 MHz
19) Calculate the reverberation time of the room, which has a volume of 8700 ft^3 and total
sound absorption 140 sabins.
a. 0.3 sec
b. 3.5 sec
c. 3 sec
d. 0.53 sec
20) Maximum rate at which information can be transmitted through a channel
a. Bit rate
b. Baud rate
c. Coding
d. Channel capacity
21) In electromagnetic waves, polarization
a. Is caused by reflection
b. Is due to the transverse nature of the waves
c. Results from the longitudinal natures of the waves
d. Is always vertical in an isotropic antenna
22) A bandwidth of 5 MHz becomes available for assignment. Determine the number of AM
stations that could be broadcast simultaneously if the maximum modulating frequency is
limited to 5 kHz.
a. 1200
b. 1000
c. 600
d. 500
𝐵𝑊 5𝑥106
𝑁= = = 500
2𝑓𝑚 2(5𝑥103 )
23) A bandwidth of 6 MHz becomes available for assignment. Determine the number of AM
stations that could be broadcast simultaneously if the maximum modulating frequency is
limited to 5 kHz.
a. 600
b. 1200
c. 300
d. 3000
𝐵 6𝑥106
𝑁= = = 600
2𝑓𝑚 2(5𝑥103 )
24) A compression characteristic of μ = 0 on μ-law indicated
a. Uniform quantization
b. Medium compression
c. Non-linear amplification
d. Non-uniform quantization
25) All kinds of two-way radio communication take place in this range.
30 MHz to 1000 MHz (1GHz)
26) An SSB transmitter produces a 200V peak to peak signals across a 50-Ω antenna load.
The PEP output is
a. 100 W
b. 400 W
c. 384.5 W
d. 769.2 W
2
200
(0.707 ( ))
2
𝑃𝐸𝑃 = = 99.96 𝑊
50

27) An SSB transmitter produces a 400-V peak to peak signal across a 52-Ω antenna load.
The PEP output is
a. 192.2 W
b. 384.5 W
c. 769.2 W
d. 3077 W
2
400
(0.707 ( ))
2
𝑃𝐸𝑃 = = 384.49 𝑊
52

28) An SSB Transmission drives 110-Vpk into a 85-Ω antenna. Calculate the PEP.
71.18 W
𝑉𝑝𝑘 2 1102
𝑃𝐸𝑃 = = = 71.18 𝑊
2𝑅 2(85)
29) A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system is in a space diversity arrangement.
Determine how many receivers in all are used?
a. 6
b. 2
c. 8
d. 4
30) A wave is propagated in a parallel plane waveguide. The frequency is 6 GHz and the
plane separation is 3 cm. The cut-off wavelength for the dominant mode, the group and
phase velocities are
a. 5 cm, 166 Mm/sec,543 Mn/sec
b. 6 cm, 166 Mm/sec,543 Mn/sec
c. 6 cm, 543 Mm/sec,166 Mn/sec
d. 5 cm, 543 Mm/sec,166 Mn/sec
31) A rectangular waveguide has a width of 0.65 in and a height of 0.38 in.
a. What is the cutoff frequency?
 𝑐 3𝑥108
𝑓𝑐 = = = 7.84 𝐺𝐻𝑧
2√𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 2√(0.01651)2 + (0.009652)2

b. What is the typical operating frequency of this waveguide?

𝑓𝑐 7.84 𝐺𝐻𝑧
𝑓= = = 11.2 𝐺𝐻𝑧
0.7 0.7
32) Consider the analog signal x(t)=5cos(400πt). Suppose that the signal is sampled at the
rate Fs=1000Hz. What is the discrete time signal obtained after sampling?
33) A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2kHz and S/N of 35 dB. A signal is transmitted
down a line using 4- level code. What is the maximum theoretical data rate?

34) A parabolic reflector antenna has a diameter of 5ft. The lowest operating frequency
occurs where the dish diameter is λ.
a. The lowest possible operating frequency
𝑓𝑀𝐻𝑧 = 98.42 𝑀𝐻𝑧
 b. The gain at 15 GHz
dB = 47.58 dB

c. The beam width at 15 GHz

B = 45.95 rad

35) A radar set detects the presence of an aircraft. The time between the radiated and
received pulses is 9.2 µs. The antenna is set to an angle of elevation of 20°.
a. the line- f-sight distance to the aircraft in statute miles
= 0.86 statute miles
𝑐(𝑡) 3 × 108 (9.2 × 10−6 )
𝑑= = = 1380 𝑚
2 2
 1380 𝑚
𝑑= = 0.857 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑡𝑒 𝑚𝑖
1609.344 𝑚𝑖

b. the altitude of the aircraft

=1647.90 ft
ℎ = 𝑑 × tan(𝜃) = 1380𝑚 × tan(20) = 502.278𝑚

ℎ = 502.278𝑚 = 1647.897𝑓𝑡

36) What is the inverse z-transform of X(z)=11−1.5z−1+0.5z−2 if ROC is |z|>1?

a. {1,3/2,7/4,15/8,31/16,….}
b. {1,2/3,4/7,8/15,16/31,….}
c. {1/2,3/4,7/8,15/16,31/32,….}
d. None of the mentioned

37) What is the inverse z-transform of X(z)=11−1.5z−1+0.5z−2 if ROC is |z| < 0.5?
a. {….62,30,14,6,2}
b. {…..62,30,14,6,2,0,0}
c. {0,0,2,6,14,30,62…..}
d. {2,6,14,30,62…..}

38) Cellular CDMA system uses what modulation method?

a. BPSK
b. QAM
c. ASK
d. GFSK
39) ITU G.711 recommends the use of μ-law and A-law with a sampling rate of ___ and 8-
binary digits per sample
a. 32 kHz
b. 4 kHz
c. 16 kHz
d. 8 kHz
40) Determine the characteristic impedance of an air-filled concentric transmission line with
a D/d ratio of 6.
 a. 104.67 Ω
b. 107.064 Ω
c. 106.704 Ω
d. 100.764 Ω
138 𝐷
𝑍0 = log ( ) = 138𝑙𝑜𝑔(6) = 107.384
√𝜀 𝑑
41) In checksum, the check digit is usually the
a. First digit
b. Second digit
c. Middle digit
d. Last digit
42) A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6mm has a 50Ω characteristic impedance. If the
dielectric constant of the insulation in 1.60, calculate the inner diameter.
a. 1.89 cm
b. 2.09 mm
c. 2.09 cm
d. 1.89 mm

43) Approximately how much decibel improvement can one except for a linear PCM system
utilizing a 7-bit PCM code assignment?
a. 6
b. 24
c. 30
d. 42
44) Diffraction of electromagnetic waves
a. Is caused by reflections from the ground
b. May occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle
c. Arises only with spherical wavefronts
d. Will occur when the waves pass through a large slot
45) A supergroup has a bandwidth of
a. 60 kHz
b. 240 kHz
c. 2.52 MHz
d. 69.984 MHz
46) A crystal lattice filter has crystal frequencies of 27.5 and 27.502 MHz. The bandwidth is
approximately
 a. 2 kHz
b. 3kHz
c. 27.501 MHz
d. 55.502 MHz
47) A crystal lattice filter has crystal frequencies of 27.4 and 27.5 MHz. The bandwidth is
approximately
a. 0.1 kHz
b. 100 kHz
c. 1 MHz
d. 27.501 MHz
48) What is the noise voltage across a 300 Ω input resistance to a TV set with a 6 MHz
bandwidth and temperature of 30˚C?
a. 2.3 µV
b. 3.8 µV
c. 5.5 µV
d. 5.4 µV
𝑉𝑛 = √4𝑘𝑇𝑓𝑅
= √4(𝑘)(273 + 30)(6 × 106 )(300)
= 4.48 × 10−6

49) Determine the modulation index for a frequency modulator with a deviation sensitivity of
10 kHz/V and a modulating signal of 5cos2π(4000)t.
Modulation index = 12.5

50) Determine the peak frequency deviation and modulation index for a frequency modulator
with a deviation sensitivity of 10 kHz/V and a modulating signal of 5cos2π(2500)t.
Peak frequency deviation = 50 kHz
Modulation index = 20

𝑘𝐻𝑧
𝛿 = 𝑘𝑒𝑚 = (10 ) (5𝑉) = 50𝑘𝐻𝑧
𝑉
𝛿 50 × 103
𝑚𝑓 = = = 20
𝑓𝑚 2500

51) An amplifier operating over the frequency range of 455 to 460 kHz has a 200 kΩ input
resistor. What is the RMS noise voltage at the input to this amplifier if the ambient
temperature is 17˚C?
a. 40 µV
 b. 4.0 µV
c. 400 µV
d. 4.0 mV
𝑉𝑛 = √4𝑘𝑇𝑓𝑅
= √4(𝑘)(273 + 17)(460 × 103 − 455 × 103 )(200 × 103 )
= 4.001 × 10−6
52) An FM broadcast station produces a carrier swing of 100 kHz. Calculate the percentage
modulation. Use max frequency duration as per FCC rule of 75KHz.
% modulation = 66.67%

53) Calculate the gain (relative to an isotropic) of a parabolic antenna that has a diameter of
3 m, an efficiency of 60% and operates at a frequency of 4 GHz.
54) Binary codes are transformed in modems into
a. Hexadecimal
b. Hullman code
c. Gray code
d. Octal
55) A certain AM transmitter has an unmodulated power of 200 watts. The total power, if the
depth of modulation is 25% below full modulation is H3E an DJ3E will be
a. 203.125 W and 3.125 W
b. 228.125 W and 28.125 W
c. 206.25 W and 6.25 W
d. 256.25 W and 28.125 W

56) A binary source sends a 1 with a probability of 30%. Determine the entropy of this
source.
a. 0.881 bit/symbol
b. 0.921 bit/symbol
c. 1 bit/symbol
 d. 1.5 bit/symbol

57) A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest signal

a. at 45 degrees to its axis
b. parallel to its axis
c. at right angles to its axis
d. at 60 degrees to its axis
58) For 2/3 earth profile, fading is minimized by providing at least a clearance of
a. 0.3 Fresnel zone
b. 0.6 Fresnel zone
c. 0.7 Fresnel zone
d. 0.65 Fresnel zone
59) A microwave transmitting antenna is 550-ft high. The receiving antenna is 200-ft high.
The minimum transmission distance is
a. 20 mi
b. 33.2 mi
c. 38.7 mi
d. 53.2 mi
𝐷 = √2ℎ1 + √2ℎ2 = √2(550) + √2(200) = 53.16 𝑚𝑖
60) A microwave transmitting antenna is 600 feet high. The receive antenna is 240 feet high.
The maximum transmission distance is
a. 23.22 m
b. 15 m
c. 487.5m
e. 56.55 m
𝐷 = √2ℎ1 + √2ℎ2 = √2(600) + √2(240) = 56.55 𝑚𝑖
61) Determine the missing digits for ISBN 13 code 978314125x64-06
a. 4
b. 8
c. 1
d. 9
62) Two channels, one with a bit rate of 400 kbps and another with a bit rate of 200 kbps,
are to be multiplexed. What is the bit rate of the link?
a. 100 kbps
b. 600 kbps
c. 200 kbps
d. 300 kbps
63) Two channels, one with a rate of 100 kbps and another with a bit rate of 200 kbps, are to
be multiplexed. What is the bit rate of the link?
a. 100 kbps
b. 600 kbps
c. 200 kbps
d. 300 kbps
64) A J3E signals contains 20 KW. How much power is contained in the carrier?
a. 5 kW
b. 10 kW
c. 0 kW
d. 20 kW
65) The type of light source and fiber chosen for FDDI networks are:
a. Multimode and 1300 nm LEDs
b. Multimode and 1300 nm lasers
c. Single mode and 1300 nm lasers
d. Single mode and 1550 nm lasers
66) Five channels, each with a 200-kHz bandwidth, are to be multiplexed together. What is
the minimum bandwidth of the link (in KHz) if there is a need for a guard band of 20 Khz
between the channels to prevent interference?
= 1080 kHz
5(200𝑘) + 4(20𝑘) = 1080𝑘𝐻𝑧
67) Five channels, each with a 100-kHz bandwidth, are to be multiplexed together. What is
the minimum bandwidth of the link (in KHz) if there is a need for a guard band of 10 Khz
between the channels to prevent interference?
a. 500 kHz
b. 510 kHz
c. 530 kHz
d. 540 kHz
5(100𝑘) + 4(10𝑘) = 540𝑘𝐻𝑧
68) 6 channels each with a 150-kHz bandwidth are to be multiplexed together. What is the
minimum bandwidth of the link if there is a need for a guard band of 20 kHz between the
channels to prevent interference?
a. 2000kHz
b. 1000kHz
c. 500kHz
d. 920kHz
6(150𝑘) + 5(20𝑘) = 1000𝑘𝐻𝑧
69) A quarter-wavelength of a line is used as a/an
a. Stub matching
b. Grounding
c. Lecher line
d. Impedance Transformer
70) Determine the wavelength of a signal whose frequency is 108 MHz
Wavelength = 2.78 m
𝑐 3 × 108 𝑚/𝑠
𝜆= = = 2.78 𝑚
𝑓 108 × 106 𝐻𝑧
71) If the percentage power savings of an AM wave when one of the sidebands and the
carrier are suppressed is 95%, the percentage of modulation is
% modulation = 47.14 %

72) A transmission line of 0.4λ length has a characteristic impedance of 100Ω and is
terminated by a load impedance of 200 + j180Ω. Find the input impedance of the line.
a. 40 + j72Ω
b. 40 + j62Ω
c. 40 + j82Ω
d. 40 + j52Ω
73) What is the band rate of a 256 QAM system with a bit rate of 100kbps?
12500 symbols per second

74) In a balanced modulator, how many diodes conduct at a time?

4 diodes
75) Which of the following is not a common application of frequency division multiplexing?
a. Local Area Network
b. Cellular
c. Television
d. AM and FM
76) The moon orbits the earth with a period of approximately 28 days. How far away is it in
km? Assume circular orbit.
=384,000 km

77) Find the velocity (in km/s) of a satellite in a circular orbit 500 km above the earth surface.
2 decimal places
=7.62 km/s
78) In order to directly reduce quantizing noise, one must
a. Increase the number of standard amplitude
b. Decrease the minimum number of bits
c. Increase the number of samples per second
d. Increase the coding efficiency
79) When character A is sent but E is received which statement is true?
a. VRC cannot detect the error
b. LRC cannot detect the error
c. VRC can detect the error
d. multiple bit error
80) Which statement is not true about AM?
a. An increase in the frequency of the modulating signal increases the amplitude of
the AM signal
b. A frequency of modulating signal increases the repetition rate of envelope
c. An increase in the frequency of the modulating signal increases the Bandwidth of
AM signal
d. Increase in the amplitude increases the AM signal
81) Which statement is not true about AM?
a. The carrier amplitude varies
b. The carrier frequency remains constant
c. The carrier frequency changes
d. The information signal amplitude changes the carrier amplitude
82) Which of the following is true about AM?
a. LSB contains identical information with the USB signal.
b. In AM, information is present in the carrier.
c. During 100% modulation, 1/3 of the total power is wasted by transmitting the
sidebands.
d. In AM, information is present in the carrier and in the sidebands.
83) Which is true about AM?
a. In AM, the frequency of the modulating signal varies the frequency of the carrier
signal.
b. In AM, the amplitude of the modulating signal varies the frequency of the carrier
signal.
 c. In AM, the frequency of the modulating signal varies the amplitude of the carrier
signal.
d. In AM, the amplitude of the modulating signal varies the amplitude of the carrier
signal
84) The minimum bandwidth (in KHz) for a 64 PSK modulated signal with a baud rate of
8000 baud is
Minimum Bandwidth = 8000 baud * (6 bits/symbol / 2)
= 8000 baud * 3 bits/symbol = 24000 baud
= 24000 baud / 1000 = 24 kHz

85) For a resolution of 0.03 V, determine the voltage (in V) and the following 6-bit-sign
magnitude PCM code: 111101
• Voltage = (MSB * 2^5 + Bit 5 * 2^4 + Bit 4 * 2^3 + Bit 3 * 2^2 + Bit 2 * 2^1 + Bit 1 *
2^0) * Resolution
• In this case, the PCM code is 111101, so the MSB is 1 and the remaining bits are 1,
1, 1, 0, and 1. The voltage can be calculated as follows:
Voltage = (1 * 2^5 + 1 * 2^4 + 1 * 2^3 + 1 * 2^2 + 0 * 2^1 + 1 * 2^0) * 0.03 V
= (32 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 0 + 1) * 0.03 V = 61 * 0.03 V = 1.83 V
86) Which of the following is not an application under the UHF?
a. Land mobile telephone
b. Cellular Mobile
c. Upper TV channel 14-83
d. Wifi
87) Which of the following statement is true in a series resonant network?
a. Current, I, is minimum
b. XL and XC are equal
c. XL an XC is maximum
d. XL and XC are minimum
88) When comparing values for shape factor
a. no ideal value
 b. value 1.0 is ideal
c. value 1.414 dB is ideal
d. value 0.707 is ideal
89) What must be the ratio of outer conductor diameter to enter conductor diameter, for a 75
Ω Teflon coaxial transmission line?
a. 3.12
b. 6.32
c. 2.63
d. 6.12
90) Compute for the 3rd order harmonic lower sideband frequency (in kHz) of a sample and
hold circuit with a maximum analog input of 4 kHz and a sampling rate equal to 12 kHz?
3rd Order Harmonic Lower Sideband Frequency = 3 * 12 kHz - 4 kHz
= 36 kHz - 4 kHz = 32 kHz
91) Which of the following is an example of Digital to Analog encoding?
a. Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM)
b. Amplitude Modulation (AM)
c. Bipolar 8 Zero Modulation
d. Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK)
92) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of microwave?
a. higher cost of equipment
b. line of sight transmission
c. conventional components are not usable
d. circuit are more difficult to analyze
93) In a series resonant circuit, an increase in XL or XC
a. decreases the line current
b. does not affect the line current
c. increase the total impedance
d. increase the line current
94) Compute for the guard band in between channels in a Master group with 2.52 MHz total
Bandwidth
= 200.3339
95) The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon
a. conductor spacing
b. dielectric constant
c. conductor diameter
d. conductor length
96) Which of the following is a microwave frequency?
a. 1.7 MHz
b. 750 MHz
c. 0.98 GHz
d. 22 GHz
97) When does a transmission line terminated in a short look like short to the source?
a. At quarter wavelength
b. At the generator
c. At half wavelength
d. At 0.75 wavelength
98) Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is infinity, the line is
terminated in
a. A pure reactance
b. A short circuit
c. An open circuit
d. A complex impedance
99) Observe the encoded binary signal, what type of line coding format was used?

Manchester
100) Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line divides the bandwidth of a twisted pair
cable (1 MHz) into 3 bands: which band is used for the downstream communication?
a. (0-25) kHz
b. (25-200) kHz
c. 200 kHz – 2 MHz
d. 250 kHz – 1MHz
101) With no modulating signal, what is the output of an Amplitude Modulator Signal
a. USB
b. Intelligence Signal
c. LSB
d. Carrier Signal
102) A technique used to make the highest input data rate the dominant data rate and
then add the dummy by bits to the input lines with lower rates.
a. Multilevel-Multiplexing
b. Multiple – Slot Allocation
c. Bit Stuffing
d. Frame Synchronizing
103) When the electric field in a waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of
propagation, the mode is said to be?
a. Vertical polarization
b. Horizontal polarization
c. Transverse electric
d. Transverse magnetic
104) In a transmission line the velocity of the line is 2.5 x 10^8 m/sec. Capacitance of
the line is 30 pF/m. Find the characteristic impedance of the line.
a. 133.29 kΩ
b. 13.29 kΩ
c. 133.29 Ω
d. 133.29 M Ω
105) In a transmission line the velocity of the line is 2.5 x 10^8 m/sec. Capacitance of
the line is 30 pF/m. Find the inductance per meter of the line.
a. 533 nH/m
b. 533 mH/m
c. 5.33 mH/m
d. 53.3 nH/m

106) What determine the velocity factor in transmission line?

a. The center conductor resistance
b. Dielectrics in the line
c. The termination in impedance
d. The line length
107) What is the ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a
transmission line?
a. Velocity factor
b. Standing-wave ratio
c. Reflection coefficient
d. Line efficiency
108) In this technique, each bit is represented by multiple bit using a spreading code
 a. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
b. Time Division Multiple Access
c. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
d. Code Division Multiple Access
109) Which of the following is not true about parallel resonant network?
a. Total Current, IT, is minimum
b. Current IL and IC are equal
c. Current, IL and IC are maximum
d. The total impedance is maximum
110) Which statement is correct?
a. Multiplexing uses multiple channels and a single path
b. Multiplexing uses a single channel and multiple paths
c. Multiplexing uses single channel and single path
d. Multiplexing uses multiple channels and multiple paths
111) It is a fiber-optic that enables multiple broadband signals and even relatively low-
rate signals to be multiplied onto a fiber optic channel.
a. Asynchronous Optical Network
b. Quasi-Synchronous Optical Network
c. Synchronous Optical Network
d. None of the choices
112) Refers to its spatial diversity where transmission or reception is performed
simultaneously at two or more base station and used to combat fast fading.
a. Macro diversity
b. Micro diversity
c. Space diversity
d. Spatial diversity
113) By how much in meters. Should two antennas be separated for space diversity in
the 11 GHz Band? 2 decimal places
200x3x10^8/11 x10^9 = 5.45m
114) Determine the image frequency (in MHz) of a broadcast band receiver using a
455 kHz if tuned to 1530 kHz.
=2.44 MHz

115) If the SWR on a transmission line has a high value, the reason could be
a. The line is non-resonant
b. A reflection coefficient of zero at the lead
c. An impedance mismatch between the lead
d. The load is matched to the line
116) If the earth station downlink signal received is at fs 5 4.08 GHz, what local
oscillator frequencies Fl0 are needed to achieved IFs of 770 and 140 MHz? 2 decimal
places
Fl0 = fs + IF = 4.08 GHz - 770 MHz = 3.31 GHz
Fl0 = fs + IF = 4.08 GHz - 140 MHz = 3.94 GHz
*if 54.08 GHz, the ans is 53.31 GHz and 53.94 GHz
117) What is the bandwidth efficiency (in bps/Hz) of a 256 QAM system If the baud
rate is 96 MHz. Answer in numeric form, do not include unit.
8 bps/Hz
118) Calculate the earth bulge 2 miles away from transmitter for a 25 miles terrestrial
microwave link.
a. 30.67 ft
b. 68.66 ft
c. 3.61 ft
d. 61.37 ft
119) The maximum power output of a standard A earth station over the total band
allocated to satellite communication is about.
a. 0.5 kW
b. 20 kW
c. 8 kW
d. 50 kW
120) A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with modulation indices
of 0.4 and 0.3. The resultant modulation index will be.
a. 1.2
b. 0.5
c. 0.7
d. None of the above

121) Determine the speed of sound in air at STP (Used y= 1.4 for air, p = 1.23 kg/m3,
P = 1 atm = 1.013 x 106 Pa)
a. 335 m/s
b. 332 m/s
c. 223 m/s
d. 126 m/s
122) If the frequency fed to the pre-amplifier of a basic transmitter with multipliers is
composed of a pair of triplers and a doubler is 198 MHz, what frequency should the
oscillator operate?
a. 11 MHz
b. 33 MHz
c. 22 MHz
d. 66 MHz
123) Determine the input impedance for a transmission line 1.25 λ long with a
characteristic’s impedance of 50 ohms and a load impedance of 30 + j40 ohms.
a. 30 + j40 Ω
b. 30 – j40 Ω
c. 20 + j 40 Ω
 d. 30 – j20 Ω

124) 2 nm is equivalent to __ in Angstrom

20 angstrom
125) Developed the OSI reference model used in networking
International Standardization Organization (ISO)
126) Responsible for the HTTP standard
Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
127) Overall management and development of Internet Standards
Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
128) Standard that defines Media Access Control for wired Ethernet
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineering (IEEE)
129) Linearity of Z-transform
𝑥(𝑧) = 𝑍𝑎𝑥1 (𝑛) + 𝑏𝑥2 (𝑛)
= 𝑎𝑥1 (𝑧) + 𝑏𝑥2 (𝑧)
x(n) + y(n) = x(z) + y(z)
130) x(n) is anti-symmetric if
𝑥(𝑛) = −𝑥(−𝑛)
131) z-transform of 𝑎𝑛 𝑥(𝑛)
𝑥(𝑎−1 𝑧)
132) Zero-state response is also known as?
Forced Response
133) If {x(n)} is the signal to be analyzed, limiting the duration of the sequence to L
samples, in the interval 0≤ n≤ L-1, is equivalent to multiplying {x(n)} by?
Rectangular Window
134) All energy signals will have an average power of?
Zero (0)
135) When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle
of incident is greater than the critical angle, _____ occurs.
Reflection
136) Which of the following primarily uses guided media?
Local Telephone System
137) Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use ______ propagation.
Line of Sight
138) ______ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN communication.
Microwaves
139) Transmission media lie below the _____ layer
Physical Layer
140) Signals below 2 MHz use
Ground Propagation
141) Frequency of failure and network recovery time after failure is the measure of
Reliability
142) Cable with inner copper core and second conducting outer sheath
Coaxial Cables
143) 96 kbps / 96000 uses
QAM Modulation
144) Simplex (Computer and Keyboard)
Only one transmits, one receives
145) Half-Duplex (walkie-talkie)
Both can transmit and receive, but not at the same time
146) Full-Duplex (Telephone)
Both can transmit and receive at the same time
147) The minimum voltage of a line with a load of ZL 100-j200 Ω is 6.39 mV. An input
impedance of 44.721 ∠ 63.435 Ω at 20 MHz was measure 33.75 m from the load. Find
the value of maximum voltage.
a. 377.28 mV
b. 37.228 mV
c. 36.228 mV
d. 34.5 mV

148) The minimum voltage of a transmission line with a load of ZL = 100 – j200Ω is
6.39mV. An input impedance of magnitude of 44.721 and an angle of 63.435Ω at 20
MHz was measured 33.75m from the load. Find the value of the characteristic
impedance.
a. 25Ω
b. 100Ω
c. 50Ω
 d. 75Ω
149) The minimum voltage of a transmission line with a load of ZL = 100 – j200Ω is
6.39mV. An input impedance of magnitude of 44.721 and an angle of 63.435Ω at 20
MHz was measured 33.75m from the load. Find the value of the reflection coefficient
magnitude.
a. 0.607
b. -0.707
c. 0.670
d. 0.707
150) The minimum voltage of a transmission line with a load of ZL = 100 – j200Ω is
6.39mV. An input impedance of magnitude of 44.721 and an angle of 63.435Ω at 20
MHz was measured 33.75m from the load. Find the value of the standing wave ratio.
a. 5.628
b. 5.826
c. 5.285
d. 0.707
151) Which of the following is not a common microwave application?
a. Radar
b. mobile radio
c. telephone
d. space craft communication
152) Determine the radio horizon for a transmit antenna that is 200m high and a
receiving antenna that is 100 m high. Express answer in km. 2 decimal places
99.47 km

153) An analog signal with the amplitude -3.92 V is converted to a 12-bit PCM code
with a resolution 0.003V. Determine the 12-bit PCM code assigned to this sample -
3.92/0.003.
010100011011 (not sure)
154) The inner dimension of a rectangular waveguide are 1.75 cm and 3.5 cm. The
cut off wavelength for the dominant mode is
a. 1.75 cm
b. 3.5 cm
c. 7.0 cm
d. 5.0 cm
155) Which is not true about synchronous time division multiplexing
a. Synchronous TDM can be seen as two fast-rotating switches on at the
multiplexing side and the other at the demultiplexing side
b. In synchronous TDM, the data rate is n time faster and the unit duration is n
times shorter where n is number of slots in a frame
c. In synchronous TDM, the multiplexer combines light signal using a fiber channel
and produce unidirectional light
d. In synchronous TDM, digital and analog data are combined into one timed
shared link
156) Which is not true about FHSS?
a. The signal is broadcast over seemingly random series of frequencies
b. Each bit is represented by multiple bits using a spreading code
c. Eavesdroppes intelligence blips
d. Receiver hops between frequencies in sync with transmitter
157) A PCM system has a minimum dynamic range 70 dB. Determine the minimum
number of bits used in the PCM codes.
70 = 20log(2^x-1) or 70 dB / 6.02
11.63 bits
158) A PCM system has a minimum dynamic range 20 dM. Determine the minimum
number of bits used in the PCM codes.
20 = 20log(2^x-1) 20 dM / 1.23 = 16.26 bits
3.32 bits
159) A DS-0 single-channel PCM system uses a 12 kHz sampling rate and an eight-bit
PCM code for PCM-TDM transmission. What is the produced PCM line speed of the said
system?
a. 64
b. 96
c. 128
d. 160
160) The main benefit of using microwave is
a. Lower cost equipment
b. Simpler equipment
c. Greater transmission distance
d. More spectrum space for signals
161) Waveguides are used mainly for microwave transmission because
a. They are bulky at lower frequencies
b. Losses are heavy at lower frequencies
c. They depend on straight line propagation
d. No generators are powerful enough to excite them
162) Which of the following statement is true in the spectrum of a frequency modulated
wave?
a. carrier frequency starts decreasing at a faster rate when the modulation index is
large
b. the amplitude of any sideband is totally depends on modulation index
c. total number of sidebands completely depends on the modulation index
d. carrier frequency is amplified
163) Which antenna is not a wideband?
a. Discone
b. Folded dipole
c. Helical
d. Marconi
164) What antenna can be used to minimize the effect of Faraday rotation of
polarization?
a. Dipole
b. Parabolic
c. Helical
d. Rhombic
165) All kinds of two-way radio communication take place in this frequency band.
a. MF
b. UHF
c. VHF
d. HF
166) Codec stands for
a. Compress-Decompress
b. Coder-Decoder
c. Coded Carrier
d. Control-Decode
167) Frequencies that are generally referred to as light
a. Ultraviolet
b. Visible Light
c. Infrared
d. Optics
168) Indicate the true statement below. The directional coupler is
a. a device used to connect a transmitter to directional antenna
b. a coupling device for matching impedance
c. a device used to measure transmission line power
 d. an SWR measuring instrument
169) Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they
a. pass into medium of different dielectric constant
b. are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
c. encounter a perfectly conducting surface
d. pass through small slot in a conducting plane
170) Distortion created by using too low a sampling rate when coding an analog signal
for digital transmission.
a. Aliasing
b. Overload distortion
c. Sampling error
d. Quantization error
171) A (75-j50) load is connected to a coaxial transmission line of Z0=75, at 10 GHz.
The best method of matching consists in connecting
a. short circuited stub at the load
b. an inductance at the load
c. a capacitance at some specific distance form the load
d. a short circuited stub at some specific distance from the load
172) Helical antennas are often used per satellite tracking at VHF because of
a. Troposcatter
b. Super refraction
c. Ionospheric refraction
d. Faraday effect
173) For transmission-line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use
a. Balun
b. Broadband directional coupler
c. Double stub
d. Single adjustable stub
174) A modulator circuit performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs?
a. Addition
b. Multiplication
c. Division
d. Subtraction
175) In an improperly loaded transmission line, determine the power reflected from the
load if the incident power of the load is 600 W and the reflection coefficient is 0.5
a. 246 W
b. 156 W Pr = ∣Γ∣^2∗Pi Pr = (0.5^2)(600) = 150 W
c. 146 W
d. 201 W
176) In an improperly loaded transmission line, determine the power reflected from the
load if the incident power at the load is 500 W and the reflection coefficient is 0.71.
a. 252.04 W
b. 252.05 W Pr = (0.71^2)(500) = 252.05 W
c. 252.06 W
d. 252.07 W
177) Both FM and PM are types of kind of modulation
a. Pulse
 b. Digital
c. Angle
d. Amplitude
178) Determine the wavelength of a signal whose frequency is 500 MHz
a. 0.6 m (3x10^8)/(500x10^6)
b. 0.7 m
c. 0.8 m
d. 0.9 m
179) In the designation of bandwidth and emission, what letter in the first symbol
represents an SSBC signal?
a. J
b. B
c. C
d. R
180) In the designation of bandwidth and emission, what letter in the first symbol
represents an ISB signal?
a. C
b. J
c. B
d. A
181) How far away is the radio horizon of an antenna 100 ft high?
a. 14.14 miles √2(100) =14.14mi
b. 5.23 miles
c. 144.15 miles
d. 568.1 miles
182) What is the maximum line of sight distance between a paging antenna 250 ft.
high and a pager receiver 3.5 ft of the ground?
a. 26 miles
b. 25 miles √(2(250) +√(2(3.5) =25.006 mi
c. 21 miles
d. 23 miles
183) What is the index of refraction of a certain substance if a light travel through the
substance at 100 meters at a time is to 140 meters to air?
a. 2.2
b. 1.4
c. 15.2
d. 48.2
184) It is the process of receiving single signal and produces output on multiple
channels simultaneously.
a. Modulation
b. Demultiplexing
c. Multiplexing
d. Demodulation
185) In statistical time-division multiplexing, slots are dynamically allocated to
_______.
a. Increase the rate of transmission
b. Prevent interference of signals
c. For faster transmission time
d. Improve the bandwidth efficiency
186) How many voice channels are multiplexed in a T2 line?
a. 96
b. 24
c. 48
d. 12
187) Five 10-kbps connections are multiplexed together. A unit is 1 bit. How many
slots are there in each frame?
a. 2
b. 1
c. 4
d. 5
188) Five 10-kbps connections are multiplexed together. A unit is 1 bit. Determine the
rate of the transmission link in kbps.
= 50 kbps
189) Five 10-kbps connections are multiplexed together. A unit is 1 bit. Determine the
frame rate in frames/sec.
= 10000 frames/sec
190) Five 10-kbps connections are multiplexed together. A unit is 1 bit. Determine the
duration of each frame in micro seconds.
= 100 ms
191) Ten 100-kbps connections are multiplexed together. A unit is 1 bit. Determine the
frame rate in frames/sec
= 100000 frames/sec
192) 4 1-Mbps connections are multiplexed together. A unit is 1 bit. Find the duration
of the output timeslot.
a. 1 µsec
b. 250 µsec
c. 1 ms
d. 250 ms
193) 5 10-kbps connections are multiplexed together. A unit is 1 bit. Find the duration
of the output timeslot.
a. 100 µsec
b. 2 µsec
c. 20 µs
d. 10 µs

194) The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is:

a. 64 kbps
b. 256 kbps
c. 1.544 Mbps
d. 1.536 Mbps
195) What is the maximum data rate of a DDS?
a. 256 kbps
b. 64 kbps
c. 128 kbps
d. 56 kbps
196) In synchronous time-division multiplexing, if a source does not have data to send,
the corresponding slot in the output frame is _____.
a. Left empty
b. Used by another source that has data to send
c. Is considered an error and has to call retransmission
d. Removed and replaced with another slot
197) A QPSK modulator has the following inputs: I=0 Q=1, reference carrier of coswct
the output is
a. sinwct + coswct
b. sinwct – coswct
c. -sinwct + coswct
d. -sinwct – coswct
198) Determine the check digit of the ISBN 10 055326396-?
=x
(0 ∗ 1) + (5 ∗ 2) + (5 ∗ 3) + (3 ∗ 4) + (2 ∗ 5) + (6 ∗ 6) + (3 ∗ 7) + (9 ∗ 8) + (6 ∗ 9)

= 231 mod 11 = 21

199) A multiplexing technique used with spread spectrum.

a. CDMA
 b. WCDMA
c. TDMA
d. FDMA
200) Which of the following is not an advantage of spreading the bandwidth?
a. Several users can share same higher bandwidth with little interference
b. Signals after spreading can travel a much farther distance
c. Immunity from noise and multipath distortion
d. Can hide encrypt signals
201) An alternative approach that is similar to ADSL; uses coaxial, fiber-optic or
twisted pair cable for short distances (300 to 1800 meters);
a. High Bit Rate DSL
b. Very High Bit Rate DSL
c. SDSL
d. RADSL
202) Which statement is true about Symmetric (single-line) Digital Subscriber Line
(SDSL)?
a. Designed by Telcordia as an alternative to the T-1 line
b. Same as HDSL but uses one single pair twisted cable, available to most
residential subscribers to achieve the same data rate as HDSL.
c. A technology based in DSL; allows different data rates depending on the type of
communication; differing rates may also be assigned to subscribers based on
their demand on bandwidth.
d. A communications technology in which the downstream data rate is higher than
the upstream rate.
203) Fiber optic communication systems typically operate in what three wavelength
windows?
a. 400 nm, 850 nm, 1550 nm
b. 400 nm, 900 nm, 1400 nm
c. 850 nm, 1300 nm, 1550 nm
d. 1300 nm, 2000 nm, 4000 nm
204) A directional coupler with three or more holes is sometimes used in preference to
the two-hole coupler.
a. because it is more efficient
b. to increase coupling of the signal
c. to reduce spurious mode generation
d. to increase the bandwidth of the system
205) An FM receiver with an IF of 10.7 MHz is tuned to 98.7 MHz. What is the
numerical value of the image frequency?
a. 77.3 MHz
b. 88.0 MHz
c. 109.4 MHz
d. 120.1 MHz 98.7+2(10.7)
206) In a superheterodyne receiver with an IF of 450 kHz is tuned to a signal at 1200
kHz. The image frequency is
a. 750 kHz
b. 990 kHz
c. 1650 kHz
 d. 2100 kHz 1200+2(450)
207) A superheterodyne is tuned to 2738 kHz. The IF is 475 kHz. What is the image
frequency?
= 3688 kHz 2738+2(475)
208) How many voice channels are there in a master group?
a. 3600
b. 12
c. 600
d. 60
209) A 100 MHz carrier is deviated 50 kHz by 4 kHz signal. The modulation index is
a. 5
b. 8
c. 12.5 50x10^3 / 4x10^3
d. 20
210) A fiber has an acceptance angle of 50.8 degrees, calculate the numerical
aperture.
a. 0.429
b. 0.663
c. 0.775 1sin(50.8)=0.7749
d. 0.9796
211) One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to
a. provide improved tracking
b. permit better adjacent-channel rejection
c. increase the tuning range of the receiver
d. improve the rejection of the image frequency
212) The "attenuation of free space" is due to:
a. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space
b. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere
c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront
d. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront
213) Light leaves a slab of transparent material whose index of refraction is 2.0 at an
angle of 0 degrees. The angle of incidence is
a. 45
b. 90
c. 0 2sin(0)
d. 30
214) A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise immunity by
a. converting the phase modulation of FM
b. preamplifying the whole audio band
c. amplifying the higher audio frequencies
d. boosting the pass frequencies
215) An instrument designed to measure a frequency-weighted value of the sound
pressure level.
a. Sound analyzer
b. Sound level meter
c. Transducer
d. Sound pressure meter
216) The typical core diameter of a single mode fiber is
a. 8 µm
b. 8 to 100 µm
c. 125 µm
d. 800 to 1550 µm
217) Space waves are
a. Line of sight
b. Reflected off the ionosphere
c. Same as sky waves
d. Radio waves used for satellite communication
218) The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is
a. 6
b. 24
c. 12
d. 60
219) The Hartley Shannon theorems sets a limit on the
a. Highest frequency that may be sent over a given channel
b. Maximum capacity of a channel given noise level
c. Maximum number of coding levels in a channel with a given noise level
d. Maximum number of quantizing levels in a channel of a given bandwidth
220) _____ sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level.
a. Hartley Theorem
b. Shannon-Hartley Theorem
c. Nyquist Theorem
d. Shannon Theorem
221) Indicate which of the following systems is digital.
a. Pulse Position Modulation
b. Pulse Code Modulation
c. Pulse Width Modulation
d. Pulse Frequency Modulation
222) Find the Doppler shift caused by a vehicle moving toward a radar at 60 mph, if
the radar operates at 10 GHz.
a. 3.5 KHz
b. 1.75 KHz
c. 7 KHz
d. 0.875 KHz
223) The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is the
a. infinitesimal dipole
b. isotropic antenna
c. elementary doublet
d. half wave dipole
224) If the carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed, the power saving will
be ____ percent.
a. 50
b. 75
c. 100
d. 67
225) Calculate the noise figure of the amplifier whose Req equals 2518Ω (RT=600Ω) if
its driven by a generator whose output impedance is 50Ω.
a. 39.4
b. 3.94
c. 394
d. 0.394
𝑅′𝑒𝑞 = 𝑅𝑒𝑞 − 𝑅𝑡 = 2518 − 600 = 1918 Ω
1918Ω
1 + 𝑅′𝑒𝑞 𝑅𝑎 = 1 + = 1 + 38.36 = 39.4 𝑑𝐵
50Ω
226) An FM broadcast station operates with a peak-to-peak deviation of 120 kHz.
Calculate the percentage modulation.
a. 62.5 %
b. 80 %
c. 82.5 %
d. 100 %
227) The phenomenon of a strong FM signal dominating a weaker signal on a
common frequency is referred to as the
a. Doppler effect
b. Capture effect
c. Faraday’s rotation
d. None of the above
228) It is required to match a 73-ohm antenna to a 600 ohm polyethylene coaxial
feeder line, with a velocity factor of 0.66 by means of a quarter wave matching a
transformer. At a frequency of 150MHz, the impedance of the matching section is____
ohms.
a. 209.28
b. 310.5
c. 150.28
d. 450.82
229) The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted
power is
a. Unchanged
b. Halved
c. Increased by 50%
d. Doubled
230) Find the input reactance of a 600Ω line terminated in an inductive reactance
equivalent to 240Ω when the line has a length of 0.1λ.
a. j92.836Ω
b. j952.836Ω
c. j952.836Ω
d. –j952.836Ω
231) A 70kHz carrier has a frequency deviation of 4kHz with a 1000 Hz signal. How
many significant sideband pairs are produced?
a. 0.25
b. 7
c. none of the choices
d. 17.5
232) What modulation technique is used if the encoding scheme has 2 outputs
possible, and the bandwidth and baud is equal to the bit rate?
a. 8-QAM
b. BPSK
c. 8-PSK
d. QPSK
233) The minimum depth for an underground entrance conduit under areas used fir
vehicular traffic inside private property.
a. 300 mm
b. 600 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 1m
234) A “repeater” is used to:
a. send a message multiple times over a channel
b. send message over multiple channels at the same time
c. extend the range of a radio communications systems
d. cancel the effect of fading
235) A candle power that is located 12 ft from a surface provides how many lux?
a. 37.375 lux
b. 74.75 lux
c. 15.32 lux
d. 67.33 lux
236) A microwave communication uses plane reflectors as passive repeaters. The
diameter of the parabolic antenna is 18 ft while the effective area is 310 sq ft. Determine
the reflector coupling factor.
a. 0.76
b. 0.906
c. 0.92
d. 0.706

237) Find the group velocity for the waveguide with a cutoff frequency of 3.75GHz and
operating at 5GHz.
a. 198 x 10^6 m/s
b. 396 x 10^6 m/s
c. 138 x 10^6 m/s
d. 217 x 10^6 m/s
238) A satellite receives an uplink frequency of ____________ MHz from a ground
station of 3700 MHz.
a. 8150 MHz
b. 1475 MHz
c. 2225 MHz
d. 5925 MHz
239) If the power content of a carrier of an AM wave is 4KW at a percentage
modulation of 80% power content of each sideband is ____ KW.
 a. 1.3333
b. 0.64
c. 0.8
d. 0.667

𝑚2 0.82
𝑃𝑡 = 𝑃𝑐 [1 + ] 𝑃𝑡 = 4 × 103 [1 + ] 𝑃𝑡 = 5280𝑊
2 2

𝑚2 0.82
𝑃𝑆𝐵 = × 𝑃𝑐 = × 5280 = 844.8𝑊 = 0.8𝑘𝑊
4 4

240) What are the two basic categories of fiber splices?

a. Glass and plastic
b. Metal and ceramic
c. V-groove and rotary
d. Mechanical and fusion
241) The velocity factor for a transmission line
a. depends on the dielectric constant of the material used
b. increases the velocity along the transmission line
c. is governed by the skin effect
d. is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
242) Steps to follow to produce PCM signal.
a. Quantizing, sampling, and coding
b. Sampling, quantizing, and coding
c. Sampling, coding and quantizing
d. Coding, quantizing and coding
243) What is the reference noise level?
a. 10 pW
b. 0 dBm
c. 1mW
d. -90 dBm
244) Waveguides becomes compulsory above what frequencies?
a. Above 3 GHz
b. Above 10 kHz
c. At 300 MHz
d. Above 10 GHz
245) The transmission and reception of information is known as
a. Modulation
b. Communications
c. Radiation
d. Emission
246) An amplifier has output S/N that is half of its input S/N. What is its noise figure?
a. 3 dB
b. -3 dB
c. 2 dB
d. None of the choices
247) Transmission lines when connected to antennas have
 a. Capacitive load
b. Resistive load whose resistance is greater than the line impedance
c. Resistive load whose resistance is less than the line impedance
d. Resistive load at resonant frequency
248) Frequency modulation and phase modulation are collectively referred to as
a. Stereo
b. Angle modulation
c. High fidelity modulation
d. FCC modulation
249) The type of AM signal that is used in TV broadcasting is called
a. B8E
b. C3F
c. R3E
d. H3E
250) The power density of “flicker” noise is
a. The same at all frequencies
b. Greater at low frequencies
c. Greater at high frequencies
d. The same as “white” noise
251) This is the minimum range of frequencies required propagating the source
information through the system.
a. None of the choices
b. Cut-off frequency
c. Resonant frequency
d. Bandwidth
252) An analog pulse modulation technique in which the duration of each resulting
pulse is varied in step with the amplitude of the modulating signal at the time. It is
sampled and the sampled pulses have the same amplitude.
a. Pulse Amplitude Modulation
b. Pulse Code Modulation
c. Pulse Width Modulation
d. Pulse Position Modulation
253) A form of digital modulation where the amplitude of the modulating signal is
converted into binary coded pulses.
a. Pulse Code Modulation
b. Pulse Position Modulation
c. Pulse Amplitude Modulation
d. Pulse Width Modulation
254) A pulse modulation technique as the width of a constant amplitude pulse is varied
proportional to the amplitude of the analog signal at the time the signal is sampled.
a. Pulse Width Modulation
b. Pulse Length Modulation
c. Pulse Duration Modulation
d. All of these
255) One type of pulse communications system uses pulse that appear as a group,
and which vary in number according to the loudness of the voice. This type of pulse
modulation is called
 a. Pulse Duration Modulation
b. Pulse Amplitude Modulation
c. Pulse Code Modulation
d. Pulse Position Modulation
256) A piece of RG-59B/U coaxial cable has a 75-ohm characteristic impedance. If the
diameter of the inner conductor is 0.584 mm, and the dielectric constant of the insulation
is 2.23, what is the outer conductor diameter?
a. 5.21 mm
b. 4.56 mm
c. 3.77 mm
d. 6.02 mm
138 𝑑𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑟 138 𝑑𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑟
𝑍0 = ( ) 𝑙𝑜𝑔10 ( ) 75 = ( ) 𝑙𝑜𝑔10 ( )
√𝜀 𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑛𝑒𝑟 √2.23 0.584 × 10−3
257) Sound is fastest in which of the following media?
a. None of the choices
b. Solids
c. Liquid
d. Gas
258) VLF waves are used for some types of services because
a. The transmitting antennas are of convenient size
b. They penetrate the ionosphere easily
c. They are very reliable
d. Of the low power required
259) Find the input impedance of a transmission line 4.3 lambda long when Zo=100Ω
and Zl=200- j150Ω
a. 41.09 + 54.64Ω
b. 41.09 + 56.64Ω
c. 54.64 + 41.09Ω
d. 56.64 + 41.09Ω
260) Most internal noise comes from
a. thermal agitation
b. skin effect
c. shot noise
d. transmit time noise
261) A FM transmitter has a maximum deviation of 12kHz and a maximum modulation
frequency of 12kHz. The bandwidth by Carson’s rule is
a. 24kHz
b. 48kHz
c. 12kHz
d. 36kHz

262) What is the approximate frequency of the modulating signal having a bandwidth
(using Carson’s rule) of 15kHz and a frequency deviation of 6kHz?
a. 3kHz
b. 1.5kHz
 c. 6kHz
d. 4.5kHz
263) The maximum deviation of an FM carrier is 2kHz by a maximum modulating
signal of 400Hz. The deviation ratio is
a. 5
b. 0.2
c. 800
d. none of the choices

264) A transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 50Ω. Find the inductance
of the line if it is operating at 1MHz with a velocity of 2.4 x10^8 m/sec.
a. 20.8333 nH/m
b. 28.3333 nH/m
c. 208.3333 nH/m
d. 0.208333 nH/m

265) These are systems involving the transmission of digital pulses.

a. Digital transmission
b. Digital communications
c. Frequency transmission
d. Digital radio
266) The local AM broadcast band is:
a. 525-1705 kHz
b. none of the choices
c. 525-1605 kHz
d. 535-1605 kHz
267) A type of microwave antenna in which the feed-point is located at the vertex of
the parabola and is directed against a secondary hyperbolic reflector.
a. Lens antenna
b. Spherical reflector
c. Parabolic dish
d. Cassegrain antenna
268) To install an antenna with a line-of-sight transmission at a distance of 75 miles,
determine the height of a receiving antenna if the transmitting antenna is 250ft.
a. 255 ft
b. 600 ft
c. 1,385 ft
d. 400ft
 Radius of the Earth = 6.4×10^6m
269) In an FM signal, the power ___ as the modulation index increase.
a. remains constant
b. none of the choices
c. increases
d. reduces
270) The captured area of an antenna is directly proportional to the
a. power density of the signal
b. distance between transmitter and receiver
c. frequency of the received signal
d. gain of the antenna
271) An electromagnetic wave is ___ polarized when the electric field lies wholly in
one place containing the direction of propagation.
a. Horizontally
b. Linearly
c. Vertically
d. Circularly
272) A TV channel can accommodate ___ FM stations.
a. 7
b. 9
c. 6
d. 8
273) Digital modulation technique used in modems.
a. ASK
b. PSK
c. FSK
d. All of these
274) Phase reversal keying is another name for?
a. FSK
b. PSK
c. BPSK
d. QPSK
275) What is the opposition to the transfer of energy which is considered the dominant
characteristics of a cable or circuit that emanates from its physical structure?
a. Conductance
b. Resistance
c. Reactance
d. Impedance
276) When load impedance equals to Zo of the line, It means that the load _____ all
the power.
a. Reflects
b. Absorbs
c. Attenuates
d. Radiates
277) When VSWR is equal to zero, this means
a. That no power is applied
 b. That the load is purely resistive
c. That the load is a pure reactance
d. That the load is opened
278) _________ is the ratio of reflected voltage to the forward travelling voltage.
a. SWR
b. VSWR
c. Reflection coefficient
d. ISWR
279) Ratio of reflected power to incident power
a. Incidence
b. Reflectance
c. Reflection index
d. None of these
280) Transmission line must be matched to the load to ___________.
a. Transfer maximum voltage to the load
b. Transfer maximum power to the load
c. Reduce the load current
d. Transfer maximum current to the load
281) Which indicate the relative energy loss in a capacitor?
a. Quality factor
b. Reactive factor
c. Dissipation factor
d. Power factor
282) Any unwanted form of energy that tends to interfere with the wanted signals is
called
a. radiation
b. noise
c. spectrum
d. absorption
283) The energy that neither radiated into space nor completely transmitted.
a. Reflected waves
b. Captured waves
c. Incident waves
d. Standing waves
284) __________ is a pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission
line not terminated in its characteristic impedance.
a. An electric field
b. Radio wave
c. Standing waves
d. A magnetic field
285) Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio frequencies?
a. Because of the size of the waveguide
b. Due to severe attenuation
c. Due to too much radiation
d. All of these
286) Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to
a. Negative terminal
 b. Reference
c. Ground
d. Positive terminal
287) The standing wave ratio is equal to ________ if the load is properly matched with
the transmission line.
a. Infinity
b. 0
c. -1
d. 1
288) ________ is the advantage of the balanced transmission line compared to
unbalanced line.
a. Low attenuation
b. Easy installation
c. Low radiation loss
d. Tensile strength
289) _________ is the method of determining the bandwidth of any processing
system.
a. Fourier series
b. Spectral analysis
c. Frequency analysis
d. Bandwidth analysis
290) What causes the attenuation present in a waveguide?
a. The air dielectric filling the guide.
b. The coating of silver inside
c. Losses in the conducting walls of the guide
d. Radiation loss
291) A device that converts a balanced line to an unbalanced line of a transmission
line.
a. Hybrid
b. Stub
c. Directional coupler
d. Balun
292) To connect a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, __________ is used.
a. Hybrid circuit
b. Balun
c. Directional coupler
d. Quarter-wave transformer matching circuit
293) Impedance inversion can be obtained by
a. A short-circuited stub
b. An open-circuited stub
c. A quarter-wave line
d. A half-wave line
294) One of the following is not a bounded media.
a. Coaxial line
b. Two-wire line
c. Waveguide
d. Ocean
295) An example of a bounded medium is
a. Coaxial cable
b. Waveguide
c. Fiber-optic cable
d. All of the above
296) The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is
infinite.
a. Input impedance
b. Open circuit impedance
c. Characteristic impedance
d. Short circuit impedance
297) The following are considered primary line constants except
a. Conductance
b. Resistance
c. Capacitance
d. Complex propagation constant
298) The dielectric constants of materials commonly used in transmission lines range
about
a. 1.2 to 2.8
b. 2.8 to 3.5
c. 3.5 to 5.2
d. 1.0 to 1.2
299) Typically, the velocity factor of the materials used in transmission lines range
from
a. 0.6 to 0.9
b. 0.1 to 0.5
c. 1.0 to 0.9
d. 0.6 to 0.8
300) For an air dielectric two-wire line, the minimum characteristic impedance value is
a. 85 ohms
b. 83 ohms
c. 90 ohms
d. 88 ohms
301) When a quarter-wave section transmission lines is terminated by a short circuit
and is connected to an RF source at the other end, its put impedance is
a. Inductive
b. Capacitive
c. Resistive
d. Equivalent to a parallel resonant LC circuit
302) The concept use to make one Smith chart universal is called
a. Ionization
b. Normalization
c. Rationalization
d. Termination
303) What are the basic elements of communication system?
a. Source, transmission channel, transmitter
b. Transmitter, receiver, transmission channel
 c. Information, transmission channel, receiver
d. Sender and receiver
304) If the SWR is infinite, what type of load transmission line has?
a. Purely reactive
b. Purely resistive
c. Purely capacitive
d. Purely inductive
305) The standard analog telephone channel bandwidth.
a. 300-3400 Hz
b. 1200 Hz
c. 200-3200 Hz
d. 300-3000 Hz
306) __________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of
compensating for the local loop length.
a. Resistor
b. Varistor
c. Capacitor
d. Induction coil
307) __________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of
interfacing the handset to the local loop.
a. Resistor
b. Varistor
c. Capacitor
d. Induction coil
308) Coaxial cable impedance is typically __________.
a. 150 to 300 ohms
b. 50 to 75 ohms
c. 30 to 45 ohms
d. 300 to 600 ohms
309) A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance is to be connected to an
antenna having an input impedance of 150 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter-
wave matching line?
a. 212 ohms 𝑍𝑜 = √𝑍𝑖𝑛 𝑍𝐿 𝑍𝑜 = √150(300)
b. 250 ohms
c. 200 ohms
d. 150 ohms
310) A radio transmission line of 500 ohms impedance is to be connected to an
antenna having an impedance of 200 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter-wave
matching line?
a. 300
b. 316 𝑍𝑜 = √200(500)
c. 316.5
d. 361
311) The transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher
modes is usually called
a. Coaxial cable
b. Waveguide
 c. Power lines
d. Twisted wire of telephone line
312) A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated along a guide whose
inner dimensions are 2 cm by 4 cm. What is the value of the guide wavelength?
a. 3.12 cm
b. 3.89 cm
c. 3.57 cm
d. 6.30 cm
313) The frequency range over which a rectangular waveguide is excited in the
dominant mode is limited to
a. The difference between the frequency for which the reflection angle is 90
degrees and the frequency for which angle is zero.
b. The difference between the frequency for which the free space wavelength is
equal to cutoff value and the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is
equal to the guide wavelength.
c. The difference between the frequency at which the cutoff wavelength is twice the
narrow dimension.
d. None of these
314) It is a dial-up service most often encountered when using a home telephone. It
uses two-wire (or four-wire) twisted pair cable to connect the subscriber’s handset to the
network via an exchange.
= Analog Switched Service
315) Offers customers the opportunity to lease a line that is permanently connected to
another customer.
= Analog Leased Service
316) What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF
energy near the human body?
a. American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
c. Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
d. Institute Of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
317) The sole professional organization of ECEs which was founded in 1950.
a. IECEP (Institute of Electronics Engineers of the Philippines)
b. ECES
c. IEEE
d. IIECE
318) Facsimile standards are set by the
a. FCC
b. DOD
c. CCITT (Telecommunication Standardization Sector (ITU-T))
d. IEEE
319) Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in
the communications field?
a. ITU-T
b. IEEE
c. FCC (Federal Communications Commission)
d. ISOC
320) What encoding technique is used by IEEE standard?
a. NRZ-L
b. AMI
c. Manchester
d. Differential Manchester
321) If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at one end
a. There is minimum current at the shorted end
b. The line behaves as a parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the generator
c. The line behaves as a series-turned circuit in relation to the generator
d. There is a minimum voltage at the shorted end
322) A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Series resonant circuit
d. Parallel resonant circuit
323) A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Series resonant circuit
d. Parallel resonant circuit
324) The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded
a. At the beginning and at the end of the cable
b. Only at the beginning of the cable and only at the end of the cable
c. Only at the end of the cable
d. At the middle of the cable
325) What is the SWR when the transmission line is terminated in a short circuit?
a. Zero
b. One
c. Infinite
d. Indeterminate
326) A feature of an infinite transmission line is that
a. Its input impedance at the generator is equal to the line’s surge impedance
b. Its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light
c. No RF current will be drawn from the generator
d. The impedance varies at different positions on the line
327) When the surge impedance of a line is matched to a load, the line will
a. Transfer maximum current to the load
b. Transfer maximum voltage to the load
c. Transfer maximum power to the load
d. Have a VSWR equal to zero
328) A medium least susceptible to noise?
a. Shielded pair
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic
d. Coaxial
329) A medium not widely used in LANs?
a. Parallel-wire line
 b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic
d. Coaxial
330) The most commonly used transmission line in television system.
a. Parallel-wire line
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Open-wire with ceramic supports
331) A type of transmission line employed where balanced properties are required.
a. Balun
b. Parallel-wire line
c. Coaxial line
d. Quarter-wave line
332) The impedance of a TV transmission line depends on several factors. Which is
not one of those factors?
a. Diameter
b. Length of the wire
c. Dielectric material
d. Separation between conductors
333) DC blocks are used in coaxial transmission line for the purpose of
a. Passing DC while blocking AC
b. Passing AC voltage but prevent DC
c. Preventing AC voltage from reaching the pre-amplifier
d. Preventing AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a balun or band
splitter
334) A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load which is not equal to the surge
impedance. If the value of the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 15

335) What is the distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle?
a.Frequency
b.Hop
c.Wavelength
d.Crest
336) The velocity factor is inversely proportional with respect to the __________.
a. Square of the dielectric constant
b. Square root of the dielectric constant
c. Dielectric constant
d. Square root of refractive index
337) A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. what is the dominant
mode cut-off frequency?
a. 2 GHz
b. 3 GHz
 c. 2.5 GHz
d. 3.5 GHz
338) The twist in twisted wire pairs
a. Reduce electromagnetic interference
b. Occur at a 30 degree angle
c. Eliminate loading
d. Were removed due to cost
339) Loading means the addition of
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor
c. Bullet
d. Inductance
340) What is the most commonly used transmission line for high frequency
application?
a. Two-wire balance line
b. Single wire
c. Three-wire line
d. Coaxial
341) One of the following is not a common transmission line impedance.
a. 50 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 120 ohms
d. 300 ohms
342) For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the
characteristic impedance of the line Zo and the load impedance ZL should be
a. Zo = ZL
b. Zo > ZL
c. Zo < ZL
d. Zo = 0
343) The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedance cannot be
corrected for by
a. Using LC matching network
b. Adjusting antenna length
c. Using a balun
d. Adjusting the length of transmission line
344) The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum is
390 V. The SWR is
a. 0.67
b. 1
c. 1.2
d. 1.5
345) Important useful quantities describing waveforms.
a. Time and frequency
b. Voltage an current
c. Frequency and voltage
d. Power and frequency
346) A signal is amplified 100 times in power. The dB gain is
a. 20 dB
b. 119 dB
c. 15 dB
d. 25 dB

347) Which of the following is used to measure SWR?

a. Spectrum analyzer
b. Reflectometer
c. Oscilloscope
d. Multimeter
348) What is the characteristics impedance of a transmission line which is to act as a
quarter-wave matching transformer between a 175 ohms transmission line and 600
ohms load?
a. 300.04 ohms
0 𝑍 2
b. 324.04 ohms 175 = 600
c. 310.04 ohms
d. 320.04 ohms

349) The input is 0.1 W and the network gain is 13 dB, the output is
𝑃2
a. 2 W 13𝑑𝐵 = 10𝑙𝑜𝑔10 (0.1𝑊 )
b. 2.5 W
c. 1.5 W
d. 1.8 W

350) The input is 1 W and the network loss is 27 dB, the output is
a. 1 mW
b. 3 mW
 𝑃
2
c. 2 mW −27𝑑𝐵 = 10𝑙𝑜𝑔10 (1𝑊 )
d. 4 mW
351) The input power to a loss-free cable is 5 W. If the reflected power is 7 dB down
on the incident power, the output power to the load is
a. 4 W
b. 5 W
c. 6 W
d. 7 W
352) To find the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable, measurements are made
with (a) the far end open circuited and (b) far end short circuited, the corresponding
readings being
a) Ro = 3 ohms and Xc = 55 ohms capacitive
b) Rs = 10 ohms and XL = 90 ohms inductive
What is the characteristic impedance, Zo, of the line?
a. 75.7 – j2.0 ohms
b. 70.7 + j1.19 ohms
c. 87.5 – j5 ohms
d. 70.7 – j1.97 ohms
353) A lossless transmission line has a shunt capacitance of 100 nF/m and a series
inductance of 4 mH/m. What is the characteristic impedance?
a. 500 ohms
b. 400 ohms
c. 300 ohms
d. 200 ohms

354) A quarter wave transformer is used to match a 600 ohms load antenna to a line
of 52 ohms impedance, the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer is
a. 200 ohms
b. 150 ohms
c. 176 ohms
d. 300 ohms

355) What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a

capacitance of 40 nF/ft and an inductance of 0.5 mH/ft
a. 111.8 ohms
b. 110.8 ohms
c. 112.8 ohms
d. 109.8 ohms
356) If an amplifier has equal input and output impedances, what voltage ratio does
the gain of 50 dB represent?
a. 316.2 dB=20log(Vout/Vin) 50=20log(x)
 b. 325.2
c. 320.1
d. 315
357) What is the inductance per foot of a cable that has a capacitance of 50 pF per ft
and a characteristic impedance of 60 ohms?
a. 0.167 µH per ft
b. 0.178 µH per ft
c. 0.19 µH per ft
d. 0.18 µH per ft 60 = √𝑥/50𝑥10^ − 12
358) The ratio between the energy absorbed by a surface to the total energy received
by the surface.
a. Reflection coefficient
b. Absorption coefficient
c. Linear coefficient
d. Thermal coefficient
359) When the diameter of the conductors of a 2-wire transmission line is held
constant, the effect of decreasing the distance between the conductors is
a. Increase the surge impedance
b. Increase the radiation resistance
c. Decrease the SWR
d. Decrease the impedance
360) The higher the gauge number of a conductor
a. The bigger the diameter
b. The higher the resistance of the smaller the diameter
c. The higher the resistance
d. None of these
361) A short length of transmission line used to reduce/eliminate standing waves in
the main transmission line.
a. Stub
b. Balun
c. lambda/4 transformer
d. Slot
362) Speaker is a device that
a. Converts sound waves into current and voltage
b. Converts current variations into sound waves
c. Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy
d. Converts electrical energy into electromagnetic energy
363) _______ is early reflection of sound.
a. Echo
b. Reverberation
c. Pure sound
d. Intelligible sound
364) Sound wave has two main characteristics which are
a. Highness and loudness
b. Tone and loudness
c. Pitch and loudness
d. Refraction and compression
365) A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity.
a. Phon
b. Decibel
c. Pascal
d. Watts
366) Sound waves travel in water at a _______ speed.
a. 12.4 miles per sec
b. 5000 ft per sec
c. 186, 000 ft per sec
d. 3141 ft per sec
367) Speed that is faster than speed of sound.
a. Ultrasonic
b. Supersonic
c. Subsonic
d. Transonic
368) When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called _______.
a. Reflection
b. Diffraction
c. Rarefaction
d. Refraction
369) A phenomenon which causes the speed of light rays propagation in the fiber
material changes, as it passes through different medium in the fiber.
a. Bending
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
d. Reflection
370) Tendency of a sound energy to spread.
a. Diffraction
b. Rarefaction
c. Reflection
d. Refraction
371) ___________ occurs when the microwave beam is at point of grazing over an
obstacle.
a. Diffraction
b. Refraction
c. Absorption
d. Reflection
372) What is the category of data transmission if the binary pulse is maintained for the
entire bit time?
a. Return to zero
b. Bipolar
c. Unipolar
d. Non – return to zero
373) It is defined as knowledge or intelligence that is communicated between two or
more points.
a. Carrier
b. Sideband
 c. Information
d. Broadband
374) The FDM telephone systems accommodate many channels by
a. Increasing the multiplexer size
b. Using many final carriers
c. Narrowing the bandwidth of each
d. Using multiple levels of multiplexing
375) It is the transmittal of digitally modulated analog signals (carrier) between two or
more points in a communications system.
a. Digital modulation
b. Digital transmission
c. Data communications
d. Pulse modulation
376) It is the processing of analog signals using digital methods and includes band
limiting and signals with filters, amplitude equalization, and phase shifting.
a. Digital communications
b. Digital Signal Processing
c. Data communications
d. Carrier recovery method
377) It is the transmittal of digital signals between two or more points in a
communication system.
a. Digital transmittal
b. Digital communications
c. Digital radio
d. Data communications
378) Converting analog signals to digital is done by sampling and ___________.
a. Quantizing
b. Companding
c. Pre – emphasis
d. Mixing
379) Assigning PCM codes to absolute magnitudes
a. Coding
b. Quantizing
c. Sampling
d. Any of these
380) It is a process of converting an infinite number of possibilities to a finite number
of conditions.
a. Sampling
b. Coding
c. Quantization
d. Aliasing
381) Refers to the rate of change of a signal on a transmission medium after encoding
and modulation have occurred.
a. baud rate
b. phase shift
c. bit rate
d. frequency deviation
382) The number of amplitude, frequency, or phase changes that take place per
second is known as the
a. data rate in bits per second
b. frequency of operation
c. speed limit
d. baud rate
383) The baud rate
a. is always equal to the bit transfer rate
b. is equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel
c. is not equal to the signaling rate
d. is equal to one – half the bandwidth of an ideal channel
384) Bit errors in data transmission are usually caused by
a. equipment failures
b. typing mistakes
c. noise
d. poor S/N ratio at receiver
385) In PCM, it converts the PAM sampled to parallel PCM codes
a. Analog-to-Digital converter
b. Digital-to-analog converter
c. Pre-emphasis circuit
d. Compander
386) It is also known as digital modulation.
a. Digital transmission
b. Digital sampling
c. Digital radio
d. Data transmission
387) It is a numerical indication of how efficiently a PCM code is utilized
a. Coding efficiency
b. Companding
c. Pre-emphasis
d. Dynamic Range
388) A digital modulation technique which is a form of constant – amplitude angle
modulation similar to standard frequency modulation except the modulating signal is
binary signal that varies between two discreet voltage levels.
a. QAM
b. ASK
c. PSK
d. FSK
389) A form of angle – modulated, constant amplitude digital modulation similar to
conventional phase modulation except its input is binary digital signal and there are
limited numbers of output phase possible.
a. ASK
b. PSK
c. FSK
d. QAM
390) It is a form of phase-division multiplexing where two data channels modulate the
same carrier frequency that is shifted 90 degrees in phase.
 a. PSK
b. FSK
c. QAM
d. ASK
391) A form of digital modulation similar to PSK except the digital information is
contained in both the amplitude and the phase of the transmitted carrier.
a. ASK
b. FSK
c. QAM
d. PSK
392) The type of modulation most often used with direct sequence spread spectrum is
a. QAM
b. SSB
c. FSK
d. PSK
393) A signaling system in which each letter of the alphabet is represented by a
different symbol is not used because
a. it would be too difficult for an operator to memorize
b. it is redundant
c. noise would introduce too many errors
d. too many pulses per letter are required
394) A modulation process that involves conversion of a waveform from analog to
digital form by means of coding.
a. PDM
b. PCM
c. PLM
d. PAM
395) A scheme in which several channels are interleaved and then transmitted
together is known as
a. Frequency division multiplex
b. Time division multiplex
c. a group
d. a supergroup
396) What property distinguishes digital radio systems from conventional analog
communications system?
a. The type of carrier used in the transmission of data
b. The nature of the modulating signal
c. The type of modulation of data to be used
d. The nature of the transmitter and receiver to be used
397) A carrier recovery is needed with
a. FSK
b. BPSK
c. DPSK
d. QAM
398) Pulse – amplitude modulation signals are multiplexed by using
a. Subcarrier
b. Bandpass filters
 c. A/D converters
d. FET switches
399) It is the ratio of the transmission bit rate to the minimum bandwidth required for a
particular modulation scheme.
a. Bandwidth efficiency
b. All of these
c. Information density
d. Spectral efficiency
400) Transmitting the data signal directly over the medium is referred to as
a. Baseband
b. Broadband
c. Ring
d. Bus
401) It is a system where the digital signals are placed directly on the coaxial cable.
a. Broadband
b. Baseband
c. CSMA/CD
d. Token ring
402) The main reason that serial transmission is preferred to parallel transmission is
that?
a. serial is faster
b. serial requires only a single channel
c. serial requires multiple channels
d. parallel is too expensive
403) It is the process of compressing and expanding and is a means of improving the
dynamic range of communications system.
a. Pre-emphasis
b. Filtering
c. De-emphasis
d. Companding
404) Emphasizing low-level signals and compressing higher level signals is called
a. Quantizing
b. Companding
c. Pre-emphasis
d. Sampling
405) Any rounded – off errors in the transmitted signal are reproduced when the code
is converted back to analog in the receiver.
a. Aperture error
b. Quantization error
c. Aperture distortion
d. Slope overload
406) The biggest disadvantage of PCM is
a. Its inability to handle analog signals
b. The high error rate which is quantizing noise introduces
c. Its incompatibility with tdm
d. The large bandwidths that are required for it
407) It involves converting standard logic levels to a form more suitable to telephone
transmission lines
a. Transmission line encoding
b. Physical line encoding
c. Digital line encoding
d. Multiplexing
408) The primary advantage of digital transmission
a. economical
b. reliability
c. noise immunity
d. efficiency
409) It is defined as the process of transforming messages or signals in accordance
with a definite set of rules.
a. Quantizing
b. Sampling
c. Coding
d. Decoding
410) An IC that contains A/D and D/A converters, companders, and parallel to serial
converters is called a
a. Codec
b. Data converter
c. Multiplexer
d. Modem
411) It is a large-scale integration chip designed for use in telecommunication industry
for private branch exchanges, central office switches, digital handsets and digital echo
suppressors.
a. Vocoder
b. Modem
c. Codec
d. Muldem
412) An integrated circuit that performs the PCM encoding and decoding functions.
a. Codec
b. Modem
c. Muldem
d. Digital-to-analog converter
413) Devices used for digitizing speech signals only.
a. Codec
b. Muldem
c. Vocoder
d. Modem
414) A device that converts voice to data.
a. Vocoder
b. Covoder
c. Modern
d. Repeater
415) A special device that upgrades signals from one level to a higher level of the
hierarchy in multiplexing.
 a. Muldem
b. Vocoder
c. Modem
d. Codec
416) A modem converts
a. Analog signals to digital
b. Digital signals to analog
c. Digital signals to analog and vice-versa
d. None of these
417) An FDM hierarchy which is formed by frequency – division multiplexing five
groups containing 12 channels each for a combined bandwidth of 240 kHz.
a. Supergroup
b. Group
c. Mastergroup
d. Jumbogroup
418) An FDM hierarchy which is formed by frequency – division multiplexing 10 super
groups together for a combined capacity of 600 voice band message channels.
a. Supergroup
b. Group
c. Mastergroup
d. Jumbogroup
419) The most widely used data communications code is
a. Morse code
b. ASCII
c. Baudot
d. EBCDIC
420) For the 16-PSK and a transmission system with a 10kHz bandwidth, determine
the maximum bit rate
a. 40,000 bps
b. 80,000 bps
c. 20,000 bps
d. 16,000 bps
421) Quantizing noise occurs in
a. time-division multiplex
b. frequency-division multiplex
c. pulse-code modulation
d. pulse-width modulation
422) Indicate the false statement. In order to combat noise,
a. the channel bandwidth may be increased
b. redundancy may be used
c. the transmitted power may be increased
d. the signaling rate may be reduced
423) In order to reduce quantizing noise, one must
a. increase the number of standard amplitudes
b. send pulses whose sides are more nearly vertical
c. use an RF amplifier at the receiver
d. increase the number of samples per second
424) Companding is used
a. to overcome quantizing noise in PCM
b. in PCM transmitters, to allow amplitude limiting in the receiver
c. to protect small signals in PCM form quantizing distortion
d. in PCM receivers, to overcome impulse noise
425) One of the most important aspect of any communication system because it is
costly and limited.
a. Bandwidth
b. Equipment
c. Time
d. Personnel
426) It consist essentially of sampling analog information signals and then converting
those samples into discreet pulses of transporting the pulses from the source to
destination over a physical transmission medium.
a. Pulse Modulation
b. Amplitude Modulation
c. Frequency Modulation
d. Digital Modulation
427) A theory that establishes the minimum sampling rate that can be used for a given
PCM systems.
a. Nyquist sampling theorem
b. Nyquist minimum bandwidth
c. Nyquist minimum bandwidth
d. Any of these
428) Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used to encode binary data. The channel
bandwidth is 36 MHz. The maximum channel capacity is
a. 18 Mbps
b. 72 Mbps
c. 288 Mbps
d. 2.176 Gbps
429) What is the minimum bandwidth required to transmit a 56 kbps binary signal with
no noise?
a. 14 kHz
b. 56 kHz
c. 28 kHz
d. 112 kHz
430) It is the ratio of the power density radiated in a particular direction to the power
density radiated to the same point by a reference antenna, assuming both antennas are
radiating the same amount of power.
a. Power gain
b. Directive gain
c. Total gain
d. System gain
431) It is the same with directive gain except that the total power fed to the antenna is
used and the antenna efficiency is taken into account.
a. System gain
b. Power gain
 c. Directive gain
d. Total gain
432) Refers to the orientation of the electric field radiated from an antenna.
a. Efficiency
b. Beamwidth
c. Polarization
d. Accuracy
433) At frequencies below 2 MHz, what type of antenna is usually used?
a. Marconi antenna
b. Hertzian antenna
c. Hertz antenna
d. Elementary doublet
434) The discone antenna is
a. A useful direction-finding antenna
b. Used as a radar receiving antenna
c. Circularly polarized with other circular antennas
d. Useful as a UHF receiving antenna
435) A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its
a. Circular polarization
b. Maneuverability
c. Broad bandwidth
d. Good front to back ratio
436) It is formed when two or more antenna elements are combined to form a single
antenna.
a. Antenna Elements
b. Antenna Array
c. Driven Elements
d. Parasitic Elements
437) It is a broadband VHF or UHF antenna that is suited for applications for which
radiating circular rather than horizontal or vertical polarized electromagnetic waves are
required.
a. Discone Antenna
b. Bicone Antenna
c. Log-Periodic Antenna
d. Helical Antenna
438) What will happen if there is a great mismatch between the load and the source?
a. High SWR
b. Low SWR
c. Medium SWR
d. SWR of 1
439) What composes the electromagnetic waves?
a. Electric and Magnetic Field
b. Acoustic and Water Wave
c. Current and Voltage
d. Pressure and Frequency
440) The executive branch of government in-charge of policy making in
telecommunication.
 a. National Telecommunication Commission
b. Telecommunication Control Bureau
c. Department of Transportation and Communication
d. Bureau of Communication
441) Who issues an authority to install, operate, and maintain a cable television or
render a television service within a specified area in the country?
a. Department of Transportation and Communication
b. Board of Communication
c. Congress of the Philippines
d. National Telecommunications Commission
442) The government entity that regulates the cable television industry in the
Philippines.
a. Executive Commission
b. House of Representatives
c. NTC
d. DOTC
443) What is the symbol designated for a frequency modulated carrier for a single
telephony transmission?
a. F3E
b. F3F
c. G3F
d. G3E
444) A modulation which is amplitude modulated that consist of recurrent pulses.
a. PAM
b. PWM
c. PPM
d. AM
445) The circuit that convert signal in order that it can be fed to the medium suitable
for transmission.
a. Modulator
b. Mixer
c. Receiver
d. Transmitter
446) What is the input impedance equivalent of an open-ended transmission line
which is longer than a quarter wavelength?
a. Open equivalent
b. Equivalent to reactive circuit
c. As resistive equivalent
d. As pure inductor
447) Which of the following describes its system services control point, logical units
and physical units as network addressable units in a data network?
a. Digital Network Architecture
b. Internetworking
c. Interconnection Point
d. System Network Architecture
448) What is the first symbol of radio signal emission having an amplitude modulated
main carrier single sideband suppressed carrier?
 a. C
b. A
c. J
d. H
449) What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic super group?
a. 300 to 600 kHz
b. 312 to 552 kHz
c. 60 to 2540 kHz
d. 60 to 180 kHz
450) What is the most efficient topology used by small business organization?
a. Mesh
b. Star
c. Bus
d. Ring
451) Which of the following network topology has the fastest speed?
a. Star
b. Ring
c. Bus
d. Mesh
452) What is the frequency tolerance of FM broadcasting?
a. 25 kHz
b. 20 kHz
c. 2 kHz
d. 30 kHz
453) When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the electromagnetic wave?
a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Circular
d. Elliptical
454) When the electric field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the electromagnetic wave?
a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Circular
d. Elliptical
455) When the electric field is perpendicular in the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the TEM wave?
a. Elliptical
b. Vertical
c. Horizontal
d. Circular
456) When the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the TEM wave?
a. Elliptical
b. Horizontal
c. Vertical
 d. Circular
457) When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the TEM wave?
a. Circular
b. Horizontal
c. Vertical
d. Elliptical
458) What are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic
wave?
a. An electric field and a current field
b. An electric field and voltage field
c. An electric field and a magnetic field
d. A voltage and current fields
459) What is the typical satellite communications bandwidth?
a. 20 MHz
b. 30 MHz
c. 40 MHz
d. 500 MHz
460) An emission technique where the total current will be twice as much when the
modulation index is doubled.
a. J3E
b. H3E
c. A3E
d. R3E
461) Which of the following uses frequency modulator circuit?
a. A3E
b. F3E
c. H3E
d. R3E
462) _____ is the process of sending out the information in all directions.
a. Broadcasting
b. Navigation
c. Acoustics
d. Telemetry
463) What is the main reason why coaxial cable is not used in microwave signal
transmission?
a. Wide bandwidth
b. Number of repeaters
c. Low impedance
d. High attenuation
464) Communication through the use of a modem is transmission of__________ data
information in ____________ medium.
a. Analog, analog
b. Analog, digital
c. Digital, analog
d. Digital, digital
465) What is the frequency range of VLF?
 a. 10-10 kHz
b. 30-300 kHz
c. 300-3000 kHz
d. 3-30 kHz
466) In television, the color with the most luminance is ________________.
a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Green
d. Red
467) What is the process in radio communication where information or intelligence
signal at a lower frequency is put unto higher radio frequency for transmission to
receiving station?
a. Detection
b. Mixing
c. Modulation
d. Demodulation
468) EIRP stands for _______________.
a. effective isotropic refracted power
b. effective and ideal radiated power
c. effective isotropic reflected power
d. effective isotropic radiated power
469) The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is ___________.
a. elementary doublet
b. isotropic antenna
c. half-wave dipole
d. infinitesimal dipole
470) When the transmitting and receiving antennas are in line-of-sight of each other,
the mode of propagation is ________ wave.
a. Space or direct
b. Ground
c. Surface
d. Sky
471) According to the Nyquist theorem, the sampling rate that can be used in a PCM
system is ________ the highest audio frequency.
a. Once
b. Eight times
c. Twice
d. Thrice
472) SSB transmission requires only ______ of the bandwidth for a DSBFC
transmission.
a. ¼
b. 2/3
c. ½
d. ¾
473) Which of the following pulse modulation systems is analog?
a. Delta
b. Differential PCM
 c. PWM
d. PCM
474) ________ is the amount of voltage induced in wave by an electromagnetic wave.
a. Receive Voltage
b. Magnetic Induction
c. Field Strength
d. Power Density
475) An electromagnetic wave consists of ___________.
a. Both electric and magnetic fields
b. An electric field only
c. A magnetic field only
d. Non-magnetic field only
476) The lowest layer in the ionosphere.
a. D
b. F2
c. E
d. F1
477) The thickest layer of the ionosphere.
a. F2
b. F1
c. D
d. E
478) The highest layer of the atmosphere.
a. Ionosphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Troposphere
d. Ozone layer
479) The layer that reflects very low frequency waves and absorbs medium frequency
waves.
a. D Layer
b. E Layer
c. F1 Layer
d. F2 Layer
480) What layer is used for high-frequency day time propagation?
a. D Layer
b. E Layer
c. F1 Layer
d. F2 Layer
481) The D, E and F layers are known as ____________.
a. Mark – space Layers
b. Davinson- Miller Layers
c. Kennely – Heaviside Layers
d. Appleton Layers
482) A changing electric field gives rise to ________.
a. A magnetic field
b. Sound field
c. Electromagnetic waves
 d. Near and far fields
483) Electromagnetic Waves are refracted when they ___________.
a. pass into a medium of different dielectric constants
b. are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
c. encounter a perfectly conducting surface
d. pass through a small slot in a conducting plane
484) What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be returned
to earth?
a. MUF
b. skip frequency
c. critical frequency
d. gyro frequency
485) High frequency range is from
a. 0.3 to 3MHz
b. 3 to 30MHz
c. 30 to 300MHz
d. 3 to 30MHz
486) Medium frequency range is from
a. 0.01 to 0.03 MHz
b. 0.03 to 0.3MHz
c. 0.3 to 3MHz
d. 3 to 30 MHz
487) A rectangular waveguide is operating in the dominant TE10 mode. The
associated flux lines are established
a. Transversely across the narrow dimension of the waveguide
b. Transversely across the wide dimension of the waveguide
c. In the metal walls parallel to the direction of propagation
d. In the metal walls perpendicular to the direction of propagation
488) A loop antenna is a commonly used for
a. Radar
b. Direction finding
c. Satellite communication
d. All of the above
489) _____ Is designed to be used in wireless application in which stations must be
able to share the medium without interception by an eavesdropper and without being
subject to jamming from a malicious intruder
a. Multiplexing
b. Spread spectrum
c. Modulation
d. None of the above
490) An impedance-matching device that spreads the transmission line as it
approaches the antenna is called a
Delta Match
491) A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) ____________ antenna.
a. Omnidirectional
b. Bidirectional
c. Unidirectional
 d. Horn
492) This is often used to cure the problem of great thickness required of lenses used
at lower microwave frequencies or for strong curved wavefronts.
a. Splicing
b. Zoning
c. Curving
d. Polarizing
493) _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve specific goals.
a. Frequency
b. Bandwidth
c. Amplitude
d. None of the above
494) Ethernet is a baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at
a. 20 Mbps
b. 10 Mbps
c. 30 Mbps
d. 40 Mbps
495) Is the total useful information processed or communicated over specific amount
of time
a. Baud rate
b. Bit rate
c. Information theory
d. Throughput
496) In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum
of the transmission rates of the signal sources.
a. Greater than
b. Less than
c. Equal to
d. Not related to
497) In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding.
a. Denser
b. Less dense
c. Same density
d. None of the above
498) How much does the radiated power of an antenna increases if its current
increases 3.3 times?
a. 3.3 times
b. 10.89 times
c. 9.9 times
d. 6.6 times
499) A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical links, in
which each link is divided into n channels.
a. Circuit-switched
b. Line-switched
c. Frame-switched
d. None of the above
500) In information theory, the ultimate data compression is bounded by the system’s
_
Entropy
501) Which of the following codes is an example of differential encoding?
NRZ – I
502) _____ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _____ cable.
a. Coaxial; twisted-pair
b. Twisted-pair; fiber optic
c. Coaxial; fiber optic
d. None of the above
503) Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation.
a. Ground
b. Sky
c. Line of sight
d. None of the above
504) Among the signals that comprises the AM,
a. ⅔ of the total power is in the sidebands
b. ⅓ of the total power is contained in the carrier
c. ½ of the total power is contained in the carrier
d. ⅔ of the total power is contained in the carrier
505) In keying techniques, this is also known as information density
Bandwidth efficiency
506) When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light beam bends
along the interface.
a. less than
b. equal to
c. more than
d. none of the above
507) What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than a
twisted-pair cable?
a. inner conductor
b. diameter of cable
c. outer conductor
d. insulating material
508) The inner core of an optical fiber is _____ in composition.
a. Glass or plastic
b. Copper
c. Bimetallic
d. Liquid
509) Find the higher optimum frequency of a Marconi antenna if the distance between
the feedpoint and the antenna trap is 2.5 m
30 MHz
510) Calculate the beam width between nulls of a 2-m paraboloid reflector used at
6GHz.
a. 14 deg
b. 7 deg
c. 3.5 deg
 d. 0.875 deg
511) A baud of 10000 is the same as
a. 10 kbps
b. 10 kHz
c. 10000 symbols/sec
d. 10000 cycles/bit
512) Which of the following uses modulo-10 in implementation?
ISBN-13
513) What term describes a technology that allows devices to connect to the LAN
using an electrical outlet?
a. Powerline networking
b. IOT
c. Cloud
d. BYOD
514) Which of the following is not an application under VHF?
a. Lower TV channel 2-13
b. Upper TV channel 14-83
c. None of the choices
d. FM Radio
515) A standard AM wave has a total transmitted power of 4kW when modulated 85%.
How much total power should a 556 wave contain in order to have the same power
content as that contained in the two sidebands?
a. 530.76 W (OT)
b. 1061.5 W
c. 2123 W
d. 2938.5 W
516) An open-circuited transmission lines with a length greater than ʎ/4 but less than
ʎ/2 will exhibit ____ reactance.
a. Zero
b. Capacitive
c. Inductive
d. Maximum
517) What is meant by antenna gain?
a. The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the backward
direction.
b. The ratio of the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna
c. The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to the
output power of the transmitter
d. The final amplifier ain minus the transmission line loss (including any phasing
lines present)
518) It is the measure of the mismatch between a load and the transmission line.
a. Return loss
b. Standing wave ratio
c. Reflection coefficient
d. Phase-shift constant
519) A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices
on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?
 a. The computer has an invalid IP address
b. The cable is not connected properly to the NIC
c. The computer has an incorrect subnet mask
d. The computer has an invalid default gateway address
520) What is the product of the power supplied to the antenna and its gain relative to a
half-wave dipole in a given direction?
a. Effective radiated power
b. Peak envelope power
c. Rated power
d. Carrier power
521) A mixer stage has a noise figure of 25 dB, and this preceded by an amplifier that
has a noise figure of 10 dB and an available power gain of 20 dB. Determine the overall
noise figure referred to the input.
= 25.45
522) Indicate in which of the following only one sideband is transmitted:
a. H3E
b. A3E
c. B8E
d. C3F
523) All energy signals will have an average power of ___
a. Cannot be calculated
b. Positive
c. Zero
d. Infinite
524) A type of transmission line whose conductors experience the same electrical
capacitance relative to the ground.
a. Balance line
b. Co-axial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Stripline
525) Indicate the false statement. The superheterodyne receiver replaced the TRF
receiver because the latter suffered from
a. Gain variation over the frequency coverage range
b. Insufficient gain and sensitivity
c. Inadequate selectivity at high frequencies
d. Instability
526) A 50-W resistor operates at room temperature (25C). How much noise power (in
femtoWatts) does it provide to a matched load over the bandwidth of A TV channel of 6
MHz.
= 24.698 fW
𝑁𝑝 = 1.38 × 10−23 𝐽/𝐾(273𝐾 + 25𝐶)(6 × 106 )
= 2.4685 × 10−14 = 24.685 × 10−15
527) Intermediate frequency for an AM broadcasting system as per FCC rules.
a. 10.7 MHz
b. 6 MHz
c. 200 kHz
d. 455 kHz
528) For a given length of RG BA/U coaxial cable with a distributed capacitance C =
96.6 pF/m, a distributed inductance L = 241.56 nH/m, determine the velocity of
propagation.
a. 2.07 x 10^8 m/s
b. 3.00 x 10^8 m/s
c. 4.28 x 10^8 m/s
d. 5.00 x 10^8 m/s
529) An electromagnetic wave is ____ polarized when the electric field lies in a plane
parallel to the earth’s surface.
a. Elliptical
b. Circular
c. Vertical
d. Horizontal
530) What type of network traffic requires QoS?
a. Online shopping
b. Video conferencing
c. Email
d. Browsing the web
531) Compute for the free space path loss, in dB, for a 400 MHz signal at 40 km away
from the source.
a. 92 dB
b. 108 dB
c. 112 dB
d. 116 dB
𝑃𝐿 (𝑑𝐵) = 32.5 + 20𝑙𝑜𝑔10 (400𝑀𝐻𝑧) + 20𝑙𝑜𝑔10 (40𝑘𝑚) = 116.58 𝑑𝐵

532) A dipole antenna requires to be fed with 20 kW of power to produce a given

signal strength to a particular distant point. If the addition of a reflector makes the same
field strength with an input power of 11 kW, what is the dB gain obtained by the use of
the reflector? (gain referred to this particular dipole)
a. 1.61 dB
 b. 2.6 dB (OT)
c. 4.24 dB
d. 4.75 dB
20𝑥103
𝑑𝐵 = 10𝑙𝑜𝑔10 ( ) = 2.596 𝑑𝐵
11𝑥103
533) What causes fold-over distortion?
a. Is produced by getting too much samples from the analog input
b. Is produced by getting not enough samples from the analog input
c. When the original analog signal is outside the voice band frequency range
d. Is produced when the magnitude of a sample is rounded off to closest available
level
534) Determine the Coding Efficiency required for the dynamic range: 100dB. Use 2
decimal places
= 97.83 or 96.83??
100𝑑𝐵 = 20 log(2𝑛 − 1) 𝑛 = 16.610
16.610 + 1
% 𝐶𝑜𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 = 𝑥100 = 97.83
17 + 1
535) A waveguide is considered as ___.
a. Band pass filter
b. Band reject filter
c. High pass filter
d. Low pass filter
536) A 4 kHz audio signal modulates a 125 MHz carrier, causing a frequency deviation
of 5 kHz. The bandwidth of the narrow band FM signal is ___ kHz.
a. 10
b. 8
c. 9
d. 20
537) Which of the following frequency bands does sky wave propagation usually
apply?
a. MF band
b. HF band
c. VHF band
d. UHF band
538) If the bit interval of a digital input is equal to 1000μs. What is the baud rate if the
system is using QPSK?
= 500 baud
539) Determine the check digit: 978-971-778-195-x
=2
(9 ∗ 1) + (7 ∗ 3) + (8 ∗ 1) + (9 ∗ 3) + (7 ∗ 1) + (1 ∗ 3) + (7 ∗ 1) + (7 ∗ 3) + (8 ∗ 1) + (1 ∗ 3) + (9 ∗ 1)
+ (5 ∗ 3) = 138 𝑚𝑜𝑑 10 = 13.8 = 10 − 8 = 2

540) A web client is receiving a response for a web page from a web server. From the
perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to
decode the receiving transmission?
a. Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
b. Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
 c. HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP
d. HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
541) Consider the analog signal x(t) = 3cos(500πt). What is the minimum sampling
rate required to avoid aliasing?
a. 250 Hz
b. 125 Hz
c. 500 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
542) Which of the following statements is true about fiber optic cable?
a. Its core must be more dense than the clad
b. Its core must be less dense than the clad
c. Its core and clad must have the same density
d. If the core is plastic, then the clad must be glass
543) It is a true digital system where the signal is transmitted and received in digital
form
a. Digital communication system
b. Analog communication system
c. Digital radio
d. Digital transmission system
544) What is the meaning of the velocity factor of a transmission line?
a. The index of shielding for a coaxial cable
b. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light
in a vacuum.
c. The velocity of the waves in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light
in a vacuum.
d. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
545) A PCM system has the following parameters: a minimum sampling rate of
10KHz, a maximum decoded voltage at the receiver of ±5V, and a minimum dynamic
range of 80dB. Determine the maximum analog input that will not result into aliasing (in
Hz)
= 5000
546) What are two services provided by the OSI network layer?
a. Collision detection
b. Performing error detection
c. Placement of frames on the media
d. Routing packets toward the destination
547) What is the equivalent noise resistance (in ohms) when the measured noise
voltage is 500x10^-15 V, the temperature is 20 C, and the bandwidth is 5 kHz?
= 0.00000000309
𝑉𝑛 = √4𝑘𝑇𝑓𝑅
500 × 10−15 = √4(𝑘)(273 + 20)(500 × 103 )(𝑅)
𝑅 = 3.09 × 10−9
548) In FSK, if the mark frequency is equal to 28KHz and the space frequency is
20KHz, what is the carrier frequency in KHz?
= 24
549) A frequency modulated signal which is modulated by 3-kHz sine wave reaches a
maximum frequency of 100.02 MHz and minimum frequency of 99.98 MHz. What is the
modulated index signal?
a. 133
b. 67
c. 13.33
d. 6.67 (OT)

𝛿 100.02𝑥106 − 99.98𝑥106
𝑚= = = 13.33
𝑓𝑚 3𝑥103

550) In an FM signal, the power ___ as the modulation index increase.

a. Increases
b. Reduces
c. Remains constant
d. None of the above
551) The signal level at the input of the amplifier is 120 mV, and the noise is 6 mV.
Calculate the noise figure of the amplifier if the signal to noise ratio at the output is 20dB.
= 6.02
552) Function of data link protocol that coordinates hop-to-hop data delivery where a
hop maybe a computer, a network controller or a network-connecting device such as
router.
a. Flow control
b. Error control
c. Line discipline
d. Selection
553) In a message, 2 of the character are in error. The 1st character has single bit
error on b2 while the 2nd character has 2 errors, one error is in b1 and the other at b5.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The error on the 1st and 2nd character can be detected using VRC and LRC
b. The error on the 1st character can be detected by VRC and LRC. The error on
the 2nd character can be detected by LRC and but not by VRC
c. The error on the 1st character can be detected by VRC but not by LRC. The error
on the 2nd character can be detected by LRC
d. The error on the 1st character can be detected by VRC and LRC. The error on
the 2nd character can be detected by VRC and but not by LRC