SSC STENO EXAM 2025

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 Table of Contents
History (Q-60) 2
Geography (Q-57) 11
Polity (Q-84) 20
Economics (Q-77) 32
Physics (Q-28) 43
Chemistry (Q-2) 47
Biology (Q-17) 48
Current Affairs (Q-82) 51
Static GK (Q-43) 62
 History (Q-60)
Q1) Which architectural style is best described by the following features: ribbed vaults, pointed arches, flying
buttresses, and stained-glass windows?
A) Mughal B) Deccan C) Indo-Islamic D) Gothic
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q2) Assertion (A): The naming of "Good Friday" as a positive term is universally accepted among Christian scholars
and traditions.
Reason (R): The day is termed "Good" to signify the positive theological meaning of Jesus's sacrificial death.
Choose the correct option:
A) Both A and R are false. B) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. D) A is false, but R is true.
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q3) Which Rajput ruler defeated Muhammad Ghori in the First Battle of Tarain?
A) Hem Chandra Vikramaditya B) Rana Sanga C) Bappa Rawal D) Prithviraj Chauhan
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q4) Which Mughal Emperor issued the Deccan campaign against the Marathas and spent significant time in the
region?
A) Shah Jahan B) Aurangzeb C) Jahangir D) Akbar
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q5) Who was the founder of the Maurya Empire?

A) Harshavardhana B) Chandragupta Maurya C) Ashoka D) Bindusara
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q6) Which of the following is considered the oldest known civilization of the Indian subcontinent?
A) Gupta Empire B) Maurya Civilization C) Indus Valley Civilization D) Vedic Civilization
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q7) Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Rash Behari Bose?
A) He founded Indian Independence League in Tokyo in 1942.
B) He was an important figure in the Ghadar Movement and in the formation of the Azad Hind Fauj.
C) He was honoured with the prestigious title 'Order of the rising sun'.
D) He was independent India's first Commander-in-Chief of Indian Army.
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q8) Which confederation of Sultanates defeated the Vijayanagara Empire in the Battle of Talikota?
A) Rajput Confederacy B) Mughal Empire C) Bahmani Sultanate D) Deccan Sultanates
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

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 Q9) Which temple, built by the Chandela dynasty in the 10th–11th centuries, is known for its exquisite sculptures?
A) Kandariya Mahadeva Temple B) Brihadeeswarar Temple C) Sun Temple, Modhera D) Lingaraja Temple
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q10) Which Pratihara ruler successfully repelled Arab invasions in North-Western India?
A) Mihira Bhoja B) Nagabhata I C) Rajyapala D) Vatsaraja
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q11) In the context of Mughal administration, who were referred to as Shaikhzadas or Hindustanis?
A) Central Asian nobles of Turkic origin serving the Mughals B) Rajput converts elevated to noble ranks for loyalty
C) Persian-trained officers recruited from Safavid Iran
D) Indigenous Muslims who held administrative posts under Mughal rule
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q12) Which of the following correctly pairs a monument with its architectural style?
A) Khajuraho Temples – French B) Qutub Minar – Indo-Islamic C) India Gate – Rajput D) Lotus Temple – Mughal
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q13) Given below are the two columns. Column A consists of Events or terms and column B consist of correct
descriptions. Match the column A with correct description in Column B

Column A Column B
A. Anglo-Russian rivalry 1. Opened Sindh's rivers and roads to British trade.
B. Subsidiary Treaty 1839 2. Forced on the Amirs of Sindh before annexation.
C. Sir Charles Napier 3. Had commercial value; attracted British interest.
D. River Sindh 4. Led military campaign to annex Sindh; called it a 'rascality.'
E. Treaty of 1832 5. Led Britain to expand influence in Afghanistan and Persia
A) A-5, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-1 B) A-1, B-5, C-2, D-4, E-3 C) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1, E-5 D) A-4, B-1, C-5, D-2, E-3
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q14) In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Select the
correct option from the following:
Assertion (A): Rows of circular brick platforms at Harappa were used for religious ceremonies.
Reason (R): These platforms were found to contain wheat and barley grains.
A) Both A and R are false B) Both A and R are true, and R explains A C) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
D) A is false, but R is true
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q15) Who among the following is related to the Parakram Diwas?

A) Subhash Bose B) Azad C) Mahatma Gandhi D) Bhagat Singh
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

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 Q16) Which Mauryan ruler is credited with the establishment of the spy system in his empire?
A) Bindusara B) Brihadratha C) Ashoka D) Chandragupta Maurya
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q17) Which Pala ruler is known for founding the great Buddhist university at Vikramashila?
A) Dharmapala B) Mahipala C) Gopala D) Devapala
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q18) Which of the following best captures the broader geopolitical shift triggered by the decisive defeat of the Nawab
of Carnatic’s forces in their confrontation with European powers?
It revealed systemic vulnerabilities in native military structures, prompting European companies to transition from trade to
A)
political hegemony.
B) It disillusioned European companies, resulting in a strategic withdrawal from inland military affairs.
C) It consolidated indigenous authority, forcing European traders into commercial treaties under local oversight.
D) It established a stable dual-administrative system between Indian principalities and foreign chartered companies.
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q19) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): The jaherthan plays a central role in the sacrificial rituals of Erok Sim.
Reason (R): The jaherthan is a sacred grove believed to be inhabited by spirits, including Jaherera, the Lady of
the Sacred Grove.
A) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A. B) Both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A.
C) A is correct, but R is incorrect. D) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q20) The Battle of Samugarh was fought between Aurangzeb and which Mughal prince?
A) Jahangir B) Murad Baksh C) Shah Jahan D) Dara Shikoh
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q21) Consider the following statements about Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves:
1. These caves are near Bhubaneswar and were meant for Jain monks.
2. All caves are shaped like flowers and are carved from independent boulders.
3. Each cave has multiple shrines dedicated to different Buddhist deities.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A) Only 1 B) All 1, 2, and 3 are correct C) 1 and 2 Only D) 2 and 3 Only
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q22) In which country, the first Commonwealth Games held?

A) France B) Africa C) India D) Canada
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

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 Q23) Which Chola ruler is credited with the construction of irrigation systems to support agriculture?
A) Raja Raja Chola I B) Rajendra Chola I C) Kulottunga Chola I D) Aditya Chola I
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q24) Given below are assertion and reason, read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion: The Treaty of Paris (1763) limited French settlements in India to trading posts only.
Reason: The French could no longer station troops or fortify their factories after the treaty.
A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q25) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the regional features of Gujarat's medieval
architecture?
1. Architectural forms in Gujarat often incorporated elements from local temple traditions.
2. Structures such as mosques and tombs in Gujarat featured ornamental carvings like toranas and bell motifs.
3. Gujarat's architectural style strictly avoided any decorative influence from indigenous practices.
A) Only 1 B) 2 and 3 Only C) All 1, 2, and 3 are correct D) 1 and 2 Only
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q26) Given below are assertion and reason, read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion: British capital accumulation in the 18th century was reinvested in industrial development.
Reason: The capital was largely controlled by merchants and industrialists instead of the feudal aristocracy.
A) A is true, but R is false. B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. D) A is false, but R is true.
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q27) Which of the following methods was used by the villagers during the Chipko Movement?
A) Violent protests B) Hugging trees to prevent cutting C) Filing lawsuits against companies D) Burning forest areas
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q28) Which Mughal emperor did Maharana Pratap face in the Battle of Haldighati?
A) Akbar B) Babur C) Aurangzeb D) Jahangir
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q29) Shobhana Ranade’s legacy as a Gandhian is most closely aligned with which contemporary governance
initiative?
A) Startup India B) National Education Policy 2020 C) Gaganyaan Mission D) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

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 Q30) Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tribute to Mahatma Jyotiba Phule on his birth anniversary. Phule is best
known for his contributions to which of the following?
A) Agriculture and commerce B) Industry and infrastructure C) Military and diplomacy
D) Social Reform and Anti-Caste Movement
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q31) Which Maratha ruler founded the Maratha Empire in 1674, proclaiming himself Chhatrapati?
A) Sambhaji B) Shahu C) Shivaji D) Bajirao I
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q32) Sattriya, one of the classical dances of India, was introduced by which saint?
A) Sankardev B) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu C) Kabir D) Tulsidas
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q33) Who was the first woman to be the president of the Indian National Congress?
A) Kasturba Gandhi B) Kamala Nehru C) Annie Besant D) Sarojini Naidu
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q34) Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Tribhuvandas Patel?

A) He was the founder of the Kaira Milk Union (Amul).
B) Lok Sabha has passed a bill to setup Tribhuvan Sahkari University in Gujarat.
C) He was awarded Padma Vibhushan for his social service.
D) He was awarded Ramon Magsaysay award for community leadership.
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q35) How did the administrative roles of rajas differ from those of zamindars under the Mughal system?
A) Zamindars were subordinate tax officers under the rajas, appointed directly by the emperor.
B) Rajas and zamindars performed identical roles but differed in their religious affiliations.
C) Rajas governed broader regions and held a higher status, while zamindars primarily managed land revenue collection.
D) Zamindars exercised complete political control, whereas rajas held only ceremonial titles.
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q36) Consider the following statements comparing the Simon Commission (1927) and the Nehru Report (1928):

1. The Simon Commission was boycotted by Indian political parties primarily due to its all-Indian composition.
2. The Nehru Report proposed complete independence for India as its immediate objective.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A) Neither 1 nor 2 B) 1 only C) 2 only D) Both 1 and 2
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

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 Q37) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A) Mission Shakti - Startup grants for rural men B) PM-AAGY - Railway safety in backward areas
C) Swadesh Darshan 2.0 - Theme-based tourism circuits D) PM-JANMAN - Urban housing for tribals
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q38) With whose participation did the Anushilan group join forces when the Bengal Congress broke up into two
factions after the death of CR Das?
A) Ganesh Ghosh B) Surya Sen C) JM Sengupta D) Subhash Bose
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q39) What was the main occupation of the majority of the Indian population during the period immediately after
independence (around 1947)?
A) Agriculture B) Information Technology C) Manufacturing D) Services
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q40) The Vesara style of temple architecture is a combination of which two styles?
A) Gandhara and French B) Nagara and Gothic C) Dravidian and Nagara D) Mughal and Dravidian
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q41) Whom Hiuen Tsang called 'one of the four lights of world', who's also called Indian Einstein?
A) Charak B) Vasumitra C) Ashvaghosha D) Nagarjuna
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q42) Who was the leader that defeated Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagara in the Battle of Raichur?
A) Alauddin Khilji B) Ahmed Shah Bahmani C) Ibrahim Lodi D) Adil Shah of Bijapur
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q43) Assertion: British capital accumulation in the 18th century was reinvested in industrial development.
Reason: The capital was largely controlled by merchants and industrialists instead of the feudal aristocracy.
Choose the correct option:
A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A. B) A is false, but R is true.
C) A is true, but R is false. D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q44) Match the following cave sites with their architectural characteristics:
Column A-Cave Site Column B-Architectural Feature
A. Udayagiri 1. Circular caitya with stüpa and arch
B. Guntapalle 2. Pillared veranda with cells at the back
C. Khandagiri 3. Animal-shaped single rock excavations
A) A-3, B-1, C-2 B) A-1, B-2, C-3 C) A-2, B-1, C-3 D) A-1, B-3, C-2
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

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 Q45) Which of the following statements is correct about Urs at Ajmer Sharif?
A) It follows the lunar calendar and marks the saint’s death. B) It is celebrated annually based on the solar calendar.
C) It marks the birth anniversary of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti. D) It is held only once every five years during Ramzan.
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q46) Which Chola ruler is credited with the extensive overseas expedition to Southeast Asia, particularly against the
Srivijaya Empire?
A) Rajendra I B) Kulothunga I C) Vijayalaya Chola D) Rajaraja I
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q47) Assertion(A): Sir Charles Napier justified the annexation of Sindh on moral and legal grounds.
Reason(R): He described it as a “useful humane piece of rascality.”
Choose the correct option:
A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B) A is true, but R is false.
C) A is false, but R is true. D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q48) Name the Mughal emperor known for promoting Persian art and literature?
A) Humayun B) Shah Jahan C) Akbar D) Jahangir
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q49) Assertion (A): The Santhal festival of Erok Sim marks the end of the agricultural season.
Reason (R): The Magh Sim festival expresses gratitude for the harvest and prepares for a new cycle.
Choose the correct option:
A) A is incorrect, but R is correct. B) Both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A.
C) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A. D) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q50) Which Mughal emperor is known for his extensive autobiography, Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri?
A) Jahangir B) Akbar C) Shah Jahan D) Aurangzeb
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q51) Barindra Kumar Ghosh, Abhinash Bhattacharya and Bhupendranath Dutta were associated with which
movement in March 1906?
A) Swadeshi movement B) Anti Bengal partition movement C) Quit India movement
D) Movement against Bengal educational reforms
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

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 Q52) Which of the following best explains the reason to hold Qandhar strategically important for the Mughals?
A) It provided direct naval access to the Red Sea for Mughal expeditions.
B) It served as a religious pilgrimage center linking India with Central Asian Sufi shrines.
C) It was a crucial trade hub connecting the Arabian Sea with the Persian Gulf.
D) It controlled key land routes between Kabul and Herat and acted as a fortified military outpost.
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q53) Which dynasty was founded by Dantidurga in the mid-8th century?

A) Rashtrakuta Dynasty B) Chola Dynasty C) Pala Dynasty D) Pratihara Dynasty
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q54) Once the Time Magazine had mocked Gandhiji's physical size but to whom did it compare his martyrdom later
on?
A) Albert Einstein B) Martin Luther C) George Orwell D) Abraham Lincoln
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q55) Consider the following statements regarding provincial architecture in medieval India and choose the correct
option:
1. Bengal and Jaunpur developed distinct architectural styles separate from the Delhi Sultanate.
2. Regional styles often blended Islamic structures with local artistic traditions.
3. Provincial styles remained completely uniform across all regions of India.
A) Only 1 B) 1 and 2 Only C) 2 and 3 Only D) All 1, 2, and 3 are correct
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q56) What led to the decline of Timurid power in the second half of the 15th century?
A) Economic decline due to maritime trade shifts B) Internal wars due to partitioning C) Rise of Uzbeks
D) Ottoman invasions
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q57) Who set up a Dayanand Anglo Vedic school in Lahore?

A) Lala Lajpat Rai B) Bipin Chandrapal C) Dayanand Saraswati D) Balgangadhar Tilak
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q58) Match the following Mahajanapada with their Capitals:

Column A: Mahajanapada Column B: Capital
1. Vatsa a. Kaushambi
2. Magadha b. Rajagriha
3. Kuru c. Ujjayini
4. Avanti d. Indraprastha
A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b D) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

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 Q59) Which feature is not commonly associated with French colonial architecture in India?
A) Wide verandas B) Tall doors and windows C) Sloped tiled roofs D) Ornate Mughal domes
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q60) With reference to the Indian Councils Act, 1892, consider the following statements and choose the correct
option:
1. It significantly increased the number of official members in the Central Legislative Council.
2. It empowered the legislative councils to discuss the budget and address questions to the executive.
3. It introduced the principle of direct election for non-official members of provincial legislative councils.
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 2 and 3 only
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

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 Geography (Q-57)
Q61) Read the following statements:
Statement 1: The process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as advection.
Statement 2: The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called convection.
Statement 3: 'Loo' winds in northern India during summer are caused by advection.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) All three statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct B) Statements 2 and 3 are correct C) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D) Only Statement 3 is correct
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q62) Name the Indian port that is the largest exporter of iron ore?
A) Paradip Port B) Chennai Port C) Visakhapatnam Port D) Marmagao Port
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q63) Which Indian state has the highest proportion of its workforce population engaged in agriculture?
A) Rajasthan B) Uttar Pradesh C) Bihar D) Punjab
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q64) Which Union Territory has the highest population density as per Census 2011?
A) Chandigarh B) Puducherry C) Lakshadweep D) Delhi
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q65) Which of the following rivers forms a delta along the Eastern Coastal Plains?
A) Narmada B) Tapi C) Mahi D) Godavari
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q66) Which of these rivers does not originate in the Peninsular Plateau of India?
A) Godavari B) Ganga C) Krishna D) Cauvery
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q67) What shape does a population pyramid take for a rapidly growing population?
A) Inverted triangle shape B) Circular shape C) Triangular shape D) Rectangular shape
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q68) Which of the following plateaus is located in the northeastern part of India?
A) Malwa Plateau B) Deccan Plateau C) Chota Nagpur Plateau D) Shillong Plateau
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q69) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the Western Coastal Plains?
A) Mangrove forests B) High rainfall C) Large deltas D) Lagoons and backwaters
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

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 Q70) Consider the following statements regarding the Ghaghara River system:
1. The Ghaghara originates from the Mapchachungo glacier in the Himalayas.
2. It forms a deep gorge at Shishapani before entering the plains.
3. It merges with the Ganga at Allahabad after receiving the Sarda River.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) Only 1 and 3 B) Only 1 and 2 C) Only 2 and 3 D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q71) Which of the following statements best links a current conservation initiative for the Great Indian Bustard with its
geographical location?
A) National Avian Research Centre in Maharashtra conducted habitat simulation for GIB.
B) Kalyan Sanctuary in Karnataka now houses the largest wild GIB population.
C) India's first successful artificial insemination of GIB took place in the National Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.
D) A GIB conservation breeding centre was set up in Kutch, Gujarat for desert climate adaptation.
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q72) Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Birth rate measures the number of children born per 1000 people annually.
(2) Pull factors include opportunities that attract people to new regions.
(3) Death rate is always higher than birth rate.
(4) Push factors can include civil unrest and lack of jobs.
A) All of the above B) 2 and 3 only C) 1, 2, and 4 only D) 1 and 3 only
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q73) Which layer of the Earth's atmosphere is primarily responsible for absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the Sun?
A) Thermosphere B) Stratosphere C) Mesosphere D) Troposphere
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q74) Which is the largest island of India in terms of area?

A) Rameswaram B) Great Nicobar Island C) Sriharikota D) Majuli
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q75) Which Indian Union Territory has the most Scheduled Castes?
A) Delhi B) Chandigarh C) Ladakh D) Lakshadweep
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q76) The Alaknanda River originates from which of the following?

A) Satopanth Glacier B) Zemu Glacier C) Milam Glacier D) Gangotri Glacier
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

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 Q77) Which of the following is NOT a primary factor affecting the variation of insolation on Earth?
A) Presence of water bodies in an area B) Rotation of the Earth on its axis C) Transparency of the atmosphere
D) Angle of inclination of the Sun’s rays
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q78) The Western Coastal Plains are narrower compared to the Eastern Coastal Plains because:
A) They receive less rainfall B) They are less populated C) They are older in formation
D) They are bordered by the Western Ghats
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q79) Name the state which is the largest producer of lignite coal?
A) Maharashtra B) Gujarat C) Rajasthan D) Tamil Nadu
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q80) Which of the following statements best explains why certain regions exhibit high population density?
Regions offering fertile land, favorable climates, abundant natural resources, and robust economic opportunities are more
A)
likely to have high population densities.
B) High population density is predominantly found in areas with poor infrastructure and limited access to essential services.
Regions with limited natural resources tend to have Areas with scarce natural resources have higher population
C)
concentrations because of greater competition for few materials.
Areas characterized by mountainous terrain and arid climates often support dense populations because of their
D)
challenging living conditions.
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q81) If a person views the Earth from above the North Pole, he will observe that the Earth rotates in:
A) Anti-clockwise B) No rotation C) Random spin D) Clockwise
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q82) Which Indian plateau is formed primarily by volcanic activity?

A) Malwa Plateau B) Shillong Plateau C) Chota Nagpur Plateau D) Deccan Plateau
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q83) Read the given below statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): The Chambal River is known for its badland topography called the Chambal ravines.
Reason (R): The Chambal flows through a deep gorge and eroded terrain before joining the Yamuna.
A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. C) A is true, but R is false. D) A is false, but R is true.
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

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 Q84) Consider the following characteristics:

1. High moisture-retaining capacity, often developing deep cracks during dry hot weather.
2. Ideal for tea and apple cultivation due to high fertility and cold climate preference.
3. Rich in lime, iron, magnesia, and alumina, but poor in phosphoric contents.

Which of the above characteristics are primarily associated with Black Soils?
A) Only 1 B) Only 1 and 3 C) Only 2 and 3 D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q85) Read the following statements:

Statement 1: The temperature in Troposphere decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165 meters of height.
Statement 2: The temperature in mesosphere starts to decrease with the increase in altitude and reaches up to
–100°C at around 80 km.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A) Only Statement 1 is correct B) Only Statement 2 is correct C) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q86) The highest rainfall in India gets recorded in the Khasi and Jaintia Hills. In which state will you find these hills?
A) Meghalaya B) Nagaland C) Arunachal Pradesh D) Assam
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q87) Name the major coal producing region located in Telangana state?
A) Singareni Coalfield B) Raniganj Coalfield C) Talcher Coalfield D) Jharia Coalfield
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q88) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding India's rural and urban population trends from 1901 to
2011?

(1) The rural population has consistently increased in absolute numbers.

(2) The percentage share of rural population in total population has steadily declined.
(3) Urban population first exceeded 100 million in 1981.
A) Only 1 and 2 B) All of the above C) Only 1 and 3 D) Only 2 and 3
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

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 Q89) Match the columns:

Column A (Land-Use Category) Column B (Description - Shuffled)

A. Miscellaneous Tree Crops & Groves 1. Land left fallow for more than 1 year but less than 5 years
B. Culturable Wasteland 2. Privately owned land under orchards and fruit trees
C. Current Fallow 3. Land left uncultivated for over 5 years
D. Fallow other than Current Fallow 4. Land left fallow for one or less than one year
A) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 B) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 C) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 D) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q90) Which of the following factors contributes to the low child sex ratio in some economically developed Northern
states of India?
1) Increased accessibility to prenatal sex-determination methods
2) High levels of female literacy and empowerment
3) Societal preference for male children in inheritance and family support
4) Strengthened enforcement of gender-equal policies
A) 2 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 1 and 3 D) 1 and 4
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q91) Match Column A (Denudational Processes) with Column B (Their Driving Forces/Energy):

Column A (Denudational Processes) Column B (Their Driving Forces/Energy)

A. Weathering 1. Kinetic Energy
B. Mass Movement 2. Gravitational / Molecular Stresses / Chemical Actions
C. Erosion and Transportation 3. Gravitational Force
D. Denudation (overall process) 4. External Forces acting on Earth surface
A) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 B) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 C) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 D) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q92) Name the state in which The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are located?
A) Odisha B) Andhra Pradesh C) Tamil Nadu D) West Bengal
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q93) Earth remote sensing satellites (EOS) are primarily designed to:
A) Drill into Earth's crust for mineral samples B) Monitor weather, land use, and environmental changes on Earth
C) Build underground transport systems D) Study the internal structure of Earth using seismic waves
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q94) Which of the following states has the lowest population in India, according to the 2011 Census of India?
A) Maharashtra B) Odisha C) Punjab D) Madhya Pradesh
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

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 Q95) Which of the following correctly matches the population growth phase in India with its key characteristic?
A) Phase IV (Post-1981) - Sudden increase in fertility rate due to migration
B) Phase III (1951-1981) - Population explosion caused by falling death rate and high fertility
C) Phase I (1901-1921) - Rapid population explosion due to low mortality and high fertility
D) Phase II (1921-1951) - High mortality rate and declining birth rate
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q96) Which of the following is an erosional landform created primarily by river action?
A) Moraine B) Delta C) Gorge D) Levee
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q97) Name the port that is privately owned by the Adani Group?
A) Visakhapatnam Port, Andhra Pradesh B) Chennai Port, Tamil Nadu C) Kandla Port, Gujarat D) Mundra Port, Gujarat
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q98) Assertion (A): Migration can be driven by negative and positive circumstances.
Reason (R): Push factors make individuals migrate away from a region, whereas pull factors draw individuals to
a region.
Choose the correct option:
A) A is false, but R is true. B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. D) A is true, but R is false.
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q99) Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of India's major drainage systems:
1. The ancient Indo–Brahma river is believed to have split into three major drainage systems over time.
2. The Ganga and its Himalayan tributaries represent the central drainage system.
3. The western drainage system consists of the Brahmaputra and its tributaries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) Only 2 and 3 B) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct C) Only 1 and 3 D) Only 1 and 2
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q100) Assertion (A): Migrants who enter a new country or region are called immigrants.
Reason (R): Emigrants are people who leave their country to settle elsewhere.
Choose the correct option:
A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. C) A is true, but R is false. D) A is false, but R is true.
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q101) How does the Faint Young Sun paradox challenge our understanding of early Earth's climate?
A) It implies there was no liquid water on early Earth. B) It proves the Moon once had an atmosphere.
C) It suggests that early solar output was too weak to prevent global freezing.
D) It shows Earth was too hot due to excessive solar radiation.
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

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 Q102) Read the following statements:
Statement
Diastrophism includes all processes that move, elevate, or build up portions of the Earth’s crust.
1:
Statement Exogenic processes derive their energy from the atmosphere, influenced by solar energy and
2: tectonic gradients.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) Only Statement 1 is correct B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct C) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
D) Only Statement 2 is correct
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q103) Which river is the main source of water for the Hirakud Dam?
A) Mahanadi B) Godavari C) Krishna D) Kaveri
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q104) Which of the following Biosphere Reserves is correctly matched with its state?
A) Seshachalam Hills – Andhra Pradesh B) Dehang-Dibang – Meghalaya C) Pachmarhi – Gujarat
D) Dibru-Saikhowa – Manipur
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q105) Which state has the lowest population in India?

A) Manipur B) Arunachal Pradesh C) Sikkim D) Mizoram
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q106) According to Census 2011, which Indian State/UT has no Scheduled Tribe?
A) Kerala B) Goa C) Puducherry D) Chhattisgarh
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q107) Which of the following statements correctly differentiates Alluvial soils from Red and Yellow soils?
A) Alluvial: from rocks; Red/Yellow: river-transported B) Alluvial: older types most fertile; Red/Yellow: colored by iron
C) Alluvial: sandy loam to clay; Red/Yellow: sandy loam, less fertile uplands
D) Alluvial: rich in phosphorus and humus; Red/Yellow: rich in potash
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q108) Match the following Ports/Corridors (Column A) with their Strategic Benefit to India (Column B):
Column A
Column B (Strategic Benefit to India)
(Port/Corridor)
A. Chabahar Port 1. Links India with Europe via Middle East
2. New age of transportation between India to Southeast Asia via Mizoram-
B. IMEC
Myanmar link
C. Sittwe Port 3. Access to Central Asia bypassing Pakistan
A) A→3, B→1, C→2 B) A→2, B→3, C→1 C) A→3, B→2, C→1 D) A→1, B→2, C→3
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

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 Q109) What is the primary reason for the asymmetrical distribution of continents and oceans across the Earth's
surface?
A) Seafloor spreading and plate tectonics B) Earth's elliptical orbit C) Magnetic anomalies in the core
D) Variations in solar radiation
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q110) According to the classification of modern Indian languages, which linguistic family accounts for the largest
share of the Indian population?
A) Sino-Tibetan (Kirata) B) Dravidian C) Austric (Nishada) D) Indo-European (Aryan)
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q111) What is Karst topography primarily associated with?

A) Groundwater action in limestone or dolomite regions B) River meandering in alluvial plains
C) Glacial deposition in polar regions D) Wind erosion in arid deserts
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q112) Match the following Wildlife Sanctuaries (Column A) with their respective States (Column B):
Column A (Wildlife Sanctuary) Column B (State)
1. Gandhi Sagar WLS a. Assam
2. Sonai Rupai WLS b. Madhya Pradesh
3. Kaimur WLS c. Telangana
4. Eturnagaram WLS d. Bihar
A) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d C) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b D) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q113) Which high-altitude observatory in India is known for hosting an optical-infrared telescope used for space
observation in Ladakh?
A) Udaipur Solar Observatory B) Hanle Indian Astronomical Observatory C) Nainital Aryabhatta Observatory
D) Mount Abu Infrared Observatory
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q114) Which of the following agro-climatic and soil conditions is most suitable for the cultivation of wheat?
A) Arid crop; temperature above 40°C; sandy loam soil B) Subtropical crop; high humidity; laterite soil
C) Temperate crop; winter temp 10–15°C, summer 21–26°C; clay loam soil
D) Tropical crop; 30–35°C temperature; sandy soil
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q115) Which planet has the longest day in the solar system?
A) Venus B) Mars C) Jupiter D) Earth
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

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 Q116) The Jog Falls in Karnataka is formed from which river?
A) Godavari B) Kaveri C) Sharavathi D) Krishna
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q117) Match the following Cropping Seasons with their Major Crops:
Column A (Cropping Season) Column B (Major Crops - Shuffled)
A. Kharif (June-September) 1. Vegetables, Fruits, Fodder
B. Rabi (October-March) 2. Rice, Cotton, Bajra, Maize, Jowar, Tur
C. Zaid (April-June) 3. Wheat, Gram, Rapeseeds and Mustard, Barley
A) A-2, B-1, C-3 B) A-1, B-2, C-3 C) A-2, B-3, C-1
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

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 Polity (Q-84)
Q118) Which of the following is a subject under the State List?
A) Banking B) Public Order C) Defence D) Education
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q119) How does Article 356 impact the federal structure of India?
A) It ensures judicial independence B) It promotes decentralization C) It allows Centre to dismiss State governments
D) It enforces cooperative federalism
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q120) The Vice-President of India is part of which branch of the government?

A) Legislative only B) Executive only C) Judicial only D) Both Executive and Legislative
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q121) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with respect to the Schedules of the Indian Constitution?
A) Eleventh Schedule - Powers and responsibilities of Panchayats
B) Twelfth Schedule - Election of President and Vice-President
C) Tenth Schedule - Languages recognised by the Constitution
D) Ninth Schedule - Allocation of powers between Union and States
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q122) Which of the following powers granted under the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 extends
beyond the scope of its predecessor, the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920?
A) Permitting collection of biometric and biological data B) Restricting identification procedures only to convicts
C) Limiting law enforcement access to stored data D) Allowing only fingerprints for crime investigation
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q123) Under which article can the President declare a National Emergency?
A) Article 360 B) Article 356 C) Article 352 D) Article 365
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q124) Which of the following commissions is NOT a statutory body in India?

A) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes B) National Human Rights Commission C) National Commission for Farmers
D) National Commission for Women
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q125) Which schedule of the Constitution contains provisions for the disqualification of legislators under the anti-
defection law?
A) Ninth Schedule B) Eleventh Schedule C) Tenth Schedule D) Eighth Schedule
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

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 Q126) Which principle of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 ensures that entities collecting personal
data must obtain explicit consent from individuals?
A) Purpose Limitation B) Storage Reduction Compliance C) Data Localization D) Notice and Choice Framework
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q127) Which of the following was a major effect of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
A) It abolished the Directive Principles of State Policy.
B) It increased the tenure of the Lok Sabha and introduced Fundamental Duties
C) It introduced Fundamental Rights for citizens. D) It reduced the term of the Lok Sabha to four years
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q128) Which constitutional amendment is known as the "Mini Constitution"?

A) 52nd Amendment B) 44th Amendment C) 42nd Amendment D) 24th Amendment
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q129) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)?
1. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita introduces community service as a punishment for minor offences.
2. The scope of summary trials has been limited to only serious offences under the new law.
3. The reformative approach aims to ensure societal reintegration of offenders.
A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 all are correct
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q130) Which of these is not a feature of Indian federalism?

A) Independent Judiciary B) Written Constitution C) Dual Citizenship D) Division of Powers
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q131) Which of the following statements based on the Union List entries is/are correct?
The Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on lotteries conducted by both the Central and State
1.
governments.
2. Matters related to the incorporation and regulation of cooperative societies are included in the Union List.
The Reserve Bank of India, foreign exchange, and currency are all under the legislative domain of the
3.
Union.
Parliament can make laws regarding corporations whose activities are not limited to one State, excluding
4.
universities.
A) Only 1, 3, and 4 B) Only 2 and 3 C) Only 1 and 4 D) All four statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

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 Q132) Read the statements given below:
Statement The Constitution of India divides the legislative subjects into 3 lists, namely the Centre, State and
1: Concurrent List.
Statement The subject of 'Protection of wild animals and birds' is transferred to the Concurrent list from the
2: State list by the 42nd Amendment Act
Statement
Only the Parliament of India can make laws on the subjects under the Concurrent List.
3:
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
A) Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct B) All three statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct C) Only Statement 2 is correct
D) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q133) Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, promotes e-filing and virtual trials to expedite
the justice delivery system.
Reason (R): The integration of technology aims to reduce case pendency and enhance accessibility to justice.
Read and mark the correct options:
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B) A is false, but R is true.
C) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. D) A is true, but R is false.
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q134) What was the role of the University Grants Commission (UGC), established in 1956?
A) To regulate trade agreements B) To promote agricultural development C) To manage industrial policies
D) To oversee and fund higher education institutions in India
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q135) Which level of the Panchayati Raj system operates at the village level?
A) Panchayat Samiti B) Zila Parishad C) Gram Panchayat D) Gram Sabha
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q136) Which body is responsible for resolving disputes related to the election of the President of India?
A) Election Commission B) Supreme Court C) Lok Sabha D) Rajya Sabha
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q137) What is the role of the Foreigners’ Tribunal in the NRC (National Register of Citizens) process?
A) To conduct the Census B) To issue voter ID cards C) To deport illegal immigrants
D) To verify citizenship claims of individuals excluded from the NRC
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q138) Which of the following North-Eastern states has areas governed under the Sixth Schedule?
A) Tripura B) Manipur C) Nagaland D) Arunachal Pradesh
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

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 Q139) What is the punishment for abetment of an offense under the POCSO Act?
A) Same punishment as the offense B) Half the punishment prescribed for the offense C) No punishment
D) Community service
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q140) Which of the following bodies has the power to create new All-India Services common to both the Union and
the States?
A) The President of India by issuing an executive order. B) The Union Cabinet by a simple majority.
C) The Prime Minister with the consent of all Chief Ministers.
D) The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q141) Which of the following is correctly matched with their leadership role in the Constituent Assembly (During the
making of the Indian constitution)?
A) G.V. Mavalankar – Chairman of the Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar – Head of the Committee on the Functions of the Assembly
C) N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar – Chairman of the Order of Business Committee
D) K.M. Munshi – Leader of the Committee on Fundamental Rights
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q142) According to the Constitution of India, what is the quorum required to constitute a meeting of either House of
Parliament?
A) One-third of the total number of members of the House.
B) Fifty members in the Lok Sabha and twenty-five members in the Rajya Sabha.
C) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House. D) One-fourth of the total number of members of the House.
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q143) What is the role of National Parks under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
A) To promote tourism B) To protect wildlife and their habitats C) To regulate trade D) To oversee elections
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q144) If 'a soldier fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer, in conformity with the law'. According to the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, has he committed an offence?
A) Yes, because he could have disobeyed B) Yes, because violence is punishable C) No, because he followed public orders
D) No, because he believed in good faith that he was bound by law
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q145) Who headed the Credentials Committee in the Constituent Assembly?

A) Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar B) T.T. Krishnamachari C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) K.M. Munshi
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

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 Q146) The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) as stipulated by the Constitution is:
A) 530 members B) 552 members C) 550 members D) 545 members
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q147) Which article provides for the appointment of Governors in India?

A) Article 170 B) Article 154 C) Article 155 D) Article 168
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q148) Identify the following constitutional attributes with their respective democratic values:

Column A Column B
a) Fundamental Duties i. Grassroots democracy
b) Equal voting rights ii. Respect for individual conscience
c) Local self-government provisions responsibilities iii. Recognition of citizens'
d) Religious freedom assurance iv. Principle of universal franchise
A) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii B) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv C) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii D) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q149) What is the role of the Speaker in case of a tied vote in the Lok Sabha election?
A) Decides based on personal preference B) Votes to break the tie C) Does not participate
D) Refers the decision to the President
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q150) Which constitutional features in India are linked to the Australian Constitution?
A) A) Freedom of trade and commerce B) B) Joint sitting of the two Houses C) C) Federal structure with strong Centre
D) D) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q151) Under which ministry does the National Productivity Council operate?
A) Ministry of Education B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry C) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
D) Ministry of Agriculture
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q152) Which Article of the Constitution deals with the extent of executive power of the Union?
A) Article 78 B) Article 75 C) Article 52 D) Article 73
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q153) As per Chapter I (Preliminary) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following is not
applicable under the Act?
A) Hearings before a District Magistrate B) Affidavits submitted before court officer
C) Trials before Military Court (Court-Martial) D) Proceedings before Civil Judge Court
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

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 Q154) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Land and agriculture fall under the State List.

Statement II: Marriage laws and adoption fall under the Concurrent List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) Only Statement I is correct B) Only Statement II is correct C) Both statements I and II are correct
D) Neither statement I nor II is correct
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q155) How did the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021 extend the legal abortion framework in
India?
A) Increased gestational limit for termination to 24 weeks for special cases
B) Restricted abortion access only to married women C) Allowed termination solely on the discretion of healthcare providers
D) Made abortion legal for all pregnancies up to 30 weeks
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q156) The new criminal laws aim to replace British-era laws with a focus on:
A) Political advantages B) Religious governance C) Corporate laws D) Justice delivery and citizen rights
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q157) Under Chapter V of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following qualifies as primary
evidence?
A) A counterpart document executed by one of the parties B) A photocopy of the document signed by a clerk
C) A handwritten summary prepared later D) A typed copy of the original document
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q158) Which body has the power to amend the Union and State power distribution under the Indian Constitution?
A) Supreme Court B) Lok Sabha C) State Legislature D) Parliament
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q159) Consider the following statements:

1. All-India Services common to Union & states.

2. Controlled by state governments only.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

A) Both 1 and 2 B) Only 2 C) Neither 1 nor 2 D) Only 1
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q160) Who among the following is the final interpreter of the Indian Constitution?
A) The President of India B) The Prime Minister C) The Supreme Court of India D) The Parliament
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

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 Q161) Which of the following accurately describes the statutory responsibilities of the Lokpal under the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013?
The Lokpal is mandated to provide the President with an annual report, which will be laid before both Houses of
A)
Parliament.
B) The Lokpal operates under the direct administrative control of the Prime Minister’s Office.
C) The Lokpal must submit regular reports to the Election Commission for public disclosure.
D) The Lokpal is a constitutional body tasked with making final judgments in corruption cases
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q162) Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, what is the punishment for mob lynching?
A) House arrest B) Fine only C) Life imprisonment or death penalty D) No punishment
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q163) Which of the following statements is correct in the context of constitutional interpretation and judicial doctrine?
A) The Constitution of India clearly defines the term 'basic structure' under Article 368.
B) The Judiciary rejected the idea of spirit-based interpretation and strictly follows the written text.
The 'basic structure' doctrine was brought into existence by the Supreme Court to protect the fundamental features of the
C)
Constitution
D) The Parliament can propose amendments that repeal judicial principles without limitation.
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q164) Which Constitutional Amendment Act made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right in India?
A) 44th Amendment Act, 1978 B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 C) 86th Amendment Act, 2002 D) 97th Amendment Act, 2011
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q165) According to Section 21 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following statements is
correct regarding the trial of offences under Sections 64 to 71 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
A) The trial must be conducted by any police officer of the rank of DSP and above.
B) These offences must be tried only in a High Court under a male judge.
C) Such offences are exclusively triable by Executive Magistrates.
D) These offences shall, as far as practicable, be tried by a court presided over by a woman.
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q166) Which entities are eligible to register under the FCRA?

A) Political parties B) Government departments C) Only private companies D) Section 8 companies, trusts, and societies
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q167) Who was the Chairman of the 'Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and
Excluded Areas' in the Constituent Assembly?
A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) K.M. Munshi D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

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 Q168) Match the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution with their respective features:

Column A (Schedule) Column B (Feature)

1. First Schedule a. Allocation of powers and responsibilities between Union and States
2. Third Schedule b. Forms of Oaths or Affirmations
3. Fifth Schedule c. Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Tribes (excluding NE states)
4. Seventh Schedule d. Names of the States and Union Territories and their territorial jurisdiction
A) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b B) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q169) The 'emoluments, allowances, and privileges of constitutional officeholders' are governed under which
Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
A) Fifth Schedule B) Seventh Schedule C) Eleventh Schedule D) Second Schedule
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q170) What is the maximum time limit for completing the trial of a case under the POCSO Act?
A) 6 months B) 3 years C) 2 years D) 1 year
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q171) Which discretionary power allows a Governor to reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for the
consideration of the President?
A) To send a report to the President for the imposition of President's Rule.
B) To reserve a bill for the President's consideration. C) To grant pardon in certain cases.
D) To summon, prorogue, and dissolve the state legislative assembly.
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q172) Which of the following High Courts has jurisdiction over more than one state?
A) Kerala High Court B) Guwahati High Court C) Delhi High Court D) Patna High Court
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q173) Which list allows both Centre and State to legislate on the same subject?
A) Reserved List B) Union List C) Concurrent List D) State List
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q174) Read the below statements related to Concurrent List laws:

1. Union law overrides state law in conflict.
2. State law can prevail if reserved and assented by President.
Which is/are correct?
A) Only 2 B) Only 1 C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

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 Q175) Which of the following statements regarding the implementation challenges of UCC is most accurate in the
context of judicial interpretations and recent state-level developments?
A) UCC is enforceable only when ratified by all religious communities through a national referendum
B) The Law Commission of India (2018) recommended UCC for all religions to ensure uniformity
C) The Supreme Court has uniformly declared UCC as mandatory across states
D) The UCC is already implemented in Goa and Uttarakhand through their respective legislative frameworks
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q176) What major reform does Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam bring?

A) Digitization of evidence B) Introduction of new fundamental rights C) Abolishment of the Supreme Court
D) Removal of all existing laws
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q177) Kishor Makwana's appointment as Chairman of NCSC is significant in which evaluative context?
A) Agricultural economic reforms B) Political consolidation in Southern India C) Caste census leadership
D) Social justice administration and SC policy implementation
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q178) Arrange the following Fundamental Rights in the order they are listed in the Indian Constitution:
1. Right to Constitutional Remedies
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right against Exploitation
4. Right to Equality
A) 1-2-3-4 B) 3-2-1-4 C) 4-1-3-2 D) 4-2-3-1
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q179) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding scheme and its implementing ministry?
A) PM-JANMAN – Ministry of Rural Development B) Samarth Scheme – Ministry of Textiles
C) Mission Shakti – Ministry of Home Affairs D) PM MITRA – Ministry of Agriculture
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q180) Which of the following statements is true in relation to the enforcement of President’s Rule?
A) The Governor’s recommendation can lead to dismissal of a State government, even if it enjoys a majority.
B) It can be extended indefinitely with the consent of the Prime Minister
C) The President cannot impose President’s Rule unless the Supreme Court permits.
D) President’s Rule can be declared without Parliament’s approval
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q181) The Indian Constitution is often described as 'quasi-federal' or 'federal in form, unitary in spirit' primarily due to
which characteristic?
A) The equal representation of states in the Rajya Sabha. B) The presence of a written constitution.
C) Strong centralizing tendencies and powers of the Union Government. D) The existence of independent judiciary.
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

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 Q182) The concept of "Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)" in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from
the Constitution of which country?
A) Ireland B) United States of America C) United Kingdom D) Canada
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q183) As per the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following best defines "electronic
communication"?
A) Any information transmitted using electronic devices like phones or computers
B) Only video calls conducted through secure government networks C) Telephonic conversations recorded manually
D) Verbal messages sent through written documents only
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q184) Which of the following best reflects the constitutional dilemma in implementing the Uniform Civil Code
(UCC) in India, as discussed in debates surrounding Article 44 and Article 25?
A) UCC allows gender-based personal law systems to remain untouched under Article 14
B) UCC enforces cooperative federalism by giving states legislative powers on personal law
C) UCC operationalises the secular ethos by completely eliminating all religious laws
D) UCC aligns with Article 44 but may be seen to infringe upon religious freedom under Article 25
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q185) The system of federalism in India divides power between:

A) Centre and States B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha C) President and Governors D) Executive and Judiciary
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q186) The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic
Republic. Which of these terms were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act,
1976?
A) Socialist, Secular B) Sovereign, Democratic C) Republic, Democratic D) Justice, Liberty
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q187) Statutory grants to states by the Union government, under Article 275 of the Constitution, are primarily
recommended by which body?
A) National Development Council B) Finance Commission C) Ministry of Finance D) NITI Aayog
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q188) Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad D) Jawaharlal Nehru
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q189) Which part of the Indian Constitution is known as the "Magna Carta of India" and guarantees fundamental
rights to the citizens?
A) Part I B) Part II C) Part III D) Part IV
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

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 Q190) Statement 1: Governor is state's constitutional head.
Statement 2: He acts solely on Council's advice.
Which of the above statements holds true regarding Governor's executive powers?
A) Both 1 and 2 B) Only 1 C) Only 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q191) India's improvement in the Rule of Law Index is most critically challenged by which factor?
A) Slow judicial delivery B) Legislative overreach C) Executive dominance D) Media bias
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q192) Under Section 25(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what may the Court do when a
person is convicted in one trial for multiple offences?
A) Can impose only one punishment for all the offences, regardless of their nature
B) Must give the harshest punishment only and remit other punishments altogether
C) Shall suspend all sentences unless directed by a higher court in the same trial
D) May impose punishments to run either concurrently or consecutively as appropriate
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q193) The power to legislate on ‘Residuary Subjects’ (matters not enumerated in any of the three Lists) rests
exclusively with:
A) The President of India B) Parliament C) The Supreme Court D) State Legislatures
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q194) Which of the following pairs of newly created States/Union Territories after the States Reorganisation Act,
1956 is correctly matched?
A) Jharkhand - 2001 B) Uttarakhand - 1998 C) Chhattisgarh - 2000 D) Telangana - 2001
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q195) Arrange the following Fundamental Rights in the order of their appearance in the Constitution:
1. Right to Freedom
2. Right to Equality
3. Right to Freedom of Religion
4. Right against Exploitation
A) 1-2-3-4 B) 2-1-4-3 C) 2-4-1-3 D) 4-2-1-3
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q196) What kind of approach does the Happiness Index encourage in governance?
A) Legalistic B) Citizen-centric C) Resource-based D) Militaristic
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q197) Who was the Home Minister in the first cabinet of free India?
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad B) Rajagopalachari C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

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 Q198) Which Indian state does S. Jaishankar represent in the Rajya Sabha?
A) Maharashtra B) Gujarat C) Uttar Pradesh D) Tamil Nadu
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q199) Which act replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

A) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita B) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita C) None of the above D) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q200) Initially, when the ‘Constitution of India’ was adopted on 26th November 1949, how many Articles and
Schedules did it originally contain?
A) 284 Articles and 8 Schedules B) 395 Articles and 12 Schedules C) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
D) 444 Articles and 12 Schedules
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q201) The provision for ‘Oath or Affirmation’ by members of the legislature is mentioned in which Schedule of the
Indian Constitution?
A) Second Schedule B) Fourth Schedule C) Fifth Schedule D) Third Schedule
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

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 Economics (Q-77)
Q202) What was the role of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) in the Technology Mission on
Oilseeds?
A) To promote milk production B) To regulate trade policies C) To develop genetically modified crops
D) To manage oilseed procurement and processing
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q203) In which year were the major economic reforms introduced in India?
A) 1990 B) 1985 C) 2000 D) 1991
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q204) Which of the following is a key reason for the decline in the agricultural sector in India after 1991 economic
reforms?
A) Rising minimum support prices for all crops B) Greater protection through higher import duties
C) Shift toward export-oriented cash crops and reduced public investment
D) Increased investment in irrigation and rural infrastructure
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q205) What is a major difficulty in the data collection process for the Happiness Index across different countries?
A) Recording trade statistics accurately B) Lack of financial resources for advertising
C) Language barriers in economic treaties D) Ensuring consistent and uniform survey methods globally
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q206) What is the primary goal of the BIMSTEC Free Trade Area (FTA)?
A) To reduce trade barriers and enhance economic cooperation
B) To establish a common currency among BIMSTEC nations C) To regulate trade policies globally
D) To promote cultural exchanges
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q207) Which scheme was launched to promote entrepreneurship among SC and ST communities?
A) Start-Up India B) Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan C) Stand-Up India D) Make in India
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q208) Match the column with their descriptions:

Column A (Laws) Column B (Descriptions)
1. After a certain point, increasing input leads to declining marginal
A. Law of Demand
product.
B. Law of Diminishing Marginal 2. Demand and price move in opposite directions when income
Product increases.
C. Law of Variable Proportions 3. Marginal product initially rises with input usage, then falls.
A) A-3, B-2, C-1 B) A-1, B-3, C-2 C) A-2, B-3, C-1 D) A-2, B-1, C-3
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

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 Q209) Which institution was established in 1961 to promote management education in India?
A) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) B) University Grants Commission (UGC) C) National Productivity Council (NPC)
D) Indian Institute of Management (IIM)
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q210) The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility states that as a consumer consumes more and more units of a
commodity:
A) Marginal utility derived from each additional unit decreases. B) Total utility increases at an increasing rate.
C) Total utility decreases. D) Marginal utility remains constant.
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q211) What is the term for the shift of workers from agriculture to industry and services?
A) Industrialization B) Urbanization C) Occupational diversification D) Economic transition
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q212) Which of the following is not a Maharatna company as of 2024?

A) Hindustan Copper Limited B) National Thermal Power Corporation Limited C) Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
D) Steel Authority of India Limited
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q213) What was the recommendation regarding entry of foreign banks in India?
A) Allow foreign banks to operate freely B) Restrict foreign banks to urban areas C) Ban foreign banks in India
D) Encourage foreign banks to expand operations in India
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q214) The concept of "opportunity cost" in economics refers to:

A) The value of the next best alternative forgone when a choice is made.
B) The cost incurred in the past that cannot be recovered. C) The cost of all alternatives that are not chosen.
D) The monetary cost of the most expensive alternative.
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q215) Which Indian state was the first to benefit from the Green Revolution?
A) Haryana B) Uttar Pradesh C) Rajasthan D) Punjab
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q216) Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I: A bank's main liability is the deposits it holds.
Statement II: Open Market Operations involve buying and selling government bonds.
Statement III: The Bank Rate is the rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks.
A) Only Statement III is correct B) I, II and III all three statements are correct C) Only Statements I and II are correct
D) Only Statements II and III are correct
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

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 Q217) Which government body was responsible for implementing the Technology Mission on Oilseeds?
A) Ministry of Defense B) Ministry of Commerce C) Ministry of Education D) Ministry of Agriculture
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q218) What is the primary purpose of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016?
A) To regulate stock market investments B) To promote foreign direct investment
C) To simplify the process of resolving financial distress in businesses
D) To provide protection for startups from financial harassment
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q219) What does the term 'capital formation' refer to in macroeconomics?

A) Growth in production capacity through investment B) Decrease in foreign direct investment
C) Expansion of consumer credit D) Increase in financial savings
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q220) Arrange the following RBI Governors in the correct chronological order of their tenure (from earliest to latest):
1. Dr. Y. V. Reddy
2. Dr. D. Subbarao
3. Dr. Urjit R. Patel
4. Shri Sanjay Malhotra
A) 1, 3, 2, 4 B) 2, 3, 1, 4 C) 2, 1, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q221) How did Second Generation Reforms impact foreign investment in India?
A) It reduced foreign investment B) It had no impact on foreign investment
C) It restricted foreign companies from entering India D) It increased foreign investment by improving the investment climate
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q222) The regulatory framework adopted by India between 1947 and 1990, often referred to as the 'License Raj,'
aimed to direct economic activity. While it had certain intended benefits, what was a significant unintended
negative consequence often associated with this system?
A) The creation of barriers to entry for new businesses potentially stifling innovation and leading to inefficiencies.
B) A significant reduction in corruption and bureaucratic delays in obtaining necessary approvals for economic activities.
C) A rapid increase in the quality and global competitiveness of Indian-made goods due to stringent quality control measures.
D) The fostering of a highly competitive market environment with numerous players in each industry.
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q223) The PM-MITRA scheme is focused on which of the following objectives?

A) Expanding petroleum retail chains B) Enhancing textile exports and setting up large textile parks
C) Creating rail-based infrastructure hubs D) Providing smart classrooms in rural schools
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

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 Q224) What is one of the major benefits of providing Geographical Indication (GI) tags to local products made by rural
artisans?
A) It increases dependency on imported goods B) It helps preserve traditional knowledge and boosts rural incomes
C) It removes the need for skill development in rural areas D) It allows unrestricted copying of the product by other regions
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q225) Which of the following is NOT a direct outcome of using the Happiness Index?
A) Monitoring population growth B) Creating education policies C) Improving healthcare services
D) Enhancing social services
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q226) What significant institutional development emerged from banking reforms after 1991 to regulate financial
stability?
A) Board for Financial Supervision (BFS) B) NABARD C) Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) D) MSME Credit Bureau
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q227) The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948 aimed at:

A) Privatizing industries B) Developing rural areas C) Opening up foreign trade D) Promoting public sector
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q228) According to Keynesian theory, during recession, what should the government ideally do?
A) Increase interest rates B) Increase spending and cut taxes C) Promote imports D) Reduce spending
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q229) What was the primary impact of the 'License Raj' system on industrial growth in India before 1991?
A) It created entry barriers, hindered expansion, and fostered inefficiency.
B) It led to efficient resource allocation and increased competition.
C) It ensured balanced regional development and prevented monopolies.
D) It promoted rapid industrial diversification and innovation.
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q230) Which of the following best describes the primary objective of a government's fiscal policy?
A) To control the money supply and interest rates.
B) To promote international trade and maintain a favorable balance of payments.
C) To influence aggregate demand and economic activity through government spending and taxation.
D) To regulate the stock market and financial institutions.
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q231) In which decade did India experience a negative growth rate in population?
A) 1901–1911 B) 1931–1941 C) 2001–2011 D) 1911–1921
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

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 Q232) The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) focuses on:
A) Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts B) Improving governance in urban areas
C) Developing industrial clusters in backward regions D) Providing subsidies to small-scale industries
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q233) Read the below statements:

Statement I: The Sixth Five-Year Plan aimed at income growth and modernization of technology through
various schemes.
Statement II: The Third Five-Year Plan failed due to various factors such as wars, rupee devaluation and food
crisis.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) Both statements I and II are incorrect B) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
C) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct D) Both statements I and II are correct
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q234) What was the recommendation of the Narasimham Committee-II regarding public sector banks?
A) Reduce lending by public sector banks B) Increase government ownership in public sector banks
C) Merge and consolidate public sector banks D) Privatize all public sector banks
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q235) Which of the following best reflects the scarcity problem in economics?
A) Limited wants and unlimited resources B) Unlimited wants and unlimited resources
C) Limited resources and unlimited wants D) Equal wants and equal resources
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q236) What does a lower GPI score indicate?

A) Higher level of peace B) Greater military strength C) Higher risk of war D) Better environmental practices
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q237) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 aimed to promote private sector dominance in all key
industries.
Statement II: The Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 classified industries into three categories: fully government-
owned, mixed sector with government lead, and private sector.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) Both statements I and II are incorrect B) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
C) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect D) Both statements I and II are correct
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

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 Q238) What is the role of the finance minister under the FRBM Act?
A) To regulate the stock market B) To oversee disinvestment strategies C) To manage foreign trade policies
D) To present fiscal policy statements to Parliament
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q239) Which of the following statements best captures the essence of Malthus' theory as outlined in the passage?
The natural imbalance between food supply and population growth leads to unavoidable hardships unless population is
A)
controlled.
B) Voluntary checks on population are more effective than natural calamities in curbing overpopulation.
C) Population grows in arithmetic progression, while food production grows geometrically.
D) Agricultural production can grow faster than population with technological advancement.
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q240) In a two-sector economy, households provide factors of production to firms and receive income. If households
save part of this income, what is affected?
A) The circular flow becomes a leakage B) Firm profits increase automatically C) It leads to inflation
D) Production output remains constant
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q241) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The objective of 'Growth with Social Justice & Equality' was introduced in the 10th Five-Year Plan.
Statement II: The first Five-Year Plan was based on the 'Harrod-Domar model'.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct B) Both statements I and II are correct
C) Both statements I and II are incorrect D) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q242) What role did the WTO membership (1995) play in India’s post-reform globalization strategy?
A) Strengthened balance of payments B) Deepened India’s integration into global trade
C) Abolished domestic subsidies completely D) Encouraged protective tariffs
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q243) Which curve is typically U-shaped due to the law of variable proportions?
A) Average Fixed Cost Curve B) Average Variable Cost Curve C) Total Fixed Cost Curve D) Marginal Revenue Curve
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q244) How did India's trade policy reforms post-1991 impact the import of capital goods?
A) Linked capital imports only to foreign companies B) Reduced tariffs and removed licensing
C) Imposed import quotas on machinery D) Banned all capital imports
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

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 Q245) Which of the following is a benefit of measuring happiness in a country?
A) Tracking crime rates B) Improving economic statistics only C) Understanding citizens’ mental and emotional well-being
D) Predicting election results
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q246) Match the columns:

Column A (Status Category) Column B (Public Sector Enterprise)

A. Maharatna 1. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited
B. Navratna 2. Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation
C. Miniratna 3. Steel Authority of India Limited
A) A-1, B-2, C-3 B) A-2, B-3, C-1 C) A-3, B-1, C-2 D) A-1, B-3, C-2
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q247) What is used to measure the health dimension in HDI?

A) Life expectancy at birth B) Infant mortality rate C) Access to clean water D) Nutritional status
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q248) Which of the following sectors contributes the most to India's GDP?
A) Agriculture B) Manufacturing C) Services D) Mining
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q249) During the period of 1947-1990, India's trade policy was largely characterized by:
A) An inward-looking strategy emphasizing import substitution and protection of domestic industries.
B) A policy of free trade with minimal government intervention in international transactions.
C) A liberal import policy aimed at providing consumers with a wide range of goods.
D) An aggressive export-oriented strategy focused on global competitiveness.
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q250) What does the 'invisible hand' concept, as proposed by Adam Smith, primarily signify?
A) Control of monopolies B) Government control in markets C) Market equilibrium achieved via self-interest
D) International trade regulation
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q251) Consider the land reforms implemented in India between 1947 and 1990. What was one of the main objectives
of these reforms?
A) To consolidate large landholdings in the hands of a few individuals.
B) To encourage the widespread adoption of mechanized farming techniques.
C) To reduce the concentration of land ownership and protect the interests of small farmers.
D) To promote the cultivation of cash crops for export.
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

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 Q252) Which key reform in 1991 specifically addressed the inefficiency of public sector enterprises and promoted
competition in industrial production?
A) Privatization of profit-making PSUs B) Fiscal Responsibility Act C) Complex Industrial Licensing process
D) Public Distribution System Reform
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q253) Which of the following is true about the Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme?
1. It promotes scrapping of old vehicles to reduce emissions.
2. The 'Ministry of Road Transport and Highways' is the nodal agency.
3. The scheme incentivizes buyers of fuel-efficient new vehicles only in urban areas.
A) Only 1 and 3 are correct B) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct C) Only 1 and 2 are correct D) Only 2 and 3 are correct
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q254) According to John Maynard Keynes, what is the most effective tool for reviving an economy during a
depression?
A) Increasing public savings B) Reducing private investment C) Expanding government expenditure
D) Raising income tax on corporations
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q255) What is a key focus area of the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan?
A) Multi-modal connectivity B) Rural electrification C) Agricultural subsidies D) Urban development
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q256) What was the main purpose behind the enactment of the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
Management) Act?
A) To Regulate private sector investments B) To increase fiscal deficit C) To reduce government borrowing
D) To promote foreign trade
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q257) Which indicator in EODB (Ease of doing business) measures the time and cost to resolve commercial
disputes?
A) Dealing with construction permits B) Enforcing contracts C) Trading across borders D) Getting electricity
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q258) The Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 played a significant role in shaping India’s industrial development
strategy. What was a key feature of this resolution?
A) It strongly advocated for the dominance of the private sector in all industrial activities.
B) It promoted a completely open and competitive industrial environment with minimal government intervention.
C) It categorized industries into three schedules, with the public sector leading in strategic and heavy industries.
D) It emphasized the development of small-scale and cottage industries while discouraging large-scale enterprises.
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

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 Q259) If a country improves in the GGGR due to a policy mandating equal female representation on company
boards, which GGGR dimension would be most directly impacted?
A) Educational Attainment B) Health and Survival C) Political Empowerment D) Economic Participation and Opportunity
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q260) Which of the following statements are correct about the PM MITRA Scheme?
1. It aims to establish integrated large-scale textile parks.
2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Textiles.
3. The scheme promotes synergy among textile value chain segments.
A) Only 1 and 3 are correct B) Only 2 and 3 are correct C) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct D) Only 1 and 2 are correct
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q261) What is the aim of Ayushman Bharat scheme?

A) Clean drinking water for all B) Health insurance for the poor C) Free education to children D) Housing for the poor
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q262) A factory purchases machinery worth ₹50 lakh. At the end of the year, depreciation is ₹5 lakh. What is the Net
Investment made by the firm?
A) ₹45 lakh B) ₹55 lakh C) ₹5 lakh D) ₹50 lakh
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q263) Which policy reform targeted improving competitiveness and efficiency of the banking system after 1991?
A) Introduction of prudential norms and CRAR B) Limiting foreign entry into retail banking
C) Full deregulation of credit markets D) Nationalization of cooperative banks
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q264) The regulatory framework adopted by India between 1947 and 1990, often referred to as the "License Raj",
aimed to direct economic activity. What was a significant unintended negative consequence often associated
with this system?
A) A rapid increase in the quality and global competitiveness of Indian-made goods due to stringent quality control measures.
B) The fostering of a highly competitive market environment with numerous players in each industry.
C) The creation of barriers to entry for new businesses potentially stifling innovation and leading to inefficiencies.
D) A significant reduction in corruption and bureaucratic delays in obtaining necessary approvals for economic activities.
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q265) Identify the correct interpretation of Gross National Product (GNP).

A) Income of foreigners in India B) Income earned by Indians at home and abroad
C) Income earned by Indians only within India D) Income earned by residents and non-residents within India
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

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 Q266) In the context of India's trade policies between 1947 and 1990, what was a common characteristic of the
approach towards imports?
A) Promoting imports as a way to boost domestic competition.
B) Primarily focusing on the import of luxury goods and consumer durables.
C) Following a strategy of import substitution to protect domestic industries. D) Encouraging unrestricted import of all goods.
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q267) What is the primary mission behind India's involvement in the International North-South Transport Corridor
(INSTC)?
A) To promote clean maritime security B) To bypass China's CPEC route via Taiwan
C) To improve connectivity with Eurasia via multimodal routes D) To facilitate transit trade through the Arctic
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q268) Which of the following is a key responsibility of IRDAI?

A) Protecting the interests of insurance policyholders B) Regulating the stock market
C) Managing disinvestment in public sector enterprises D) Promoting foreign trade
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q269) What trend is reflected by increasing share of urban people in non-manual tertiary occupations?
A) Spatial literacy inequality B) Gendered education access C) Emerging service economy D) De-industrialization
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q270) Consider the emphasis placed on the public sector in India's industrial development strategy between 1947
and 1990. What was a key rationale behind giving the public sector a dominant role during this period?
A) There was a lack of demand for industrial goods in the domestic market, necessitating government intervention.
B) Public sector industries were inherently more efficient than private sector ones.
C) The private sector had sufficient capital and technological expertise to drive industrialization in all key sectors.
The public sector was seen as a tool for achieving social goals, promoting balanced regional development, and controlling
D)
strategic industries.
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q271) In what way did fiscal discipline reforms affect center-state financial relations post-1991?
A) Reduced tax sharing B) States had to adhere to fiscal targets C) Increased state autonomy in tax policy
D) Centralized control over agriculture pricing
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q272) Which of the following schemes provides annual income support to farmers directly into their bank accounts?
A) PM Fasal Bima Yojana B) PM-KISAN C) MGNREGA D) PM Jan Dhan Yojana
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

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 Q273) Statement I: Trade policy reform in India involved removing quantitative restrictions on imports and exports.
Statement II: Trade policy reform increased import licensing to support domestic manufacturers.
Choose the correct option:
A) Both statements I and II are correct B) Both statements I and II are incorrect C) Only Statement II is correct
D) Only Statement I is correct
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q274) Which of the following reflects the ‘what to produce’ decision in economics?
A) Choosing between capital and consumer goods B) Increasing taxes to raise government revenue
C) Deciding on distribution of output D) Choosing method of production
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q275) Which economic consequence of migration is generally considered a challenge for the destination regions
in India, particularly concerning unskilled rural migrants?
A) Increased per capita income due to the inflow of highly skilled labor
B) Reduction in pressure on land resources and unemployment rates
C) Exploitation of migrant labor and the growth of informal sector employment
D) Balanced regional development across states
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q276) Which of the following is the central objective of Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 scheme?
A) Strengthening early childhood care and nutrition delivery systems B) Food security through MSP
C) Urban health surveillance D) Providing skill-based employment
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q277) Which of the following was a major criticism of the industrial policy followed in India during 1950-1990?
A) Too much emphasis on exports. B) Creation of a protected market leading to inefficiency and lack of innovation.
C) Excessive competition among domestic industries. D) Neglect of the public sector.
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q278) What does ‘repo rate’ refer to in India's monetary policy?

A) Rate of foreign exchange transactions B) Rate at which the government borrows from banks
C) Rate at which consumers take loans D) Rate at which commercial banks borrow from the RBI
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

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 Physics (Q-28)
Q279) Which property of sound determines its loudness?
A) Wavelength B) Pitch C) Amplitude D) Frequency
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q280) A conductor rod moving with a velocity v perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. If the length of the rod
perpendicular to both v and B is L, the induced EMF across its ends is given by:
A) BL²v B) BLv C) Bv/L D) B/vL
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q281) Which force governs the motion of planets, stars, and galaxies?
A) Nuclear force B) Gravitational force C) Magnetic force D) Electromagnetic force
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q282) What are the streams of charged particles ejected by the Sun into space called?
A) Sunspots B) Solar wind C) Solar flares D) Coronal loops
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q283) At what orientation does a rotating coil in a uniform magnetic field generate the maximum induced EMF?
A) When the coil's plane is at 45° to the magnetic field lines B) When the magnetic flux through the coil is maximum
C) When the coil's plane is perpendicular (90°) to the magnetic field lines
D) When the coil's plane is parallel to the magnetic field lines
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q284) Which of the following phenomena occurs when a wave passes through a narrow slit?
A) Refraction B) Reflection C) Absorption D) Diffraction
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q285) Match the column:

Column A (Conductor Type) Column B (Mobile Charge Carriers)

A. Metal 1. Positive and negative ions
B. Ionised gas 2. Electrons and positively charged ions
C. Electrolyte 3. Electrons
A) A-3, B-2, C-1 B) A-2, B-3, C-1 C) A-1, B-2, C-3 D) A-3, B-1, C-2
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q286) Two resistors named R1 and R2, are connected in parallel. If R1 < R2, what can be inferred about the current
flowing through them, given the same potential difference across both?
A) Current through R1 is less than through R2. B) Current through R1 is equal to current through R2.
C) Current through R1 is greater than through R2. D) The current ratio depends on the supply voltage.
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

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 Q287) Which of the following systems can be affected by a solar storm?
1. GPS signal accuracy
2. Power transmission systems
3. Submarine communication cables
4. Pipeline infrastructure
A) 2 and 3 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 3 and 4 only D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 all of these
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q288) According to the Law of Periods, the square of a planet's time period is proportional to:
A) The square of its distance from the sun B) The cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit
C) The square root of its orbital radius D) The product of its mass and orbital speed
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q289) Which of Rutherford's experimental observations led him to conclude that the positive charge of an atom is
concentrated in a very small region?
A) Electrons were found to orbit the nucleus in specific energy levels.
B) A very small fraction of α-particles rebounded almost backwards.
C) Most α-particles followed a straight path through the gold foil.
D) A small fraction of α-particles were deflected by small angles.
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q290) Consider the following statements:

1. A solar eclipse- The Moon casts a shadow on Earth when it comes between the Sun and Earth.
2. A lunar eclipse- During the new moon phase, the Moon passes through the Earth's shadow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) Both 1 and 2 B) 1 only C) 2 only D) Neither 1 nor 2
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q291) Consider the following statements:

1. Ramjets operate efficiently at hypersonic speeds.

2. Dual Mode Ramjets can work in both subsonic and supersonic modes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 2 only B) Neither 1 nor 2 C) Both 1 and 2 D) 1 only
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q292) Why does a skilled cricketer move his hands backwards while catching a fast-moving ball?
A) To apply a greater opposing force on the ball for a quick stop.
B) To reduce the force by increasing the time over which momentum changes.
C) To increase the speed of the ball during impact. D) To decrease the weight of the ball using gravity.
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

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 Q293) An electric kettle is rated 2.2 kW, 220 V. If the cost of electricity is ₹4 per unit (kWh), what is the cost of boiling
water for 30 minutes?
A) ₹1.1 B) ₹2.2 C) ₹8.8 D) ₹4.4
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q294) When focusing on a tree while on an anti-clockwise merry-go-round, from which side does it appear and exit?
A) Right to Left B) Always visible C) Never visible D) Left to Right
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q295) Read the following statements carefully:

Statement I: A pressure cooker operates by decreasing the pressure inside, which lowers the boiling point of
water.
Statement II: Food cooks faster in a pressure cooker because the higher pressure allows water to boil at a
temperature above 100 °C.
Statement III: The superheated steam within the cooker increases the rate of heat transfer to the food, leading
to faster cooking.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) Only II and III are correct B) All I, II, and III are correct C) Only I and II are correct D) Only I and III are correct
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q296) What evidence supports the Big Bang theory of universe origin?
A) Sunspot cycles B) Redshift of galaxies C) Solar wind D) Volcanic eruptions on Earth
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q297) Which of the following is the correct sequence in the life cycle of a star like the Sun?
A) Protostar → White Dwarf → Red Giant → Main Sequence B) Nebula → Red Giant → Main Sequence → White Dwarf
C) Main Sequence → Red Giant → White Dwarf D) Red Giant → Protostar → White Dwarf
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q298) A conductor of length L and resistance R is cut into two equal halves. These two halves are then connected in
parallel. Find the equivalent resistance of this parallel combination?
A) R / 4 B) R C) R / 2 D) R / 8
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q299) What is the boiling point of water at sea level?

A) 208.4°F B) 217.4°F C) 212°F D) 203°F
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

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 Q300) According to Bohr's model, what is the significance of an electron transition from a higher energy orbit to a
lower energy orbit?
A) The electron's angular momentum becomes quantized. B) The electron gains energy.
C) A photon of energy equal to the energy difference between the orbits is absorbed.
D) A photon of energy equal to the energy difference between the orbits is emitted.
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q301) A heating element of a heater is made of a material with high resistivity and high melting point. Which of the
following material properties is most crucial for its function as a heating element?
A) High modulus of elasticity B) High thermal conductivity C) Low specific heat capacity D) High resistivity
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q302) Which solar phenomenon is responsible for disturbances in Earth's magnetic field?
A) Sunspots B) Solar flares C) Chromosphere heating D) Photospheric cooling
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q303) Which of the following quantities remains conserved when an object moves under the gravitational pull of
another object?
A) Only linear momentum B) Potential energy and linear momentum C) Kinetic energy and linear momentum
D) Angular momentum and mechanical energy
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q304) Which type of galaxy has no regular shape and is rich in gas and dust?
A) Elliptical Galaxy B) Lenticular Galaxies C) Irregular Galaxy D) Spiral Galaxy
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q305) According to Lenz’s Law, what determines the direction of an induced current in a conductor?
A) It continuously reduces the applied magnetic flux. B) It always enhances the existing magnetic field.
C) It flows to oppose the variation in magnetic flux causing it. D) It is proportional to the strength of the magnetic field.
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q306) Assertion (A): Sound waves travel faster in steel than in air at the same temperature.
Reason (R): The particles in solids (like steel) are more closely packed and experience stronger
intermolecular forces compared to particles in gases (like air), allowing vibrations to be transmitted more
efficiently and rapidly.
Choose the correct option:
A) A is false but R is true. B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. D) A is true but R is false.
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

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 Chemistry (Q-2)
Q307) Which of the following simple household methods can detect the presence of chalk powder in adulterated
wheat flour?
A) Mixing with vinegar to observe fizzing reaction B) Adding iodine solution to observe color change
C) Heating over flame to detect odor D) Soaking in alcohol to dissolve the chalk
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q308) Metanil yellow, a non-permitted dye, is often used to adulterate turmeric. Which chemical test can confirm its
presence?
A) Adding vinegar and looking for bubbles B) Alcohol and hydrochloric acid test yielding pink color
C) Boiling in water and observing sediment D) Mixing with saltwater and checking for layers
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

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 Biology (Q-17)
Q309) Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding vacuoles?
A) Vacuoles are generally larger in animal cells than in plant cells.
B) Animal cells usually contain smaller vacuoles compared to plant cells
C) In some plant cells, the central vacuole can take up most of the cell's volume
D) Vacuoles serve as storage sacs for both solids and liquids
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q310) What is the scientific term for white blood cells?

A) Erythrocytes B) Leucocytes C) Thrombocytes D) Platelets
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q311) The cell uses internal compartmentalization to manage its complexity. Which of the following best reflects this
idea?
A) Organelles in eukaryotic cells float freely without any specific role.
B) Prokaryotic cells use multiple membranes to isolate cell activities.
C) Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles that separate different functions
D) All cellular functions occur in the same space without any separation.
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q312) Which of the following is a unique characteristic of sponges (Phylum Porifera)?

A) Water canal system and choanocytes B) Radial symmetry and presence of tentacles
C) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton D) Presence of cnidoblasts for defense
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q313) High honey yield and gentle behaviour in bees for commercial beekeeping can be achieved through one of the
following methods:
A) Using wild bee species with aggressive defence traits B) Frequently relocating hives to prevent bees from settling
C) Avoiding bee farms and relying solely on natural honey collection
D) Introducing Italian bees that collect more honey and remain in hives longer
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q314) Which of the following correctly represents the chronological order of human development during gestation?
A) Embryo → Zygote → Fetus B) Fetus → Embryo → Zygote C) Zygote → Embryo → Fetus D) Zygote → Fetus → Embryo
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q315) Which of the following best describes the main purpose of developing Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs)
in agriculture?
A) To reduce the cost of manual weeding and irrigation only B) To improve crop yield, pest resistance, and nutritional quality
C) To eliminate the need for fertilizers and pesticides entirely D) To grow crops only in artificial laboratory environments
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

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 Q316) Identify the correct pairing between a plant hormone and its primary physiological function:
A) Gibberellin - Stimulating cell division in roots B) Ethylene - Ripening of fruits C) Cytokinin - Initiating abscission of leaves
D) Auxin - Promoting seed dormancy
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q317) Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

Statement 1: Karnataka has the highest elephant population among Southern States.
Statement 2: A high number of juvenile elephant deaths in Karnataka are due to Elephant Endotheliotropic
Herpesvirus (EEHV).
A) Only Statement 1 is correct B) Only Statement 2 is correct C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is correct
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q318) In the lac operon model, what is the primary role of the allolactose molecule?
A) It functions as an inducer, binding to the repressor protein and inactivating it.
B) It acts as a corepressor, binding with the repressor protein. C) It binds to the promoter to initiate transcription.
D) It directly codes for the enzymes involved in lactose metabolism.
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q319) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of meristematic tissues in plants?

A) Large vacuoles and thick cell walls B) Absence of nucleus and presence of lignified walls
C) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei D) Dead cells that provide mechanical support
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q320) Which specific environmental condition found in waterlogged soils of rice paddies and wetlands directly
facilitates the significant microbial production of methane, a potent greenhouse gas?
A) Frequent soil tilling B) High levels of dissolved oxygen C) Low soil temperatures
D) Anaerobic (oxygen-depleted) conditions
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q321) Which type of placentation is characterized by the ovules developing on the inner wall of the ovary or on
peripheral part, as seen in mustard and argemone?
A) Parietal B) Free central C) Basal D) Axile
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q322) A forest ecosystem experiences a prolonged drought. Which trophic level would likely experience the most
immediate and severe impact on its biomass?
A) Secondary consumers B) Tertiary consumers C) Primary consumers D) Producers
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

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 Q323) Which of the following statements about the G0 (G zero phase) of the cell cycle is most accurate?
A) DNA synthesis occurs rapidly in cells present in the G0 phase.
B) It is the phase where cell division is initiated in cancerous cells.
C) It is a temporary quiescent stage where cells exit the cell cycle. D) Cells in G0 actively prepare for DNA replication.
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q324) Statement 1: India's first initiative to track Fishing Cats through radio-collars has been introduced at Coringa
Wildlife Sanctuary.
Statement 2: Fishing Cats are primarily found in coastal wetlands and mangrove ecosystems.
Choose the correct option:
A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct B) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is correct C) Only Statement 1 is correct
D) Only Statement 2 is correct
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q325) Which of the following best describes the goal of stem cell therapy in modern medicine?
A) To provide genetic immunity against viruses B) To prevent blood clotting in arteries
C) To replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs D) To stimulate hormonal glands
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

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 Current Affairs (Q-82)
Q326) Consider the below statements regarding the Aditya-L1 mission and its payloads:
The SUIT payload on Aditya-L1 is designed to image the solar disk in the near-ultraviolet (UV) spectrum to
1.
study the temperature and chemical composition of the Sun's photosphere and chromosphere.
The SoLEXS instrument is a high-resolution X-ray spectrometer used to study solar flares and active
2.
regions in soft X-ray wavelengths.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) Both 1 and 2 B) Neither 1 nor 2 C) 2 only D) 1 only
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q327) The primary objective of the LUPEX Mission, a collaboration between ISRO and JAXA, is to:
A) Study the Martian atmosphere and soil composition B) Deploy a communication satellite in lunar orbit
C) Investigate the quantity and quality of water on the Moon and explore its dark side
D) Observe solar flares and coronal mass ejections
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q328) Who was appointed as the CEO (Chief Executive Officer) of NITI Aayog in February 2023?
A) Dr. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu B) Amitabh Kant C) Dr. Vivek Joshi D) BVR Subrahmanyam
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q329) Which platform is used for submitting ideas under the INSPIRE MANAK Scheme?
A) Science and Technology Portal B) INSPIRE Portal C) National Innovation Portal D) Digital India Portal
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q330) Which of the following is the main reason that Prime Minister Narendra Modi met Mr. Michal Spiczko,
President of the Kabaddi Federation of Poland?
A) To congratulate him on Poland's football achievements B) To appreciate his efforts in promoting Kabaddi in Europe
C) To sign a trade agreement between India and Poland D) To discuss military cooperation through sports
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q331) Which of the following is the specific port facility within Chabahar Port that India is primarily developing and
operating?
A) Jask Port B) Shahid Beheshti Port C) Shahid Kalantari Port D) Bandar Abbas Port
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q332) Consider the following statements:

1. Madhabi Puri Buch became the first woman to head SEBI in March 2022.
2. Tuhin Kanta Pandey has been appointed as the new SEBI Chief for three years from February 28, 2025.
3. Saudi Arabia has awarded PM Narendra Modi the Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1, 2, and 3 all are correct D) 1 and 2 only
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

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 Q333) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Unique Land Parcel Identification Number
(ULPIN) system?
1. ULPIN assigns a unique ID to every land parcel in India.
2. ULPIN is a 14-digit identification number.
3. ULPIN helps track land ownership and resolve disputes.
4. ULPIN is only for urban areas and not rural land.
A) 1, 2, and 3 only B) 1, 2, and 4 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 3, and 4 only
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q334) How many key variables are used in the World Happiness Report to explain happiness levels?
A) 6 B) 4 C) 10 D) 8
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q335) Which Indian space mission marked the successful launch of 104 satellites in a single mission?
A) Astrosat B) GSLV Mk III C) Chandrayaan-2 D) PSLV-C37
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q336) The term "deuce" is associated with which sport?

A) Football B) Basketball C) Tennis D) Hockey
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q337) Assertion (A): India's participation in the Asian Winter Games 2025 will be unique, as it will be the first time
the government has provided full financial support.
Reason (R): The government's objective is to enhance India's presence and performance in winter sports by
ensuring fair and meritocratic athlete selection.
Evaluate them and choose the appropriate answer:
A) A is true, but R is false. B) A is false, but R is true. C) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
D) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q338) The Nehru Cup, a prominent international football tournament in India, was last held in which year?
A) 2007 B) 2012 C) 2015 D) 2018
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q339) What was the key scientific objective of Chandrayaan-3?

A) To demonstrate a safe lunar landing and rover operation B) To study Mars' atmosphere
C) To measure gravitational waves D) To orbit the Moon
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q340) Who became Indian Navy's first woman fighter pilot streamer on 3 July 2025?
A) Bina Kumari B) Vidya Singh C) Neha Sharma D) Aastha Poonia
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

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 Q341) What is the purpose of the two-day Hands-on Training Workshop on the e-SAKSHI Portal held in June
2024?
A) To demonstrate biometric tracking of MPLAD assets
B) To train officials on the revised fund flow procedure under MPLAD Scheme
C) To launch a new e-commerce platform for district development D) To train MPs in drafting local development plans
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q342) In which year did UNESCO recognize Durga Puja as an Intangible Cultural Heritage?
A) 2023 B) 2015 C) 2019 D) 2021
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q343) Which AQI range corresponds to “Unhealthy for Sensitive Groups”?

A) 101–150 B) 151–203 C) 0–50 D) 51–100
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q344) India's primary interest in developing Chabahar Port is to:

A) Establish a direct naval base for military operations in the Persian Gulf.
B) Gain direct access to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan. C) Develop a new tourism hub for its citizens.
D) Export agricultural products exclusively to Iran.
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q345) The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) focuses on:

A) Developing industrial clusters in backward regions B) Providing subsidies to small-scale industries
C) Improving governance in urban areas D) Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q346) What is the name of India's first reusable hybrid rocket launched by a Tamil Nadu-based startup?
A) AGNI-V B) RAKSHA-1 C) VAYU-1 D) RHUMI-1
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q347) Which major reform was introduced in the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020?
A) Replacement of the 10+2 system with a 5+3+3+4 structure B) Elimination of private schools
C) Compulsory Sanskrit education D) Mandatory board exams for all grades
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q348) Which ISRO centers participate in International Geosphere-Biosphere programme?

A) ISRO Headquarters, Space Applications Centre, National Remote Sensing Centre, Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
Space Physics Laboratory, National Remote Sensing Centre, Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Physical Research
B)
Laboratory
C) Physical Research Laboratory, Space Applications Centre, Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, ISRO Satellite Centre
Space Application Centre (SAC), Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Space Applications Centre, National Remote
D)
Sensing Centre
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

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 Q349) Where was the National Shooting Championship 2024 held?
A) Bhubaneswar, Odisha B) Mumbai, Maharashtra C) Panaji, Goa D) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q350) Which of the following best describes the main objective of the Indo-French Megha-Tropiques satellite
mission?
A) Understanding convective systems and the water cycle in tropical regions
B) Studying polar ice melt and its impact on global sea levels C) Mapping mineral resources in the Himalayan region
D) Monitoring ozone depletion over the equator
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q351) The 'Golden Boot' is awarded in which sport?

A) Cricket B) Baseball C) Hockey D) Football
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q352) Which country withdrew from the NPT in 2003 and later developed nuclear weapons?
A) Israel B) North Korea C) Syria D) Iran
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q353) Which pair is correctly matched with India's geopolitical interest?

A) Ashgabat Agreement - Partnership with BIMSTEC B) Kaladan Project - Links to Iran C) Ladakh Corridor - Access to Africa
D) SAGAR Policy - Maritime ties in the Indian Ocean
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q354) Who was invited as the chief guest for India's 76th Republic Day celebrations on January 26, 2025?
A) Joko Widodo B) Ferdinand Marcos Jr. C) Anwar Ibrahim D) Prabowo Subianto
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q355) What was the objective of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan?

A) Achieving universal sanitation coverage B) Promoting digital payments C) Providing rural housing
D) Creating jobs in the rural sector
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q356) SpaDeX mission is related to ______.

A) Artificial intelligence B) Space docking C) Space farming D) Planetary geology
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q357) Which recent mission by ISRO aims to study the Sun from the Lagrange point L1?
A) Aditya-L1 B) Chandrayaan-3 C) Shukrayaan-1 D) Mangalyaan
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

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 Q358) Given below are the statements in assertion and reason. Choose the correct options:

Assertion (A): AFI has incorporated WADA's 2014 anti-doping rules into its constitution.
Reason(R): Any updates to WADA rules are automatically binding on all athletes and affiliated units in AFI.
A) A is true, but R is false. B) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
C) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. D) A is false, but R is true.
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q359) Which year was the first World Happiness Report published?
A) 2012 B) 2016 C) 2010 D) 2005
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q360) How can NISAR provide valuable information for understanding the relationship between fluid injection and
earthquake?
A) By tracking changes in ground surface elevation associated with pumping and injection
B) By measuring seismic activity in real time C) By monitoring water table levels
D) By analyzing satellite imagery of earthquake damage
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q361) Which government scheme aims to phase out unfit and polluting vehicles from India’s roads to reduce
emissions and boost automotive industry recycling?
A) Smart City Mission B) Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme C) National Electric Mobility Mission Plan
D) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Sadak Yojana
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q362) Which of the following initiatives was launched by the BRICS countries?
A) The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) B) The New Development Bank (NDB)
C) The World Trade Organization (WTO) D) The International Monetary Fund (IMF)
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q363) In May 2024, India signed a long-term agreement for the operation of Chabahar Port. What is the duration of
this agreement?
A) 20 years B) 10 years C) 99 years D) 5 years
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q364) What makes Dr. Avesh Kumar Tyagi's contributions in Atomic Energy distinct from conventional research
output, as per his Vigyan Shri citation?
A) Strategic innovation in both materials and process R&D B) Discovery of a new radioactive element
C) Advances in isotopic separation only D) Development of radiation therapy devices
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q365) The 3-point line in basketball is drawn at what distance from the basket in international competitions?
A) 6.25 meters B) 7.25 meters C) 5.75 meters D) 6.75 meters
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

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 Q366) What is the main focus of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme launched in 2015?
A) Housing for women B) Financial inclusion for widows C) Girl child survival & education
D) Promoting rural entrepreneurship
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q367) In collaboration with which country is ISRO developing the Trishna satellite for high-resolution thermal infrared
imaging of Earth?
A) Israel B) USA C) France D) UAE
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q368) What strategic rationale drives India's investment in Iran's Chabahar Port?
A) To reach Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistan B) To monitor US naval operations
C) To build naval bases in Iran D) To import natural gas from Saudi Arabia
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q369) Which of the following statements regarding the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) is correct?
A) It is managed entirely by the European Space Agency. B) It aims to explore cosmic magnetism and dark matter.
C) It focuses solely on detecting visible light. D) It will consist of a single telescope in India.
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q370) What does a high rank in the Henley Passport Index indicate?
A) High economic power B) Strong military alliances provided to citizens
C) Greater visa-free or visa-on-arrival access for citizens D) Political neutrality
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q371) The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is often viewed as a strategic counter-initiative to
which other major global connectivity projects?
A) Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) B) Asia-Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC) C) Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)
D) North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q372) Where was the Khelo India University Games 2024 held?
A) Mumbai, Maharashtra B) Bhubaneswar, Odisha C) Guwahati, Assam D) Panaji, Goa
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q373) Which of the following correctly describes Mission Shakti?

1. It is an integrated women empowerment programme launched in 2022.
2. It is run by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
3. The scheme includes Samarthya and Sambal sub-schemes.
A) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct B) Only 1 and 3 are correct C) Only 2 and 3 are correct D) Only 1 and 2 are correct
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

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 Q374) How often is the World Happiness Report released?
A) Quarterly B) Annually C) Triennially D) Biennially
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q375) What does the term 'Duckworth-Lewis Method' relate to in cricket?

A) Fielding restrictions B) Player ranking system C) Bowling speed calculation
D) Calculating revised target in rain-affected matches
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q376) Which Indian woman was the pioneer in winning a silver medal at the Olympic Games?
A) Saina Nehwal B) Karnam Malleswari C) Mary Kom D) P.V. Sindhu
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q377) In which year did Toni Morrison become the first African-American woman to win the Nobel Prize in Literature?
A) 1991 B) 1995 C) 1993 D) 1987
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q378) Where was the National Cadets Judo Championships 2024-25 held?
A) Odisha B) Delhi C) Maharashtra D) Goa
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q379) What is the name of the satellite launched by ISRO's GSLV-F09 that was a gift to SAARC nations?
A) GSAT-9 B) GSAT-19 C) INSAT-3DR D) IRNSS-1G
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q380) Which of the below statements is/are correct?

Statement 1: India supports connectivity through the North-South Transport Corridor.

Statement 2: The corridor strengthens India's trade with the Pacific Islands.
A) Only Statement 2 is correct B) Only Statement 1 is correct C) Both 1 and 2 are correct D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q381) How many total medals did India win at the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) Rifle/Pistol World
Cup 2023 held in Bhopal?
A) 6 B) 5 C) 7 D) 8
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

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 Q382) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding global indices as of July 2025?
The World Happiness Report 2024 highlights social support, life expectancy, and GDP per capita as key happiness
A)
factors.
B) AQI consistently above 200 signals general health risks and requires urgent policy action.
Despite being discontinued, the Ease of Doing Business report remains influential for investors assessing startup
C)
procedures.
D) A rise in GNI per capita alone can significantly improve HDI, even with falling life expectancy and education.
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q383) What is the purpose of the 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' scheme?
A) Saving and educating the girl child B) Women's health insurance C) Employment for women
D) Financial support for girl's marriage
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q384) Who was announced on 26 June 2025 as first Indian astronaut for Titans Space mission?
A) Rakesh Sharma B) Sunita Williams C) Jahnavi Dangeti D) Minal Patel
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q385) Which ISRO initiative, launched with the vision of “Catch them young”, aims to introduce school students to
space science and technology?
A) Vidyarthi Vigyan Manthan B) YUVIKA – Young Scientist Programme C) SPARK Internship Programme
D) NISHTHA Space Module
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q386) Where was the 86th Senior National Table Tennis Championships 2025 held?
A) Panaji, Goa B) Surat, Gujarat C) Mumbai, Maharashtra D) Bhubaneswar, Odisha
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q387) The IMEC is envisaged as a multi-modal corridor. Which of the following modes of transport are its primary
components?
A) Air, Rail, and Sea B) Road and Pipeline only C) Maritime and Rail only D) Air and Road only
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q388) India's support for which of the following missions aligns most closely with IMEC's purpose?
A) African Union's Blue Charter mission B) Non-Aligned Movement’s Neutrality Declaration
C) International Solar Alliance energy initiative D) One Sun One World One Grid initiative
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q389) What is the main objective of ISRO’s SCATSAT-1 satellite?

A) Monitoring earthquake zones B) Measuring atmospheric ozone depletion C) Weather forecasting and cyclone prediction
D) Mapping forest cover across India
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

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 Q390) What advanced technology is being tested in ISRO’s new 'Next Generation Launch Vehicle' (NGLV) project
to replace PSLV and GSLV?
A) Reusable booster stage with semi-cryogenic engine B) Quantum entanglement-based control C) Ramjet propulsion
D) Multiple orbital drop pods
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q391) Where was the 72nd Senior National Volleyball Championship 2024 held?
A) Bangalore, Karnataka B) Bhubaneswar, Odisha C) Guwahati, Assam D) Mumbai, Maharashtra
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q392) What is the score of India in Corruption Perception Index published by Transparency International?
A) 38 B) 48 C) 150 D) 300
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q393) In the Climate Change Performance Index 2025, why did India retain a top-10 spot unlike several developed
economies?
A) High renewable energy share and low per capita emissions B) Lack of net-zero policy C) Aggressive fossil fuel expansion
D) High energy consumption per capita
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q394) Who will fly to ISS under Axiom-4 mission in June 2025?
A) Gagandeep Singh B) Sunita Williams C) Shubhanshu Shukla D) Prasanth Nair
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q395) Which Indian sporting award is given for outstanding performance in sports coaching?
A) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award B) Dronacharya Award C) Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar D) Arjuna Award
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q396) How many players from one team are allowed on the basketball court during play?
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q397) Which analytical inference best explains why Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan received the Vigyan Ratna
award in Biological Sciences?
A) For isolating SARS-CoV-2 protein markers B) For discovering DNA replication enzymes
C) For elucidating malaria parasite metabolism and boosting biotech start-ups
D) For promoting chemical synthesis in pharma
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

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 Q398) Statement 1: The Aditya-L1 mission was launched to replace the INSAT series of weather satellites.
Statement 2: Aditya-L1 successfully entered a Halo Orbit around the Lagrange Point 1 (L1) to observe solar
activity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 2 only B) Both 1 and 2 C) Neither 1 nor 2 D) 1 only
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q399) In 2025, ISRO announced the construction of the "Bharatiya Antariksh Station" project. What is the first module
scheduled to be tested under this initiative?
A) Cryogenic Fuel Storage Hub B) Robotic Refueling Unit C) Autonomous AI-operated lab D) Orbital Habitation Module
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q400) Which region has become the new epicenter of global terrorism, according to the GTI (Global Terrorism
Index) 2024?
A) Southeast Asia B) Central Sahel region of sub-Saharan Africa C) Central Asia D) Middle East and North Africa
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q401) What is one of the major future impacts of ISRO's Aditya-L1 mission that studies the Sun's chromosphere
and corona?
A) Mapping of asteroids beyond Neptune B) Enhanced rainfall prediction in monsoon regions
C) Improved space weather forecasting to protect satellites and power systems
D) Development of underwater navigation systems
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q402) Which type of vehicle is commonly used in zero-emission public transport systems?
A) Diesel buses B) Electric buses C) Petrol cars D) Hybrid vehicles
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q403) Where was the Khelo India Youth Games 2024 held?
A) Goa B) Tamil Nadu C) Odisha D) Maharashtra
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q404) Which of the following correctly pairs the initiative with its primary objective from India's viewpoint?
A) Chabahar Port - Access Central Asia via Iran B) BIMSTEC - Land connectivity to Europe
C) QUAD - Strengthening oil diplomacy in Gulf D) IMEC - Maritime security in South China Sea
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q405) What is a unique feature of the AstroSat mission operated by ISRO?

A) Simultaneous multi-wavelength observations B) Optical observations only C) X-ray observations only
D) Single-wavelength observations
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

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 Q406) Assertion (A): The standard distance between the penalty spot and the goal line on a football field is 11
meters.
Reason (R): This distance allows the goalkeeper a fair reaction time while challenging the accuracy and
confidence of the penalty taker.
Evaluate them and choose the appropriate answer:
A) A is false, but R is true. B) A is true, but R is false. C) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
D) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q407) Which of the following accurately describes The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida, winner of the 2022 Booker
Prize?
1. The novel is set during the civil war in Sri Lanka and explores the afterlife of a photojournalist.
2. It is a non-fictional account of archaeological excavations in the Gandhara region.
The author, Shehan Karunatilaka, uses satire and ghosts to comment on violence, memory, and political
3.
trauma.
A) 2 and 3 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 1 and 2 only D) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

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 Static GK (Q-43)
Q408) Which city is home to the cricket ground, Wankhede Stadium?
A) Chennai B) Mumbai C) Kolkata D) Delhi
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q409) What is the name of the writer of Tomb of Sand, the first Hindi book to be awarded the International Booker
Prize?
A) Geetanjali Shree B) Arundhati Roy C) Kiran Desai D) Jhumpa Lahiri
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q410) Which of the following is recognized as a classical dance of India?

A) Bharatnatyam B) Garba C) Lavani D) Bhangra
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q411) Match the following folk forms:

Column A (Folk Form) Column B
A. Sohar 1. Echoed love songs sung by girls and boys on hilltops
B. Chhakri 2. Sung during birth celebrations, shows cultural fusion
C. Laman 3. All-night women's songs in rainy season, danced in semicircle
D. Kajri 4. Kashmiri group song with rabab, sarangi, tumbaknari
A) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 B) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 C) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 D) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
06/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q412) In which state is the folk music tradition of "Zikir" popular?

A) Assam B) Gujarat C) Odisha D) Rajasthan
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q413) Which countries are members of BIMSTEC?

A) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand
B) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Maldives, Sri Lanka, Thailand
C) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand
D) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q414) Which Indian-American author wrote The Namesake, later adapted into a film?
A) Kiran Desai B) Jhumpa Lahiri C) Arundhati Roy D) Chetan Bhagat
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q415) What does the term "checkmate" refer to in chess?

A) End of game B) Invalid move C) A draw D) A win
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

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 Q416) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A) Plasmolysis – Gain of water by plant cell B) Cell wall – Composed mainly of protein
C) Cellulose – Provides structural strength to plant cells D) Plasma membrane – Located outside the cell wall
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q417) Assertion (A): Seasonal agricultural practices, such as stubble burning, have no significant impact on AQI
levels in India.
Reason (R): Stubble burning is a controlled practice that doesn't release substantial pollutants into the
atmosphere.
Choose the correct options regarding both the statements:
A) A is true, but R is false. B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. C) A is false, but R is true.
D) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q418) Kathak is a classical dance form that developed in which region of India?
A) Southern India B) Northern India C) Eastern India D) Western India
06/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q419) Match the Following

Column A - Literary Work Column B - Type

A. Naukar Ki Kameez i. Poetry collection
B. Lagbhag Jai Hind ii. Novel
C. Peed Par Kamra iii. Short story collection
D. Woh Aadmi Chala Gaya iv. Poem
A) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv B) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv C) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii D) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q420) What is the radius of the centre circle in a football field?

A) 5.5 m B) 10.5 m C) 11 m D) 9.15 m
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q421) Which classical dance form originated in Andhra Pradesh and incorporates both singing and dancing?
A) Manipuri B) Kathakali C) Mohiniyattam D) Kuchipudi
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q422) Ganesh Chaturthi, celebrated widely in Maharashtra, is associated with:

A) The descent of Ganga B) The marriage of Shiva and Parvati C) The birth of Lord Ganesha
D) The return of Krishna to Mathura
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

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 Q423) Name the organization that made the Golden Quadrilateral Project connecting major cities of India feasible?
A) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) B) Indian Railways C) Ministry of Urban Development
D) Border Roads Organization (BRO)
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: A

Q424) Match the following Indexes with their respective Publishing Organizations:

Column A - Index Column B - Publishing Organization

A. Global Innovation Index 1. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
B. Global Hunger Index 2. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
C. Global Peace Index 3. Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe
D. Human Development Index (HDI) 4. Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP)
A) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 B) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 C) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 D) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q425) Which of the following is a prominent form of Hindustani classical vocal music?
A) Kathak B) Dhrupad C) Bharatnatyam D) Kuchipudi
06/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q426) What was the first published poetry collection by Vinod Kumar Shukla?
A) Lagbhag Jai Hind B) Kavita se Lambi Kavita C) Aakash Dharti Ko Khatakta Hai D) Woh Aadmi Chala Gaya
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: A

Q427) Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tribute to Thiru K. Kamaraj on his birth anniversary. He is remembered for
his contributions to which of the following areas?
A) Trade liberalization and digital governance B) Freedom struggle and social welfare governance
C) Industrialization and foreign policy D) Literature and environmental reforms
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q428) Evaluate the following about Carnatic instruments and choose the correct option:

Statement 1: The Mridangam is a melodic percussion instrument used to outline the raga.
Statement 2: Nadaswaram is a double-reed instrument traditionally played in temples and weddings.
A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 and 2 are correct D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q429) Which classical dance form is associated with the state of Kerala?
A) Kathak B) Kuchipudi C) Kathakali D) Sattriya
07/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q430) Who was the first Indian to receive the Nobel Prize in Literature for Geetanjali?
A) Salman Rushdie B) Rabindranath Tagore C) Arundhati Roy D) R. K. Narayan
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

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 Q431) What is the radius of the striking or shooting circle in hockey?
A) 16.78 meters B) 13.2 meters C) 14.63 meters D) 6.475 meters
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q432) Which of the following is true about the Gudi Padwa festival?
1. It marks the beginning of the Hindu New Year based on the lunisolar calendar.
2. The term Gudi refers to a sacred scripture recited on this day.
3. Traditionally, celebrations begin with the consumption of sweets for good luck.
A) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) Only 1
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: D

Q433) Which dance form is traditionally associated with the culture of Punjab?
A) Kuchipudi B) Yakshagana C) Bhangra D) Mohiniyattam
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: C

Q434) Consider the following statements about the Trinity of Carnatic Music and choose the correct option:

Statement 1: Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar, and Shyama Shastri lived during the 17th century.
Statement 2: The trinity elevated the kriti form to its highest artistic expression.
A) Both 1 and 2 are correct B) Only 2 C) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct D) Only 1
07/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q435) Bihu is a folk music and dance form associated with which Indian state?
A) Kerala B) Gujarat C) Assam D) Punjab
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: C

Q436) Bihu, the festival of Assam, is celebrated to mark:

A) The winter solstice B) The new harvest C) The victory of good over evil D) The end of the monsoon
07/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q437) Who is the author of 'The God of Small Things'?

A) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie B) Neil Gaiman C) Arundhati Roy D) Mo Yan
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q438) Consider the following statements regarding the structure of Carnatic music compositions and choose correct
option:
Statement 1: Varnam is typically performed at the end of a Carnatic concert to summarize key ragas.
Statement 2: Alapana involves improvisational elaboration of a raga without rhythm (tala).
A) Both 1 and 2 are correct B) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct C) Only 2 D) Only 1
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

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 Q439) Which classical dance form uses storytelling through hand gestures (mudras) and facial expressions
(abhinaya)?
A) Bihu B) Koli C) Garba D) Bharatnatyam
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: D

Q440) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

A) Microeconomics – Inflation rate B) Macroeconomics – Price of tea C) Macroeconomics – National Income
D) Microeconomics – GDP
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q441) What is the standard width of a hockey field?

A) 50 meters B) 54.5 meters C) 55 meters D) 57 meters
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: C

Q442) In Kho-Kho, how many players are in a team, and how many are on the field during a game?
A) 9 players in a team, 9 on the field. B) 12 players in a team, 9 on the field. C) 12 players in a team, 12 on the field.
D) 9 players in a team, 12 on the field.
08/08/2025 Shift-1 Correct Ans: B

Q443) Statement 1: Kriti is a highly structured musical composition in Carnatic tradition.

Statement 2: Tillana often concludes a Carnatic recital and emphasizes rhythmic syllables.
Choose the correct option:
A) Both 1 and 2 are correct B) Only 1 C) Only 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q444) Odissi classical dance originated in which Indian state?

A) Gujarat B) Odisha C) Bihar D) Assam
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q445) Which of the following authors did NOT receive the Nobel Prize in Literature?
A) Orhan Pamuk B) Haruki Murakami C) Alice Munro D) Kazuo Ishiguro
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: B

Q446) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

A) Swadesh Darshan - Ministry of Culture B) PM MITRA - Ministry of Textiles
C) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao - Ministry of Women & Child Development D) PM JANMAN - Ministry of Tribal Affairs
08/08/2025 Shift-2 Correct Ans: A

Q447) Which instrument is commonly used in Carnatic classical music?

A) Dhol B) Mridangam C) Santoor D) Shehnai
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

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 Q448) Identify the dance style recognized for its spiritual devotion and connection to the Vaishnavite movement.
A) Bharatnatyam B) Kathak C) Odissi D) Sattriya
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

Q449) Which of the following festivals is celebrated by the tribal communities of Nagaland and showcases traditional
dance and music?
A) Ugadi B) Hornbill Festival C) Teej D) Onam
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: B

Q450) The first known rules of Kabaddi were framed in which Indian state?
A) Tamil Nadu B) Uttar Pradesh C) Punjab D) Maharashtra
08/08/2025 Shift-3 Correct Ans: D

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