Basic Electrical

1. Unit of electric charge?

a) Volt
b) Coulomb
c) Ohm
d) Ampere

Ans b

2. In a purely inductive circuit, the power factor is:

a) 1
b) 0 leading
c) 0 lagging
d) 0.5

Ans c

3. Formula for 3-phase balanced power is:

a) P=VIP = VIP=VI
b) P=3VLILcos⁡ϕP = \sqrt{3} V_L I_L \cos\phiP=3VLILcosϕ
c) P=I2RP = I^2 RP=I2R
d) P=V2/RP = V^2 / RP=V2/R
4. In resonance in RLC series circuit:
a) XL>XCX_L > X_CXL>XC
b) XC>XLX_C > X_LXC>XL
c) XL=XCX_L = X_CXL=XC
d) None

2. Transformers

5. EMF equation of transformer is:

a) E=4.44fNϕmE = 4.44 f N \phi_mE=4.44fNϕm
b) E=2.22fNϕmE = 2.22 f N \phi_mE=2.22fNϕm
c) E=4fNϕmE = 4 f N \phi_mE=4fNϕm
d) None
6. Core loss depends on:
a) Load
b) Voltage & Frequency
c) Temperature
d) Current only
7. In OC test of transformer, we measure:
a) Core loss
b) Copper loss
 c) Stray loss
d) None
8. Transformer works on:
a) Self-induction
b) Mutual induction
c) Electromagnetic force
d) None

3. DC Machines

9. EMF equation of DC generator:

a) E=PϕZN60AE = \frac{P\phi Z N}{60A}E=60APϕZN
b) E=PϕZN120AE = \frac{P\phi Z N}{120A}E=120APϕZN
c) E=ZN60E = \frac{Z N}{60}E=60ZN
d) None
10. In lap winding, no. of parallel paths =
a) Number of poles
b) 2
c) Number of slots
d) None
11. Series motor should not be started without load because:
a) Low efficiency
b) High starting current
c) It may overspeed
d) Armature reaction
12. Interpoles in DC machines are used to:
a) Reduce losses
b) Improve commutation
c) Increase speed
d) Increase torque

4. Induction & Synchronous Machines

13. Slip in induction motor =

a) (Ns−N)/Ns(N_s - N) / N_s(Ns−N)/Ns × 100%
b) (N−Ns)/N(N - N_s) / N(N−Ns)/N × 100%
c) (Ns−N)/N(N_s - N) / N(Ns−N)/N × 10%
d) None
14. Synchronous speed formula:
a) 120f/P120f/P120f/P
b) 60f/P60f/P60f/P
 c) 120P/f120P/f120P/f
d) 60P/f60P/f60P/f
15. Synchronous motor is:
a) Self-starting
b) Not self-starting
c) Both
d) None

5. Measurements

16. Energy meter constant is:

a) Rev/kWh
b) Ohm
c) Henry
d) Farad
17. PMMC instruments are used for:
a) AC only
b) DC only
c) Both AC & DC
d) None
18. MI instruments are used for:
a) AC only
b) DC only
c) Both AC & DC
d) None
19. Instrument used for calibration of AC meters:
a) Dynamometer wattmeter
b) Energy meter
c) Induction wattmeter
d) None

6. Power Systems

20. Corona effect is more in:

a) Smooth conductors
b) Stranded conductors
c) Bundled conductors
d) None
21. Ferranti effect occurs in:
a) Long transmission lines at light load
b) Short lines at heavy load
 c) Medium lines at full load
d) None
22. Buchholz relay is used for:
a) Induction motor
b) Transformer
c) Alternator
d) None
23. Which plant has minimum running cost?
a) Thermal
b) Hydro
c) Nuclear
d) Diesel

Basic Electrical

1. Unit of electric charge? → b) Coulomb ✅

2. In a purely inductive circuit, the power factor is: → c) 0 lagging ✅
3. Formula for 3-phase balanced power is: → b) P=3VLILcos⁡ϕP = \sqrt{3} V_L I_L \cos\
phiP=3VLILcosϕ ✅
4. In resonance in RLC series circuit: → c) XL=XCX_L = X_CXL=XC ✅

Transformers

5. EMF equation of transformer is: → a) E=4.44fNϕmE = 4.44 f N \phi_mE=4.44fNϕm ✅

6. Core loss depends on: → b) Voltage & Frequency ✅
7. In OC test of transformer, we measure: → a) Core loss ✅
8. Transformer works on: → b) Mutual induction ✅

DC Machines

9. EMF equation of DC generator: → a) E=PϕZN60AE = \frac{P \phi Z N}{60

A}E=60APϕZN ✅
10. In lap winding, no. of parallel paths = → a) Number of poles ✅
11. Series motor should not be started without load because: → c) It may overspeed ✅
12. Interpoles in DC machines are used to: → b) Improve commutation ✅

Induction & Synchronous Machines

13. Slip in induction motor = → a) Ns−NNs×100%\frac{N_s - N}{N_s} \times 100\%NsNs

−N×100% ✅
 14. Synchronous speed formula: → a) 120f/P120 f / P120f/P ✅
15. Synchronous motor is: → b) Not self-starting ✅

Measurements

16. Energy meter constant is: → a) Rev/kWh ✅

17. PMMC instruments are used for: → b) DC only ✅
18. MI instruments are used for: → c) Both AC & DC ✅
19. Instrument used for calibration of AC meters: → a) Dynamometer wattmeter ✅

Power Systems

20. Corona effect is more in: → b) Stranded conductors ✅

21. Ferranti effect occurs in: → a) Long transmission lines at light load ✅
22. Buchholz relay is used for: → b) Transformer ✅
23. Which plant has minimum running cost? → b) Hydro ✅

7. Utilization of Electrical Energy

24. Luminous efficiency unit is:

a) Lumen/Watt
b) Lumen/Hour
c) Watt/Lumen
d) Lumen
25. Electric welding commonly uses:
a) DC supply
b) AC supply
c) Both AC & DC
d) None
26. Electric heating by induction is based on:
a) Self-induction
b) Mutual induction
c) Dielectric loss
d) None
27. In electric traction, regenerative braking means:
a) Kinetic energy → Heat
b) Kinetic energy → Electrical energy
 c) Electrical → Mechanical
d) None
28. Most efficient method of electric heating:
a) Resistance heating
b) Induction heating
c) Arc heating
d) Infrared heating

8. Electrical Estimation & Miscellaneous

29. In domestic wiring, the color for earth wire is:

a) Red
b) Black
c) Green
d) Yellow
30. Fuse wire is made of:
a) Copper
b) Tin-lead alloy
c) Aluminium
d) None
31. MCB operates on:
a) Magnetic effect only
b) Thermal effect only
c) Magnetic & Thermal effect
d) None
32. Power factor improvement decreases:
a) Voltage regulation
b) Copper loss
c) Line current
d) All of these

9. Electronics (Basic level for JE)

33. Rectifier converts:

a) AC → DC
b) DC → AC
c) AC → AC
d) DC → DC
34. In half-wave rectifier, efficiency is about:
a) 40.6%
b) 81.2%
 c) 50%
d) None
35. Zener diode used for:
a) Rectification
b) Voltage regulation
c) Amplification
d) Oscillation
36. SCR is a:
a) Unidirectional device
b) Bidirectional device
c) None

10. More Machines & Power Systems

37. Damper winding is used in synchronous motor to:

a) Increase speed
b) Reduce hunting
c) Increase torque
d) None
38. Equal area criterion is used for:
a) Voltage stability
b) Frequency stability
c) Transient stability

39. For constant flux, EMF in transformer ∝

d) Steady-state stability

a) Frequency
b) Voltage
c) Turns
d) All of these
40. Zero power factor test on alternator is done to find:
a) Leakage reactance
b) Armature resistance
c) Synchronous impedance
d) None

11. Protection & Cables

41. In HRC fuse, “HRC” means:

a) High Rupturing Capacity
b) High Resistance Current
c) High Rate Capacity
d) None
 42. Insulating material of cables should have:
a) Low dielectric strength
b) High dielectric strength
c) High conductivity
d) None
43. In underground cables, sheath is used to:
a) Protect from mechanical injury
b) Prevent moisture entry
c) Carry current
d) Both a & b
44. Relay used for long transmission line protection:
a) Overcurrent relay
b) Distance relay
c) Buchholz relay
d) None

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12. Power Systems & Generation

45. Diversity factor is always:

a) < 1
b) > 1
c) = 1
d) None
46. Load factor =
a) Average load / Peak load
b) Peak load / Average load
 c) Max demand / Connected load
d) None
47. In thermal power plant, economizer is used to:
a) Superheat steam
b) Heat feed water
c) Increase combustion
d) None
48. Governing in turbine is for:
a) Speed control
b) Voltage control
c) Power factor control
d) None
49. Hydro power plant is best for:
a) Base load
b) Peak load
c) Both
d) None
50. Which has least maintenance cost?
a) Hydro
b) Thermal
c) Nuclear
d) Diesel

13. Measurements (More)

51. Moving coil instruments use:

a) Eddy current damping
b) Air friction damping
c) Fluid damping
d) None
52. Kelvin’s double bridge used for measurement of:
a) Low resistance
b) High resistance
c) Capacitance
d) Inductance
53. Megger is used to measure:
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Insulation resistance
d) Frequency
54. In potentiometer, working principle is:
a) Voltage comparison
b) Current comparison
 c) Resistance comparison
d) None
55. CRO measures:
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Frequency
d) All of these

Utilization of Electrical Energy

1. Luminous efficiency unit → a) Lumen/Watt ✅

2. Electric welding commonly uses → c) Both AC & DC ✅
3. Electric heating by induction is based on → b) Mutual induction ✅
4. In electric traction, regenerative braking means → b) Kinetic energy → Electrical
energy ✅
5. Most efficient method of electric heating → b) Induction heating ✅

8. Electrical Estimation & Miscellaneous

6. In domestic wiring, the color for earth wire → c) Green ✅

7. Fuse wire is made of → b) Tin-lead alloy ✅
8. MCB operates on → c) Magnetic & Thermal effect ✅
9. Power factor improvement decreases → d) All of these ✅

9. Electronics (Basic level for JE)

10. Rectifier converts → a) AC → DC ✅

11. In half-wave rectifier, efficiency is about → a) 40.6% ✅
12. Zener diode used for → b) Voltage regulation ✅
13. SCR is a → a) Unidirectional device ✅

10. More Machines & Power Systems

14. Damper winding is used in synchronous motor to → b) Reduce hunting ✅

16. For constant flux, EMF in transformer ∝ → d) All of these ✅

15. Equal area criterion is used for → c) Transient stability ✅

17. Zero power factor test on alternator is done to find → a) Leakage reactance ✅
11. Protection & Cables

18. In HRC fuse, “HRC” means → a) High Rupturing Capacity ✅

19. Insulating material of cables should have → b) High dielectric strength ✅
20. In underground cables, sheath is used to → d) Both a & b ✅
21. Relay used for long transmission line protection → b) Distance relay ✅

12. Power Systems & Generation

22. Diversity factor is always → b) > 1 ✅

23. Load factor = → a) Average load / Peak load ✅
24. In thermal power plant, economizer is used to → b) Heat feed water ✅
25. Governing in turbine is for → a) Speed control ✅
26. Hydro power plant is best for → b) Peak load ✅
27. Which has least maintenance cost? → a) Hydro ✅

13. Measurements (More)

28. Moving coil instruments use → a) Eddy current damping ✅

29. Kelvin’s double bridge used for measurement of → a) Low resistance ✅
30. Megger is used to measure → c) Insulation resistance ✅
31. In potentiometer, working principle is → a) Voltage comparison ✅
32. CRO measures → d) All of these ✅

14. Transmission Lines

56. Skin effect increases with:

a) Decrease in frequency
b) Increase in frequency
c) Low resistivity
d) None
57. String efficiency in transmission lines is improved by:
a) Reducing conductor length
b) Grading of insulators
c) Increasing voltage
d) None
58. Bundle conductors reduce:
a) Skin effect
b) Corona
c) Voltage drop
d) None
 59. In a transmission line, surge impedance is:
a) √(L/C)
b) √(C/L)
c) L/C
d) C/L
60. ACSR conductor stands for:
a) Aluminium conductor steel reinforced
b) Aluminium conductor stranded round
c) Aluminium copper steel reinforced
d) None

15. Electrical Machines (More)

61. Hopkinson’s test is:

a) No-load test
b) Back-to-back test
c) Short circuit test
d) None
62. Field weakening is used for:
a) Increasing motor speed
b) Decreasing speed
c) Increasing torque
d) None
63. Crawling in induction motor occurs at about:
a) 1/2 speed
b) 1/3 speed
c) 1/7 speed
d) None
64. Slip of synchronous motor is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) Between 0 & 1
d) None
65. Single-phase induction motor is:
a) Self-starting
b) Not self-starting
c) Both
d) None

16. Illumination
 66. Incandescent lamp efficiency is about:
a) 10–15 lm/W
b) 50–60 lm/W
c) 100 lm/W
d) None
67. Sodium vapour lamp is used for:
a) Domestic lighting
b) Street lighting
c) Decorative lighting
d) None
68. Unit of illumination:
a) Lux
b) Lumen
c) Candela
d) None
69. Lumen is unit of:
a) Luminous flux
b) Luminous intensity
c) Illumination
d) None
70. Polar curve in lighting represents:
a) Distribution of light
b) Intensity variation
c) Efficiency
d) None

17. General Electrical Facts

71. Superconductors have:

a) Zero resistance
b) Low resistance
c) High resistance
d) None
72. Insulators have:
a) High resistivity
b) Low resistivity
c) High conductivity
d) None
73. In star connection, line voltage =
a) √3 × phase voltage
b) Phase voltage / √3
c) Equal to phase voltage
d) None
 74. In delta connection, line current =
a) √3 × phase current
b) Phase current / √3
c) Equal to phase current
d) None
75. Capacitive reactance formula:
a) 1/(2πfC)1 / (2\pi f C)1/(2πfC)
b) 2πfC2\pi f C2πfC
c) L/CL / CL/C
d) None

18. More Protection & Switchgear

76. Oil circuit breaker used for:

a) Low voltage
b) Medium voltage
c) High voltage
d) All
77. Air blast circuit breaker used for:
a) High speed operation
b) Low voltage
c) High current
d) None
78. SF6 gas used in circuit breaker for:
a) Cooling
b) Arc extinction
c) Lubrication
d) None
79. Earth fault relay operates when:
a) Neutral current flows
b) Overvoltage occurs
c) Overcurrent occurs
d) None
80. Lightning arrestor installed at:
a) Generator end
b) Transformer end
c) Substation
d) All of these

19. Final Mixed Questions

81. Induced EMF in coil depends on:
a) Flux change rate
b) Flux density only
c) Coil material
d) None
82. Copper loss in transformer varies with:
a) Load²
b) Load
c) Voltage²
d) None
83. Ferranti effect causes:
a) Voltage drop
b) Voltage rise at receiving end
c) Power loss
d) None
84. Corona loss is proportional to:
a) Voltage²
b) (Voltage – critical voltage)²
c) Current²
d) None
85. Per unit system is used for:
a) Reducing complexity in calculations
b) Increasing complexity
c) Voltage control
d) None
86. In alternator, pitch factor is always:
a) ≤ 1
b) > 1
c) 0
d) None
87. Insulation resistance of a good cable is:
a) Low
b) High
c) Zero
d) None
88. Frequency in India is:
a) 50 Hz
b) 60 Hz
c) 55 Hz
d) 48 Hz
89. Which material has negative temperature coefficient?
a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Carbon
d) Silver
 90. Which motor is used in ceiling fans?
a) Shaded pole
b) Capacitor start
c) Capacitor start-run
d) None

20. Last 10 (Memory-Based from JKSSB)

91. Distribution transformer rating is in:

a) kVA
b) kW
c) HP
d) None
92. Armature reaction effect in generator is:
a) Demagnetizing
b) Magnetizing
c) Cross-magnetizing
d) All of these
93. Which lamp has highest efficiency?
a) LED
b) CFL
c) Incandescent
d) Sodium vapour
94. Single line diagram shows:
a) Detailed wiring
b) Power flow only
c) Simplified power system representation
d) None
95. Unit of magnetic flux:
a) Weber
b) Tesla
c) Henry
d) None
96. In 3-phase system, power measurement by two-wattmeter method is possible for:
a) Balanced load only
b) Balanced & unbalanced load
c) Unbalanced load only
d) None
97. Synchronous condenser improves:
a) Voltage regulation
b) Power factor
c) Frequency
d) None
 98. In transformer, leakage flux produces:
a) Leakage reactance
b) Voltage drop
c) Both a & b
d) None
99. No-load test on induction motor measures:
a) Core loss & friction loss
b) Copper loss only
c) Slip
d) None
100. In cable, dielectric loss depends on:
a) Voltage
b) Frequency
c) Both
d) None

14. Transmission Lines

1. Skin effect increases with → b) Increase in frequency ✅

2. String efficiency improved by → b) Grading of insulators ✅
3. Bundle conductors reduce → b) Corona ✅
4. Surge impedance = → a) √(L/C) ✅
5. ACSR = → a) Aluminium conductor steel reinforced ✅

15. Electrical Machines (More)

6. Hopkinson’s test → b) Back-to-back test ✅

7. Field weakening used for → a) Increasing motor speed ✅
8. Crawling in induction motor → c) 1/7 speed ✅
9. Slip of synchronous motor → a) 0 ✅
10. Single-phase induction motor is → b) Not self-starting ✅

16. Illumination

11. Incandescent lamp efficiency → a) 10–15 lm/W ✅

12. Sodium vapour lamp → b) Street lighting ✅
13. Unit of illumination → a) Lux ✅
14. Lumen is unit of → a) Luminous flux ✅
15. Polar curve represents → a) Distribution of light ✅
17. General Electrical Facts

16. Superconductors have → a) Zero resistance ✅

17. Insulators have → a) High resistivity ✅
18. In star connection, line voltage = a) √3 × phase voltage ✅
19. In delta connection, line current = a) √3 × phase current ✅
20. Capacitive reactance formula = a) 1/(2πfC) ✅

18. More Protection & Switchgear

21. Oil circuit breaker used for → b) Medium voltage ✅

22. Air blast circuit breaker used for → a) High speed operation ✅
23. SF6 gas used for → b) Arc extinction ✅
24. Earth fault relay operates when → a) Neutral current flows ✅
25. Lightning arrestor installed at → d) All of these ✅

19. Final Mixed Questions

26. Induced EMF in coil depends on → a) Flux change rate ✅

27. Copper loss in transformer varies with → a) Load² ✅

29. Corona loss ∝ → b) (Voltage – critical voltage)² ✅

28. Ferranti effect causes → b) Voltage rise at receiving end ✅

30. Per unit system used for → a) Reducing complexity in calculations ✅

31. Pitch factor in alternator → a) ≤ 1 ✅
32. Insulation resistance of a good cable → b) High ✅
33. Frequency in India → a) 50 Hz ✅
34. Material with negative temperature coefficient → c) Carbon ✅
35. Ceiling fan motor → c) Capacitor start-run ✅

20. Last 10 (Memory-Based from JKSSB)

36. Distribution transformer rating → a) kVA ✅

37. Armature reaction effect in generator → d) All of these ✅
38. Lamp with highest efficiency → a) LED ✅
39. Single line diagram shows → c) Simplified power system representation ✅
40. Unit of magnetic flux → a) Weber ✅
41. Two-wattmeter method works for → b) Balanced & unbalanced load ✅
42. Synchronous condenser improves → b) Power factor ✅
43. Transformer leakage flux produces → c) Both a & b ✅
44. No-load test on induction motor measures → a) Core loss & friction loss ✅
 45. Dielectric loss in cable depends on → c) Both ✅

SECTION A — Electric Circuits & Fields (1–80)

1. Ohm’s law states V = ?

a) IR² b) IR c) I/R d) I²R
Ans: b)
2. Unit of resistance is:
a) Ohm b) Volt c) Ampere d) Coulomb
Ans: a)
3. KCL is based on:
a) Energy conservation b) Charge conservation c) Voltage law d) Power law
Ans: b)
4. KVL states sum of voltages in a loop =:
a) Zero b) Sum of currents c) One d) Depends on R
Ans: a)
5. Thevenin’s theorem reduces network to:
a) Single current source b) Single voltage source & series R c) Parallel R & current
source d) None
Ans: b)
6. Norton equivalent is:
a) Voltage source + series R b) Current source + parallel R c) Two resistors d) None
Ans: b)
7. Maximum power transfer occurs when load R =:
a) 0 b) Rth c) ∞ d) 2Rth
Ans: b)
8. Superposition theorem applicable for:
a) Linear circuits b) Non-linear circuits c) Time varying only d) None
Ans: a)
9. Reciprocity theorem holds for:
a) Nonlinear networks b) Linear bilateral networks c) Active networks only d) None
Ans: b)
10. Impedance of capacitor =:
a) jωC b) 1/jωC c) R d) jωL
Ans: b)
11. Impedance of inductor =:
a) jωL b) 1/jωL c) R d) 1/jωC
Ans: a)
12. Resonance in series RLC when:
a) XL = XC b) XL > XC c) XL < XC d) None
Ans: a)
13. Q-factor of series resonant circuit =:
a) R/ωL b) ωL/R c) 1/R d) RωC
Ans: b)
14. Bandwidth of resonant circuit =:
a) f0/Q b) Q/f0 c) f0×Q d) None
Ans: a)
15. RMS value of sine wave with peak Vm =:
a) Vm b) Vm/2 c) Vm/√2 d) √2 Vm
Ans: c)
16. Average value of half-wave rectified sine =:
a) Vm/π b) 2Vm/π c) Vm/2 d) 0
Ans: a)
17. DC equivalent of series RL at steady state:
a) Short circuit for L b) Open circuit for L c) Short for R d) None
Ans: a)
18. Transient in RL when switch opened depends on:
a) L/R b) R/L c) RC d) LC
Ans: a)
19. Time constant τ for RC =:
a) RC b) R/C c) C/R d) 1/RC
Ans: a)
20. Laplace transform of derivative d/dt f(t) =:
a) sF(s) b) sF(s) - f(0) c) F(s)/s d) None
Ans: b)
21. Transfer function is:
a) Output / Input in time b) Output/Input in s-domain c) Sum of inputs d) None
Ans: b)
22. Poles of transfer function determine:
a) Stability b) Bandwidth c) Efficiency d) None
Ans: a)
23. Node voltage method uses:
a) KCL b) KVL c) Ohm only d) None
Ans: a)
24. Mesh analysis uses:
a) KVL b) KCL c) Thevenin d) Norton
Ans: a)
25. Superposition requires:
a) Turn off independent sources b) Turn on all at once c) Replace dependent sources d)
None
Ans: a)
26. Ampere’s law relates magnetomotive force to:
a) Electric field b) Magnetic field circulation c) Charge d) Resistance
Ans: b)
27. Biot–Savart law gives:
a) Magnetic field due to current element b) Electric field c) Potential d) None
Ans: a)
28. Maxwell’s correction introduced:
a) Displacement current b) Conduction current c) Resistance d) Inductance
Ans: a)
29. Capacitance of parallel plate ∝:
a) Area/ distance b) distance/area c) volume d) length
Ans: a)
30. Dielectric constant increases: capacitance:
a) Decreases b) Increases c) Constant d) Zero
Ans: b)
31. Electric field in conductor at electrostatic equilibrium =:
a) Zero b) Non-zero c) Infinity d) Depends
Ans: a)
32. Potential difference across ideal conductor =:
a) Zero b) Non-zero c) Equal to E d) None
Ans: a)
33. Series circuit current =:
a) Same in all elements b) Different c) Zero d) Depends
Ans: a)
34. Parallel circuit voltage =:
a) Same across branches b) Different c) Zero d) Depends
Ans: a)
35. Three-phase balanced load total power =:
a) 3VphIph b) √3 VL IL cosφ c) VIL d) V²/R
Ans: b)
36. Star to delta transformation possible using:
a) Y-Δ formulas b) Ohm’s law c) KCL d) None
Ans: a)
37. Maximum power transfer in AC when load equals:
a) Conjugate of source impedance b) Same sign c) Zero d) Infinite
Ans: a)
38. Power in AC circuit = VI cosφ; cosφ is:
a) Power factor b) Phase angle c) Reactive power d) Apparent power
Ans: a)
39. Reactive power unit =:
a) VAR b) W c) kW d) Wh
Ans: a)
40. Apparent power unit =:
a) VA b) W c) VAR d) VArh
Ans: a)
41. Norton current =:
a) Short circuit current at terminals b) Open circuit voltage c) Vth d) None
Ans: a)
42. T-network is used to:
a) Model load b) Replace π network c) Both d) None
Ans: c)
43. π-network consists of:
a) Two shunt and one series element b) One shunt two series c) Only resistors d) None
Ans: a)
44. Mesh current equals loop current in:
a) Planar circuits b) Non-planar c) Any d) None
Ans: a)
45. DC steady state: capacitor acts as:
a) Open circuit b) Short c) Resistive d) Inductive
Ans: a)
46. DC steady state: inductor acts as:
a) Short circuit b) Open c) Capacitive d) None
Ans: a)
47. Norton and Thevenin equivalents are:
a) Duals of each other b) Same c) Unrelated d) None
Ans: a)
48. Impedance of series R and C magnitude =:
a) √(R² + (1/ωC)² ) b) R + 1/ωC c) R - 1/ωC d) None
Ans: a)
49. Phase angle of series R-C =:
a) -tan⁻¹(XC/R) b) tan⁻¹(XC/R) c) 0 d) 90°
Ans: a)
50. Complex power S = P + jQ where Q is:
a) Reactive power b) Real power c) Apparent power d) None
Ans: a)
51. Real power unit is:
a) Watt b) VAR c) VA d) Ohm
Ans: a)
52. Power triangle relates:
a) P, Q, S b) V, I, R c) R, L, C d) None
Ans: a)
53. Unity power factor implies:
a) Q=0 b) P=0 c) S=0 d) None
Ans: a)
54. Leading PF indicates: current:
a) Leads voltage b) Lags voltage c) In phase d) None
Ans: a)
55. Lagging PF indicates: current:
a) Lags voltage b) Leads voltage c) In phase d) None
Ans: a)
56. Phase sequence ABC means: A leads B by:
a) 120° b) 90° c) 60° d) 180°
Ans: a)
57. Sequence for negative sequence phasors rotates:
a) Opposite to positive b) Same c) Null d) None
Ans: a)
58. Star connected generator phase voltage to line voltage relation:
a) VL = √3 Vph b) VL = Vph/√3 c) VL = Vph d) None
Ans: a)
59. Delta connection line current to phase current:
a) IL = √3 Iph b) IL = Iph/√3 c) IL = Iph d) None
Ans: a)
60. Balanced three-phase system has zero:
a) Zero-sequence current b) Positive-sequence c) Negative-sequence d) All
Ans: a)
61. Sequence components help analyze:
a) Unbalanced faults b) Balanced circuits c) DC circuits d) None
Ans: a)
62. Symmetrical components were introduced by:
a) Fortescue b) Thevenin c) Norton d) Maxwell
Ans: a)
63. Skin effect causes effective resistance to:
a) Increase with frequency b) Decrease c) Remain same d) None
Ans: a)
64. Proximity effect relates to:
a) Current distribution due to nearby conductors b) Skin effect c) Corona d) None
Ans: a)
65. Distributed parameter model used when line length:
a) Significant wavelength fraction b) Short c) Negligible d) None
Ans: a)
66. Short transmission line model neglects:
a) Capacitance b) Inductance c) Resistance d) All
Ans: a)
67. Medium line uses:
a) Nominal π model b) Lumped c) Short model d) None
Ans: a)
68. Surge impedance loading (SIL) of line expressed in:
a) MW b) kV c) A d) Ω
Ans: a)
69. Surge impedance Z0 = √(L/C) in:
a) Ω b) S c) H d) F
Ans: a)
70. Capacitance of line increases with:
a) Conductor radius b) Decreases with radius c) Length only d) None
Ans: b)
71. Shading coil used in:
a) Single-phase motor starting b) Synchronous motor c) DC motor d) None
Ans: a)
72. Starting torque of series motor is:
a) High b) Low c) Zero d) Negative
Ans: a)
73. Starting current of induction motor is:
a) High b) Low c) Zero d) Normal
Ans: a)
 74. Full load slip of induction motor typically:
a) Few percent b) 50% c) 100% d) 0%
Ans: a)

a) T ∝ s/( (R2/s)² + X² ) b) Linear c) Exponential d) None

75. Torque slip characteristic is:

Ans: a)
76. Rotor resistance increase improves starting:
a) Torque b) Speed c) Efficiency d) None
Ans: a)
77. Starters for induction motors reduce:
a) Starting current b) Starting torque c) Running torque d) None
Ans: a)
78. Slip ring induction motor rotor uses:
a) External resistance for start b) No external resistance c) Same as squirrel cage d) None
Ans: a)
79. Synchronous motor pulls into synchronism when:
a) Driven near synchronous speed b) Far from synchronous c) Zero speed d) None
Ans: a)
80. Hunting in synchronous machine is:
a) Oscillations of rotor b) Thermal runaway c) Vibration only d) None
Ans: a)

SECTION B — Control Systems (81–120)

81. Open loop control has:

a) No feedback b) Feedback c) Correcting action d) None
Ans: a)
82. Closed loop system contains:
a) Feedback b) No feedback c) Only sensors d) None
Ans: a)
83. Transfer function G(s) =: output/input in:
a) s-domain b) time-domain c) frequency d) none
Ans: a)
84. Stability of LTI system determined by pole locations: left half plane →
a) Stable b) Unstable c) Marginal d) None
Ans: a)
85. Bode plot shows:
a) Magnitude and phase vs frequency b) Time response c) Root locus d) None
Ans: a)
86. Phase margin indicates:
a) Stability margin b) Efficiency c) Speed d) None
Ans: a)
87. Root locus plots loci of system poles as:
a) Gain varies b) Time varies c) Frequency varies d) None
Ans: a)
88. Unity feedback reduces:
a) Sensitivity to parameter variations b) Increases error c) No effect d) None
Ans: a)
89. Proportional controller increases:
a) Steady-state error b) Stability c) Gain only d) None
Ans: c) (improves speed but may not eliminate steady-state error)
90. Integral control eliminates:
a) Steady-state error b) Dynamic response c) Noise d) None
Ans: a)
91. Derivative control improves:
a) Damping b) Steady-state error c) Noise immunity d) None
Ans: a)
92. PID controller contains:
a) Proportional, integral, derivative terms b) Resistive, inductive, capacitive c) Only P d)
None
Ans: a)
93. Steady state error for type 1 system for step input =:
a) 0 b) Finite c) Infinite d) None
Ans: a)
94. Nyquist plot helps determine:
a) Closed-loop stability b) Transient time c) Steady-state error d) None
Ans: a)
95. Lead compensator provides:
a) Phase advance b) Phase lag c) No change d) None
Ans: a)
96. Lag compensator provides:
a) Phase lag and improved steady state b) Phase lead c) Speed up d) None
Ans: a)
97. State variables used in:
a) State-space analysis b) Frequency response c) Root locus d) None
Ans: a)
98. Observability indicates ability to:
a) Reconstruct states from outputs b) Control states c) Reduce error d) None
Ans: a)
99. Controllability indicates ability to:
a) Move states by input b) Observe states c) Measure error d) None
Ans: a)
100. System order equals:
a) Highest power of s in denominator b) Numerator degree c) Zero count d) None
Ans: a)
101. Stability margin positive → system:
a) Stable b) Unstable c) Marginal d) None
Ans: a)
102. BIBO stability requires impulse response to be:
a) Absolutely integrable b) Infinite c) Oscillatory d) None
Ans: a)
103. Nyquist encirclement of -1 point gives:
a) Number of RHP poles b) Zeros c) Poles d) None
Ans: a)
104. Sensitivity function S(s) = 1/(1+L(s)) where L(s)=loop gain. Lower S ->:
a) Less sensitivity to disturbances b) More c) No change d) None
Ans: a)
105. Phase lag compensator useful when:
a) Improve steady-state accuracy b) Increase transient speed c) Add noise d) None
Ans: a)
106. Control system bandwidth relates to:
a) Speed of response b) Steady-state error c) Stability d) None
Ans: a)
107. Nichols chart plots:
a) Magnitude (dB) vs phase deg b) Time response c) Root locus d) None
Ans: a)
108. PID tuning Ziegler-Nichols method based on:
a) Ultimate gain & period b) State space c) Root locus d) None
Ans: a)
109. Closed loop pole location left in s-plane means:
a) Stable b) Oscillatory c) Unstable d) None
Ans: a)
110. Feedback improves:
a) Disturbance rejection b) Complexity c) Steady state error d) None
Ans: a)
111. Dead-time in process control reduces:
a) Stability margin b) Steady error c) Not affect d) None
Ans: a)
112. Sample and hold used in:
a) Digital control systems b) Analog only c) Power systems d) None
Ans: a)
113. Z-transform used for:
a) Discrete-time signals b) Continuous-time c) Both d) None
Ans: a)
114. Bilinear transform maps s-plane to:
a) z-plane b) x-plane c) y-plane d) None
Ans: a)
115. Nyquist frequency =:
a) Half sampling rate b) Full sampling rate c) Twice sampling d) None
Ans: a)
116. Aliasing occurs when sampling <:
a) 2 × fmax b) fmax c) 0.5 fmax d) None
Ans: a)
 117. Stability in discrete domain requires poles inside:
a) Unit circle b) Left half-plane c) Right half-plane d) None
Ans: a)
118. Root locus branch starts at:
a) Open-loop poles b) Zeros c) Infinity d) None
Ans: a)
119. System type number equals number of integrators in forward path:
a) True b) False c) Maybe d) None
Ans: a)
120. Phase lead network increases phase margin by:
a) Adding positive phase at crossover b) Neg phase c) No change d) None
Ans: a)

SECTION C — Electrical & Electronic Measurements (121–200)

121. PMMC instrument measures:

a) DC b) AC c) Both d) None
Ans: a)
122. MI (Moving iron) instrument suitable for:
a) AC and DC b) Only DC c) Only AC d) None
Ans: a)
123. Energy meter constant unit is:
a) rev/kWh b) Amp c) Volt d) Hz
Ans: a)
124. Wattmeter measures:
a) Active power b) Reactive power c) Apparent power d) Voltage
Ans: a)
125. Two wattmeter method measures:
a) Three-phase power b) Single-phase only c) DC power d) None
Ans: a)
126. Megger measures:
a) Insulation resistance b) Continuity c) Voltage d) Current
Ans: a)
127. Kelvin double bridge used to measure:
a) Low resistance b) Capacitance c) Inductance d) High resistance
Ans: a)
128. Potentiometer used for:
a) Precise voltage measurement b) Current measurement c) Frequency d) Power
Ans: a)
129. Oscilloscope used to measure:
a) Waveform and frequency b) Resistance c) Capacitance d) Inductance
Ans: a)
130. Transducer converts:
a) Physical quantity to electrical b) Electrical to time c) Voltage to current d) None
Ans: a)
131. Thermocouple used for:
a) Temperature measurement b) Pressure c) Speed d) Force
Ans: a)
132. LVDT measures:
a) Displacement b) Temperature c) Current d) Voltage
Ans: a)
133. Strain gauge measures:
a) Strain (deformation) b) Pressure c) Light d) Sound
Ans: a)
134. Bridge circuits used for:
a) Precise measurement b) Power conversion c) Induction d) None
Ans: a)
135. Wheatstone bridge measures:
a) Unknown resistance b) Voltage c) Current d) Frequency
Ans: a)
136. Schering bridge used for:
a) Capacitance measurement b) Inductance c) Resistance d) Power
Ans: a)
137. Maxwell bridge used for:
a) Inductance measurement b) Capacitance c) Resistance d) Frequency
Ans: a)
138. Wien bridge used for:
a) Frequency measurement and oscillator b) Voltage regulation c) Power measurement d)
None
Ans: a)
139. Instrument transformers used to:
a) Step down voltage/current for meters b) Increase voltage c) Store energy d) None
Ans: a)
140. CT (Current Transformer) primary turns:
a) Few (1) b) Many c) Equal to secondary d) None
Ans: a)
141. VT/PT (Potential transformer) primary voltage high and secondary:
a) Low b) High c) Same d) None
Ans: a)
142. Accuracy class of CT indicates:
a) Error at rated conditions b) Voltage c) Power d) None
Ans: a)
143. Burden of CT refers to:
a) Secondary connected load b) Primary load c) Transformer weight d) None
Ans: a)
144. Phase angle meter used to measure:
a) Phase difference between two signals b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) None
Ans: a)
145. Digital multimeter measures:
a) Voltage, current, resistance, frequency b) Only voltage c) Only current d) None
Ans: a)
146. CRO front panel control for time base changes:
a) Time/div b) Volt/div c) AC/DC d) None
Ans: a)
147. Cathode ray tube in CRO displays:
a) Electron beam deflection b) Magnetic field c) Resistance d) None
Ans: a)
148. Peak detector circuit used for:
a) Measure peak amplitude b) Average c) RMS d) None
Ans: a)
149. True RMS converter yields:
a) Accurate RMS for any waveform b) Peak only c) Average only d) None
Ans: a)
150. Bridge sensitivity improves with:
a) High supply voltage and galvanometer sensitivity b) Low supply c) No change d)
None
Ans: a)
151. Digital frequency meter uses:
a) Counter method b) Bridge method c) Wattmeter d) None
Ans: a)
152. Phase angle errors in wattmeter due to:
a) Non-ideal coils b) Good coils c) None d) All
Ans: a)
153. Power factor meter measures:
a) Cosφ b) Voltage c) Current d) Frequency
Ans: a)
154. Electronic instrument amplifiers use:
a) Op-amps b) Inductors c) Transformers d) None
Ans: a)
155. Instrument damping may be by:
a) Air friction, eddy current b) Oil only c) Spring only d) None
Ans: a)
156. Dead zone in measurement refers to:
a) Range with no response b) Max range c) Min range d) None
Ans: a)
157. Hysteresis causes measurement error when:
a) Reading depends on previous value b) Always zero c) Improves accuracy d) None
Ans: a)
158. Dynamic error occurs when:
a) Input changes rapidly b) Input steady c) No error d) None
Ans: a)
159. RMS value of square wave with amplitude A =:
a) A b) A/√2 c) A/2 d) √2 A
Ans: a)
160. Crest factor =:
a) Peak/RMS b) RMS/peak c) Average/peak d) None
Ans: a)
161. Temperature coefficient of resistance positive for:
a) Metals b) Carbon c) Insulators d) None
Ans: a)
162. Calibration of instrument done by:
a) Comparing with standard b) Random guess c) Induction d) None
Ans: a)
163. Null methods advantage:
a) High accuracy b) Low accuracy c) Slow d) None
Ans: a)
164. RMS voltmeter measures true RMS when:
a) Instrument is true rms b) Not true rms c) Average only d) None
Ans: a)
165. Digital recorders sample signals using:
a) ADC b) DAC c) Filter d) None
Ans: a)
166. Stray capacitance affects:
a) High frequency measurements b) Low frequency c) DC only d) None
Ans: a)
167. Loading error occurs when instrument:
a) Draws current from circuit b) No current drawn c) Ideal d) None
Ans: a)
168. Phase shifting networks used in:
a) Oscillators and single-phase motor starting b) Transformers c) Rectifiers d) None
Ans: a)
169. Signal conditioning includes:
a) Amplification, filtering, isolation b) Lubrication c) Painting d) None
Ans: a)
170. Hall effect sensor measures:
a) Magnetic field b) Temperature c) Strain d) Sound
Ans: a)
171. Thermistor is:
a) Temperature dependent resistor b) Inductor c) Capacitor d) None
Ans: a)
172. RTD uses:
a) Resistance change of metal b) Thermocouple voltage c) Optical d) None
Ans: a)
173. Optical encoder used for:
a) Position/speed measurement b) Temperature c) Voltage d) None
Ans: a)
174. Load cell measures:
a) Force/weight b) Light intensity c) Pressure d) None
Ans: a)
175. ADC resolution improves with:
a) More bits b) Fewer bits c) Lower sampling d) None
Ans: a)
176. Sampling frequency must be > 2× highest frequency for:
a) No aliasing b) Aliasing c) Noise d) None
Ans: a)
177. Error due to non-linearity called:
a) Linearity error b) Hysteresis c) Dynamic d) None
Ans: a)
178. Phase sensitive detectors used in:
a) Lock-in amplifiers b) Simple voltmeters c) Wattmeters d) None
Ans: a)
179. LVDT advantage:
a) Frictionless, infinite resolution b) High friction c) Low accuracy d) None
Ans: a)
180. Calibration interval depends on:
a) Instrument stability and usage b) Random c) Weather d) None
Ans: a)
181. Bridge sensitivity high when null detector sensitive and:
a) Supply stable b) Supply varying c) Not important d) None
Ans: a)
182. Error due to temperature drift minimized by:
a) Compensation techniques b) Ignoring c) Randomization d) None
Ans: a)
183. Ampere-turn is unit of:
a) Magnetomotive force b) Magnetic flux c) Resistance d) None
Ans: a)
184. Flux density unit Tesla equals:
a) Wb/m² b) V/m c) A/m d) None
Ans: a)
185. Permeability μ =:
a) μ0 μr b) μ0/μr c) μr/μ0 d) None
Ans: a)
186. Magnetic circuit reluctance analogous to:
a) Resistance b) Capacitance c) Inductance d) None
Ans: a)
187. Hysteresis loss proportional to:
a) Area of B-H loop b) Frequency c) Flux d) None
Ans: a)
188. Eddy current loss reduced by:
a) Laminations b) Solid core c) Increasing thickness d) None
Ans: a)
189. Flux linkage λ =:
a) NΦ b) Φ/N c) N/Φ d) None
Ans: a)
 190. Mutual inductance M depends on:
a) Coupling and turns b) Only turns c) Only core d) None
Ans: a)
191. Self inductance L units:
a) Henry b) Ohm c) Tesla d) Weber
Ans: a)
192. Q meter measures:
a) Quality factor of coil b) Resistivity c) Inductance only d) None

Skin depth δ ∝ 1/√(fμσ) so increasing f: δ:

Ans: a)
193.
a) Decreases b) Increases c) No change d) None

Inductance of solenoid ∝:
Ans: a)
194.
a) N² μ A / l b) N μ l / A c) μ / N² d) None
Ans: a)
195. Coupling coefficient k between two coils range:
a) 0 to 1 b) -1 to 0 c) >1 d) None
Ans: a)
196. Open circuit test on transformer gives:
a) Core loss and magnetizing current b) Copper loss c) Leakage reactance d) None
Ans: a)
197. Short circuit test on transformer gives:
a) Equivalent series impedance and copper loss b) Core loss c) Magnetizing current d)
None
Ans: a)
198. Efficiency η of transformer =:
a) Output/(output + losses) b) Input/output c) Losses/output d) None
Ans: a)
199. Voltage regulation of transformer at load =:
a) (Vnl - Vfl)/Vfl ×100% b) Vfl - Vnl c) None d) 0
Ans: a)
200. All-day efficiency important for:
a) Distribution transformer b) Power transformer c) Generator d) None
Ans: a)

SECTION D — Electronic Devices & Circuits (201–280)

201. Diode forward conduction when:

a) Forward biased b) Reverse biased c) Zero biased d) None
Ans: a)
202. Zener diode used as:
a) Voltage regulator b) Rectifier c) Amplifier d) Oscillator
Ans: a)
203. BJT has terminals:
a) Emitter, base, collector b) Anode, cathode c) Gate, source, drain d) None
Ans: a)
204. For BJT, alpha =: ratio of:
a) Ic/Ie b) Ib/Ic c) Ie/Ic d) None
Ans: a)
205. MOSFET gate is insulated so input current:
a) Negligible b) High c) Moderate d) None
Ans: a)
206. Enhancement MOSFET normally:
a) Off at Vgs=0 b) On at Vgs=0 c) Same as depletion d) None
Ans: a)
207. JFET is:
a) Voltage controlled device b) Current controlled c) Resistive d) None
Ans: a)
208. SCR requires gate to:
a) Trigger into conduction in forward direction b) Reverse conduction c) Oscillate d)
None
Ans: a)
209. Triac is bidirectional for:
a) AC switching b) DC switching c) Only positive half d) None
Ans: a)
210. DIAC used for:
a) Triggering triac b) Rectification c) Power factor correction d) None
Ans: a)
211. Clipping circuit removes:
a) Portions of waveform b) Amplifies c) Integrates d) None
Ans: a)
212. Clamping circuit shifts:
a) DC level of waveform b) Filters c) Amplifies d) None
Ans: a)
213. RC coupling in amplifier blocks:
a) DC components b) AC c) Both d) None
Ans: a)
214. Bypass capacitor in amplifier used to:
a) Provide low impedance to AC at emitter b) Block DC c) Increase R d) None
Ans: a)
215. Class A amplifier has conduction angle:
a) 360° b) 180° c) <180° d) 0°
Ans: a)
216. Class B amplifier conduction angle:
a) 180° b) 360° c) 90° d) None
Ans: a)
217. Push-pull amplifier reduces:
a) Even harmonic distortion b) Odd harmonic c) Noise d) None
Ans: a)
218. Negative feedback in amplifier increases:
a) Bandwidth and stability b) Distortion c) Gain only d) None
Ans: a)
219. Oscillators need:
a) Positive feedback and phase shift b) Negative feedback c) None d) All
Ans: a)
220. Phase shift oscillator uses:
a) RC network to produce 180° phase shift b) LC tank c) Transformer d) None
Ans: a)
221. Hartley oscillator uses:
a) Inductive taps for feedback b) Capacitor dividers c) Resistors d) None
Ans: a)
222. Colpitts oscillator uses:
a) Capacitive divider b) Inductive divider c) Transformer d) None
Ans: a)
223. Tuned amplifier uses:
a) LC circuit to select frequency b) Resistors c) Capacitors only d) None
Ans: a)
224. Small signal model used for:
a) Linear analysis of transistor b) Power analysis c) Thermal d) None
Ans: a)
225. Input impedance of common emitter is:
a) Low to moderate b) Very high c) Very low d) None
Ans: a)
226. Voltage gain of common emitter approx =:
a) -gm × Rc || rcc b) +gm Rc c) 1 d) None
Ans: a)
227. Op-amp ideal input impedance:
a) Infinite b) Zero c) Low d) None
Ans: a)
228. Op-amp ideal output impedance:
a) Zero b) Infinite c) High d) None
Ans: a)
229. Inverting op-amp configuration gives:
a) Phase inversion and gain = -Rf/Rin b) No inversion c) Positive phase d) None
Ans: a)
230. Non-inverting op-amp gain =:
a) 1 + Rf/Rin b) -Rf/Rin c) 1 d) None
Ans: a)
231. Comparator op-amp used as:
a) Voltage comparator b) Amplifier c) Oscillator d) None
Ans: a)
232. Integrator op-amp output is:
a) Integral of input b) Derivative c) Same d) None
Ans: a)
233. Differentiator op-amp outputs:
a) Derivative of input b) Integral c) Same d) None
Ans: a)
234. Schmitt trigger provides:
a) Hysteresis for noise immunity b) Linear amplification c) Filtering d) None
Ans: a)
235. Timer IC 555 used in:
a) Astable & monostable multivibrators b) Only oscillator c) Memory d) None
Ans: a)
236. Logic gate NAND outputs low only when:
a) All inputs high b) Any input low c) None high d) None
Ans: a)
237. TTL logic family uses:
a) Bipolar transistors b) MOSFETs c) Vacuum tubes d) None
Ans: a)
238. CMOS advantage over TTL:
a) Lower power consumption b) Higher power c) Heavy d) None
Ans: a)
239. LED emits light by:
a) Electron-hole recombination b) Heating c) Radiation only d) None
Ans: a)
240. Photodiode used as:
a) Light detector with reverse bias b) LED c) Regulator d) None
Ans: a)
241. Zener breakdown used at:
a) Reverse bias b) Forward bias c) Both d) None
Ans: a)
242. Avalanche breakdown occurs due to:
a) High electric field causing impact ionization b) Low field c) Heating d) None
Ans: a)
243. Tunnel diode exhibits:
a) Negative resistance region b) Positive only c) No conduction d) None
Ans: a)
244. Varactor diode used as:
a) Voltage controlled capacitor b) Resistor c) Inductor d) None
Ans: a)
245. Bistable multivibrator used for:
a) Flip-flop memory b) Oscillator c) Integrator d) None
Ans: a)
246. Monostable multivibrator has:
a) One stable state b) Two stable states c) No stable state d) None
Ans: a)
247. Astable multivibrator has:
a) No stable states (oscillates) b) One stable state c) Two stable states d) None
Ans: a)
248. Power amplifier used for:
a) Driving load b) Signal processing c) Filtering d) None
Ans: a)
249. Heat sink required when:
a) Power dissipation high b) Low power c) No dissipation d) None
Ans: a)
250. Thermal runaway in BJT prevented by:
a) Negative feedback and bias stabilization b) Increasing temperature c) None d) All
Ans: a)
251. Ebers-Moll model describes:
a) BJT behavior b) MOSFET c) Diode d) None
Ans: a)
252. MOSFET on-resistance important for:
a) Power dissipation b) Frequency c) Phase d) None
Ans: a)
253. Switching losses minimized by:
a) Proper gate drive and snubbers b) Random control c) Increase switching speed
endlessly d) None
Ans: a)
254. Snubber circuits used to:
a) Limit voltage spikes during switching b) Increase spikes c) Reduce conduction d)
None
Ans: a)
255. Grounding in electronic circuits reduces:
a) Noise and interference b) Signal amplitude c) Phase d) None
Ans: a)
256. EMI filters used to:
a) Reduce electromagnetic interference b) Increase EMI c) Store energy d) None
Ans: a)
257. Decoupling capacitors placed close to ICs to:
a) Provide instantaneous current b) Block DC c) Increase noise d) None
Ans: a)
258. Flyback diode used across inductive loads to:
a) Provide path for current during turn-off b) Increase voltage spikes c) Heat d) None
Ans: a)
259. Bootstrap capacitor used in:
a) Gate drive circuits for high side MOSFET b) Low side only c) Transformers d) None
Ans: a)
260. Level shifting in logic used for:
a) Interface between different logic voltages b) Signal generation c) Filtering d) None
Ans: a)
261. ESD protection in ICs important to:
a) Prevent damage from static discharge b) Increase speed c) Increase power d) None
Ans: a)
262. Comparator hysteresis prevents:
a) Chattering due to noise b) Correct decision c) Fast switching d) None
Ans: a)
263. VCO output frequency depends on:
a) Control voltage b) Input current c) Temperature only d) None
Ans: a)
264. PLL lock range depends on:
a) Loop parameters and VCO characteristics b) Randomness c) None d) All
Ans: a)
265. Mixer in communication used to:
a) Shift frequency b) Amplify c) Rectify d) None
Ans: a)
266. Demodulator extracts:
a) Original signal from modulated carrier b) Carrier only c) Noise d) None
Ans: a)
267. Class D amplifier is:
a) Switching amplifier with high efficiency b) Linear low efficiency c) Thermal d) None
Ans: a)
268. Power MOSFET advantages:
a) High input impedance and fast switching b) Low input impedance c) Slow switching
d) None
Ans: a)
269. IGBT combines:
a) MOSFET gate and BJT conduction b) JFET and MOSFET c) Vacuum tube and
transistor d) None
Ans: a)
270. Soft-start circuit reduces:
a) Inrush current on startup b) Steady state current c) DC offset d) None
Ans: a)
271. EMI susceptibility testing ensures:
a) Equipment immunity to interference b) Emission only c) Both d) None
Ans: a)
272. Zener diode knee voltage approx used as:
a) Breakdown (regulation) voltage b) Forward voltage c) Reverse leakage d) None
Ans: a)
273. Op-amp slew rate limits:
a) Maximum rate of change of output voltage b) Input impedance c) Power d) None
Ans: a)
274. CMRR of op-amp indicates:
a) Rejection of common-mode signals b) Amplification c) Frequency response d) None
Ans: a)
275. Input offset voltage of op-amp causes:
a) Output error even with zero input b) No error c) Infinite gain d) None
Ans: a)
 276. MOSFET threshold voltage is:
a) Vgs at which channel forms b) Vds at breakdown c) Vgs at zero current d) None
Ans: a)
277. Current mirror provides:
a) Constant current source/sink b) Voltage reference c) Oscillation d) None
Ans: a)
278. Bandgap reference gives stable voltage independent of:
a) Temperature b) Load c) Input d) None
Ans: a)
279. EMI shielding uses:
a) Conductive enclosures b) Magnetic fields c) Optical fibers d) None
Ans: a)
280. Heat dissipation in semiconductor mainly by:
a) Conduction to heat sink b) Radiation only c) Convection only d) None
Ans: a)

SECTION E — Digital Electronics & Microprocessor (281–340)

281. Binary for decimal 10 =:

a) 1010 b) 1100 c) 1001 d) 1110
Ans: a)
282. Hexadecimal for decimal 255 =:
a) FF b) FE c) 0F d) F0
Ans: a)
283. BCD code uses:
a) 4 bits per decimal digit b) 8 bits c) 2 bits d) None
Ans: a)
284. Full adder outputs:
a) Sum and carry b) Only sum c) Only carry d) None
Ans: a)
285. Flip-flop stores:
a) One bit b) Two bits c) None d) Many bits
Ans: a)
286. Edge triggered flip-flop responds to:
a) Clock transition b) Level only c) None d) Continuous
Ans: a)
287. JK flip-flop avoids:
a) Race condition b) Prop delay c) Reset d) None
Ans: a)
288. Shift register used for:
a) Serial-in parallel-out and vice versa b) Amplifying c) Filtering d) None
Ans: a)
289. Multiplexer selects:
a) One of many inputs b) Many of one input c) None d) All
Ans: a)
290. Demultiplexer distributes:
a) One input to many outputs b) Many to one c) None d) Both
Ans: a)
291. Encoder converts:
a) One-hot to binary code b) Binary to one-hot c) Both d) None
Ans: a)
292. Decoder converts binary to:
a) One-hot outputs b) Analog c) None d) Waveform
Ans: a)
293. ROM is:
a) Read-only memory b) Volatile c) Writable d) None
Ans: a)
294. RAM type SRAM uses:
a) Flip-flops b) Capacitors c) Magnetic cores d) None
Ans: a)
295. ADC converts:
a) Analog to digital b) Digital to analog c) Both d) None
Ans: a)
296. DAC converts:
a) Digital to analog b) Analog to digital c) None d) Both
Ans: a)
297. Microprocessor 8085 is:
a) 8-bit a) True b) False c) 16-bit d) None
Ans: a)
298. 8085 registers include:
a) A, B, C, D, E, H, L b) Only A c) Only B d) None
Ans: a)
299. Program counter holds:
a) Address of next instruction b) Data c) Status d) None
Ans: a)
300. Stack pointer points to:
a) Top of stack b) Bottom only c) Data register d) None
Ans: a)
301. Interrupt acknowledges allow CPU to:
a) Service external event b) Ignore c) Speed up d) None
Ans: a)
302. Memory mapped IO uses:
a) Same address space for IO and memory b) Separate c) None d) All
Ans: a)
303. Isolated IO uses:
a) Separate IO address space b) Memory mapped c) Both d) None
Ans: a)
304. Fetch-execute cycle includes:
a) Fetch, decode, execute b) Store only c) Read only d) None
Ans: a)
305. Instruction set complexity defines:
a) RISC vs CISC b) Speed only c) Memory size d) None
Ans: a)
306. Baud rate indicates:
a) Symbols per second b) Bits per second (if symbol=1 bit) c) Both d) None
Ans: a)
307. Parity bit used for:
a) Error detection b) Correction c) Encryption d) None
Ans: a)
308. UART used for:
a) Serial communication b) Parallel only c) None d) Both
Ans: a)
309. Interrupt vector contains:
a) Address of interrupt service routine b) Data c) None d) Status
Ans: a)
310. DMA used to:
a) Transfer data without CPU intervention b) By CPU only c) For analog signals d) None
Ans: a)
311. PLC commonly used in:
a) Industrial automation b) Home appliances c) None d) Both
Ans: a)
312. TTL logic high voltage approx =:
a) 5V b) 3.3V c) 12V d) 1.8V
Ans: a)
313. CMOS typical supply for TTL logic replacement =:
a) 5V or 3.3V b) 12V c) 1V d) None
Ans: a)
314. Propagation delay of gate causes:
a) Timing issues at high frequency b) No effect c) Infinite speed d) None
Ans: a)
315. Setup time and hold time critical for:
a) Flip-flop correct operation b) Resistors c) Capacitors d) None
Ans: a)
316. Gray code differs by:
a) Only one bit between successive numbers b) Multiple bits c) None d) All
Ans: a)
317. Binary to BCD conversion used in:
a) Displaying decimal numbers on 7-seg b) Only storage c) None d) All
Ans: a)
318. 7-seg decoder drives:
a) Numeric display b) Analog meter c) Printer d) None
Ans: a)
319. Memory hierarchy fastest to slowest:
a) Register > Cache > RAM > Disk b) Disk > RAM > Cache > Register c) None d) All
Ans: a)
320. Edge detector circuit detects:
a) Transition of signal b) DC level c) Frequency only d) None
Ans: a)
321. Gray to binary conversion required for:
a) Position encoders b) Audio c) None d) All
Ans: a)
322. Priority encoder outputs highest priority input binary code:
a) True b) False c) Maybe d) None
Ans: a)
323. Programmable logic devices (PLD) examples:
a) FPGA, CPLD b) ROM c) RAM d) None
Ans: a)
324. Debouncing circuit used for:
a) Mechanical switch contacts b) Capacitor only c) Resistor only d) None
Ans: a)
325. Microcontroller differs from microprocessor by:
a) On-chip peripherals (timers, ADC, IO) b) None c) Larger size d) None
Ans: a)
326. Watchdog timer used to:
a) Reset system on software hang b) Increase speed c) Save energy d) None
Ans: a)
327. Instruction cycle time depends on:
a) Clock frequency and cycles per instruction b) Randomness c) None d) All
Ans: a)
328. Bus contention occurs when:
a) Multiple devices drive bus simultaneously b) Only one device active c) None d) All
Ans: a)
329. Tri-state buffer outputs:
a) High, low or high impedance b) Only high and low c) None d) All
Ans: a)
330. Asynchronous serial protocol example:
a) RS232 b) SPI c) I2C d) None
Ans: a)
331. I2C is:
a) Two-wire serial bus using SDA and SCL b) Single wire c) Four wire d) None
Ans: a)
332. SPI uses:
a) Clock + MOSI + MISO + SS lines b) Single line only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
333. ADC types include:
a) Successive approximation, flash, sigma-delta b) Only flash c) None d) All
Ans: a)
 334. Sample & hold necessary before ADC to:
a) Hold input constant during conversion b) Increase noise c) Lower resolution d) None
Ans: a)
335. Digital comparator compares:
a) Two binary numbers b) Analog signals c) None d) All
Ans: a)
336. ROM types include:
a) Mask ROM, PROM, EPROM, EEPROM b) RAM only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
337. EEPROM can be:
a) Electrically erased and reprogrammed b) Not erasable c) None d) All
Ans: a)
338. Bus architecture includes:
a) Address, data, control buses b) Only data bus c) Only address bus d) None
Ans: a)
339. Program memory typically:
a) ROM or Flash b) RAM c) Cache d) None
Ans: a)
340. Data memory typically:
a) RAM b) ROM c) EEPROM d) None
Ans: a)

SECTION F — Power Electronics & Drives (341–400)

341. Thyristor is controlled by:

a) Gate pulse in forward direction b) Reverse gate c) No gate d) None
Ans: a)
342. Single phase full bridge inverter produces:
a) Bipolar output waveform b) DC only c) AC only d) None
Ans: a)
343. PWM improves inverter output by:
a) Reducing harmonic content b) Increasing DC c) None d) All
Ans: a)
344. Rectifier converts AC to DC using:
a) Diodes or controlled devices b) Inductors c) Capacitors only d) None
Ans: a)
345. Single phase fully controlled bridge with R load needs:
a) Firing angle α control b) None c) Frequency control d) Voltage control
Ans: a)
346. Freewheeling diode used in:
a) DC choppers b) Rectifiers c) Inverters d) None
Ans: a)
347. Buck converter steps:
a) Down voltage b) Up voltage c) No change d) None
Ans: a)
348. Boost converter steps:
a) Up voltage b) Down voltage c) None d) Both
Ans: a)
349. Buck–boost converter provides:
a) Output can be greater or less than input b) Only greater c) Only less d) None
Ans: a)
350. Chopper classification based on:
a) Control strategy (step-up, step-down) b) Size c) Color d) None
Ans: a)
351. V/f control in induction motor drives maintains:
a) Flux constant b) Torque constant c) Speed constant d) None
Ans: a)
352. Closed loop speed control uses:
a) Tachogenerator or encoder feedback b) Open loop only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
353. Vector control provides:
a) Decoupled torque and flux control b) Only V/f c) None d) All
Ans: a)
354. Slip ring induction motor drive allows:
a) External rotor resistance insertion for starting torque control b) No control c) Only V/f
d) None
Ans: a)
355. Regenerative braking returns:
a) Kinetic energy to supply b) Convert to heat only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
356. Converter firing angle α controls:
a) DC output average voltage b) Frequency c) Speed d) None
Ans: a)
357. Power factor of rectifier improves with:
a) Input filter and controlled switching b) Nothing c) Only load d) None
Ans: a)
358. Snubber across thyristor prevents:
a) Voltage spikes during turn off b) Increase conduction c) None d) All
Ans: a)
359. Commutation in converters:
a) Transfer current from one device to another b) Power measurement c) None d) All
Ans: a)
360. Inverter harmonics filtered by:
a) LC filter b) Resistive load c) None d) All
Ans: a)
361. Soft starter reduces:
a) Torque and current surge during start b) Efficiency c) None d) All
Ans: a)
362. Solid state relay uses:
a) Thyristors or triacs b) Mechanical contacts c) Vacuum tubes d) None
Ans: a)
363. MOSFET preferred at high switching frequency because:
a) Low switching losses b) High losses c) None d) All
Ans: a)
364. IGBT preferred in medium voltage high power because:
a) Combines MOSFET gate drive and BJT conduction b) Low speed c) None d) All
Ans: a)
365. Regenerative converter sends energy when:
a) Load returns energy to source b) Source supplies only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
366. Brake chopper used to:
a) Dissipate excess energy during braking when regeneration not allowed b) Increase
speed c) None d) All
Ans: a)
367. DC link capacitor in inverter helps:
a) Smooth DC bus voltage b) Increase ripple c) None d) All
Ans: a)
368. Four quadrant operation means:
a) Speed and torque both can be pos/neg b) Only pos torque c) Only pos speed d) None
Ans: a)
369. Power semiconductor junction temperature must be limited by:
a) Proper heatsinking and cooling b) Overdrive c) None d) All
Ans: a)
370. Drive harmonics reduce motor efficiency and:
a) Cause heating and torque ripple b) Improve efficiency c) None d) All
Ans: a)
371. Regenerative rectifier used for:
a) Bidirectional power flow b) One-way only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
372. Four quadrant chopper used for:
a) Bidirectional current and voltage control b) AC only c) DC only d) None
Ans: a)
373. Forced commutation needed for:
a) Turning off thyristor in DC circuits b) Turn on only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
374. AC voltage controller used for AC motor speed control by:
a) Phase control technique b) PWM only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
375. Cycloconverter directly converts:
a) AC to lower frequency AC b) AC to DC c) DC to AC d) None
Ans: a)
376. Power electronic converter losses mostly due to:
a) Switching and conduction losses b) Storage c) None d) All
Ans: a)
 377. Regenerative braking most effective in:
a) Electric traction and lifts b) Static loads c) None d) All
Ans: a)
378. Power factor correction in drives achieved by:
a) Active PFC circuits or passive capacitors b) Resistive load c) None d) All
Ans: a)
379. Inverter modulation index controls:
a) Output voltage amplitude b) Frequency only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
380. Dead-time in inverter avoids:
a) Short circuit of DC bus b) Increase harmonics c) None d) All
Ans: a)

SECTION G — Electrical Machines (381–460)

(Additional deeper machine questions)

381. EMF equation of transformer E = 4.44 f N Φm indicates E ∝:

a) Frequency b) Turns c) Flux d) All
Ans: d)
382. No-load current of transformer mainly magnetizing and:
a) Small reactive b) Large resistive c) Zero d) None
Ans: a)
383. Autotransformer differs from two-winding transformer in:
a) Partial winding common b) No difference c) Efficiency worse d) None
Ans: a)
384. Three-phase transformer vector group indicates:
a) Phase displacement and connections b) Power only c) Voltage only d) None
Ans: a)
385. Tap changers used for:
a) Voltage regulation under load b) Frequency change c) Power factor d) None
Ans: a)
386. Parallel operation of transformers requires:
a) Equal voltage ratio, phase sequence and similar % impedances b) Any c) Different
voltages d) None
Ans: a)
387. Synchronizing two alternators requires:
a) Same voltage, frequency and phase sequence b) Only frequency c) None d) All
Ans: a)
388. V-curves of synchronous motor plot:
a) Armature current vs excitation b) Torque vs speed c) Loss vs temperature d) None
Ans: a)
389. Synchronous condenser provides:
a) Reactive power control for PF correction b) Active power only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
390. Parallel operation of synchronous machines requires:
a) Same speed, voltage, frequency and phase sequence b) Different c) None d) All
Ans: a)
391. Induction generator used when:
a) Driven above synchronous speed with grid connection b) Below synchronous c) None
d) All
Ans: a)
392. Break down torque of induction motor is:
a) Maximum torque before pull-out b) Starting torque c) Running torque d) None

Torque equation of induction motor shows torque ∝:

Ans: a)
393.
a) Rotor flux × rotor current / slip b) Only voltage c) Only current d) None
Ans: a)
394. Synchronous motor not self-starting because:
a) No starting torque at standstill without auxiliary means b) Too heavy c) None d) All
Ans: a)
395. Static converters (variable frequency drives) allow synchronous motor starting by:
a) Frequency ramping b) No method c) None d) All
Ans: a)
396. Brushless DC motor commutation achieved by:
a) Electronic commutation using sensors b) Brushes c) Mechanical d) None
Ans: a)
397. DC shunt motor speed roughly constant with load due to:
a) Nearly constant field flux b) Field weakening c) None d) All

DC series motor torque ∝:

Ans: a)
398.
a) I² × φ b) Constant c) Zero d) None
Ans: a)
399. Compound wound DC motor combines:
a) Shunt and series fields for favorable starting and speed regulation b) Only shunt c)
Only series d) None
Ans: a)
400. Commutation in DC machine improved by:
a) Interpoles b) Laminations c) Brushes only d) None
Ans: a)
401. Armature reaction causes:
a) Distortion and demagnetization of main field flux b) Increase flux c) None d) All
Ans: a)
402. Swinburne’s test used to:
a) Estimate efficiency of DC machine at various loads with low power input b) Full load
test c) None d) All
Ans: a)
403. Hopkinson’s test (back-to-back) used for:
a) Determining efficiency of two similar motors without loading d) None b) c) All
Ans: a)
404. Load sharing between parallel generators depends on:
a) Governor droop characteristics and speed-load settings b) Random c) None d) All
Ans: a)
405. Thermal capacity of machine determines:
a) How long machine can sustain overload b) Speed c) Efficiency d) None
Ans: a)
406. Insulation class determines:
a) Max temperature rise allowable b) Voltage only c) Size only d) None
Ans: a)
407. Earthing (grounding) protects against:
a) Touch potential and lightning b) Efficiency c) Speed d) None
Ans: a)
408. Surge diverters protect equipment against:
a) Lightning and switching surges b) Overcurrent c) None d) All
Ans: a)
409. Generator AVR regulates:
a) Terminal voltage by controlling excitation b) Speed c) Torque d) None
Ans: a)
410. Excitation system types:
a) Static, rotating, self-excited b) None c) Only static d) All
Ans: a)
411. Synchronizing lamps method checks:
a) Phase sequence and magnitude b) Frequency only c) Voltage only d) None
Ans: a)
412. Rotor winding of synchronous machine when DC supplied produces:
a) Constant flux field b) AC flux c) None d) All
Ans: a)
413. Damper winding in synchronous machine used to:
a) Dampen oscillations at transient b) Provide starting torque c) None d) All
Ans: a)
414. Core construction uses lamination to reduce:
a) Eddy current losses b) Hysteresis only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
415. Hysteresis loss proportional to:
a) Volume, hysteresis constant and frequency b) Only frequency c) None d) All

Eddy current losses ∝:

Ans: a)
416.
a) Square of thickness and square of frequency b) Inverse c) None d) All
Ans: a)
417. Power factor improvement in synchronous motor achieved by:
a) Varying field excitation (over-excitation for leading PF) b) Speed change c) None d)
All
Ans: a)
418. Motor nameplate gives:
a) Rated voltage, current, power, speed, efficiency b) Only size c) None d) All
Ans: a)
419. Starting method for large motors to limit starting current:
a) Star-delta, autotransformer, soft starter b) Direct-on-line always c) None d) All
Ans: a)
420. Static rotor tests include::
a) No-load and blocked rotor tests for induction motor equivalent parameters b) None c)
All d) Some
Ans: a)
421. Short circuit impedance of alternator affects:
a) Fault currents and voltage regulation b) Only starting torque c) None d) All
Ans: a)
422. Salient pole alternator used for:
a) Low speed applications (hydro) b) High speed c) None d) All
Ans: a)
423. Cylindrical rotor alternator used for:
a) High speed (steam turbine) applications b) Low speed c) None d) All
Ans: a)
424. Squirrel cage rotor slip rings?
a) No slip rings b) Has slip rings c) Both d) None
Ans: a)
425. Rotor time constant τr = Lr/Rr affects:
a) Transient response b) Steady state only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
426. Critical speed of motor beyond which mechanical issues occur due to:
a) Bearing limits and resonance b) Electrical only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
427. Motor efficiency highest near:
a) 75–90% of rated load b) No load c) Full load d) None
Ans: a)
428. Synchronous motor used as synchronous condenser when:
a) Operated without load and adjusted excitation to control reactive power b) For torque
only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
429. Static excitation uses power electronic converters to supply:
a) DC to rotor field b) AC only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
430. Brushless excitation reduces maintenance by eliminating:
a) Brushes and slip rings b) Cooling c) Bearings d) None
Ans: a)
SECTION H — Power Systems, Utilization, Estimation, Protection & Misc
(461–500)

431. Load factor = Average load / Peak load; typically ≤ 1:

a) True b) False c) Maybe d) None
Ans: a)
432. Diversity factor = Sum of individual maxima / maximum demand:
a) >1 b) <1 c) =1 d) None
Ans: a)
433. Utilization factor =:
a) Actual maximum demand / rated capacity b) Rated/actual c) None d) All
Ans: a)
434. Plant capacity factor =:
a) Actual energy produced / (Plant capacity × time) b) None c) All d) Some
Ans: a)
435. Economizer in thermal plant preheats:
a) Feed water using flue gas b) Steam c) Fuel d) None
Ans: a)
436. Superheater increases:
a) Steam temperature above saturation b) Pressure only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
437. Reheater used in Rankine cycle to:
a) Reheat steam between turbine stages to improve efficiency b) None c) All d) Some
Ans: a)
438. Condenser in steam plant:
a) Condenses exhaust steam to water to maintain vacuum b) Increases pressure c) None
d) All
Ans: a)
439. Tariff types include:
a) Flat, block rate, time-of-day, demand-based b) None c) All d) Some
Ans: a)
440. Power factor penalty applied when:
a) PF below contractual value b) PF above c) None d) All
Ans: a)
441. Short circuit fault current calculation uses:
a) Per unit system for simplification b) Raw units only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
442. Protective relay selects faulted element by:
a) Directional and magnitude criteria b) Random c) None d) All
Ans: a)
443. Distance relay measures:
a) Impedance to fault and operates based on zones b) Only current c) None d) All
Ans: a)
444. Overcurrent relay operates when:
a) Current exceeds set value b) Voltage drop c) Temperature rise d) None
Ans: a)
445. Differential protection compares currents entering and leaving:
a) Transformer or generator; operate on difference b) Same c) None d) All
Ans: a)
446. Earth fault relay detects:
a) Leakage to earth b) Overvoltage c) None d) All
Ans: a)
447. Buchholz relay on oil transformer detects:
a) Internal faults by gas accumulation and surge oil movement b) External faults c) None
d) All
Ans: a)
448. Overvoltage caused by:
a) Lightning strikes, switching surges b) Low load c) None d) All
Ans: a)
449. Surge arresters use:
a) Gas discharge tubes or metal oxide varistors to clamp overvoltages b) Resistors only c)
None d) All
Ans: a)
450. Coordination of relays ensures:
a) Selective tripping isolating only faulty section b) All trip simultaneously c) None d)
All
Ans: a)
451. Cable sizing depends on:
a) Current carrying capacity, voltage drop and fault level b) Color only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
452. Underground cable sheath protects from:
a) Mechanical damage and moisture ingress b) Conduction c) None d) All
Ans: a)
453. Capacitor bank used for PF correction is switched by:
a) Contactors or automatic controller b) Diodes c) Resistors d) None
Ans: a)
454. Illumination design uses lux levels; for office typical:
a) 300–500 lux b) 10 lux c) 1000 lux d) None
Ans: a)
455. Lumen output of a source measures:
a) Total light emitted b) Intensity c) Wattage d) None
Ans: a)
456. Lamp efficacy (lm/W) higher for:
a) LED > CFL > Incandescent b) Incandescent > LED c) None d) All
Ans: a)
457. Street lighting uses sodium vapor for:
a) High efficacy and long life b) Low efficiency c) None d) All
Ans: a)
458. Hot-spot temperature rise in cable due to:
a) Overload heating b) Voltage only c) None d) All
Ans: a)
 459. Earthing resistance should be low to:
a) Ensure safe fault current path and limit touch voltage b) Increase voltage c) None d)
All
Ans: a)
460. Fall of potential method used for:
a) Earth resistance measurement b) Insulation c) Voltage measure d) None
Ans: a)

Remaining 40 MCQs — JKSSB JE Electrical

1. In a 3-phase induction motor, slip is 0.02 at full load. If synchronous speed is 1500 rpm, rotor
speed is:
A) 1470 rpm
B) 1500 rpm
C) 1530 rpm
D) 1450 rpm
Answer: A — Ns(1–s) = 1500×(1–0.02) = 1470 rpm.

2. Which law governs the induced EMF in a generator?

A) Lenz’s Law
B) Faraday’s Law
C) Ohm’s Law
D) Kirchhoff’s Law
Answer: B — Faraday’s law explains how EMF is induced by change in magnetic flux.

3. In a purely inductive AC circuit, current:

A) Lags voltage by 90°
B) Leads voltage by 90°
C) Is in phase with voltage
D) None
Answer: A — Inductive circuit → current lags voltage by 90°.

4. Which type of fault is most severe in a power system?

A) L–G
B) L–L
C) 3-phase
D) Double L–G
Answer: C — 3-phase fault causes maximum fault current.

5. For maximum power transfer, load resistance must be:

A) Twice the source resistance
B) Equal to source resistance
C) Half the source resistance
D) Infinite
Answer: B — Maximum power transfer theorem.
6. The speed of a DC shunt motor is directly proportional to:
A) Armature current
B) Field current
C) Supply voltage
D) Torque
Answer: C — Speed ≈ (V – IaRa)/Φ.

7. A step-up transformer increases:

A) Voltage
B) Current
C) Power
D) Resistance
Answer: A — It raises voltage, lowers current, power ideally constant.

8. Buchholz relay is used in:

A) Transmission lines
B) Transformers
C) Induction motors
D) Generators
Answer: B — Detects incipient faults in oil-filled transformers.

9. The unit of reluctance is:

A) Henry
B) Weber
C) Ampere-turn per Weber
D) Ohm
Answer: C — Reluctance = mmf / flux.

10. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is directly proportional to:

A) Plate separation
B) Plate area
C) Permittivity of free space
D) Both B and C
Answer: D.

11. The function of a commutator in a DC machine is:

A) To collect current
B) To convert AC in armature to DC in load
C) To step up voltage
D) To excite the field
Answer: B.

12. Lightning arresters protect equipment from:

A) Overcurrent
B) Voltage surges
C) Frequency changes
D) Harmonics
Answer: B.

13. In star connection, line voltage =:

A) Phase voltage × √3
B) Phase voltage / √3
C) Equal to phase voltage
D) Zero
Answer: A.

14. The power factor of a purely capacitive circuit is:

A) Zero
B) Unity
C) Leading
D) Lagging
Answer: C — PF is leading in capacitive load.

15. In synchronous motors, the speed is:

A) Dependent on load
B) Always constant
C) Zero at no-load
D) Varies with voltage
Answer: B.

16. Kelvin’s double bridge is used to measure:

A) Capacitance
B) Low resistance
C) High resistance
D) Inductance
Answer: B.

17. Which instrument works on the principle of heating effect?

A) Dynamometer wattmeter
B) Hot-wire ammeter
C) Moving iron ammeter
D) Induction wattmeter
Answer: B.

18. The insulation resistance of a good cable should be in:

A) Milliohms
B) Ohms
C) Megaohms
D) Kilo-ohms
Answer: C.
19. In a power transformer, copper loss is proportional to:
A) Voltage²
B) Current²
C) Load power factor
D) Core flux
Answer: B.

20. Dielectric strength of air is approximately:

A) 3 kV/mm
B) 30 kV/mm
C) 300 kV/mm
D) 1 kV/mm
Answer: A.

21. The slip in an induction motor at synchronous speed is:

A) 0%
B) 100%
C) 50%
D) 10%
Answer: B.

22. Ferranti effect occurs when:

A) Load is high
B) Load is zero
C) Voltage drops
D) Frequency decreases
Answer: B — Light load, long lines → receiving end voltage rises.

23. The unit of magnetic flux density is:

A) Tesla
B) Weber
C) Henry
D) Gauss
Answer: A.

24. Load shedding is done to:

A) Increase generation
B) Reduce system load
C) Increase voltage
D) Decrease frequency
Answer: B.

25. Which generator has residual magnetism?

A) DC shunt generator
B) Synchronous generator
C) Induction generator
D) None
Answer: A.

26. In a CRO, the time base generator provides:

A) Deflection in Y-axis
B) Deflection in X-axis
C) Focus
D) Intensity control
Answer: B.

27. In cables, armouring is provided for:

A) Insulation
B) Mechanical protection
C) Earthing
D) Reducing reactance
Answer: B.

28. The temperature coefficient of resistance for copper is:

A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Zero
D) Infinite
Answer: A.

29. Which is not a type of lightning arrester?

A) Rod gap
B) Valve type
C) Expulsion type
D) Induction type
Answer: D.

30. A synchronous generator is also called:

A) Alternator
B) Dynamo
C) Inductor
D) Rectifier
Answer: A.

31. If a transformer has turns ratio 1:2, secondary voltage will be:
A) Half primary
B) Double primary
C) Same as primary
D) Zero
Answer: B.
32. The instrument for measuring frequency is:
A) Ammeter
B) Voltmeter
C) Frequency meter
D) Wattmeter
Answer: C.

33. An ammeter is connected in:

A) Series
B) Parallel
C) Either
D) None
Answer: A.

34. Corona loss is more in:

A) Smooth conductors
B) Stranded conductors
C) Bundled conductors
D) High voltage
Answer: D.

35. Which fault is detected by differential protection?

A) External
B) Internal
C) Both
D) None
Answer: B.

36. The braking in a DC motor during power failure is:

A) Plugging
B) Rheostatic braking
C) Regenerative
D) None
Answer: B.

37. High voltage DC transmission is preferred for:

A) Short distances
B) Long distances
C) Medium distances
D) Urban supply
Answer: B.

38. In a PMMC instrument, damping is provided by:

A) Air friction
B) Eddy currents
C) Fluid friction
D) Spring control
Answer: B.

39. The function of a starter in a DC motor is:

A) To increase speed
B) To limit starting current
C) To increase torque
D) To reduce voltage
Answer: B.

40. The insulation used in underground cables is generally:

A) PVC
B) Rubber
C) Paper
D) All of these
Answer: D.

SSC JE Electrical – MCQs with Answers

1. The unit of reluctance is:

a) Henry
b) Weber
c) Ampere-turn per Weber ✅
d) Tesla
2. In a DC shunt motor, if the field winding is open-circuited:
a) Motor runs at slow speed
b) Motor stops
c) Motor runs at dangerously high speed ✅
d) Motor runs at normal speed
3. Power factor of a purely resistive circuit is:
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 1 ✅
d) -1
4. Which of the following has the highest conductivity?
a) Copper ✅
b) Aluminium
c) Silver
d) Iron
5. In a transformer, the no-load current is:
a) In phase with voltage
b) Lags voltage by 90°
c) Lags voltage by an angle less than 90° ✅
d) Leads voltage
6. The frequency of Indian power supply is:
a) 50 Hz ✅
 b) 60 Hz
c) 55 Hz
d) 40 Hz
7. Which law is used to determine the induced EMF in a conductor?
a) Faraday’s Law ✅
b) Lenz’s Law
c) Kirchhoff’s Law
d) Coulomb’s Law
8. For a series RLC circuit at resonance:
a) Current is minimum
b) Power factor is unity ✅
c) Voltage is maximum across R
d) Reactance is maximum
9. In synchronous generators, the frequency is given by:
a) f=P×N60f = \frac{P \times N}{60}f=60P×N ✅
b) f=120×NPf = \frac{120 \times N}{P}f=P120×N
c) f=60×NPf = \frac{60 \times N}{P}f=P60×N
d) f=N120×Pf = \frac{N}{120 \times P}f=120×PN
10. In illumination, 1 lumen per square meter is called:
a) Lux ✅
b) Candela
c) Luminous intensity
d) Luminous flux
11. The color code of a resistor with bands: Red, Violet, Yellow is:
a) 27 × 10410^4104 Ω ✅
b) 27 × 10310^3103 Ω
c) 47 × 10410^4104 Ω
d) 27 × 10210^2102 Ω
12. Which type of motor is preferred for constant speed applications?
a) DC Shunt Motor ✅
b) DC Series Motor
c) Universal Motor
d) Stepper Motor
13. In 3-phase power measurement using two wattmeters, if both readings are equal
and positive, the load is:
a) Balanced, lagging PF ✅
b) Balanced, unity PF
c) Balanced, leading PF
d) Unbalanced
14. The maximum efficiency of a transformer occurs when:
a) Iron losses = Copper losses ✅
b) Iron losses > Copper losses
c) Iron losses < Copper losses
d) Load is maximum
15. Which instrument measures both AC and DC?
a) Moving Iron ✅
 b) Moving Coil
c) Hot-wire instrument
d) Thermocouple type

SSC JE Electrical MCQs with Answers (1–100)

1. Unit of reluctance is:

a) Henry
b) Weber
c) Ampere-turn per Weber ✅
d) Tesla
2. In a DC shunt motor, if field winding is opened:
a) Speed decreases
b) Motor stops
c) Speed rises dangerously ✅
d) Remains constant
3. Power factor of purely resistive circuit:
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 1 ✅
d) –1
4. Highest conductivity metal:
a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Silver ✅
d) Iron
5. In transformer, no-load current:
a) In phase with voltage
b) Lags voltage by 90°
c) Lags less than 90° ✅
d) Leads voltage
6. Indian supply frequency:
a) 50 Hz ✅
b) 60 Hz
c) 55 Hz
d) 40 Hz
7. Law for induced EMF:
a) Faraday’s Law ✅
b) Lenz’s Law
c) Kirchhoff’s Law
d) Coulomb’s Law
8. Series RLC at resonance:
a) Minimum current
b) Unity power factor ✅
c) Maximum voltage across R
d) Maximum reactance
9. Frequency formula in synchronous generators:
a) f=P×N60f = \frac{P \times N}{60}f=60P×N ✅
b) f=120NPf = \frac{120N}{P}f=P120N
c) f=60NPf = \frac{60N}{P}f=P60N
d) f=N120Pf = \frac{N}{120P}f=120PN
10. Unit of illumination:
a) Lux ✅
b) Candela
c) Luminous intensity
d) Luminous flux
11. Resistor color bands: Red-Violet-Yellow:
a) 27 × 10⁴ Ω ✅
b) 27 × 10³ Ω
c) 47 × 10⁴ Ω
d) 27 × 10² Ω
12. Best motor for constant speed use:
a) DC Shunt Motor ✅
b) DC Series Motor
c) Universal Motor
d) Stepper Motor
13. Two-wattmeter method: both readings equal & positive → load is:
a) Balanced, lagging PF ✅
b) Balanced, unity PF
c) Balanced, leading PF
d) Unbalanced
14. Transformer maximum efficiency when:
a) Iron loss = Copper loss ✅
b) Iron loss > Copper loss
c) Iron loss < Copper loss
d) Load maximum
15. Instrument for both AC & DC:
a) Moving Iron ✅
b) Moving Coil
c) Hot-wire
d) Thermocouple type
16. Slip-ring induction motor starting torque is:
a) Low
b) High ✅
c) Medium
d) Zero
17. Synchronous speed of 6-pole, 50 Hz motor:
a) 1000 rpm ✅
b) 1500 rpm
c) 1200 rpm
d) 1800 rpm
18. Primary use of lightning arrester:
a) Overcurrent protection
b) Divert surges to ground ✅
c) Voltage regulation
d) Frequency control
19. Slip of induction motor at synchronous speed:
a) 0%
b) 50%
c) 100% ✅
d) 150%
20. Capacitive reactance (formula):
a) 1/(2πfC)1 / (2πfC)1/(2πfC) ✅
b) 2πfC2πfC2πfC
c) L/CL/CL/C
d) None
21. Ferranti effect appears with:
a) Heavy load
b) No load, long line ✅
c) Medium load
d) High frequency
22. Megger measures:
a) Current
b) Insulation resistance ✅
c) Voltage
d) Frequency
23. Kelvin’s bridge measures:
a) High resistance
b) Inductance
c) Capacitance
d) Low resistance ✅
24. Dynamometer instrument can measure:
a) DC only
b) AC only
c) Both AC & DC ✅
d) None
25. Ripple factor of full-wave rectifier:
a) 0.48 ✅
b) 0.707
c) 0.3
d) 1
26. LED works on principle of:
a) Photoconductivity
b) Electroluminescence ✅
c) Thermionic emission
d) Piezoelectricity
27. SCR stands for:
a) Silicon Switching Rectifier
b) Silicon Controlled Rectifier ✅
c) Semi Controlled Rectifier
d) None
28. Alternator another name:
a) Dynamo
b) Generator
c) Synchronous generator ✅
d) Motor
29. Full-load efficiency of an energy meter:
a) 95–98%
b) 99%
c) 90%
d) 85%
(Answer varies contextually, often ~98%)
30. Electric heating by induction works on:
a) Self-induction
b) Mutual induction ✅
c) Dielectric loss
d) Resistive heating
31. MCB operates by:
a) Magnetic only
b) Thermal only
c) Magnetic + Thermal ✅
d) None
32. Fuse wire material:
a) Copper
b) Tin-lead alloy ✅
c) Steel
d) Aluminium
33. Transformer efficiency at full load is:
a) 50%
b) 70%
c) 95–98% ✅
d) 100%
34. Transformer works on:
a) Electromagnetic induction
b) Mutual induction ✅
c) Self induction
d) Electrostatics
35. Armature reaction effect:
a) Demagnetizing
b) Crossmagnetizing
c) Both ✅
d) None
36. Single-phase induction motor is:
a) Self-starting
b) Not self-starting ✅
c) Sometimes self-starting
d) None
37. Efficiency of incandescent lamp:
a) 10–15 lm/W ✅
b) 50 lm/W
c) 100 lm/W
d) 150 lm/W
38. Sodium vapour lamp used for:
a) Domestic light
b) Street lighting ✅
c) Decoration
d) Office lighting
39. Unit of luminous flux:
a) Lux
b) Lumen ✅
c) Candela
d) Candela-meter
40. Polar curve shows:
a) Light distribution pattern ✅
b) Intensity variation only
c) Efficiency
d) Power consumption
41. Power factor improvement reduces:
a) Line current and copper loss ✅
b) Voltage drop only
c) Both a & b
d) None
42. Back EMF in DC motor formula:
a) Eb=V+IaRaE_b = V + I_aR_aEb=V+IaRa
b) Eb=V–IaRaE_b = V – I_aR_aEb=V–IaRa ✅
c) Eb=IaRa–VE_b = I_aR_a – VEb=IaRa–V
d) Eb=V/IaRaE_b = V / I_aR_aEb=V/IaRa
43. Diversity factor is:
a) < 1
b) > 1 ✅
c) = 1
d) None
44. Load factor formula:
a) Average load / Peak load ✅
b) Peak load / Average load
c) Connected load / Maximum demand
d) None
 45. Economizer in thermal plant heats:
a) Feed water ✅
b) Superheated steam
c) Combustion air
d) None
46. Governing in turbines controls:
a) Speed ✅
b) Voltage
c) Power factor
d) Load
47. Hydroelectric plant good for:
a) Base load
b) Peak load ✅
c) Both
d) None
48. Maintenance cost least in:
a) Hydro plants ✅
b) Thermal
c) Nuclear
d) Diesel
49. Leakage reactance of transformer from:
a) Open-circuit test
b) Short-circuit test ✅
c) Load test
d) None
50. Transformer voltage regulation formula:

\%VR = \frac{V_{no-load} - V_{full-load}}{V_{full-load}} \times 100 \] ✅

SSC JE Electrical MCQs with Answers (1–100)

1. Unit of reluctance is:

a) Henry
b) Weber
c) Ampere-turn per Weber ✅
d) Tesla
2. In a DC shunt motor, if field winding is opened:
a) Speed decreases
b) Motor stops
c) Speed rises dangerously ✅
d) Remains constant
3. Power factor of purely resistive circuit:
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 1 ✅
d) –1
4. Highest conductivity metal:
a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Silver ✅
d) Iron
5. In transformer, no-load current:
a) In phase with voltage
b) Lags voltage by 90°
c) Lags less than 90° ✅
d) Leads voltage
6. Indian supply frequency:
a) 50 Hz ✅
b) 60 Hz
c) 55 Hz
d) 40 Hz
7. Law for induced EMF:
a) Faraday’s Law ✅
b) Lenz’s Law
c) Kirchhoff’s Law
d) Coulomb’s Law
8. Series RLC at resonance:
a) Minimum current
b) Unity power factor ✅
c) Maximum voltage across R
d) Maximum reactance
9. Frequency formula in synchronous generators:
a) f=P×N60f = \frac{P \times N}{60}f=60P×N ✅
b) f=120NPf = \frac{120N}{P}f=P120N
c) f=60NPf = \frac{60N}{P}f=P60N
d) f=N120Pf = \frac{N}{120P}f=120PN
10. Unit of illumination:
a) Lux ✅
b) Candela
c) Luminous intensity
d) Luminous flux
11. Resistor color bands: Red-Violet-Yellow:
a) 27 × 10⁴ Ω ✅
b) 27 × 10³ Ω
c) 47 × 10⁴ Ω
d) 27 × 10² Ω
12. Best motor for constant speed use:
a) DC Shunt Motor ✅
b) DC Series Motor
c) Universal Motor
d) Stepper Motor
13. Two-wattmeter method: both readings equal & positive → load is:
a) Balanced, lagging PF ✅
b) Balanced, unity PF
c) Balanced, leading PF
d) Unbalanced
14. Transformer maximum efficiency when:
a) Iron loss = Copper loss ✅
b) Iron loss > Copper loss
c) Iron loss < Copper loss
d) Load maximum
15. Instrument for both AC & DC:
a) Moving Iron ✅
b) Moving Coil
c) Hot-wire
d) Thermocouple type
16. Slip-ring induction motor starting torque is:
a) Low
b) High ✅
c) Medium
d) Zero
17. Synchronous speed of 6-pole, 50 Hz motor:
a) 1000 rpm ✅
b) 1500 rpm
c) 1200 rpm
d) 1800 rpm
18. Primary use of lightning arrester:
a) Overcurrent protection
b) Divert surges to ground ✅
c) Voltage regulation
d) Frequency control
19. Slip of induction motor at synchronous speed:
a) 0%
b) 50%
c) 100% ✅
d) 150%
20. Capacitive reactance (formula):
a) 1/(2πfC)1 / (2πfC)1/(2πfC) ✅
b) 2πfC2πfC2πfC
c) L/CL/CL/C
d) None
21. Ferranti effect appears with:
a) Heavy load
b) No load, long line ✅
c) Medium load
d) High frequency
22. Megger measures:
a) Current
b) Insulation resistance ✅
c) Voltage
d) Frequency
23. Kelvin’s bridge measures:
a) High resistance
b) Inductance
c) Capacitance
d) Low resistance ✅
24. Dynamometer instrument can measure:
a) DC only
b) AC only
c) Both AC & DC ✅
d) None
25. Ripple factor of full-wave rectifier:
a) 0.48 ✅
b) 0.707
c) 0.3
d) 1
26. LED works on principle of:
a) Photoconductivity
b) Electroluminescence ✅
c) Thermionic emission
d) Piezoelectricity
27. SCR stands for:
a) Silicon Switching Rectifier
b) Silicon Controlled Rectifier ✅
c) Semi Controlled Rectifier
d) None
28. Alternator another name:
a) Dynamo
b) Generator
c) Synchronous generator ✅
d) Motor
29. Full-load efficiency of an energy meter:
a) 95–98%
b) 99%
c) 90%
d) 85%
(Answer varies contextually, often ~98%)
30. Electric heating by induction works on:
a) Self-induction
b) Mutual induction ✅
c) Dielectric loss
d) Resistive heating
31. MCB operates by:
a) Magnetic only
b) Thermal only
c) Magnetic + Thermal ✅
d) None
32. Fuse wire material:
a) Copper
b) Tin-lead alloy ✅
c) Steel
d) Aluminium
33. Transformer efficiency at full load is:
a) 50%
b) 70%
c) 95–98% ✅
d) 100%
34. Transformer works on:
a) Electromagnetic induction
b) Mutual induction ✅
c) Self induction
d) Electrostatics
35. Armature reaction effect:
a) Demagnetizing
b) Crossmagnetizing
c) Both ✅
d) None
36. Single-phase induction motor is:
a) Self-starting
b) Not self-starting ✅
c) Sometimes self-starting
d) None
37. Efficiency of incandescent lamp:
a) 10–15 lm/W ✅
b) 50 lm/W
c) 100 lm/W
d) 150 lm/W
38. Sodium vapour lamp used for:
a) Domestic light
b) Street lighting ✅
c) Decoration
d) Office lighting
39. Unit of luminous flux:
a) Lux
b) Lumen ✅
c) Candela
d) Candela-meter
40. Polar curve shows:
a) Light distribution pattern ✅
b) Intensity variation only
c) Efficiency
d) Power consumption
41. Power factor improvement reduces:
a) Line current and copper loss ✅
b) Voltage drop only
c) Both a & b
d) None
42. Back EMF in DC motor formula:
a) Eb=V+IaRaE_b = V + I_aR_aEb=V+IaRa
b) Eb=V–IaRaE_b = V – I_aR_aEb=V–IaRa ✅
c) Eb=IaRa–VE_b = I_aR_a – VEb=IaRa–V
d) Eb=V/IaRaE_b = V / I_aR_aEb=V/IaRa
43. Diversity factor is:
a) < 1
b) > 1 ✅
c) = 1
d) None
44. Load factor formula:
a) Average load / Peak load ✅
b) Peak load / Average load
c) Connected load / Maximum demand
d) None
45. Economizer in thermal plant heats:
a) Feed water ✅
b) Superheated steam
c) Combustion air
d) None
46. Governing in turbines controls:
a) Speed ✅
b) Voltage
c) Power factor
d) Load
47. Hydroelectric plant good for:
a) Base load
b) Peak load ✅
c) Both
d) None
48. Maintenance cost least in:
a) Hydro plants ✅
b) Thermal
c) Nuclear
d) Diesel
 49. Leakage reactance of transformer from:
a) Open-circuit test
b) Short-circuit test ✅
c) Load test
d) None
50. Transformer voltage regulation formula:

\%VR = \frac{V_{no-load} - V_{full-load}}{V_{full-load}} \times 100 \] ✅

SC JE Electrical MCQs with Answers

1. The unit of electric charge is? Coulomb

2. Which law relates voltage, current, and resistance? Ohm’s Law
3. In a purely inductive circuit, current lags voltage by? 90°
4. The SI unit of inductance is? Henry
5. Which material is used for making permanent magnets? Steel
6. Which type of motor is used in ceiling fans? Single-phase induction motor
7. In a transformer, the core is laminated to reduce? Eddy current loss
8. Which law forms the basis for transformer operation? Faraday’s Law of
Electromagnetic Induction
9. In DC generators, commutators are used to? Convert AC to DC
10. A squirrel cage motor has no commutator and no brushes.
11. The slip of an induction motor at synchronous speed is? 100%
12. Which gas is used in gas-insulated transformers? SF₆
13. The power factor of a purely resistive load is? Unity (1)
14. In 3-phase systems, phase difference between phases is? 120°
15. The speed of a synchronous motor is given by Ns =? 120f/P
16. A Megger is used to measure? Insulation resistance
17. Buchholz relay is used in? Oil-immersed transformers
18. The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when? Copper loss = Iron loss
19. The unit of capacitance is? Farad
20. Which type of motor is best for constant speed? Synchronous motor
21. In DC motors, armature reaction causes? Distortion of main field flux
22. The torque-speed characteristic of a DC shunt motor is? Nearly constant speed
23. In alternators, the frequency is given by? f = (P × N) / 120
24. Synchronous condenser is used for? Power factor improvement
25. A 50 Hz alternator with 4 poles runs at? 1500 RPM
26. Transmission lines are transposed to reduce? Interference & unbalance
27. Surge arresters protect equipment from? Overvoltage
28. For long distance transmission, we use? High voltage
29. Skin effect is more in? AC with high frequency
30. Ferranti effect occurs in? Lightly loaded long transmission lines
31. The primary reason for using high voltage in transmission is? Reduced line loss
32. Kelvin's double bridge is used to measure? Low resistance
33. The most common type of underground cable insulation is? PVC or XLPE
34. Star-delta starter is used to? Reduce starting current
 35. In a 3-phase induction motor, slip at full load is typically? 0.5–6%
36. The speed of a DC series motor varies with? Load
37. In transformers, voltage regulation depends on? Load power factor
38. Which instrument is used to measure reactive power? Var meter
39. The function of interpoles in DC machines is? Reduce commutation problems
40. The magnetic field in a 3-phase induction motor rotates at? Synchronous speed
41. Insulators in transmission lines are made of? Porcelain
42. The transmission line constant ‘A’ is? Dimensionless
43. Grounding is done to? Protect equipment & personnel
44. The dielectric strength of air is about? 3 kV/mm
45. The main cause of corona loss is? Ionization of air
46. The most suitable insulator for 400 kV line is? Disc type
47. SF₆ gas has? Excellent arc-quenching properties
48. ELCB is used for? Earth leakage protection
49. The efficiency of a typical distribution transformer is? 95–99%
50. For 132 kV transmission, which type of conductor is used? ACSR
51. Load factor is defined as? Average load / Maximum demand
52. Demand factor is? Maximum demand / Connected load
53. Diversity factor is? Sum of individual max demands / Max demand of system
54. Creepage distance is related to? Surface leakage path on insulator
55. The typical frequency in India for power is? 50 Hz
56. In a DC generator, residual magnetism is important for? Self-excitation
57. The armature core in a DC machine is laminated to reduce? Eddy current loss
58. Slip ring is used in? Wound rotor induction motor
59. The starting torque of a squirrel cage motor is? Low to medium
60. The synchronous speed for a 6-pole motor at 50 Hz is? 1000 RPM

SSC JE Electrical – Technical MCQs with Answers

1. The function of a commutator in a DC generator is to

A) Convert AC to DC
B) Convert DC to AC
C) Reduce armature reaction
D) Improve efficiency
Answer: A
2. The frequency of generated EMF in an alternator depends on
A) Number of poles and flux
B) Speed and flux
C) Number of poles and speed
D) Armature current
Answer: C
3. The purpose of using laminations in the core of a transformer is to
A) Reduce eddy current loss
B) Increase hysteresis loss
C) Reduce copper loss
 D) Increase inductance
Answer: A
4. In a 3-phase induction motor, slip is the ratio of
A) Rotor speed to synchronous speed
B) Rotor copper loss to rotor input
C) Difference between synchronous speed and rotor speed to synchronous speed
D) Rotor resistance to stator resistance
Answer: C
5. The insulating material used in underground cables is generally
A) PVC
B) Paper
C) Mica
D) Rubber
Answer: B
6. Which instrument can measure both AC and DC?
A) Moving iron
B) Moving coil permanent magnet
C) Dynamometer type
D) Hot-wire type
Answer: A and C
7. In a transformer, voltage regulation will be negative if
A) Load is capacitive
B) Load is inductive
C) Power factor is zero
D) Core loss is high
Answer: A
8. The unit of reluctance is
A) AT/Wb
B) Wb/AT
C) Ohm
D) Henry
Answer: A
9. In power systems, Ferranti effect is more pronounced when
A) Load is heavy
B) Line is short
C) Line is long and lightly loaded
D) Frequency is low
Answer: C
10. The main advantage of a squirrel cage rotor over a slip ring rotor is
A) Higher starting torque
B) Lower cost and rugged construction
C) Easy speed control
D) Better efficiency
Answer: B
11. In a synchronous motor, hunting can be reduced by
A) Using damper windings
B) Increasing excitation
C) Using resistance in rotor circuit
D) Reducing supply frequency
Answer: A
12. Which law states that induced EMF is proportional to the rate of change of flux?
A) Lenz's law
B) Faraday's first law
C) Faraday's second law
D) Ampere's law
Answer: C
13. The power factor of a pure inductor is
A) 0
B) 1
C) Lagging
D) Zero lagging
Answer: D
14. The primary function of a breather in a transformer is to
A) Provide fresh air for cooling
B) Prevent moisture entry in oil
C) Filter out dust
D) Reduce copper loss
Answer: B
15. The skin effect in a conductor increases with
A) Decrease in frequency
B) Increase in frequency
C) Increase in resistivity
D) Decrease in diameter
Answer: B
16. Which type of protection is provided for alternators against stator winding faults?
A) Over-current relay
B) Differential protection
C) Over-voltage protection
D) Reverse power relay
Answer: B
17. In an induction motor, blocked rotor test is used to determine
A) Rotor resistance and leakage reactance
B) Magnetizing current
C) Efficiency
D) Slip at full load
Answer: A
18. The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when
A) Core loss = Copper loss
B) Core loss > Copper loss
C) Core loss < Copper loss
 D) Load is full
Answer: A
19. The diversity factor in a power system is
A) < 1
B) > 1
C) Equal to 1
D) Negative
Answer: B
20. The synchronous reactance of an alternator is the sum of
A) Armature resistance and leakage reactance
B) Armature resistance and reactance
C) Leakage reactance and armature reaction reactance
D) Only leakage reactance
Answer: C
21. 51. Which type of motor is used in ceiling fans?
A) DC series motor
B) Single-phase induction motor
C) Synchronous motor
D) Universal motor
Answer: B) Single-phase induction motor
22. 52. The unit of electric flux is:
A) Coulomb
B) Weber
C) Volt
D) Farad
Answer: B) Weber
23. 53. For maximum power transfer in AC circuits, load impedance should be:
A) Equal to source impedance
B) Equal to conjugate of source impedance
C) Double of source impedance
D) Half of source impedance
Answer: B) Equal to conjugate of source impedance
24. 54. The main purpose of using laminated sheets in transformers is:
A) To reduce copper loss
B) To reduce eddy current loss
C) To increase efficiency
D) To increase magnetic flux
Answer: B) To reduce eddy current loss
25. 55. Slip in an induction motor is:
A) Always negative
B) Zero at synchronous speed
C) Constant for all loads
D) 100% at no-load
Answer: B) Zero at synchronous speed
26. 56. In three-phase systems, the phase difference between line voltages is:
A) 90°
 B) 60°
C) 120°
D) 180°
Answer: C) 120°
27. 57. The function of a commutator in a DC motor is to:
A) Convert AC to DC
B) Convert DC to AC
C) Reverse current direction in armature winding
D) Reduce sparking
Answer: C) Reverse current direction in armature winding
28. 58. Which law states that the sum of currents entering a junction equals the sum of
currents leaving it?
A) Ohm’s law
B) Faraday’s law
C) Kirchhoff’s Current Law
D) Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law
Answer: C) Kirchhoff’s Current Law
29. 59. The dielectric strength of air is approximately:
A) 1 kV/mm
B) 3 kV/mm
C) 10 kV/mm
D) 30 kV/mm
Answer: B) 3 kV/mm
30. 60. Which type of starter is used for a squirrel cage induction motor?
A) Direct On Line (DOL) starter
B) Star-Delta starter
C) Auto-transformer starter
D) Rotor resistance starter
Answer: A) Direct On Line (DOL) starter
31.  The armature reaction in a DC generator causes
A) Increase in main flux
B) Decrease in main flux
C) No change in flux
D) Increase in speed
Answer: B) Decrease in main flux
32.  In a transformer, if the secondary load increases, the primary current
A) Decreases
B) Increases
C) Remains constant
D) Becomes zero
Answer: B) Increases
33.  Synchronous speed of a 4-pole alternator at 50 Hz is
A) 750 rpm
B) 1500 rpm
C) 3000 rpm
 D) 1000 rpm
Answer: B) 1500 rpm
34.  In a 3-phase induction motor, slip is zero when
A) Motor is at standstill
B) Motor runs at synchronous speed
C) Motor runs above synchronous speed
D) Rotor is short-circuited
Answer: B) Motor runs at synchronous speed
35.  In transmission lines, the corona effect is reduced by
A) Reducing conductor size
B) Using bundled conductors
C) Increasing voltage
D) Reducing spacing between conductors
Answer: B) Using bundled conductors
36.  A PMMC instrument measures
A) AC only
B) DC only
C) Both AC and DC
D) Reactive power
Answer: B) DC only
37.  The main function of a commutator in a DC motor is
A) Reduce losses
B) Change AC to DC
C) Convert DC to AC
D) Reverse current in armature winding
Answer: D) Reverse current in armature winding
38.  In a lead-acid battery, the active material of the positive plate is
A) Lead dioxide (PbO₂)
B) Sponge lead (Pb)
C) Lead sulphate (PbSO₄)
D) Graphite
Answer: A) Lead dioxide (PbO₂)
39.  The unit of reluctance is
A) Henry
B) Weber
C) Ampere-turn per Weber
D) Ohm
Answer: C) Ampere-turn per Weber
40.  Skin effect in conductors is
A) More at low frequency
B) More at high frequency
C) Same at all frequencies
D) Absent in DC
Answer: B) More at high frequency
41. In a three-phase balanced system, the sum of instantaneous currents is
A) Zero
B) Maximum
C) Minimum
D) Equal to line current
Answer: A) Zero
42. The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when
A) Iron loss = Copper loss
B) Iron loss > Copper loss
C) Copper loss > Iron loss
D) Load is full
Answer: A) Iron loss = Copper loss
43. Which protection is used for alternator stator winding faults?
A) Differential protection
B) Overcurrent relay
C) Distance protection
D) Reverse power protection
Answer: A) Differential protection
44. The dielectric strength of air is approximately
A) 3 kV/cm
B) 30 kV/cm
C) 300 kV/cm
D) 3000 kV/cm
Answer: B) 30 kV/cm
45. Power factor of a purely inductive circuit is
A) 0 lag
B) 0 lead
C) Unity
D) 0.5 lag
Answer: A) 0 lag
46. In a DC series motor, speed increases when
A) Load increases
B) Load decreases
C) Armature current increases
D) Supply voltage decreases
Answer: B) Load decreases
47. The frequency of a 6-pole alternator running at 1000 rpm is
A) 25 Hz
B) 50 Hz
C) 75 Hz
D) 100 Hz
Answer: B) 50 Hz
48. In a transmission line, Ferranti effect occurs when
A) Load is full
B) Load is light and length is long
C) Power factor is unity
 D) Voltage is low
Answer: B) Load is light and length is long
49. The speed of a squirrel cage induction motor is controlled by
A) Rotor resistance variation
B) Supply voltage variation
C) Pole changing
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
50. The most suitable material for transformer core is
A) Cast iron
B) Silicon steel
C) Aluminium
D) Copper
Answer: B) Silicon steel
51.  In power systems, corona loss increases with
A) Increase in conductor size
B) Decrease in voltage
C) Increase in supply frequency
D) Decrease in supply frequency
Answer: C) Increase in supply frequency
52.  Which motor is preferred for constant speed applications?
A) DC shunt motor
B) DC series motor
C) Synchronous motor
D) Universal motor
Answer: C) Synchronous motor
53.  The main advantage of auto-transformer over two-winding transformer is
A) Higher leakage reactance
B) Lower efficiency
C) Higher efficiency and smaller size
D) Better isolation
Answer: C) Higher efficiency and smaller size
54.  If load on a synchronous generator increases, the armature reaction is
A) Demagnetizing
B) Magnetizing
C) Cross-magnetizing
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
55.  In underground cables, the insulation resistance
A) Increases with temperature
B) Decreases with temperature
C) Remains constant
D) First increases then decreases
Answer: B) Decreases with temperature
56.  Slip of an induction motor at synchronous speed is
A) Zero
 B) 1%
C) 100%
D) 50%
Answer: C) 100%
57.  In an R-L circuit, the time constant is
A) L/R
B) R/L
C) 1/(R×L)
D) L×R
Answer: A) L/R
58.  For a given power, the transmission voltage is increased. This will
A) Increase line losses
B) Decrease line losses
C) Not affect line losses
D) Increase current
Answer: B) Decrease line losses
59.  In 3-phase induction motors, starting torque is increased by
A) Increasing rotor resistance
B) Decreasing rotor resistance
C) Increasing supply frequency
D) Increasing supply voltage only
Answer: A) Increasing rotor resistance
60.  A synchronous motor runs at
A) Below synchronous speed
B) Synchronous speed
C) Above synchronous speed
D) Any speed depending on load
Answer: B) Synchronous speed

ONTROL SYSTEMS – MCQ PRACTICE (JE Electrical Level)

1. A control system with feedback is called:

a) Open loop
b) Closed loop ✅
c) Unstable loop
d) Direct control

2. Which of the following is an example of an open-loop control system?

a) Automatic voltage regulator
b) Refrigerator thermostat
c) Electric toaster ✅
d) Cruise control in cars

3. The main advantage of closed-loop systems is:

a) Low cost
b) High accuracy ✅
c) High stability always
d) No need for feedback

4. Transfer function is defined as:

a) Output/Input in frequency domain
b) Output/Input in Laplace domain with zero initial conditions ✅
c) Voltage ratio in DC circuits
d) None of these

5. A block diagram represents:

a) Physical construction
b) Mathematical model ✅
c) Manufacturing process
d) None of these

6. In a block diagram, the point where two or more signals are algebraically added is called:
a) Junction
b) Summing point ✅
c) Take-off point
d) Feedback point

7. Signal Flow Graph analysis uses:

a) KVL and KCL
b) Mason’s Gain Formula ✅
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Fourier series

8. For a unit step response, the time taken to reach the first peak is called:
a) Rise time
b) Peak time ✅
c) Delay time
d) Settling time

9. Settling time is the time taken for the response to remain within:
a) ±50% of final value
b) ±10% of final value
c) ±5% or ±2% of final value ✅
d) ±1% of final value

10. A stable system is one where:

a) Input is zero
b) Output remains constant always
c) Bounded input gives bounded output ✅
d) Output is infinite
11. Routh-Hurwitz criterion is used to determine:
a) Time constant
b) Stability ✅
c) Frequency
d) Gain

12. If the first column of the Routh array has sign changes, the system is:
a) Stable
b) Unstable ✅
c) Marginally stable
d) Oscillatory

13. Gain Margin is measured in:

a) Hz
b) dB ✅
c) Degrees
d) Seconds

14. Phase Margin is measured in:

a) Hz
b) dB
c) Degrees ✅
d) Seconds

15. In Bode plot, the slope change for a simple pole is:
a) +20 dB/decade
b) −20 dB/decade ✅
c) +40 dB/decade
d) −40 dB/decade

16. Nyquist plot is used for:

a) Time domain analysis
b) Frequency domain stability analysis ✅
c) State space design
d) Finding damping ratio

17. Which controller eliminates steady-state error?

a) P
b) I ✅
c) D
d) PD

18. Which controller improves stability and reduces overshoot?

a) P
b) I
c) D ✅
d) PI

19. PID controller combines:

a) P + I
b) I + D
c) P + I + D ✅
d) P + D only

20. Digital control systems operate in:

a) Continuous time
b) Discrete time ✅
c) Both continuous and discrete
d) None

21. An example of SISO system is:

a) Aircraft control
b) Room heater ✅
c) Multiple generator load sharing
d) Chemical reactor control

22. In state space form, ‘A’ matrix represents:

a) Output coefficients
b) System dynamics ✅
c) Input coefficients
d) Output matrix

23. Which device is used for position feedback?

a) Tachogenerator
b) Potentiometer ✅
c) Synchro
d) Oscilloscope

24. A synchro is used for:

a) Position transducer ✅
b) Speed measurement
c) Voltage regulation
d) Phase measurement

25. A tachogenerator measures:

a) Position
b) Speed ✅
c) Voltage
d) Torque
26. Servomotors are used for:
a) High torque
b) Precise control ✅
c) Constant speed
d) Heavy load

27. Which type of system is affected by external disturbances more?

a) Open loop ✅
b) Closed loop
c) Digital
d) State space

28. If a system has zero steady-state error for a step input, it is at least:
a) Type 0
b) Type 1 ✅
c) Type 2
d) Type −1

29. A system with poles in the right half of s-plane is:

a) Stable
b) Unstable ✅
c) Marginally stable
d) Critically stable

30. Integral action in control systems:

a) Increases steady-state error
b) Eliminates steady-state error ✅
c) Decreases stability always
d) Increases overshoot only

Control Systems – Expected MCQs

1. In a unity feedback control system with open-loop transfer function

G(s)=10s(s+2)G(s) = \frac{10}{s(s+2)}G(s)=s(s+2)10

what is the type number of the system?

a) Type 0
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) Type ∞
✅ Answer: b) Type 1
(Type number = number of poles at origin in G(s)H(s))
2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of open-loop control systems?
a) Simple design
b) Easy to maintain
c) Cannot correct disturbances automatically
d) No need for feedback element
✅ Answer: c) Cannot correct disturbances automatically

3. In a first-order system, the time constant is the time required for the response to reach
approximately:
a) 37% of final value
b) 63% of final value
c) 100% of final value
d) 50% of final value
✅ Answer: b) 63% of final value

4. In the root locus, adding a zero will:

a) Shift the root locus towards the right
b) Shift the root locus towards the left
c) Increase the number of branches
d) Not affect the root locus
✅ Answer: b) Shift the root locus towards the left (generally improves stability)

5. The steady-state error for a step input in a Type 1 system is:

a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Non-zero finite value
d) Depends on gain only
✅ Answer: b) Zero

6. Which tool is used to determine the stability of a system without finding the roots of the
characteristic equation?
a) Bode plot
b) Nyquist plot
c) Routh-Hurwitz criterion
d) Nichols chart
✅ Answer: c) Routh-Hurwitz criterion
7. The unit of gain in Bode plot is usually expressed in:
a) Degrees
b) Decibels (dB)
c) Hertz
d) Seconds
✅ Answer: b) Decibels (dB)

8. The phase margin of a system indicates:

a) How far the system is from instability
b) The final value of the response
c) The gain required for stability
d) The speed of response
✅ Answer: a) How far the system is from instability

9. For a stable closed-loop control system, all poles must lie:

a) In the right-half s-plane
b) On the jω axis
c) In the left-half s-plane
d) At the origin
✅ Answer: c) In the left-half s-plane

10. The Laplace transform of e−atu(t)e^{-at}u(t)e−atu(t) is:

a) 1s−a\frac{1}{s-a}s−a1
b) 1s+a\frac{1}{s+a}s+a1
c) as\frac{a}{s}sa
d) 1s\frac{1}{s}s1
✅ Answer: b) 1s+a\frac{1}{s+a}s+a1

If you want, I can give you a full 100-question Control Systems MCQ set with solutions so
that you can quickly revise and cover maximum exam patterns in one go.
Do you want me to prepare that next?

You said:
yes give mcq without asking any more questions
ChatGPT said:

Alright — here’s a set of expected Control Systems MCQs (based on typical JE Electrical
level, similar to JKSSB syllabus):

1. The transfer function of a system is given by G(s)=10s(s+2)G(s) = \frac{10}

{s(s+2)}G(s)=s(s+2)10. The system is:
A) First order
B) Second order
C) Third order
D) Zero order
Answer: B) Second order

2. In a unity feedback system, the open-loop transfer function is Ks(s+5)\frac{K}

{s(s+5)}s(s+5)K. For a damping ratio of 0.5, the value of KKK is approximately:
A) 5
B) 10
C) 12.5
D) 25
Answer: D) 25

3. The steady-state error for a ramp input in a Type-1 system is:

A) Zero
B) Finite constant
C) Infinite
D) Depends on gain
Answer: B) Finite constant

4. Which of the following can improve the steady-state error without affecting the stability of the
system?
A) Increasing proportional gain
B) Increasing derivative gain
C) Increasing integral gain
D) Adding lead compensator
Answer: C) Increasing integral gain
5. The root locus starts from:
A) Zeros of the transfer function
B) Poles of the transfer function
C) Origin only
D) Infinity
Answer: B) Poles of the transfer function

6. Which frequency domain plot is most useful for determining gain margin and phase margin?
A) Nyquist plot
B) Root locus
C) Bode plot
D) Nichols chart
Answer: C) Bode plot

7. A proportional-derivative (PD) controller improves:

A) Steady-state error only
B) Transient response only
C) Both steady-state and transient response
D) None of these
Answer: B) Transient response only

8. A Type-0 system subjected to a step input will have:

A) Zero steady-state error
B) Finite steady-state error
C) Infinite steady-state error
D) Oscillatory output
Answer: A) Zero steady-state error

9. In a lead compensator, the maximum phase lead occurs at:

A) Low frequency
B) Mid frequency
C) High frequency
D) Infinite frequency
Answer: B) Mid frequency
10. If the Nyquist plot of a system encircles the point (-1, j0) once in the clockwise direction, the
system is:
A) Stable
B) Marginally stable
C) Unstable
D) Stable only if gain < 1
Answer: C) Unstable

Control Systems – Expected MCQs

1. In a closed-loop control system, the output has an effect on:

A) Input only
B) Feedback only
C) Input signal through feedback
D) None of these
Answer: C

2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of open-loop control systems?

A) They are economical
B) They are more stable
C) They are inaccurate due to disturbances
D) They are simple in design
Answer: C

3. Which type of system is represented by y(t)=Kx(t)y(t) = Kx(t)y(t)=Kx(t)?

A) Linear time-variant
B) Linear time-invariant
C) Non-linear
D) Time-variant
Answer: B

4. Tachogenerators are used to measure:

A) Acceleration
B) Speed
C) Position
D) Force
Answer: B

5. The transfer function is defined as the ratio of:

A) Output to input in the time domain
B) Laplace transform of output to Laplace transform of input with zero initial conditions
C) Input to output in frequency domain
D) None of these
Answer: B
6. Which device converts electrical signal into mechanical motion?
A) Potentiometer
B) Synchro
C) Servo motor
D) Amplifier
Answer: C

7. The steady-state error for a type-1 system to a step input is:

A) Zero
B) Infinity
C) 1/K
D) None of these
Answer: A

8. For a stable system, all the poles of transfer function must lie:
A) In right half of s-plane
B) On the imaginary axis
C) In left half of s-plane
D) Anywhere in s-plane
Answer: C

9. The Nyquist plot is used for the determination of:

A) Relative stability
B) Absolute stability
C) Both A and B
D) Gain margin only
Answer: C

10. Which of the following is not a time-domain specification?

A) Rise time
B) Overshoot
C) Phase margin
D) Settling time
Answer: C

11. In root locus, the root moves on real axis between:

A) Zero and infinity
B) Poles and zeros
C) Zeros only
D) Poles only
Answer: B

12. The damping ratio of a critically damped system is:

A) 0
B) 1
C) Less than 1
D) Greater than 1
Answer: B

13. Bode plot is drawn between:

A) Frequency vs magnitude (dB) and phase
B) Time vs output
C) Gain vs phase
D) Input vs output
Answer: A

14. Which of these is a second-order system?

A) RC circuit
B) Mass-spring-damper
C) Pure integrator
D) Potentiometer
Answer: B

15. The unit of gain cross-over frequency is:

A) Seconds
B) Hertz
C) Radians
D) None
Answer: B

16. Lead compensators are used to improve:

A) Steady-state error
B) Transient response
C) Stability margin
D) Both B and C
Answer: D

17. A system with transfer function G(s)H(s)=Ks(s+2)G(s)H(s) = \frac{K}

{s(s+2)}G(s)H(s)=s(s+2)K is of type:
A) Type 0
B) Type 1
C) Type 2
D) Type -1
Answer: B

18. Which theorem is used to simplify block diagrams?

A) Norton’s theorem
B) Mason’s gain formula
C) Superposition theorem
D) Thevenin’s theorem
Answer: B
19. Servo systems are mainly used for:
A) Temperature control
B) Position control
C) Voltage regulation
D) Frequency measurement
Answer: B

20. The phase margin of a stable system is generally kept between:

A) 0° and 20°
B) 20° and 45°
C) 45° and 60°
D) 60° and 90°
Answer: C

21. In a unity feedback control system, the open-loop transfer function is G(s)=10s(s+2)G(s) = \
frac{10}{s(s+2)}G(s)=s(s+2)10. The system type is:
A) Type-0
B) Type-1
C) Type-2
D) Type-3
Answer: B) Type-1

22. For a stable control system, all poles of the closed-loop transfer function must be:
A) In the right half of the s-plane
B) On the jω-axis
C) In the left half of the s-plane
D) Anywhere in the s-plane
Answer: C) In the left half of the s-plane

23. The damping ratio ζ=1\zeta = 1ζ=1 corresponds to:

A) Underdamped
B) Overdamped
C) Critically damped
D) Undamped
Answer: C) Critically damped

24. In Bode plot, a slope of −40 dB/decade indicates:

A) A single pole
B) A single zero
C) Two poles
D) Two zeros
Answer: C) Two poles

25. Which of the following is an example of a first-order system?

A) RLC circuit
B) RC circuit
C) DC motor armature control
D) Mass-spring-damper without friction
Answer: B) RC circuit

26. The phase margin is measured at:

A) Frequency where gain is 0 dB
B) Frequency where phase is −180°
C) DC frequency
D) Infinite frequency
Answer: B) Frequency where phase is −180°

27. The steady-state error for a unit step input in a Type-0 system with unity feedback is:
A) 0
B) 1/K
C) ∞
D) 1/(1+K)
Answer: D) 1/(1+K)

28. In a Nyquist plot, encirclement of the point (−1+j0) is related to:

A) Root locus
B) Bode plot
C) Nyquist stability criterion
D) Routh array
Answer: C) Nyquist stability criterion

29. The purpose of adding a lead compensator is to:

A) Increase phase margin
B) Reduce bandwidth
C) Increase steady-state error
D) Reduce gain
Answer: A) Increase phase margin

30. Transfer function of a proportional controller is:

A) K
B) KsKsKs
C) K/sK/sK/s
D) 1/K1/K1/K
Answer: A) K

1. The Laplace transform of a unit step function u(t)u(t)u(t) is:

a) 1/s1/s1/s
b) sss
c) 111
d) s2s^2s2
Answer: a) 1/s1/s1/s
2. Which of the following is a type of feedback used in control systems?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Both a and b
d) None
Answer: c) Both a and b

3. In a stable system, all the poles of the transfer function must lie in:
a) Right half of s-plane
b) Left half of s-plane
c) On jω axis
d) Origin
Answer: b) Left half of s-plane

4. The time constant of a first-order system is the time taken to reach:

a) 63.2% of final value
b) 50% of final value
c) 100% of final value
d) 37% of final value
Answer: a) 63.2% of final value

5. In a unity feedback control system, the open-loop transfer function is G(s)=Ks(s+3)G(s) = \

frac{K}{s(s+3)}G(s)=s(s+3)K. The type of system is:
a) Type 0
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) None
Answer: b) Type 1

6. Which test is used to check the stability of a system without solving the characteristic
equation?
a) Nyquist
b) Bode
c) Routh-Hurwitz
d) Root locus
Answer: c) Routh-Hurwitz

7. The steady-state error for a step input in a type 1 system is:

a) Zero
b) Infinity
c) Finite
d) Depends on K
Answer: a) Zero

8. The root locus starts at:

a) Poles
b) Zeros
c) Both poles and zeros
d) Origin only
Answer: a) Poles

9. The final value theorem in Laplace transform is given by:

a) lim⁡t→0f(t)=lim⁡s→∞sF(s)\lim_{t \to 0} f(t) = \lim_{s \to \infty} sF(s)limt→0f(t)=lims→∞
sF(s)
b) lim⁡t→∞f(t)=lim⁡s→0sF(s)\lim_{t \to \infty} f(t) = \lim_{s \to 0} sF(s)limt→∞f(t)=lims→0
sF(s)
c) lim⁡t→∞f(t)=lim⁡s→∞F(s)\lim_{t \to \infty} f(t) = \lim_{s \to \infty} F(s)limt→∞f(t)=lims→∞
F(s)
d) None of these
Answer: b) lim⁡t→∞f(t)=lim⁡s→0sF(s)\lim_{t \to \infty} f(t) = \lim_{s \to 0} sF(s)limt→∞
f(t)=lims→0sF(s)

10. For a stable feedback system, the gain margin should be:
a) Positive
b) Zero
c) Negative
d) Infinite
Answer: a) Positive

51. Which of the following is the Laplace transform of a unit impulse δ(t)?
A) 1/s
B) 1
C) s
D) 0
Answer: B

52. In a unity feedback system, the open-loop transfer function is G(s)=10s(s+2)G(s) = \frac{10}
{s(s+2)}G(s)=s(s+2)10. The steady-state error for a unit ramp input is:
A) 0
B) 0.5
C) 0.2
D) ∞
Answer: C

53. For a type-1 system, the steady-state error for a step input is:
A) 0
B) 1
C) ∞
D) 0.5
Answer: A
54. The magnitude plot in a Bode diagram for a first-order system has a slope of:
A) +20 dB/decade
B) -20 dB/decade
C) -40 dB/decade
D) 0 dB/decade
Answer: B

55. In root locus, as gain K → ∞, the locus approaches:

A) Origin
B) Zeros
C) Poles
D) Infinity along asymptotes
Answer: B & D (depends on location of zeros)

56. A system with more poles than zeros will have asymptotes whose angles are given by:
A) (2q+1)180°n−m\frac{(2q+1)180°}{n-m}n−m(2q+1)180°
B) q⋅360°n\frac{q \cdot 360°}{n}nq⋅360°
C) (2q+1)90°n−m\frac{(2q+1)90°}{n-m}n−m(2q+1)90°
D) None of these
Answer: A

57. In a Nyquist plot, encirclements of the point (-1,0) relate to:

A) System bandwidth
B) Gain margin
C) Stability by Nyquist criterion
D) Natural frequency
Answer: C

58. Which one is NOT a method of improving system stability?

A) Adding a compensator
B) Increasing gain without analysis
C) Pole-zero cancellation
D) Increasing phase margin
Answer: B

59. The time constant τ of a first-order system is defined as:

A) Time to reach 100% of final value
B) Time to reach 37% of final value
C) Time to reach 63.2% of final value
D) Time to reach half of final value
Answer: C

60. The transfer function of a PD controller is:

A) Kp+KdsK_p + K_d sKp+Kds
B) Kp1+Kds\frac{K_p}{1 + K_d s}1+KdsKp
C) KdsKp\frac{K_d s}{K_p}KpKds
D) Kp+KdsK_p + \frac{K_d}{s}Kp+sKd
Answer: A