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The document contains examination details for the Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024 for candidate Suman Kumar Behera, including exam date, time, and venue. It features a series of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering numerical and mathematical ability, reasoning ability, and problem-solving skills, with answers provided for each question. The document is structured into sections, with various questions related to mathematical problems, logical reasoning, and coding patterns.

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Available Formats
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
6 views29 pages

Per g27 Pub 32874 Touchstone AssessmentQPHTMLMode1 32874O2470 32874O2470S67D156718 17423955932292644 4602007964 32874O2470S67D156718E1.html#

The document contains examination details for the Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024 for candidate Suman Kumar Behera, including exam date, time, and venue. It features a series of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering numerical and mathematical ability, reasoning ability, and problem-solving skills, with answers provided for each question. The document is structured into sections, with various questions related to mathematical problems, logical reasoning, and coding patterns.

Uploaded by

samkumar9607
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Multi Tasking Non Technical Staff and Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Roll Number 4602007964


Candidate
SUMAN KUMAR BEHERA
Name
Venue Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Khallikote College Area
Exam Date 22/10/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination
Subject
2024

Section : Numerical and Mathematical Ability

Q.1 The given bar given shows the income and expenditure (in ₹ lakh) of 5 companies (A, B, C, D,
and E) in the year 2022. Study the graph and answer the question that follows.

Which company earned the maximum percentage profit in the year 2022?
Ans 1. D

2. B

3. E

4. C

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680815897
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.2
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680500478
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.3 During the evening patrolling, a policeman noticed a thief snatching a lady’s mobile phone at
a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running at a speed of 15 km/hr. If the policeman is
chasing him at a speed of 16 km/hr, then the time taken to catch the thief is:
Ans 1. 30 minutes

2. 18 minutes

3. 24 minutes

4. 12 minutes

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680262279
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.4 What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 8% per year rate of interest?
Ans 1. 1000

2. 1500

3. 375

4. 750

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680612177
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.5 There are two types of dal. Type 1 dal costs ₹100 per kg and type 2 dal costs ₹120 per kg,
respectively. If both the dal are mixed in the ratio 2 : 3, find the cost of the mixed dal per kg.
Ans 1. ₹115

2. ₹114

3. ₹112

4. ₹110

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680449414
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.6 A television costs₹20,500 for a trader. He fixes its marked price as₹24,000 and gives a
discount of 15%.He further gives a discount of 5%for cash payment. Find his percentage of
profit or loss.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680422395
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.7 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 9% per year rate of interest for
4 years.
Ans 1. 1120

2. 1020

3. 1040

4. 1080

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680591955
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.8 A borrows ₹7,500 for 4 years at 8% p.a. simple interest. B borrows the same amount at
simple interest of 9% for the first year, 10% for the second year and 6% for the next two years.
What is simple interest paid by A and B in total (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 4,175

2. 4,275

3. 4,545

4. 4,725

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680397531
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.9

Ans 1. 1520

2. 1678

3. 1799

4. 1898

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680523771
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.10 The average of runs scored by a player in 22 innings is 40 runs. How many runs should he
score in the 23rd innings so that his average is increased by 6 runs?
Ans 1. 158 runs

2. 188 runs

3. 148 runs

4. 178 runs

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680205674
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.11 The perimeter of a rhombus is 160 cm and one of its diagonals has a length 50 cm. Find the
area (in cm2) of the rhombus.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680526627
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.12

Ans 1. 25 cm

2. 19 cm

3. 31.5 cm

4. 17.5 cm

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680441000
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.13

Ans 1. 3256

2. 3854

3. 3145

4. 3696

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680379692
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.14 In a box, Refrigerator covers and Washing Machine covers are in the ratio of 7 : 11. If the
Washing Machine covers are 660, how many Refrigerator covers are there?
Ans 1. 420

2. 430

3. 410

4. 400

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680456901
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.15 P, Q and R start running around a circular track and complete one round in 18, 22 and 30
seconds, respectively. In how much time will they meet again at the starting point?
Ans 1. 16 min 50 sec

2. 16 min 30 sec

3. 11 min 50 sec

4. 11 min 30 sec

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680401008
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.16 When 80% of a number is added to 80, the result is the same number. Find the number.
Ans 1. 320

2. 400

3. 420

4. 380

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680484331
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.17 Aditya bought a mobile for ₹21,500 and sold it for ₹18,500. Find the loss percentage (up to
two decimal places) in the complete process.
Ans 1. 11.25%

2. 12.38%

3. 10.69%

4. 13.95%

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680468811
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.18 The average of 42 numbers is 25 and that of other 28 numbers is 40. What is the average of
all the numbers?
Ans 1. 31

2. 30

3. 70

4. 69

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680484319
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.19 Find the HCF of the numbers 216, 360 and 504.
Ans 1. 180

2. 72

3. 252

4. 108

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 63068076010
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.20

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680447326
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Section : Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving

Q.1 Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre (but
not necessarily in the same order). Exactly three people are sitting between A and B when
counted from the right of A. Exactly two people are sitting between D and G when counted
from the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G. D is sitting to the immediate left of
B. Exactly three people are sitting between E and F when counted from the right of E. B and E
are not immediate neighbours. How many people are sitting between E and G when counted
from the right of E?
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 3

4. 2

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680387580
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.2 Find the missing term in the below series:


B2, C3, E5, G7, __, M13, Q17.
Ans 1. K11

2. H7

3. I10

4. J10

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680401281
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.3 This question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
given statements.
Statements:
All jugs are taps.
Some taps are hats.
Conclusions:
(I) Some taps are jugs.
(II)All hats are jugs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680106422
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.4 UKCT is related to QGYP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same
way, LPBR is related to HLXN. To which of the following is DGYJ related, following the same
logic?
Ans 1. YCSE

2. ZBSF

3. XBUF

4. ZCUF

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680528972
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.5 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are
interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

3–2÷8×4+2=?
Ans 1. 17

2. 8

3. 5

4. 14

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680378861
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.6 I, J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily
in the same order). J sits fourth to the right of I. K sits to the immediate right of J. L sits to
the immediate right of I. N sits fourth to the left of M. M is not an immediate neighbour of K.
How many people sit between O and N when counted from the right of O?
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 5

4. 3

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680412876
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.7 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
Some potatoes are tomatoes.
No tomato is an onion.

Conclusions:
(I) Some tomatoes may be potatoes.
(II) No potato is an onion.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Both conclusions I and II follow

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680410638
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.8 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(8, 24, 12)

(16, 20, 5)
Ans 1. (19, 57, 12)

2. (13, 24, 8)

3. (17, 75, 18)

4. (21, 88, 16)

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680381665
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.9 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown
below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680525270
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘SANE’ is coded as ‘5168’ and ‘GOAT’ is coded as ‘6437’.What is
the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 1

4. 6

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680436122
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.11 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete
the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680273995
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.12

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680439107
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.13 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(5, 40, 7)
(12, 65, 5)
Ans 1. (2, 10, 3)

2. (6, 24, 2)

3. (9, 41,5)

4. (3, 14, 3)

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680799051
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.14

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680233739
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.15 DG 25 is related to FH 21 in a certain way. In the same way, GI 19 is related to IJ 15. To which
of the following is MI 24 related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. PJ 20

2. OJ 20

3. OK 20

4. PO 20

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680422976
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.16 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are
interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
14 ÷ 12 − 2 + 2 × 16 = ?
Ans 1. 24

2. 20

3. 18

4. 42

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680378774
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.17 In a certain code language, ‘MELT’ is coded as ‘6284’ and ‘TUNE’ is coded as ‘9758’. What is
the code for ‘T’ in that language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 8

3. 4

4. 5

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680386584
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘COPY’ is coded as ‘2465’ and ‘PLAN’ is coded as ‘3759’. What is
the code for ‘P’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 5

3. 6

4. 3

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680846722
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.19 What should come in place ofthe question mark (?) in the given series?

5 ,15, 45, 135 ,405 ,?


Ans 1. 1125

2. 1215

3. 1255

4. 1315

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680799066
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.20 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT
allowed).

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680487089
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Section : General Awareness


Q.1 Rani ki Vav is a UNESCO world heritage monument, situated in which of the following states?
Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Karnataka

3. Haryana

4. Maharashtra

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680547297
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.2 When protein-rich gelatinous egg white is heated, it turns to solid white due to:
Ans 1. Fermentation

2. Protein Denaturation

3. Emulsification

4. Gluten Formation

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680452690
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.3 Which of the following is an example of the first garden-tomb on the Indian subcontinent?
Ans 1. Safdarjung's tomb

2. Tomb of Tansen

3. Tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah

4. Humayun’s tomb

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680318915
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.4 The Prime Minister in India is ________.


Ans 1. a nominal executive

2. the head of the judiciary

3. the Supreme Commander of Armed Forces

4. the real executive

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680216167
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.5 In April 2023, who was appointed as the chairman of the National Technical Research
Organisation (NTRO) by the centre?
Ans 1. Anil Dhasmana

2. Ajit Doval

3. Arun Sinha

4. Arvind Kumar

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680488502
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.6 What is the collection of Vedic hymns or ‘mantras’ called?


Ans 1. Smriti

2. Shruti

3. Samhita

4. Upanishad

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680339493
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.7 In which of the following states are the Nor Westers known as ‘Bardoisila’?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Goa

3. Bihar

4. Assam

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680484489
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.8 Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry is included in which of the following
Articles of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Article 48

2. Article 47

3. Article 46

4. Article 45

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680759519
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.9 Which of the following is NOT an element of weather?
Ans 1. Rainfall

2. Temperature

3. Plants

4. Humidity

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680797931
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.10 Bathukamma festival is celebrated in which of the following states?


Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Chhattisgarh

3. Manipur

4. Telangana

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680798922
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.11 According to the Census of India-2011, what is the share of workforce engaged in the
agriculture sector?
Ans 1. 54.6%

2. 48.9%

3. 45.8%

4. 65.3%

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680511283
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.12 In which of the following Indian states is the M.A. Chidambaram Stadium located?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Karnataka

4. Kerala

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680710801
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.13 Which of the following organisms is used in bread and alcohol industries?
Ans 1. Nitrobacter

2. Yeast

3. Clostridium

4. Penicillium

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 63068070128
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.14 Which of the following is NOT a component of revenue receipt?


Ans 1. GST

2. Amount borrowed from World Bank

3. Grant received by UNESCO

4. Fees paid for the registration of property

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680448009
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.15 0.25 g of an organic compound, on treatment with fuming nitric acid followed by AgNO3,
gave 0.22 g of AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the compound is ______.
Ans 1. 88.00%

2. 34.04%

3. 50.00%

4. 37.45%

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680472233
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.16 The Indian Forest Service was created under the All India Service Act, 1951 in ______.
Ans 1. 1954

2. 1060

3. 1966

4. 1957

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680275264
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.17 In Union Budget 2023-24, annual production of 5 MMT under Green Hydrogen Mission is to
be targeted by the year ___________ to facilitate transition of the economy to low carbon
intensity.
Ans 1. 2030

2. 2032

3. 2023

4. 2027

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680467185
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.18 Usha Barle, who won Padma Shri 2023, is popularly associated with which genre of music?
Ans 1. Panihari

2. Kajari

3. Pandwani

4. Lavani

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680482395
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.19 Identify the correct statement with reference to the Padma awards.
Ans 1. The names of the awardees are never published in the Gazette of India.

2. The total number of Padma awards to be given in a year should not more than 150.

3. The Padma Awards are given annually.

4. The Padma award can be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680512004
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.20 Alarmel Valli was associated with which of the following dances?
Ans 1. Odissi

2. Manipuri

3. Kathak

4. Bharatanatyam

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680547161
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.21 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A)Balshastri Jambhekar started the first Anglo- Maratha newspaper - ‘Durpun’, in 1832.
B)He is remembered as the father of Marathi journalism.
C)Balshastri Jambhekar published the first Marathi monthly magazine - ‘Digdurshun’ in 1840.
Ans 1. Both A and B

2. Only B

3. A, B and C

4. Only A

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680275933
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.22 In which of the following years India hosted the Women's Asia Cup ODI Cricket?
Ans 1. 2007

2. 2005

3. 2004

4. 2006

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680799006
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.23 The famous English novel ‘Em and the Big Hoom’ is written by:
Ans 1. Jerry Pinto

2. Shashi Tharoor

3. Esther David

4. Amitav Ghosh

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680409457
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.24 According to the Census of India 2011, what was the population growth rate in Kerala?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 63068090224
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.25 According to the Census 2011, what was the annual population growth rate of India (in
percentage)?
Ans 1. 1.64%

2. 2.22%

3. 1.97%

4. 2.16%

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680309114
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Confession is good for the soul ________________ after the soul has been claimed.

Ans 1. since

2. though

3. still

4. even

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680549314
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word.
Species
Ans 1. Whole

2. Type

3. Multiply

4. Detail

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680381374
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.3 Select the correct spelling to fill in the blank.

Wedding is an auspicious _______ for all.


Ans 1. occasion

2. occation

3. ocassion

4. occassion

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680640962
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She was a ________, ________ __________astronaut.


Ans 1. tall, Indian, smart

2. tall, smart, Indian

3. smart, tall, Indian

4. smart, Indian, tall

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680544624
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.5 Identify the word with a spelling error in the following sentence. Select the option that
correctly rectifies the error.
In Shakespeare’s play ‘Hamlet’, Hamlet’s flaw is defined as procrustineition.
Ans 1. procrastination

2. procrustination

3. procristineition

4. pracrostination

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680195447
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.6 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.


Commence
Ans 1. Escort

2. Subvert

3. Start

4. Exert

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680438010
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.7 Read the following sentence and select its future tense form from the options given below:
Sarah and Fidha entered into an agreement to share the resources that are currently
accessible.
Ans 1. Sarah and Fidha will enter into an agreement to share the resources that are currently
accessible.
2. Sarah and Fidha are entering into an agreement to share the resources that are
currently accessible.
3. Sarah and Fidha were entered into an agreement to share the resources that are
currently accessible.
4. Sarah and Fidha had entered into an agreement to share the resources that are
currently accessible.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 6306801106301
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

When Mr. Bhanot was told a few years back that he needed to lose _____ or face health
problems, he transformed his life with the _________ of a personal trainer.
Ans 1. patience; guidance

2. weight; help

3. money; instructions

4. wait; assistance

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680546888
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.9 In the given sentence, one of the four underlined words is incorrectly spelt. Identify the
INCORRECTLY spelt word.

She dabbled in drawing and painting, but scalpture was her favourite medium.
Ans 1. favourite

2. scalpture

3. drawing

4. dabbled

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680616818
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.10 Select the sentence with the most appropriate comparative degree.
Ans 1. She is the talentedest musician in the orchestra.

2. She is more talented musician in the orchestra.

3. She is the most talented musician in the orchestra.

4. She is the talent of all musicians in the orchestra.

Note: For this question, discrepancy is found in question/answer. Full Marks is being awarded
to all candidates.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680404077
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.
Shebna decided to take a break in social media, but she found it difficult to disconnect
completely.

Ans 1. a break up social media

2. a break down social media

3. a break of social media

4. a break from social media

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680709777
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.


Let the cat out of the bag
Ans 1. To release a cat out of a bag

2. To buy a cat and a bag

3. To reveal a secret

4. To not allow a cat into the bag

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 63068066304
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.13 Select the correct indefinite article to fill in the blank.

My neighbour is ______ passionate photographer.


Ans 1. a

2. the

3. an

4. one

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680779761
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.14 Based on the situation in the sentence, choose the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.
You cannot _________________ before replicating your successes and achievements multiple
times; otherwise, people will deem your success a stroke of dumb luck.
Ans 1. sit on the fence

2. cut to the chase

3. play devil's advocate

4. rest on your laurels

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680449770
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.15 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Tranquil
Ans 1. Shabby

2. Serene

3. Unquiet

4. Composed

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680549420
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.16 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the bracketed word in the sentence given below.

Surrounded by lush greenery, the house stood _____________ (submissively) atop a hill.
Ans 1. Magically

2. Silently

3. Proudly

4. Civilly

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680455668
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.17 In the following sentence the underlined part contains an error. Alternatives to the underlined
part are given as options.
Select the correct alternative.
Mary is the quieter student of the class.
Ans 1. more quiet

2. most quiet

3. quiet

4. quietest

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680514709
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Callous
Ans 1. Tender

2. Augment

3. Beguile

4. Desolate

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680503162
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.19 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I couldn't believe how _______ the math problem was; it took me hours to solve it.
Ans 1. good

2. easily

3. complicated

4. simply

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680490332
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.20 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains a
grammatical error.

Ms. Malathi is old much to join a college now.


Ans 1. old much

2. to join

3. a college now

4. Ms. Malathi is

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680146968
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Education is fundamental for achieving full human potential, developing an equitable and
(1)__________ society, and promoting national development. Providing universal (2)__________
quality education is the key to India’s continued ascent, and leadership on the global stage in
terms of economic growth, social justice and equality, scientific advancement, national
integration, and cultural preservation. Universal high-quality education is the best way
(3)__________ for developing and maximising our country's rich talents and resources for the
good (4)__________ the individual, the society, the country and the world. India (5)___________
the highest population of young people in the world over the next decade, and our ability to
provide high-quality educational opportunities to them will determine the future of our country.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. just

2. much

3. such

4. more

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680130511
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Education is fundamental for achieving full human potential, developing an equitable and
(1)__________ society, and promoting national development. Providing universal (2)__________
quality education is the key to India’s continued ascent, and leadership on the global stage in
terms of economic growth, social justice and equality, scientific advancement, national
integration, and cultural preservation. Universal high-quality education is the best way
(3)__________ for developing and maximising our country's rich talents and resources for the
good (4)__________ the individual, the society, the country and the world. India (5)___________
the highest population of young people in the world over the next decade, and our ability to
provide high-quality educational opportunities to them will determine the future of our country.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. access from

2. access for

3. access to

4. access at

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680130512
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Education is fundamental for achieving full human potential, developing an equitable and
(1)__________ society, and promoting national development. Providing universal (2)__________
quality education is the key to India’s continued ascent, and leadership on the global stage in
terms of economic growth, social justice and equality, scientific advancement, national
integration, and cultural preservation. Universal high-quality education is the best way
(3)__________ for developing and maximising our country's rich talents and resources for the
good (4)__________ the individual, the society, the country and the world. India (5)___________
the highest population of young people in the world over the next decade, and our ability to
provide high-quality educational opportunities to them will determine the future of our country.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. result

2. output

3. outcome

4. forward

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680130513
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Education is fundamental for achieving full human potential, developing an equitable and
(1)__________ society, and promoting national development. Providing universal (2)__________
quality education is the key to India’s continued ascent, and leadership on the global stage in
terms of economic growth, social justice and equality, scientific advancement, national
integration, and cultural preservation. Universal high-quality education is the best way
(3)__________ for developing and maximising our country's rich talents and resources for the
good (4)__________ the individual, the society, the country and the world. India (5)___________
the highest population of young people in the world over the next decade, and our ability to
provide high-quality educational opportunities to them will determine the future of our country.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. for

2. from

3. at

4. of

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680130514
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and
select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

Education is fundamental for achieving full human potential, developing an equitable and
(1)__________ society, and promoting national development. Providing universal (2)__________
quality education is the key to India’s continued ascent, and leadership on the global stage in
terms of economic growth, social justice and equality, scientific advancement, national
integration, and cultural preservation. Universal high-quality education is the best way
(3)__________ for developing and maximising our country's rich talents and resources for the
good (4)__________ the individual, the society, the country and the world. India (5)___________
the highest population of young people in the world over the next decade, and our ability to
provide high-quality educational opportunities to them will determine the future of our country.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. were having

2. will have

3. can has

4. might had

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 630680130515
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

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