A-08216/6400

QUESTION BOOKLET
Booklet Serial No.: Roll No:

Time Allowed: 02 Hours Total Marks: 100

DO NOT OPEN THE QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1) You are required to write your Roll Number in the prescribed place provided at the top of
this Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet.
2) Please ensure that the Question Booklet has the required number of pages immediately after
opening the same. In case there is any shortage of any page(s), please report the same to
the invigilator.
3) This Question Booklet consists of 100 multiple choice questions to be answered in a
separate OMR ANSWER SHEET using Blue/Black Ball Pen.
Do Not Use Ink/Gel Pen.
 All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
 There is no negative marking for wrong answers.
Directions for answering the questions:
Each question is followed by four alternative suggested answers. You are required
to select the correct answer and darken the appropriate circle of A, B, C and D by
Blue/ Black ball pen in such a manner that the circle is completely darkened.
Example: Question No.33
Given below are four odd words, three are alike in some way and one is different.
Find the odd word:
(A) Cricket (B) Hockey
(C) Football (D) Chess
Here the correct answer is Chess (indoor game) i.e., (D).
So, in the OMR Answer Sheet the darkened circle should be marked as
A B C D
33.

4) In any case, if more than one circle against each question in the OMR sheet is darkened,
that particular question would be treated as invalid and will not be evaluated.
5) At the end of the examination, the candidate should ensure that he/she submits the OMR
Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall /
room.
6) No rough work is to be done on the OMR Answer Sheet. You can do the rough work on the
space provided on the Question Booklet.
7) Use and possession of mobile phones, smart watches and calculators are strictly prohibited
inside examination hall/ room.
8) Non-compliance with any of the above instructions will make a candidate liable to
action/ penalty as may be deemed fit.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Direction (Q.1-Q.5) - From the following questions, choose the option that reflects the closest meaning
of the given idioms and phrases:

1. A stitch in time saves nine

(A) Sewing is an easy task
(B) Taking prompt action prevents bigger problems
(C) Time is wasted when sewing
(D) Nine stitches are always needed to fix clothes

2. Actions speak louder than words

(A) Talking is more important than doing
(B) Sometimes words can be harmful
(C) What people do is more important than what they say
(D) Silence is golden

3. Let the cat out of the bag

(A) To lose a pet (C) To let go of the past
(B) To reveal a secret accidentally (D) To get into trouble
4. Burning the midnight oil
(A) Sleeping late (C) Starting a fire
(B) Working late at night (D) Wasting energy
5. Hit the sack
(A) To punch a sack (C) To start working hard
(B) To go to bed/sleep (D) To win a prize

Direction (Q.6-Q.10) - Identify the incorrect phrase or suggest corrections within the given sentences.
If the sentence does not require any correction than option (D) may be marked:

6. She is looking forward to meet you soon

(A) looking forward to meeting (C) She was
(B) She has been (D) No error
7. Neither of the students have completed their assignments.
(A) Neither of the student (C) has completed
(B) None of the students (D) No Error
8. Hardly I reached home when it started to rain.
(A) Hardly I had reached home (C) Hardly had I reached home
(B) Hardly I have reached home (D) No Error

9. He is capable of solving the problem quickly.

(A) He is capable to solve (C) He has been capable to solve
(B) He is capable to solving (D) No Error.

10. Everybody have submitted their homework on time.

(A) Everybody have been (C) Everybody has
(B) Everybody had been (D) No Error

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Direction (Q.11-Q.15) - Choose the most appropriate one-word substitute of the following explanations:

11. A person who loves books is called

(A) Bibliophile (C) Biographer
(B) Book worm (D) Philosopher
12. A place where coins are made is called
(A) Smith (C) Mill
(B) Mint (D) Workshop
13. A person who writes a dictionary is called
(A) Biographer (C) Cartographer
(B) Lexicographer (D) Editor
14. A disease that spreads quickly in a smaller area, among many people called
(A) Endemic (C) Epidemic
(B) Pandemic (D) Chronic
15. A speech that praises someone who has died is called
(A) Sermon (C) Panegyric
(B) Homily (D) Eulogy

Direction (Q.16-Q.20) - Choose the synonym of the highlighted / underlined word:

16. The manager asked the staff to be more diligent in their work.
(A) Strong (C) Hardworking
(B) Careful (D) Indifferent

17. The professor was known for his meticulous grading of papers.
(A) Careless (C) Lenient
(B) Thorough (D) Unusual

18. Her frivolous behaviour annoyed the serious committee members.

(A) Silly (C) Important
(B) Serious (D) Necessary

19. His explanation was ambiguous and confused everyone.

(A) Complicated (C) Vague
(B) Difficult (D) Honest

20. She gave a timid response to the question.

(A) Bold (C) Confident
(B) Shy (D) Loud

21. Which of the following districts does not share a border with Nagaon?
(A) Udalguri (C) Sonitpur
(B) Karbi Anglong (D) Hojai

22. During which dynasty was the Madan Kamdev temple complex built?
(A) Ahom Dynasty (C) Varman Dynasty
(B) Koch Dynasty (D) Pala Dynasty

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23. Which Koch king is credited with rebuilding the Kamakhya temple?
(A) Naranarayan (C) Upendra Narayan
(B) Biswa Narayan (D) Lakshmi Narayan

24. What is the name of the most important annual festival celebrated by the Tiwa tribe, featuring
community dance and prayers?
(A) Ali-Ai-Ligang (C) Jonbeel Mela
(B) Sogra Misawa (D) Wangala

25. The first commercial tea garden in Assam is generally associated with which individual?
(A) Maniram Dewan (C) Biswa Singha
(B) Chilarai (D) Lakshmi Narayan

26. Which Mughal emperor shifted his capital from Agra to Delhi and commissioned the Red Fort?
(A) Jahangir (C) Akbar
(B) Shah Jahan (D) Bahadur Shah Zafar

27. Who built the famous Taragarh Fort in Ajmer?

(A) Rana Sanga (C) Ajaypal Chauhan
(B) Akbar (D) Prithviraj Chauhan

28. The famous war fought by Ashoka before his transformation was called?
(A) Battle of Panipat (C) Battle of Hydaspes
(B) Battle of Kalinga (D) Battle of Plassey

29. The design of the Sun temple at Konark represents a colossal

(A) Palace (C) Pillar
(B) Chariot (D) Mandap

30. The Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauz) was formed in which country?
(A) Germany (C) India
(B) Japan (D) Singapore

31. Which missile did India successfully test twice in 48 hours in July 2025?
(A) Agni-6 (C) Akash
(B) BrahMos-2 (D) Pralay

32. What was the outcome for the Indian National Congress in the 2025 Delhi Legislative Assembly
election?
(A) Won majority (C) Did not win any seats
(B) Won 10 seats (D) Formed the government with AAP

33. Who is the current Vice President of the United States (as of August 2025)?
(A) Kamala Harris (C) J.D. Vance
(B) Mike Pence (D) Tim Kaine

34. Which of the following is not an USA stock market index?

(A) FTSE (C) DOW JONES
(B) NASDAQ (D) S&P 500

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35. Which Indian satellite, a collaboration between NASA and ISRO, was successfully launched for
advanced Earth observation in August 2025?
(A) GSAT-24 (C) NISAR
(B) Mangalyaan-2 (D) Aditya-L1

36. What is the capital city of Finland?

(A) Stockholm (C) Reykjavik
(B) Copenhagen (D) Helsinki

37. Which of the following EU countries does not use the euro as its official currency as of 2025?
(A) Portugal (C) France
(B) Poland (D) Finland

38. Which country joined OPEC+ in Feb 2025?

(A) Brazil (C) Venezuela
(B) Argentina (D) Colombia

39. Which Indian state hosts the country’s largest lithium reserve as of 2025?
(A) Karnataka (C) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Rajasthan (D) Chhattisgarh

40. Which planet’s day (rotation period) is longer than its year (orbital period)?
(A) Mercury (C) Mars
(B) Venus (D) Neptune

41. Which Apple product was the first to be officially launched in India with a formal release event?
(A) iPhone 3G (C) MacBook Air
(B) iPod Classic (D) iPhone 5

42. What is the codename for Intel’s new-generation mobile CPUs released in 2025, focused on AI and
performance?
(A) Tiger Lake (C) Lunar Lake
(B) Raptor Lake (D) Coffee Lake

43. Which of the following is an impact printer?

(A) Inkjet printer (C) Dot matrix printer
(B) Laser printer (D) Thermal printer

44. NFC is best described as what kind of communication technology?

(A) Bluetooth
(B) Infrared
(C) Ultrasonic
(D) Contactless, electromagnetic radio field-based

45. What is a major advantage of optical fibre communication over copper wires?
(A) Cheaper installation
(B) Higher bandwidth and lower attenuation
(C) More immune to water damage
(D) Lower data rates

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46. If the price of an item increases from ₹400 to ₹450, what is the percentage increase?
(A) 10% (C) 15%
(B) 12.5% (D) 20%

47. A shopkeeper gives 20% discount and still earns a profit of 10%. If the cost price of the item is ₹200,
what is the marked price?
(A) ₹270 (C) ₹280
(B) ₹275 (D) ₹290

48. The selling price of 10 T-shirts equals the cost price of 13 T-shirts. What is the profit percent?
(A) 20% (C) 30%
(B) 25% (D) 35%

49. In a mixture of milk and water, the ratio is 5:3. If 4 litres of water is added, the ratio becomes 5:4.
What is the quantity of milk in the mixture?
(A) 10 liters (C) 15 liters
(B) 12 liters (D) 20 liters

50. Rahul’s age is three times the age of his daughter. After 8 years, his age will be 5 years more than
twice the daughter’s age. What is Rahul’s present age?
(A) 39 years (C) 41 years
(B) 36 years (D) 45 years

51. Which of the following quadratic equations has roots 1 and 3?

(A) x2 - 4x + 3 = 0 (C) x2 - 4x - 3 = 0
(B) x2 + 4x + 3 = 0 (D) x2 + 4x - 3 = 0

52. A train 150 m long is running at a speed of 60 km/h. What is the time taken to pass a man standing
near the track?
(A) 5 seconds (Approx) (C) 9 seconds (Approx)
(B) 6 seconds (Approx) (D) 10 seconds (Approx)

53. A motorboat running downstream covers 48 km in 3 hours and the return journey takes 4 hours. What
is the speed of the river current?
(A) 2 km/h (C) 4 km/h
(B) 3 km/h (D) 5 km/h

54. What is the area of a rhombus whose diagonals are 6 cm and 7 cm?
(A) 30 cm² (C) 28 cm²
(B) 21 cm² (D) 42 cm²

55. Area of a trapezium with parallel sides 8 cm and 12 cm, height 5 cm will be-
(A) 40 cm² (C) 60 cm²
(B) 50 cm² (D) 70 cm²

56. If a solid cone of height 24 cm and base radius 6 cm is melted and recast into a sphere, what is the
radius of the sphere?
(A) 4 cm (C) 8 cm
(B) 6 cm (D) 12 cm

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57. If a triangle has sides 7 cm, 24 cm, and 25 cm, what is the area?
(A) 72 cm² (C) 80 cm²
(B) 78 cm² (D) 84 cm²

58. A is thrice as efficient as B. If A can complete a work in 20 days, how many days will B take to
complete it?
(A) 15 days (C) 60 days
(B) 45 days (D) 25 days

59. If 5 workers can do a work in 12 days, how many workers will be needed to do the same work in 8
days?
(A) 8 (C) 10
(B) 9 (D) 11

60. A sum amounts to ₹7,800 in 3 years and ₹11,232 in 5 years at compound interest. Find the rate per
annum (compounded annually).
(A) 15% (C) 10%
(B) 20% (D) 25%

61. Choose the odd one out:

(A) Odometer (C) Thermometer
(B) Speedometer (D) Barometer

62. Rearrange and choose the odd one out:

(A) KWAH (C) WCRO
(B) EUPNGIN (D) AORSWPR

63. Find the next number in the sequence 6, 16, 36, 76, ?
(A) 158 (C) 156
(B) 160 (D) 166

64. Introducing a woman, a man said, “Her husband is the only son of my father.” How is that woman
related to the man?
(A) Mother (C) Daughter
(B) Sister (D) Wife

65. John’s father is Peter. Peter’s brother is Mike. Mike’s son is Alex. How is John related to Alex?
(A) Cousin (C) Uncle
(B) Brother (D) Nephew
66. What is the two-digit number?
Statement 1: The sum of the digits is 9.
Statement 2: The number is divisible by 7.
(A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient (C) Both together are sufficient.
(B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient (D) Both together are not sufficient

67. If the word "FRAME" is coded as “HTYOC”, how is “SONIC” coded?

(A) UQPKE (C) QMKHB
(B) QMLGA (D) UMPGE

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68. A person walks 8 km west, then turns north and walks 6 km. What is the direction and distance of the
person from the starting point?
(A) 10 km North-West (C) 14 Km West
(B) 14 km North (D) 48km North-West

69. A man faces east. He turns 135° clockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
(A) Northeast (C) Southwest
(B) Southeast (D) Northwest

70. Five students — A, B, C, D, and E — stand in a queue. B is ahead of A but behind C. D is last in the
queue. E is not first. Who is standing third?
(A) A (C) B
(B) C (D) E

71. Which of the following is NOT a function of a Block Coordinator?

(A) Facilitating community meetings
(B) Approving national policies
(C) Monitoring SHG performance
(D) Ensuring report submissions

72. If a program reviews the outcomes to judge whether the objectives have been fulfilled, this process is:
(A) Evaluation (C) Administration
(B) Monitoring (D) Notification

73. Patriarchy is considered:

(A) A social institution (C) An economic framework
(B) A market mechanism (D) None of these
74. A socio-metric chart is often used during:
(A) Financial appraisal (C) Urban policy development
(B) Participatory Rural Appraisal (D) Census surveys

75. When widows receive property rights in their names, the social relation most affected is:
(A) Gender (C) Profession
(B) Age (D) Literacy

76. In a rural household survey, which social institution is primarily under study?
(A) Market (C) Corporation
(B) Family (D) Religion
77. Redistribution of resources and building capacity among marginalized groups is best known as:
(A) Empowerment (C) Repression
(B) Adjustment (D) Reservation

78. The presence of women in Panchayati Raj Institutions demonstrates:

(A) Gender mainstreaming in governance
(B) Resistance to cultural diversity
(C) Decline of local economy
(D) None of these

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79. A randomized group of units of observation in research is called:
(A) Cluster (C) Population
(B) Array (D) Control
80. Community mobilization is primarily:
(A) A participatory approach (C) A command-driven method
(B) A hierarchical process (D) An unstructured phenomenon
81. Under NRLM, SHGs must follow the Pancha Sutra after existing for at least:
(A) 6 months (C) 18 months
(B) 12 months (D) 24 months

82. Effective teams function best when relationships are:

(A) Isolated (C) Competitive
(B) Interdependent (D) Exclusive

83. Professional development for staff can occur through:

(A) Training (C) Peer learning
(B) Mentoring (D) All of these
84. Which of the following is a key principle of community development?
(A) Centralized decision-making (C) Community participation
(B) Top-down governance (D) Political not interference
85. Which is a primary objective of community development programs?
(A) Economic growth (C) Political dominance
(B) Social justice (D) Urbanization
86. The ‘Mukhya Mantri Atmanirbhar Asom’ scheme, launched by the Assam government, primarily
focuses on:
(A) Girl education (C) Rural roads
(B) Employment/self-employment (D) Insurance for business losses

87. The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) mainly provides assistance to which group?
(A) Women entrepreneurs
(B) Elderly, widows, and disabled persons
(C) Owners of small businesses
(D) Migrant workers

88. Which of the following is a not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme?

(A) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
(B) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana
(C) Ujjwala Yojana
(D) Ayushman Bharat
89. For effective implementation, decentralization requires:
(A) A clear legal and regulatory framework
(B) Centralized decision making
(C) International funding
(D) Strong urban planning

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90. The Human Capital Theory of development believes that:
(A) Tax evasion leads to prosperity
(B) Market competition alone creates equitable growth
(C) Investment in education leads to economic growth
(D) Only technological innovation matters

91. Which of the following best illustrates the intersection of structural and functional barriers hindering
decentralization efforts at the Panchayat level in India, especially for women representatives?
(A) Lack of financial autonomy and entrenched patriarchal norms
(B) Absence of community participation and weak infrastructure
(C) Central government’s legislative control and frequent local elections
(D) Political party dominance and urban migration

92. Which indicator most compellingly demonstrates the empowerment of women as a result of land titling
reforms in rural India?
(A) Increase in the number of women’s names on land deeds
(B) Growth in women’s participation in local markets
(C) Documented changes in intra-household bargaining power
(D) Literacy rate improvements among female adolescents

93. When designing a participatory rural appraisal (PRA), how can facilitators best mitigate elite capture
and ensure genuinely inclusive local voices?
(A) Selecting community leaders as primary informants
(B) Using lottery-based participant selection and gender-segregated focus groups
(C) Inviting only educated youth
(D) Reporting findings to district officials only

94. The Persons with Disabilities Act (1995) in India promotes:

(A) Job reservations for general category
(B) Exclusive schools for the disabled
(C) Equal opportunities and protection of rights
(D) Privatization of education

95. Which of the following best reflects Amartya Sen’s capability approach to development?
(A) Income per capita
(B) GDP growth
(C) People’s ability to live the life they value
(D) Export-import ratio

96. Who is the Chairman of Assam State Rural Livelihoods Mission?

(A) Chief Minister of Assam
(B) Chief Secretary to the Govt. of Assam
(C) Cabinet Minister for Panchayat and Rural Development, Govt. of Assam
(D) None of these

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97. The success of social mobilization initiatives can be BEST measured by:
(A) The amount of funding secured from donors
(B) The behavioural and attitudinal changes among community members
(C) The improvement in living standard among community members
(D) The extent of government regulation imposed on the community

98. Which of the following categories are eligible for benefit under the “Orunodoi” scheme?
I. Current resident of Assam, but not be permanent resident of Assam
II. Transgender individuals
III. Retired government employees
IV. Annual household income of more than ₹3 lakh

(A) I, II and IV (C) II only

(B) I only (D) I and II only

99. In what year did the Reserve Bank of India allow SHGs to open savings accounts in banks, providing
a critical boost to the SHG movement?
(A) 2000 (C) 1993
(B) 1987 (D) 2011
100. Which of the following is a challenge faced by women-led SHGs in rural India?
(A) Saturation of banking infrastructure in all villages
(B) Excess supply of skilled leadership resulting in internal conflict
(C) Societal norms restricting women’s participation and lack of exposure to income-generating
opportunities
(D) Legal prohibition on SHGs marketing their products outside their village

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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