Participant ID

Participant Name
Test Center Name
Test Date 20/03/2021
Test Time 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Subject Junior Engineer (Civil)

Section : Discipline1
W

Q.1 For chemical reaction of hydration of 200 kg of cement of average composition, the
mass of water required, would be
W

Ans 1. 50 kg

2. 200kg
W

3. 25kg
.A

4. 35kg
LL

Question ID : 6009296271

Q.2 A cement is called as unsound cement if it contains free

EX

Ans 1. Alumina

2. Iron oxide
A

3. Lime
M

4. Silica
R

Question ID : 6009296272
EV

Q.3 For construction of two cubic meter of bricks masonry, the number of modular bricks
required, is
Ans 1. 2000
IE

2. 550
W

3. 1000

4. 500
.C

Question ID : 6009296267
O
M

Q.4 Choose the mineral from the followings

Ans 1. Hornblende

2. Limestone

3. Granite

4. Sand stone

Question ID : 6009296269
Q.5 Choose the wrong statement about stiffness of wood
Ans 1. Wood floors must be sufficiently stiff

2. Structural sizes of timber are stiffer than the clear small sticks.

3. Denser wood is more stiffer

4. Green timber is less stiff than when seasoned

Question ID : 6009296275

Q.6 As per IS 456: 2000, for a fresh concrete with compacting factor value of 0.75 to 0.80,
the workability of the concrete is categorized as
Ans 1. Very low

2. High

3. Low
W

4. Medium
W

Question ID : 6009296277
W

Q.7 In ball test, for classification of lime, the balls are made of size
Ans 1. 40mm
.A

2. 80mm
LL

3. 100mm

4. 10mm
EX

Question ID : 6009296276
A

Q.8 The damp of proofing can be best achieved by

Ans 1. Lime stone
M

2. Slate
R

3. kankar
EV

4. Laterite

Question ID : 6009296268
IE

Q.9 Ports are installed in the intake structures to

W

Ans 1. Give structural strength

.C

2. Provide migration path

3. Avoid accumulating debris

O

4. Regulate the flow

M

Question ID : 6009296283

Q.10 The minimum compressive strength of Portland Pozzolana cement at 28 days should
be
Ans 1. 33MPa

2. 20MPa

3. 10MPa

4. 50 MPa

Question ID : 6009296273
Q.11 What is the moh’s hardness number for apatite?
Ans 1. 5

2. 7

3. 2

4. 3

Question ID : 6009296270

Q.12 The dynamic test on concrete, gives ___________ in comparison to the static test.
Ans 1. The same value of Poisson’s ratio

2. Higher value of Poisson’s ratio

3. Lower value f Poisson’s ratio

4. No relation between two values

W

Question ID : 6009296279
W

Q.13
W

Ans 1. 3.5
.A

2. 5
LL

3. 7

4. 10.5
EX

Question ID : 6009296266
A

Q.14 Iron slag is used for manufacturing of

Ans 1. Imperical stone
M

2. Bituminous stone
R

3. Artificial marble
EV

4. Garlic stone

Question ID : 6009296274
IE

Q.15 The water supply mains material, that is strong, non-corrodable, the most durable but
W

heavy and brittle is

Ans 1. Copper
.C

2. Cast iron

3. R.C.C
O

4. Steel
M

Question ID : 6009296284

Q.16 If the annual average daily water consumption of a city is 48000 cubic meters, the
maximum hourly demand will be
Ans 1. 1500 cum/hour

2. 2700 cum/hour

3. 2000 cum/hour

4. 5400 cum/hour

Question ID : 6009296282
Q.17 The per capital water consumption would be reduced by adopting following practice
Ans 1. Metering system

2. Modern living

3. Hotter climate

4. Good quality water

Question ID : 6009296280

Q.18 The criteria for designing the distribution system in water supplies, is
Ans 1. Greater of maximum hourly demand and coincident draft

2. Coincident draft

3. Average daily demand

4. Maximum hourly demand

W

Question ID : 6009296281
W

Q.19 Chromite bricks are a type of

W

Ans 1. Modular bricks

.A

2. Neutral fire bricks

3. Acidic fire bricks

LL

4. Basic fire bricks

EX

Question ID : 6009296265

Q.20 Rheological properties of concrete do not depend on-

A

Ans 1. Temperature
M

2. Type of cement
R

3. Water cement ratio

4. Type of mixer
EV

Question ID : 6009296278
IE
W

Section : Discipline2
.C

Q.1

Ans
1.
O

2.
M

3.

4.

Question ID : 6009296302
Q.2 Calculate the critical velocity(m/sec) of a channel using Kennedy’s theory, the depth of
flow is 2.5m and the value of critical velocity ratio is 1.2
Ans 1. 5

2. 2.5

3. 1.18

4. 0.5

Question ID : 6009296303

Q.3 If 12 ppm of alum dose is required for treatment of water, then quantity of alum for
treatment of 10-million-liter water will be
Ans 1. 22 kg

2. 12 kg
W

3. 120 kg

4. 1.2 kg
W

Question ID : 6009296288
W

Q.4 A gully trap is provided at the junction of:

.A

Ans 1. Any two-house drains

2. An unfoul room drain and a flow bath or kitchen drain

LL

3. A house sewer and municipal sewer

4. A house sewer and a municipal sewer

EX

Question ID : 6009296295
A

Q.5 The flowing through velocity in an Imhoff tank should not exceed
M

Ans 1. 2 m/min
R

2. 1.8 m/min

3. 0.3 m/min
EV

4. 0.9 m/sec
IE

Question ID : 6009296294
W

Q.6 The rated discharge of a centrifugal pump (at a given speed) represents the discharge
at which the pump efficiency is
.C

Ans 1. Zero

2. Minimum
O

3. Maximum
M

4. Workable

Question ID : 6009296286

Q.7 In plain area, the rain gauge density prescribed by IS 4987-1994 (Reaffirmed 2004) is-
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6009296297
Q.8 An irrigation scheme is known as minor, if command area is equal to or less than- (in
hectares)
Ans 1. 2000

2. 1000

3. 500

4. 100

Question ID : 6009296301

Q.9 Municipal sewage contains ____________ of water.

Ans 1. 70 percent

2. 10 percent

3. 99.9 percent
W

4. 85 percent
W

Question ID : 6009296292
W

Q.10 Calculate the evaporation(mm) from a lake if the pan evaporation is 50 mm the pan
coefficient is 0.80
.A

Ans 1. 50.8

2. 40
LL

3. 62.5

4. 49.2
EX

Question ID : 6009296298
A

Q.11
M

Ans 1. 200
R

2. 2500
EV

3. 3750

4. 1000
IE

Question ID : 6009296293
W

Q.12 Pick up the incorrect remedial measure for water logging

Ans 1. Crop rotation
.C

2. Leaching
O

3. Lining of canals

4. Good drainage of farms

M

Question ID : 6009296300

Q.13 Choose the correct statement.

With self-cleansing velocity in sewers,

Ans 1. The silting and sourcing both occur at the bottom

2. Neither silting nor sourcing occur at the bottom

3. The sourcing occurs at the bottom

4. The silting occurs at the bottom

Question ID : 6009296291
Q.14 Delta of a crop, if the duty is 1500 hectare/cumec and the base period is 130 days will
be
Ans 1. 15 m

2. 99.69 m

3. 0.750m

4. 1.75 m

Question ID : 6009296296

Q.15 The measured duty at the head of main canal is also known as
Ans 1. Gross quantity

2. Lateral quantity

3. Outlet factor
W

4. Net quantity
W

Question ID : 6009296299
W

Q.16 In large pipelines carrying water from the source to the city, sluice values are generally
located along the pipe line at intervals of about
.A

Ans 1. 15 kilometres

2. 10 kilometres
LL

3. 20 kilometres

4. 5 kilometres
EX

Question ID : 6009296285
A

Q.17 A water having pH=8 will have hydrogen ion concentration equal to-
M

Ans 1.
R

2.
EV

3.

4.
IE

Question ID : 6009296287
W

Q.18 Design period of sewage treatment units, is taken as

.C

Ans 1. 40-50 years

2. 15-20 years
O

3. 30-40 years
M

4. 5-10 years

Question ID : 6009296290

Q.19 Detention time for a continuous flow type rectangular sedimentation tank is- (V-volume
of tank, Q-rate of flow)
Ans 1.

2.

3. V+Q

4. V-Q

Question ID : 6009296289
Q.20 Lacey’s silt factor ‘f ’ is obtained by (d= average particle size in millimeter)
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6009296304

Section : Discipline3

Q.1 The coefficient of permeability of a soil deposit in-situ conditions can be determined
W

by
Ans 1. Vane shear test
W

2. Constant head permeability test

W

3. Pumping out test

4. Variable head permeability test

.A

Question ID : 6009296314
LL

Q.2 A saturated soil sample has water content of 40 percent the specific gravity of solids
is 2.65, then void ratio will be
EX

Ans 1. 2.25

2. 1.06
A

3. 0.4
M

4. 3.05
R

Question ID : 6009296310
EV

Q.3 The value of compression index (cc) for a remoulded sample whose liquid limit is 35
percent is
Ans 1. 0.21
IE

2. 0.27
W

3. 0.027

4. 0.175
.C

Question ID : 6009296315
O
M

Q.4 A soil has the coefficient of permeability of 0.040mm/sec at 30° C. Determine its value
at 27° C. Coefficient of viscosity at 30°C and 27° C are 8.0 milli poise and 8.5 milli
poise, respectively.
Ans 1. 0.050 mm/sec

2. 0.040 mm/sec

3. 0.0300 mm/sec

4. 0.0376 mm/sec

Question ID : 6009296308
Q.5 Which of the following is not a standard test depending upon the drainage conditions
Ans 1. Consolidated – undrained test

2. Consolidated – drained test

3. Unconsolidated – undrained test

4. Unconsolidated – drained test

Question ID : 6009296318

Q.6 An inorganic clay of high plasticity is represented by the symbol

Ans 1. CH

2. GW

3. MH

4. SP
W

Question ID : 6009296311
W

Q.7 Calculate the degree of saturation of soil sample if maximum dry density is 1.70
W

gm/ml, optimum water content is 14 percent and specific gravity of soil solids is 2.65.
Ans 1. 76.4 percent
.A

2. 70.4 percent
LL

3. 80 percent

4. 66.4 percent
EX

Question ID : 6009296317
A

Q.8 The silt exclusion device, provided on the bed of the main canal, taking off from a
headwork, is called
M

Ans 1. Silt excluder

R

2. Barrage

3. Silt ejector
EV

4. Weir
IE

Question ID : 6009296305
W

Q.9
.C

Ans
1.
O

2.
M

3.

4.

Question ID : 6009296321
Q.10 Reservoir sedimentation can be decreased by about ____________ percent by venting
out the density currents through sluices of the dam.
Ans 1. 50

2. 20

3. 10

4. 25

Question ID : 6009296324

Q.11 According to Allen Hazen’s formula the coefficient of permeability(k) for uniform sands
is given by-
Ans
1.

2.
W

3.
W

4.
W

Question ID : 6009296313
.A

Q.12 Critical hydraulic gradient in a saturated sand with void ratio 0.90 and specific gravity
LL

of solids 2.65 is
Ans 1. 1.87
EX

2. 0.87

3. 0.53
A

4. 1.17
M

Question ID : 6009296312
R

Q.13
EV

Ans 1. 10 0mm
IE

2. 20 mm

3. 60 mm
W

4. 50 mm
.C

Question ID : 6009296322
O

Q.14 The phenomenon when the sand loses its shear strength due to oscillatory motion is
known as
M

Ans 1. Sensitivity

2. Compressibility

3. Cohesion

4. Liquefaction

Question ID : 6009296319
Q.15 The moisture content of a soil below which the soil volume becomes constant is called
the
Ans 1. Shrinkage limit

2. Plasticity index

3. Plastic limit

4. Liquid limit

Question ID : 6009296309

Q.16 A ‘ breast wall’ is usually provided above the sill of a canal head regulator at a barrage
site, between
Ans 1. Bed level of canal

2. Pond level and FSL of canal

W

3. Sill level and pond level

4. Pond level and HFL of river

W

Question ID : 6009296306
W

Q.17 A shear vane of 7 cm diameter and 10 cm length was used in vane shear test. If the
.A

torque required to shear the soil was 500 N-m, then calculate shear strength.
Ans 1.
LL

2.

3.
EX

4.
A

Question ID : 6009296320
M

Q.18 As per IS:2720 (part 8):1983, for a heavy compaction test (modified proctor test), the
R

mass of hammer and the drop of hammer are as follows

Ans 1. 4.9 kg and 310mm
EV

2. 2.60 kg and 310mm

3. 4.9 kg and 450mm

IE

4. 2.60 kg and 450 mm

W

Question ID : 6009296316
.C

Q.19 The example of soil transported/formed by wind

Ans
O

1. Marl

2. Drift
M

3. Loess

4. Talus

Question ID : 6009296307
Q.20
Ans 1. 6.25

2. 20

3. 1.95

4. 3.2

Question ID : 6009296323

Section : Discipline4

Q.1
W

Ans 1. 10.42

2. 20.42
W

3. 1.42
W

4. 2.42
.A

Question ID : 6009296344
LL

Q.2 The flow in a pipe is laminar and Reynold’s number is given by 1600. What is the
darcy-weisbach friction factor for the pipe?
Ans 1. 0.04
EX

2. 0.02

3. 25
A

4. 0.01
M

Question ID : 6009296338
R

Q.3 The ‘safety valve’ of a dam is

EV

Ans 1. Spillway

2. Drainage gallery
IE

3. Dead storage
W

4. Out let sluices

.C

Question ID : 6009296325

Q.4 The stagnation pressure is the sum of-

O

Ans 1. Absolute pressure and dynamic pressure

M

2. Dynamic pressure and vacuum pressure

3. Static pressure and dynamic pressure

4. Vacuum pressure and static pressure

Question ID : 6009296337
Q.5 A canal with boundaries of easily erodible loose soils, is called
Ans 1. Non-alluvial canal

2. Rigid boundary canals

3. Mobile boundary canal

4. Permanent regime

Question ID : 6009296328

Q.6 If 900 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, then 0.09 represents it’s
Ans 1. Specific gravity

2. Specific volume

3. Density

4. Unit weight
W

Question ID : 6009296331
W

Q.7
W

Ans
.A

1.

2.
LL

3.
EX

4.

Question ID : 6009296327
A
M

Q.8 A pipeline carries oil at a velocity of 2m/s through a 25 cm pipe. At another section the
diameter is 20 cm. find the velocity of oil.
Ans
R

1. 2.5 m/s

2. 1.6 m/s
EV

3. 3.125 m/s

4. 2 m/s
IE

Question ID : 6009296335
W

Q.9
.C

Ans 1. 800 m
O

2. 900 m
M

3. 400 m

4. 960 m

Question ID : 6009296333
Q.10 A square surface 3m×3m lies in a vertical plane at 25 meters below the water surface.
Determine the position of the center of pressure from water surface.
Ans 1. 26.528 m

2. 28 m

3. 26.500 m

4. 20 m

Question ID : 6009296330

Q.11 Minor losses in pipe flow are those-

Ans 1. Which have a small magnitude

2. Caused by friction

3. Which depend on pipe length

W

4. Which are caused by fitting as valves, bends etc.

W

Question ID : 6009296343
W

Q.12 If the diameter of the pipe is 250 mm, what is the maximum thickness of the boundary
layer?
.A

Ans 1. 125 mm

2. 100 mm
LL

3. 25 mm

4. 250 mm
EX

Question ID : 6009296341
A

Q.13 A venturimeter is a device based on Bernoulli principle and is used for measuring-
M

Ans 1. Total energy

R

2. Velocity head

3. Pressure
EV

4. Flow rate
IE

Question ID : 6009296336
W

Q.14 Absolute pressure is measured by

Ans 1. A differential manometer
.C

2. An aneroid barometer
O

3. A simple monometer

4. A bourdon gauge
M

Question ID : 6009296332

Q.15 The flow in a river during the period of heavy rainfall is

Ans 1. Steady, uniform and one dimensional

2. Unsteady, uniform and two dimensional

3. Steady, non-uniform and three dimensional

4. Unsteady, non-uniform and three dimensional

Question ID : 6009296334
Q.16 Centi poise is the unit of
Ans 1. Unit weight

2. Dynamic viscosity

3. Kinematic viscosity

4. Velocity

Question ID : 6009296329

Q.17 The sphere of diameter 1.0 cm falls in fluid of kinematic viscosity of 10 stokes with the
terminal velocity of 0.02 m/s. The value of the coefficient of drag on the falling sphere
Ans 1. 80

2. 100

3. 120
W

4. 60
W

Question ID : 6009296342
W

Q.18 The most essential feature of a turbulent flow is

Ans 1. Velocity and pressure at a point exhibit irregular fluctuations of high frequency
.A

2. Velocity at a point remains constant with time

LL

3. High velocity

4. Large discharge
EX

Question ID : 6009296340
A

Q.19 What is the value of friction factor, for turbulent flow in rough pipe, if the diameter of
pipe is 40 cm and roughness height is 0.30 cm?
M

Ans 1. 0.01
R

2. 0.0344

3. 0.055
EV

4. 0.03044
IE

Question ID : 6009296339
W

Q.20 Which of the following is classified as seepage failure of a earth dams

Ans 1. Erosion of upstream face
.C

2. Foundation slides
O

3. Overtopping

4. Piping through the dam

M

Question ID : 6009296326

Section : Discipline5
Q.1 Which of the following scales is the largest one?
Ans 1. 1:45000

2. 1cm = 40 m

3. 1cm = 40km

4. R.F.= 1/300000

Question ID : 6009296346

Q.2 The fore bearing of a line CD is 340° 20´. The back bearing of line is
Ans 1. 250° 20´

2. 60° 20´

3. 160° 20´

4. 70° 20´
W

Question ID : 6009296353
W

Q.3 Pick up the correct statement regarding accessories for chaining

W

Ans 1. Optical square and cross-staff are used for the same purpose
.A

2. An offset cannot be laid with a fresh cross-staff

3. Clinometer is used to measure the directions of survey lines

LL

4. A ranging rod is provided with a stout open ring recessed hook

EX

Question ID : 6009296351

Q.4
A

Ans
M

1. 2.577 m

2. 1.577 m
R

3. 5.477 m
EV

4. 4.577 m

Question ID : 6009296363
IE

Q.5 The distance measured between two points on a sloping ground is 420 m find the
W

correction to be applied if the angle of slope is 12° :

Ans 1. 8.28 m
.C

2. 9.18 m
O

3. -9.18 m

4. -8.28 m
M

Question ID : 6009296350

Q.6 Calculate the combined correction for curvature and refraction (in m) for a distance of
3.5 km.
Ans 1. 0.824

2. -0.824

3. -0.962

4. 0.962

Question ID : 6009296355
Q.7 The contour interval on a map is 15 m. If the upward gradient of 1 in 20 is required to
be drawn between two points, what will be the horizontal equivalent.
Ans 1. 240 m

2. 05 m

3. 300 m

4. 35 m

Question ID : 6009296359

Q.8 Select the correct statement

Ans 1. A steel tape is soft and so deforms easily

2. Metallic tape is made by weaving linen with brass wires

3. Steel topes can be used in grounds with weeds and vegetation

W

4. Invar is an alloy of steel (20 percent) and nickel (80 percent)

W

Question ID : 6009296349
W

Q.9 Calculate the horizontal distance between the staff and instrument, if the staff
readings are 1.6 and 3.2 m. which corresponds to lower and the upper horizontal lines
.A

of cross hair. The lens of the telescope of the tachometer is of anallactic lens.
Ans 1. 200 m
LL

2. 100 m

3. 140 m
EX

4. 160 m

Question ID : 6009296362
A
M

Q.10 The error which cannot be eliminated by reciprocal levelling operation is:
Ans 1. Errors due to atmospheric refraction
R

2. Errors due to line of collimation

EV

3. Manual Mistakes in taking levelling staff reading

4. Error due to earth’s curvature

IE

Question ID : 6009296356
W

Q.11 What is the hydraulic radius of the channel, if its width is 3m and depth of flow is 1.5
m.
.C

Ans 1. 0.60 m
O

2. 27 m

3. 1.33 m
M

4. 0.75 m

Question ID : 6009296345

Q.12 Lehmann’s rule states that while looking towards the station, the plane table location
to be fixed is always to the __________
Ans 1. Left or right of each of the rays

2. Right of each of the rays

3. Left or right of the ray to the most distant station

4. Left of each of the rays

Question ID : 6009296358
Q.13 The magnetic bearing of line PQ is 134° 30´. Find it’s true bearing, if the magnetic
declination is 8° 20´W.
Ans 1. 126° 10´

2. 122° 25´

3. 125° 10´

4. 142° 50´

Question ID : 6009296352

Q.14 By changing the face of theodolite, which error cannot be eliminated?

Ans 1. Error due to the horizontal axis not being perpendicular to the vertical axis

2. Error due to parallax

3. Error due to the line of collimation not being parallel to the altitude level
W

4. Error due to the line of collimation not being perpendicular to the horizontal axis
W

Question ID : 6009296364
W

Q.15 Two mirrors are used for offsetting in

Ans 1. Surveyor’s compass
.A

2. Cross staff
LL

3. Ranging rod

4. Optical square
EX

Question ID : 6009296348
A

Q.16 A theodolite was set up at point ‘O’ and the angle of elevation to the top of a building
at ‘A’ was 7° 00’. The horizontal distance between the vertical axis of the theodolite
M

and the projected position of the top of the building was 200 m. Determine the R. L. of
the top of the building, if the R. L. of the instrument axis was 1520 m.
R

Ans 1. 1554.65 m

2. 1520.00 m
EV

3. 1544.56 m

4. 1534.65 m
IE

Question ID : 6009296357
W

Q.17 A circular curve has a 200 m radius and 65° deflection angle. What is its degree by arc
.C

definition?
Ans 1. 3°
O

2. 5°
M

3. 8.6°

4. 10°

Question ID : 6009296360
Q.18 Calculate the length of the tangent (in m) of a simple circular curve of 430m radius and
60° deflection angle.
Ans 1. 300.60 m

2. 200.26 m

3. 48.60 m

4. 248.26 m

Question ID : 6009296361

Q.19 A surveyor measures a distance between two points on a map of representative

fraction of 1:100 is 140 m but later he found that he used wrong representative factor
of 1:70 what is the correct distance between the two points?
Ans 1. 70 m

2. 40 m
W

3. 200 m
W

4. 100 m
W

Question ID : 6009296347
.A

Q.20 If whole circle bearing of a line is 55° 20´, its value in quadrantal bearing system is
Ans 1. N 55° 20´ E
LL

2. S 55° 20´ W

3. N 55° 20´ W
EX

4. S 55° 20´ E

Question ID : 6009296354
A
M
R

Section : Discipline6

Q.1 Calculate the required super elevation in Indian railway at broad gauge track, for a 5°
EV

curve (on 30m chord length) and designed speed of 50 kmph.

Ans 1. 6.59 cm
IE

2. 5.59 cm

3. 4.71cm
W

4. 9.59 cm
.C

Question ID : 6009296372
O

Q.2 While aligning a hill road with a ruling gradient of 6 percent, a horizontal curve of
radius 68 m is encountered. Find the compensated gradient at the curve.
M

Ans 1. 4 percent

2. 3.3 percent

3. 4.90 percent

4. 5.5 percent

Question ID : 6009296378
Q.3 On a right-angled road intersection with two-way traffic the total number of conflict
points are
Ans 1. 4

2. 12

3. 24

4. 16

Question ID : 6009296379

Q.4 The passenger car unit (PCU) of a bus is

Ans 1. 1

2. 8

3. 0.5
W

4. 3
W

Question ID : 6009296380
W

Q.5 Laser plumet located in standing axis of the total station is used for
Ans 1. Bisection of point sighted
.A

2. Levelling
LL

3. Centering

4. Orientation
EX

Question ID : 6009296365
A

Q.6 According to ICAO the total correction for elevation and temperature should not
exceed __________ of basic runway length, in calculating the actual runway length.
M

Ans 1. 35 percent
R

2. 10 percent

3. 7 percent
EV

4. 14 percent
IE

Question ID : 6009296382
W

Q.7 The minimum value of composite sleeper index for bridge sleeper, prescribed by
Indian railways, is:
.C

Ans 1. 1455

2. 1352
O

3. 783
M

4. 200

Question ID : 6009296368

Q.8 The extra widening of pavement at horizontal curves on two lane roads is not required
if the radius of curve is greater than:
Ans 1. 300 m

2. 250 m

3. 200 m

4. 100 m

Question ID : 6009296377
Q.9 The aggregate crushing value for good quality aggregate to be used in base course
and surface course shall not exceed ___________ respectively.
Ans 1. 40 percent and 35 percent

2. 30 percent and 45 percent

3. 45 percent and 30 percent

4. 35 percent and 40 percent

Question ID : 6009296381

Q.10 The minimum width of shoulder, recommended by IRC is

Ans 1. 3.75 m

2. 7.0 m

3. 2.5 m
W

4. 4.6 m
W

Question ID : 6009296374
W

Q.11 Calculate the safe stopping sight distance for design speed of 55 kmph for two way
traffic on a two lane road. Coefficients of friction is 0.37 and reaction time of driver is
.A

2.7 seconds.
Ans 1. 146.80 m
LL

2. 16.4 m

3. 122.8 m
EX

4. 73.40 m

Question ID : 6009296375
A
M

Q.12 The maximum magnitude of shear stress due to shear force of 80 kN on rectangular
section of 200 mm × 400 mm, at the neutral axis is:
R

Ans
1.
EV

2.

3.
IE

4.
W

Question ID : 6009296384
.C

Q.13 A railways yard in which wagons are received, sorted and new trains are formed is
called a
O

Ans 1. Marshalling yard

M

2. Goods yard

3. Station yard

4. Shunting yard

Question ID : 6009296370
Q.14 The ratio of young’s modulus to modulus of rigidity for a material having Poisson’s
ratio 0.3 is
Ans 1. 0.357

2. 2.6

3. 0.416

4. 2.8

Question ID : 6009296383

Q.15 What will be the required number of sleepers for 2 km railway track, if sleeper density
is (M+5) and the length of one rail is 13m.?
Ans 1. 1308

2. 437
W

3. 2770

4. 678
W

Question ID : 6009296367
W

Q.16 Calculate the quantity of the earth works in cubic meter for a canal embankment of 200
.A

m long having cross section areas at the two section are30 square meters and 70
square meters use trapezoidal method
Ans 1. 5000
LL

2. 10000

3. 2000
EX

4. 7000
A

Question ID : 6009296366
M

Q.17 If the ruling gradient is 1 in 160 on a particular section of broad gauge and at the same
time a curve of 4° is situated on this ruling gradient, what should be the allowable
R

ruling gradient?
Ans
EV

1. 1 in 140

2. 1 in 215

3. 1 in 196
IE

4. 1 in 200
W

Question ID : 6009296371
.C

Q.18 The latest type of rails, that are used on Indian railways presently, is
O

Ans 1. Wrought iron

2. Bull headed
M

3. Double headed

4. Vignole rail

Question ID : 6009296369
Q.19 The radius of a horizontal circular curve is 90 m. the design speed is 45 kmph and the
design coefficient of lateral friction is 0.15 calculate the required super elevation.
Ans 1. 1 in 45.8

2. 1 in 21.2

3. 1 in 36.8

4. 1 in 26.8

Question ID : 6009296376

Q.20 During the foggy and cloudy weather when the visibility is very poor, which signals are
used?
Ans 1. Hand signal

2. Warner signal
W

3. Detonating signal

4. Semaphore type
W

Question ID : 6009296373
W
.A

Section : Discipline7
LL

Q.1 For bricks works upto 10 cm thickness, the unit of measurement is

Ans 1. Number
EX

2. Sq. m

3. Cu.m
A

4. m
M

Question ID : 6009296402
R

Q.2
EV

Ans 1. 40

2. 36.65
IE

3. 35
W

4. 43.25
.C

Question ID : 6009296390

Q.3 The maximum distance, between the centres of two adjacent bolts in a line lying in the
O

direction of stress for a tension member of 12 mm thickness, is

Ans
M

1. 300 mm

2. 200 mm

3. 192 mm

4. 144 mm

Question ID : 6009296396
Q.4 Calculate the quantity (cubic meter) of brick work for a room, if the interior dimension
of the room is 4.6m × 3.6m and height of the room is 3.5 m. The width of the wall is
300mm and dimension of the door is 2m ×1.2m. Door is given in the longer wall.
Ans 1. 19.2

2. 19.44

3. 20.16

4. 17.76

Question ID : 6009296404

Q.5 Find the torque, which a shaft of 180mm diameter can safely transmit, if the shear
stress is not to exceed 45 N/mm2.
Ans 1. 45.5 kN-m

2. 180.5 kN-m
W

3. 51.5 kN-m
W

4. 78.5 kN-m
W

Question ID : 6009296387
.A

Q.6 A property is fetching an annual rent of Rs. 192000/- The purchaser desires to get 6.0
percent return on the capital. The capitalized value (in Rs.) of the building is:
Ans 1. 2700000
LL

2. 3600000

3. 900000
EX

4. 3200000
A

Question ID : 6009296403
M

Q.7 The maximum horizontal spacing between parallel reinforcement bars provided
against shrinkage and temperature should not exceed ________ for a R.C. slab of 100
R

mm effective depth.
EV

Ans 1. 300 mm

2. 450 mm
IE

3. 500 mm

4. 400 mm
W

Question ID : 6009296392
.C

Q.8 According to IS 800:2007, which of the following is not a limit state of serviceability?
O

Ans 1. Vibration
M

2. Fracture due to fatigue

3. Corrosion

4. Fire

Question ID : 6009296395
Q.9 The minimum number of days concrete elements have to be cured when blended
cements or minerals admixtures are used, is
Ans 1. 7 days

2. 15 days

3. 10 days

4. 3 days

Question ID : 6009296388

Q.10 The deflection including the effects of temperature, creep and shrinkage occurring
after erection pf partitions and the application of finshes should not normally exceed-
Ans 1. Span/350 or 20 mm

2. Span/150 or 20 mm
W

3. Span/300 or 20 mm

4. Span/200 or 20 mm
W

Question ID : 6009296391
W

Q.11 A steel built-up column is subjected to an axial force of 1850 kN. The lacing systems
.A

has to be designed for resisting a total transverse shear force of

Ans 1. 50 .25kN.
LL

2. 46.25 kN.

3. 60 kN.
EX

4. 40.25 kN.

Question ID : 6009296397
A
M

Q.12
R

Ans
1.
EV

2.
IE

3.
W

4.
.C

Question ID : 6009296398
O

Q.13 Fatigue will not be a problem if the number of cycles is less than
Ans 1. 150000
M

2. 200000

3. 20000

4. 100000

Question ID : 6009296389
Q.14 The permissible maximum deflection of a purlin of 3.5m. which is subjected to live
load supporting GI metal sheet and supported by brittle cladding is
Ans 1. 18.75 mm

2. 30 mm

3. 23.33 mm

4. 19.44 mm

Question ID : 6009296394

Q.15 The rate of payment is made per number in case of

Ans 1. Quarrying of stone

2. Rock excavation

3. Sand filling
W

4. Cutting of trees
W

Question ID : 6009296401
W

Q.16 As per IS 456: 2000 code, the maximum permissible free water cement ratio for
Reinforced concrete work in moderate environmental exposure condition with 20mm
.A

nominal maximum size aggregate, is-

Ans 1. 0.5
LL

2. 0.55

3. 0.4
EX

4. 0.6

Question ID : 6009296399
A
M

Q.17 A 3 m long simply supported beam is loaded with triangular load with zero intensity on
left end to 2 kN/m intensity on right support. The maximum bending moment will be
at____________ from left support.
R

Ans 1. 2 m
EV

2. 0.5 m

3. 1.73 m
IE

4. 1.5 m
W

Question ID : 6009296386
.C

Q.18 The unit of measurement is in per tonne for-

Ans 1. Reinforcement of RCC works
O

2. Concrete in foundation
M

3. Rolling shutters

4. Earth work

Question ID : 6009296400
Q.19 Moment of inertia of a Quarter Circle
(radius= r) about its centroidal x-axis, is given by
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6009296385

Q.20

Ans 1. 11.25 kNm

W

2. 20 kNm
W

3. 25 kNm

4. 31.25 kNm
W

Question ID : 6009296393
.A
LL

Section : Discipline8
EX

Q.1 Calculate the quantity of metal required for a 3.80 m wide Macadam road for two-
kilometer length for 9 cm compacted thickness.
Ans
1.
A

2.
M

3.
R

4.
EV

Question ID : 6009296407
IE

Q.2
W

Ans 1. 12.33
.C

2. 15.43

3. 10.33
O

4. 5
M

Question ID : 6009296410

Q.3 For 12mm thick cement plastering 1:6 on 150 sq. m new brick work, the quantity of
cement required is-
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 6009296405
Q.4 In an estimate the amount in the form of contingencies of ____________ of the
estimated cost, is given for expenses for miscellaneous petty items.
Ans 1. 0.1 percent to 1.5 percent

2. 3 percent to 5 percent

3. 10 percent to 20 percent

4. 1 percent to 2 percent

Question ID : 6009296412

Q.5 How many bags of cement are required for 18 cubic meter of cement concrete work
with 1:3:6?
Ans 1. 69

2. 74
W

3. 79

4. 89
W

Question ID : 6009296413
W

Q.6
.A

Ans
1.
LL

2.

3.
EX

4.
A

Question ID : 6009296406
M

Q.7 The combined percentage of Electrification and Sanitary and Water supply works, are
R

assumed, of total estimated cost of building, as:

Ans 1. 30 percent
EV

2. 25 percent

3. 50 percent
IE

4. 16 percent
W

Question ID : 6009296414
.C

Q.8 What are the required number of trips per day (8 hours working day) of a truck of
average speed of 20 km/hour for a lead of 25 km?
O

Ans 1. 4.66
M

2. 3.56

3. 1.06

4. 2.46

Question ID : 6009296411
Q.9 Calculate the cost of cement concrete work for two-kilometer long and 3.60 m wide
road for 10 cm thick cement concrete layer. The rate of work is Rs. 3000/- per cu m.
Ans 1. 10,60,000/-

2. 20,60,000/-

3. 30,00,000/-

4. 21,60,000/-

Question ID : 6009296408

Q.10 Calculate the cost (Rs.) of 100 mm thick brick lining of a septic tank of size 6m x 4m x
1.6m, if the rate of lining is Rs. 275 per square meter.
Ans 1. 6800/-

2. 4800/-
W

3. 5400/-

4. 8800/-
W

Question ID : 6009296409
W
.A

Section : General English1

LL

Q.1 A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word/words.
Choose the correct alternative.
Shimla is one of the ______ cities in Himachal Pradesh.
EX

Ans 1. cold

2. coldest
A

3. colder

4. cool
M
R

Question ID : 6009296430
EV

Q.2 A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word/words.
Choose the correct alternative.
There were three glasses, ______ with tasty juices.
IE

Ans 1. all

2. one
W

3. every
.C

4. each
O

Question ID : 6009296431
M

Q.3 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

The relatives divided the land of the dead man (between) themselves.
Ans 1. among

2. in

3. within

4. No Improvement

Question ID : 6009296429
Q.4 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
‘No error’.
We place differential levels (1)/ of trust in what we read (2)/ and what we view (3)/. No
error (4)
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 1

4. 2

Question ID : 6009296417

Q.5 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
‘No error’.

Shardul Thakur (1)/ bowling the last over (2)/ loose the line momentarily (3) / but got
his act together later.
W

Ans 1. 4
W

2. 3

3. 1
W

4. 2
.A

Question ID : 6009296420
LL

Q.6 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
‘No error’.
India’s lack of (1)/ openness has came to (2)/ the fore recently (3)/. No error (4)
EX

Ans 1. 3

2. 2
A

3. 1
M

4. 4
R

Question ID : 6009296415
EV

Q.7 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

The blending of Eastern
P: over the centuries has stimulated the creation
IE

Q: and Western cultural influences

R: of numerous and diverse organizations
S: that contribute to Kolkata’s cultural life
W

Ans 1. QPRS
.C

2. SRPQ

3. RPSQ
O

4. RPQS
M

Question ID : 6009296434

Q.8 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
‘No error’.
The aspirant always have (1)/ to be in readiness to serve (2)/ the cause of humanity
(3)/. No error (4)
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 3

4. 1

Question ID : 6009296422
Q.9 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
As she is down with the flu (and grant her) leave for a week.
Ans 1. No Improvement

2. please grant her

3. so allow her to

4. sanctioned her

Question ID : 6009296426

Q.10 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
‘No error’.
Frequent shutdown of internet (1)/ undermine the governments (2)/ Digital India
dreams (3)/. No error (4)
Ans 1. 3
W

2. 1

3. 4
W

4. 2
W

Question ID : 6009296421
.A

Q.11 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
‘No error’.
Political leaders who should be (1)/ leading by example much (2)/ prefer to hide behind
LL

closed doors (3)/. No error (4)

Ans 1. 1
EX

2. 2

3. 4
A

4. 3
M

Question ID : 6009296416
R

Q.12 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
EV

‘No error’.
They grasp at the (1)/ things and avoid (2)/a little things (3)/. No error (4)
Ans 1. 4
IE

2. 1

3. 3
W

4. 2
.C

Question ID : 6009296423
O

Q.13 A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose
M

the correct alternative.

The mysterious shadow in my room sent chills ______ my spine.
Ans 1. down

2. up

3. below

4. over

Question ID : 6009296433
Q.14 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
‘No error’.
The Budget offers a (1)/ platform to showcase (2)/ multi-sector reform proposals (3)/.
No error (4)
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 1

4. 3

Question ID : 6009296419

Q.15 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
‘No error’.
A glance that wipe out bitterness (1)/ from the heart and sets it (2)/ throbbing with a
new love is also service (3)/. No error (4)
Ans
W

1. 3

2. 4
W

3. 1
W

4. 2
.A

Question ID : 6009296424

Q.16 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
LL

‘No error’.
Time will tell (1)/ whether this would (2)/ a mistake or not (3)/. No error (4)
Ans 1. 2
EX

2. 1

3. 4
A

4. 3
M

Question ID : 6009296418
R
EV

Q.17 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Both (she and she friends) will be accused.
Ans 1. herself and her friends
IE

2. she and friends

3. No Improvement
W

4. she and her friends

.C

Question ID : 6009296425
O

Q.18 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

M

A human being’s life is (halved) into four stages.

Ans 1. No Improvement

2. divided

3. multiplied

4. break down

Question ID : 6009296427
Q.19 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.
(On seen) her parents, the toddler jumped happily.
Ans 1. Had seen

2. When seeing

3. No Improvement

4. On seeing

Question ID : 6009296428

Q.20 A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose
the correct alternative.
Can’t you see I am standing ______ here?
Ans 1. over

2. on
W

3. off
W

4. upon
W

Question ID : 6009296432
.A

Section : General English2

LL

Q.1 Choose the word that means the same as the given word.
Salubrious
EX

Ans 1. Deleterious

2. Toxic
A

3. Healthy

4. Ferrous
M
R

Question ID : 6009296441
EV

Q.2 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
Under the weather
IE

Ans 1. Imprisoned

2. Emancipated
W

3. Annoyed
.C

4. Sick
O

Question ID : 6009296452
M

Q.3 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
To strain every nerve
Ans 1. To have a mental breakdown

2. To be tired after a long day of work

3. To work according to a plan

4. To make utmost efforts

Question ID : 6009296451
Q.4 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.
Choose the correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Rendezvous

2. Randazvous

3. Randezvous

4. Rendazvous

Question ID : 6009296447

Q.5 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
To smell a rat
Ans 1. To smell a dead rat

2. To suspect foul dealing

W

3. To see symptoms of a plague epidemic

W

4. To be in a bad mood
W

Question ID : 6009296449
.A

Q.6 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
To be tied to the apron strings
LL

Ans 1. To be emotional

2. To be under the influence of a woman

EX

3. To cook a large amount of food

4. To have a long day of work ahead of you

A

Question ID : 6009296448
M

Q.7 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.
R

Choose the correctly spelt word.

Ans
EV

1. Dreconian

2. Draconian

3. Draconien
IE

4. Dreconien
W

Question ID : 6009296443
.C

Q.8 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.
Choose the correctly spelt word.
O

Ans 1. Situetion
M

2. Situation

3. Situatien

4. Setuation

Question ID : 6009296442
Q.9 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options
given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
P: Born in what was then the British colony of St. Kitts, Joan Armatrading’s family
moved to Birmingham, England, when she was a child.
Q: She taught herself to play the guitar and the piano, and, by the time she was a
teenager, she was performing her compositions at local clubs.
R: Armatrading broke into the mainstream with the self-titled Joan Armatrading in
1976, and she quickly rose to prominence within the British singer-songwriter
community.
S: While appearing in the British touring production of the musical Hair, she met fellow
Caribbean immigrant Pam Nestor, and the two collaborated on Whatever’s for Us in
1972.
Ans 1. RPSQ

2. PQSR

3. PQRS

4. SRPQ
W

Question ID : 6009296436
W

Q.10 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
Utopian idea
W

Ans 1. Unworthy idea

.A

2. Imaginary idea

3. An easy solution
LL

4. Original idea
EX

Question ID : 6009296450

Q.11 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options
A

given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
P: The spider’s large fangs cause physical trauma at the site of the bite.
Q: These spiders are venomous, but their bites are not considered dangerous.
M

R: Although the wolf spider is not considered to be aggressive, it will often bite people
in self-defence.
R

S: The bite itself has been described as similar to that of a bee sting, and the venom
the spider injects may cause itchiness at the site.
EV

Ans 1. RPSQ

2. QSPR
IE

3. RQPS

4. SRQP
W

Question ID : 6009296437
.C

Q.12 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

O

Kolkata remains at
P: the vanguard of artistic
M

Q: movements in the country,

R: present annual shows
S: and several artists’ societies
Ans 1. QRSP

2. PQSR

3. PSQR

4. SQRP

Question ID : 6009296435
Q.13 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.
Choose the correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Drautbaord

2. Druaghtboard

3. Draughtboard

4. Drotbard

Question ID : 6009296446

Q.14 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
Draw a blank
Ans 1. To be imprisoned

2. Fail to get an answer

W

3. To give someone a blank eheque

W

4. Got arrested
W

Question ID : 6009296453
.A

Q.15 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.
Choose the correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Creotion
LL

2. Creatien

3. Creatian
EX

4. Creation
A

Question ID : 6009296444
M

Q.16 Choose the word that means the same as the given word.
Pestilent
R

Ans 1. Corrective
EV

2. Pester

3. Contagious
IE

4. Fester
W

Question ID : 6009296440
.C

Q.17 Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.
A doctor who treats children
O

Ans 1. Psychologist

2. Cardiologist
M

3. Paediatrician

4. Gynaecologist

Question ID : 6009296454
Q.18 Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

Glisten
Ans 1. Shine

2. Sparkle

3. Dull

4. Flicker

Question ID : 6009296438

Q.19 Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.
Pernicious
Ans 1. Parlous

2. Evergreen
W

3. Inimical
W

4. Innocent
W

Question ID : 6009296439
.A

Q.20 In the given question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.
Choose the correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Diarrheoa
LL

2. Diarehhoea

3. Diarrhoea
EX

4. Diorheoa
A

Question ID : 6009296445
M
R

Section : General English3

EV

Q.1 Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.
A disease that affects a large number of people in an area at the same time
Ans 1. Endemic
IE

2. Viral
W

3. Epidemic

4. Contagious
.C

Question ID : 6009296455
O

Q.2 Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.
M

A large group of people or things of a particular kind.

Ans 1. Epistle

2. Bevy

3. Swarm

4. Party

Question ID : 6009296458
Q.3 Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.
A four wheeled carriage for a baby, pushed by a person on foot
Ans 1. Pram

2. Rickshaw

3. Cart

4. Bike

Question ID : 6009296456

Q.4 Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.
A group of three powerful people
Ans 1. Trio

2. Trinity
W

3. Triumvirate

4. Tritium
W

Question ID : 6009296457
W

Q.5 Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.
.A

A heavy continuous rainfall

Ans 1. Torrid
LL

2. Downpour

3. Blizzard
EX

4. Avalanche

Question ID : 6009296459
A
M

Comprehension:
Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
R

Lake Michigan is considered one of the Great Lakes, which include Lakes Superior, Huron,
Erie, and Ontario. Lake Michigan’s name is derived from the Ojibwa word Michi Gami,
meaning “large lake.” It is the only one of the Great Lakes that is completely surrounded by
EV

the United States; all the other Great Lakes have U.S. soil on one side, and Canadian soil on
the other side, making them international boundaries between two large nations. Lake
Michigan itself is surrounded by four states.
The largest city on Lake Michigan is the city of Chicago, Illinois, with the second-largest city
IE

being Milwaukee, Wisconsin. There is a great history related to this lake.

The earliest people to inhabit the area around Lake Michigan were Native American Indians.
The original Hopewell Indians were eventually replaced by the Late Woodland Indians, which
W

included the Sioux, Fox, Miami, Chippewa, and Winnebago Indians among others. The first
non-Indian, European person considered to have seen Lake Michigan was a French explorer
by the name of Jean Nicolet in the early part of the seventeenth century.
.C

Eventually, the area around Lake Michigan was occupied by the French, then the British, and
eventually the United States. It was under the jurisdiction of the United States that settlement
and development took place, leading to the cities, population size, economy, infrastructure
O

and industry that we find today.

M

SubQuestion No : 6
Q.6 What does Lake Michigan means according to the passage?
Ans 1. Large lake

2. Large sea

3. Long Sea

4. Long lake

Question ID : 6009296461
 Comprehension:
Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Lake Michigan is considered one of the Great Lakes, which include Lakes Superior, Huron,
Erie, and Ontario. Lake Michigan’s name is derived from the Ojibwa word Michi Gami,
meaning “large lake.” It is the only one of the Great Lakes that is completely surrounded by
the United States; all the other Great Lakes have U.S. soil on one side, and Canadian soil on
the other side, making them international boundaries between two large nations. Lake
Michigan itself is surrounded by four states.
The largest city on Lake Michigan is the city of Chicago, Illinois, with the second-largest city
being Milwaukee, Wisconsin. There is a great history related to this lake.
The earliest people to inhabit the area around Lake Michigan were Native American Indians.
The original Hopewell Indians were eventually replaced by the Late Woodland Indians, which
included the Sioux, Fox, Miami, Chippewa, and Winnebago Indians among others. The first
non-Indian, European person considered to have seen Lake Michigan was a French explorer
by the name of Jean Nicolet in the early part of the seventeenth century.
Eventually, the area around Lake Michigan was occupied by the French, then the British, and
eventually the United States. It was under the jurisdiction of the United States that settlement
and development took place, leading to the cities, population size, economy, infrastructure
and industry that we find today.

SubQuestion No : 7
W

Q.7 Which of the following statement is true, as per the above passage?
Ans 1. Lake Michigan is surrounded by five states.
W

2. Lake Michigan is completely surrounded by The United states and Canada.

W

3. The first European Indian had seen Lake Michigan.

4. Lake Michigan was considered to have seen by a French explorer.

.A

Question ID : 6009296462
LL

Comprehension:
EX

Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Lake Michigan is considered one of the Great Lakes, which include Lakes Superior, Huron,
Erie, and Ontario. Lake Michigan’s name is derived from the Ojibwa word Michi Gami,
meaning “large lake.” It is the only one of the Great Lakes that is completely surrounded by
A

the United States; all the other Great Lakes have U.S. soil on one side, and Canadian soil on
the other side, making them international boundaries between two large nations. Lake
Michigan itself is surrounded by four states.
M

The largest city on Lake Michigan is the city of Chicago, Illinois, with the second-largest city
being Milwaukee, Wisconsin. There is a great history related to this lake.
R

The earliest people to inhabit the area around Lake Michigan were Native American Indians.
The original Hopewell Indians were eventually replaced by the Late Woodland Indians, which
EV

included the Sioux, Fox, Miami, Chippewa, and Winnebago Indians among others. The first
non-Indian, European person considered to have seen Lake Michigan was a French explorer
by the name of Jean Nicolet in the early part of the seventeenth century.
Eventually, the area around Lake Michigan was occupied by the French, then the British, and
IE

eventually the United States. It was under the jurisdiction of the United States that settlement
and development took place, leading to the cities, population size, economy, infrastructure
and industry that we find today.
W

SubQuestion No : 8
Q.8 Which of the following lake is NOT mentioned in the passage?
.C

Ans 1. Lake Ontario

O

2. Lake Tahoe

3. Lake Superior
M

4. Lake Huron

Question ID : 6009296464
 Comprehension:
Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Lake Michigan is considered one of the Great Lakes, which include Lakes Superior, Huron,
Erie, and Ontario. Lake Michigan’s name is derived from the Ojibwa word Michi Gami,
meaning “large lake.” It is the only one of the Great Lakes that is completely surrounded by
the United States; all the other Great Lakes have U.S. soil on one side, and Canadian soil on
the other side, making them international boundaries between two large nations. Lake
Michigan itself is surrounded by four states.
The largest city on Lake Michigan is the city of Chicago, Illinois, with the second-largest city
being Milwaukee, Wisconsin. There is a great history related to this lake.
The earliest people to inhabit the area around Lake Michigan were Native American Indians.
The original Hopewell Indians were eventually replaced by the Late Woodland Indians, which
included the Sioux, Fox, Miami, Chippewa, and Winnebago Indians among others. The first
non-Indian, European person considered to have seen Lake Michigan was a French explorer
by the name of Jean Nicolet in the early part of the seventeenth century.
Eventually, the area around Lake Michigan was occupied by the French, then the British, and
eventually the United States. It was under the jurisdiction of the United States that settlement
and development took place, leading to the cities, population size, economy, infrastructure
and industry that we find today.

SubQuestion No : 9
Q.9 Which of the following is the synonym of the word-‘Settlement’ as per the context?
Ans 1. Agreement

2. Community
W

3. Bargain

4. Decision
W

Question ID : 6009296465
W

Comprehension:
.A

Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Lake Michigan is considered one of the Great Lakes, which include Lakes Superior, Huron,
Erie, and Ontario. Lake Michigan’s name is derived from the Ojibwa word Michi Gami,
LL

meaning “large lake.” It is the only one of the Great Lakes that is completely surrounded by
the United States; all the other Great Lakes have U.S. soil on one side, and Canadian soil on
the other side, making them international boundaries between two large nations. Lake
Michigan itself is surrounded by four states.
EX

The largest city on Lake Michigan is the city of Chicago, Illinois, with the second-largest city
being Milwaukee, Wisconsin. There is a great history related to this lake.
The earliest people to inhabit the area around Lake Michigan were Native American Indians.
The original Hopewell Indians were eventually replaced by the Late Woodland Indians, which
A

included the Sioux, Fox, Miami, Chippewa, and Winnebago Indians among others. The first
non-Indian, European person considered to have seen Lake Michigan was a French explorer
M

by the name of Jean Nicolet in the early part of the seventeenth century.
Eventually, the area around Lake Michigan was occupied by the French, then the British, and
R

eventually the United States. It was under the jurisdiction of the United States that settlement
and development took place, leading to the cities, population size, economy, infrastructure
and industry that we find today.
EV

SubQuestion No : 10
Q.10 Choose the word which is the exact opposite of the word-‘Native’?
IE

Ans 1. Local

2. Imported
W

3. Domestic
.C

4. Aboriginal
O

Question ID : 6009296463
M