Section 1

LISTENING COMPREHENSION
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with
special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated
or implied by the speakers in this test. Do not take notes or write in your test book at
any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so.

Part A
Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After
each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations
and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible
answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet,
find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.
On the recording, you hear: Sample Answer:A B CD

In your test book, you read:

(A) He doesn't like the painting either.
(B) He doesn't know how to paint.
(C) He doesn't have any paintings.
(D) He doesn't know what to do.

You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting.
The best answer to the question "What does the man mean?" is (A), "He doesn't like
the painting either." Therefore, the correct choice is (A).
1. (A) He finished the problem at last. 8. (A) She convinced Jack to go.
(B) He hardly worked on the math. (B) She will not be able to go to the
(C) It was hard for him to assign the restaurant.
math. (C) Jack has convinced her to go to a
(D) The problem was very difficult. restaurant.
(D) Jack is not going.
2. (A) He didn't fail by much.
(B) He completely failed the exam. 9. (A) Descend the stairs and go in the
(C) He had a really high grade. second door.
(D) His grade was low but passing. (B) Step around the building and enter
through the first door.
3. (A) The laundry is getting done. (C) Go through the first door and go
(B) They are close to the cleaners. down the steps.
(C) The woman should close the (D) Go down the hall and enter the
machine. doorway.
(D) He is watching someone clear the
machine. 10. (A) She can see him very clearly.
(B) He speaks loudly.
4. (A) Leaving on Tuesday. (C) He's very soft-spoken.
(B) Cutting their visit short. (D) She didn't speak to him.
(C) Changing the day of their
departure. 11. (A) She would like the man to repeat
(D) Postponing their visit to a later himself.
date. (B) The last exam was not very hard.
(C) She agrees with the man about the
5. (A) The landlord has raised the rent. exam.
(B) The landlord has received a letter (D) The man has repeated himself
with some bad news. several times.
(C) The landlord will not increase the
rent. 12. (A) It has probably not been arranged.
(D) The landlord will not rent them an (B) It is ready for the conference.
apartment. (C) It needs a set of chairs.
(D) It needs to be emptied.
6. (A) He is always underappreciated.
(B) She is thankful for what he did. 13. (A) She'll be able to stay up until the
(C) He has made no apparent effort. last moment.
(D) She feels little appreciation for his (B) She's been running for some time.
efforts. (C) She's not sure when the last exam
is.
7. (A) Getting dressed. (D) She's really exhausted.
(B) Making salad.
(C) Shopping for groceries. 14. (A) He fascinated the guests.
(D) Washing clothes. (B) The speaker's ideas intrigued him.
(C) Giving speeches is fascinating.
(D) He was a guest of the speaker.
15. (A) It is quite humid this week. 21. (A) That she wouldn't take the trip.
(B) The humidity will last through the (B) That she would go to the beach.
week. (C) That she really liked the beach.
(C) It is drier now. (D) That she would take a break from
(D) It was better just last week. her studies.

16. (A) She was extremely understanding. 22. (A) They were disappointed.
(B) She couldn't understand the (B) They didn't get any gifts.
explanation. (C) They were unexcited.
(C) She did not understand the (D) They were really pleased.
problem.
(D) She missed class due to illness. 23. (A) She believes she can succeed.
(B) She's decided to pull out of it.
17. (A) She didn't see all of the show. (C) She wants to put off the speech for
(B) The show was unbelievable. a while.
(C) She doesn't believe that the show (D) She thinks the speech is too long.
really happened.
(D) The skydivers were pulled off their 24. (A) She'd like to offer the man a
feet. scholarship.
(B) The documents were returned to
18. (A) They were unable to pay the bill. her with a signature.
(B) The prices were surprisingly low. (C) She needs to sign the documents.
(C) The restaurant was too expensive (D) She works in the scholarship
for them to try. office.
(D) They almost didn't have enough to
pay for the meal. 25. (A) He doesn't have time to pay the
bills.
19. (A) He has to take microbiology. (B) The bills weren't paid on time.
(B) He wishes he could take (C) Of course, he paid the bills on
microbiology this semester. time.
(C) He is not enrolling in (D) He will pay the bills for the last
microbiology this semester. time.
(D) He had hoped to take
microbiology this semester. 26. (A) He thinks the lecture was really
interesting.
20. (A) That she would take the course. (B) He's not sure if the ideas are
(B) That the first lecture would not be workable.
tomorrow. (C) He understood nothing about the
(C) That he would not be in the course. lecture.
(D) That she would not register. (D) He's not sure what the woman
would like to know.
27. (A) He missed an opportunity. 29. (A) That John would pick them up for
(B) He was late for his trip. the concert.
(C) He should take the next boat. (B) That the concert would start
(D) He should send in his application. earlier.
(C) That John would not be going to
28. (A) He agrees with what she said. the concert.
(B) He thinks she didn't say anything. (D) That they would be late to the
(C) He couldn't hear what she said. concert.
(D) He did hear what she said.
30. (A) He enjoyed the trip immensely.
(B) The boat trip was really rough.
(C) He couldn't have enjoyed the trip
more.
(D) The water was not very rough.
 PART B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you
will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test book.

31. (A) The price of textbooks. 35. (A) That babies sleep thirteen hours a
(B) History 101. day.
(C) The university bookstore. (B) That the woman was taking a
(D) Ways to sell used books. psychology class.
(C) That more mature people required
32. (A) He desperately needs the money. so much sleep.
(B) Reading doesn't interest him. (D) That the need for sleep decreases
(C) He's finished using them. with age.
(D) He'd rather have cheaper books.
36. (A) In psychology class.
33. (A) The bookstore doesn't want to buy (B) In a discussion with the man.
them. (C) From an article that she read.
(B) He wouldn't get enough money. (D) From the class textbook.
(C) He doesn't like the bookstore's
advertisements. 37. (A) Teens.
(D) It's too late to sell them to the (B) Twenties.
bookstore. (C) Thirties.
(D) Fifties.
34. (A) Post some advertisements.
(B) Take History 101. 38. (A) Thirteen hours.
(C) Give the books to the bookstore for (B) Nine hours.
nothing. (C) Eight hours.
(D) Keep the books. (D) Six hours.
 PART C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you
will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated. After you hear
a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you hear:
Now listen to a sample question. Sample Answer:
A B C D
In your test book, you read:
(A) To demonstrate the latest use of computer graphics.
(B) To discuss the possibility of an economic depression.
(C) To explain the workings of the brain.
(D) To dramatize a famous mystery story.
The best answer to the question, "What is the main purpose of the program?" is (C),
"To explain the workings of the brain." Therefore, the correct choice is (C).
Now listen to another sample question. Sample Answer:
A B C D
In your test book, you read:
(A) It is required of all science majors.
(B) It will never be shown again.
(C) It can help viewers improve their memory skills
(D) It will help with course work.
The best answer to the question, "Why does the speaker recommend watching the
program?" is (D). "It will help with course work." Therefore, the correct choice is (D).
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write on your test book.
39. (A) A professional dancer. 45. (A) Very spicy.
(B) A student in the dance (B) Full of sugar.
department. (C) Salty.
(C) The head of the dance (D) Full of tobacco.
department.
(D) A choreographer. 46. (A) An Acadian will give a talk.
(B) The bus ride will continue.
40. (A) Which dance degree to take. (C) They will stop in Lafayette.
(B) Whether or not to major in (D) They will see the exhibition at
dance. Acadian Village.
(C) Whether to be a professional
dancer or choreographer. 47. (A) The purpose of the FCC.
(D) Whether to specialize in dance (B) The relatively rapid
therapy or dance history. development of radio.
(C) Interference from competing
41. (A) Physical therapy. radio stations.
(B) Dance history. (D) The first U.S. radio station.
(C) Choreography.
(D) Dance administration. 48. (A) Introduction to Engineering.
(B) Popular Radio Programs.
42. (A) They are both intended for (C) Ethics in Journalism.
professional dancers. (D) The History of Communication.
(B) They involve mostly the same
courses. 49. (A) The many radio stations were
(C) They do not need to be selected highly regulated.
until later. (B) In 1930, there was only one
(D) They are both four-year radio station in the United
programs. States.
(C) The existing radio stations were
43. (A) A Cajun. totally uncontrolled.
(B) A tourist. (D) The FCC was unable to control
(C) An Acadian. the radio stations.
(D) A tour guide.
50. (A) First Communications
44. (A) They went to Acadia in the Committee.
eighteenth century. (B) First Control Committee.
(B) They came from France in the (C) Federal Control of
eighteenth century. Communications.
(C) They maintained characteristics (D) Federal Communications
of their old culture. Commission.
(D) They assimilated completely
into the new culture.
 Section 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time: 25 minutes (including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes.

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for
standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special
directions for each type.

STRUCTURE
Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see
four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that
best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Example I Sample Answer: A B C D
Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes ------ they both emit hot liquids from
below the Earth's surface.
(A) due to.
(B) because
(C) in spite of
(D) regardless of
The sentence should read, "Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because they
both emit hot liquids from below the Earth's surface." Therefore, you should choose (B).

Example II Sample Answer: A B C D

During the early period of ocean navigation, ------- any need for sophisticated
instruments and techniques.
(A) so that hardly
(B) when there hardly was
(C) hardly was
(D) there was hardly
The sentence should read, "During the early period of ocean navigation, there was hardly any
need for sophisticated instruments and techniques." Therefore, you should choose (D).
Now begin work on the questions.
1. Most geologists believe ________ from 6. Migraine headaches are more frequent
the remains of tiny marine plants and among women _________ among men.
animals that died millions of years ago. (A) than
(A) what was formed petroleum (B) however
(B) that petroleum was formed (C) except for
(C) when petroleum formed (D) as air
(D) petroleum that formed
7. South American flamingos can survive
2. The seat of France's North American in temperatures _________ above the
holdings in the eighteenth century was freezing point.
Quebec, and the French heritage (A) that fewer degrees
_______ dominant there. (B) if few degrees
(A) to remain (C) only a few degrees
(B) remaining (D) when fewer degrees
(C) by remaining
(D) has remained 8. Made of hard wood, the boomerang is
roughly V-shaped, with arms ________
3. If Earth did not rotate, differences in air skewed.
pressure would be _______, with winds (A) of slightly
blowing from high-pressure to low- (B) are slightly
pressure areas. (C) slightly
(A) primary air flow to cause (D) that those are slightly
(B) the primary cause of air flow
(C) they primarily cause air flow 9. Not until the late nineteenth and early
(D) air flow has a primary cause twentieth centuries ________ as a
unified science.
4. A mobile is a sculpture constructed of (A) did ecology emerge
pans so delicately connected and (B) when ecology emerged
balanced __________ the entire (C) ecology emerged
suspended structure may be moved by (D) when did ecology emerge
vibration or manual manipulation.
(A) in order 10. The ancient Egyptian water clock
(B) making required sophisticated calibration, since
(C) with water dripped faster from its bowl when
(D) that _________ and the pressure was
greater.
5. The ice of a glacier that reaches the sea (A) the full bowl
breaks off __________. (B) was the bowl full
(A) and forming icebergs (C) bowl full
(B) to form icebergs (D) the bowl was full
(C) icebergs have-formed
(D) when the formation of icebergs
11. Enid, Oklahoma, _________ a 13. All the planets in the solar system
stopping place on die Chisholm Trail except Mercury and Venus have
in the 1800's, is now the site of the natural satellites, __________ objects
fourth largest wheat storage space in that revolve around the planets.
the world. (A) which
(A) originally (B) which are
(B) which originally (C) of which
(C) was originally (D) and which
(D) originally where
14. Some subsistence activities such as
12. The common barn owl, one of ten hunting large animals or netting fish
species of barn owls found in North require __________ to work together.
America, is also called the monkey- (A) groups are
faced owl because its heart-shaped (B) groups which
face looks ___________ of a monkey. (C) groups
(A) like much that (D) that groups
(B) like that much
(C) much like that 15. The Expressionistic artist was
(D) that much like concerned not with the reality of the
subject matter but with __________
inner nature and the emotions that it
aroused.
(A) it has
(B) its
(C) what its
(D) is it whether
 WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Directions: In questions 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases.
The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify
the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to
be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example 1 Sample Answer: A B C D

Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fishbecause of the males' bright colors.
A B C D

The sentence should read. "Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish because of the
males' bright colors." Therefore, you should choose (A).

Example II Sample Answer: A B C D

Serving several term in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United

A B C
States politician.
D

The sentence should read, "Serving several terms in Congress, Shirley Chisholm
became an important United States politician." Therefore, you should choose (B).

Now begin work on the questions.

16． By the end of the nineteenth century, organic chemistry had develop new
A B
methods for the synthesis of dyes, perfumes, explosives, and medicines.
C D
17． The Dinee, a Native American people of the southwestern United States, were
A
once seminomadic hunters who practiced a few agriculture.
B C D
18． The earliest successful sewing machines were powered by turn a hand crank.
A B C D
19． Early signs characteristic of the acute phase of viral hepatitis in adults are
A B C
abdominal pain, nausea, and feverish often accompanied by chills.
D
20． The Guggenheim Museum in New York City is one of the major center for
A
the collection and display of works of abstract art in the United States.
B C D
21． With the discovery of gold in the Klondike in Canada's Yukon Territory in 1896,
A B
people flocked soon there from all parts of the world.
C D
22． The right side of the brain is mostly concerned with pictorial, intuitive, musically
A B C
and spatial abilities.
D
23． A uniform mingling of molecules, which it occurs in homogeneous chemical
A
compounds, results from the chemical constituents melting, dissolving, or
B C
diffusing into one another.
D
24. Many dinosaurs were so much heavy that they spent most of their lives in
A B
swamps and shallow lakes where water could support them.
C D
25. With little nor no mass and no electric charge, neutrinos can penetrate a solid
A B
object such as the Earth as if it were not there.
C D
26. Georgia O'Keeffe is known for hers use of organic, abstract forms painted in
A B C
clear, strong colors.
D
27． Until the George Washington Bridge was built, modern suspension bridges
A B
were stiffened with steel trusses and beams to limited their motion in traffic
C D
and wind.

28． First reported by Spanish explorers in 1796, the asphalt in California's La

A B
Brea Tar Pit was mined commercial for many years.
C D
29． Independence political of newspapers became a common feature of journalism
A B C D
in the United States of the 1840's and 1850's.

30． Transistors exhibit a high amplification factor, operate without distorted

A B
over a wide frequency range, and can be made extremely small.
C D
31. In most cases of epilepsy, cerebral electrical activity, also known as brain
A
waves, demonstrates a characteristically abnormal rhythms.
B C D
32. New York City's theatrical district was concentrated the Bowery from 1860
A B
to 1875, and around 1900 the avenue became a center for the Yiddish
C D
theatre.

33. Most female lizards lay eggs, but the females of a number of lizard species
A B C
bear her young alive.
D
34. Recently archaeologists have strived to develop theories, based on
A B
archaeological evident, that explain societal changes such as the
C D
development of farming.
35． One of the most impressive cultural achievements of the United States during the
A B
1920's was a vastly outpouring of serious literature.
C D
36． The chemical element chlorine is a corrosive, greenish-yellow gas that has sharp
A B C
odor and has 21/2 times heavier than air.
D
37． Hair grows more quickly in summer than in winter and more slowly at the night
A B C
than during the day.
D
38． Different fourteen crops were being grown 8,600 years ago by some of the
A B C
world's earliest farmers.
D
39． Between 1905 and 1907, floodwaters from the Colorado River poured into a
A B C
salt-covered depression and creating the Salton Sea.
D
40．Saturn takes almost 30 Earth years to make one trip around the Sun, during
A B
Jupiter takes about twelve Earth years to complete one solar revolution.
C D

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2.

If you finish in less than 25 minutes,

check your work on section 2 only.

DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST

 Section 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time: 55 minutes (including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes.

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several
questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or
(D) to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions
following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Read the following passage:

The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society, or to draw
attention to the importance of precise timekeeping. For as long as merchants have set out
their wares at daybreak and communal festivities have been celebrated, people have been
in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day. The value of this tradition
is today more apparent than ever. Were it not for public acceptance of a single yardstick
of time, social life would be unbearably chaotic: the massive daily transfers of goods,
services, and information would proceed in fits and starts; the very fabric of modem society
would begin to unravel.

Example I Sample Answer: A B C D

What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) In modem society we must make more time for our neighbors.
(B) The traditions of society are timeless.
(C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society.
(D) Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities.
The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how time is to be measured
in order to function smoothly. Therefore, you should choose (C).

Example II Sample Answer: A B C D

In line 5, the phrase "this tradition" refers to
(A) the practice of starting the business day at dawn
(B) friendly relations between neighbors
(C) the railroad's reliance on time schedules
(D) people's agreement on the measurement of time
The phrase "this tradition" refers to the preceding clause, "people have been in rough
agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day." Therefore, you should choose (D).

Now begin work on the questions.

 Questions 1-9
Lines Composers today use a wider variety of sounds than ever before, including many that were
once considered undesirable noises. Composer Edgard Varese (1883-1965) called thus the
"liberation of sound...the right to make music with any and all sounds."Electronic music, for
example—made with the aid of computers, synthesizers, and electronic instruments—may
5 include sounds that in the past would not have been considered musical. Environmental
sounds, such as thunder, and electronically generated hisses and blips can be recorded,
manipulated, and then incorporated into a musical composition. But composers also draw
novel sounds from voices and non-electronic instruments. Singers may be asked to scream,
laugh, groan, sneeze, or sing phonetic sounds rather than words. Wind and string players may
10 lap or scrape their instruments.
A brass or woodwind player may hum while playing, to produce two pitches at once; a
pianist may reach inside the piano to pluck a string and then run a metal blade along it. In the
music of the Western world, the greatest expansion and experimentation have involved
percussion instruments, which outnumber strings and winds in many recent compositions.
15 Traditional percussion instruments are struck with new types of beaters; and instruments that
used to be couriered unconventional in Western music—tom-toms, bongos, slapsticks,
maracas—are widely used.
In the search for novel sounds, increased use has been made in Western music of
Microtones. Non-Western music typically divides and interval between two pitches more
20 finely than Western music does, thereby producing a greater number of distinct tones, or micro
tones, within the same interval. Composers such as Krzysztof Penderecki create sound that
borders on electronic noise through tone clusters—closely spaced tones played together and
heard as a mass, block, or band of sound. The directional aspect of sound has taken on new
importance as well. Loudspeakers or groups of instruments may be placed at opposite ends of
25 the stage, in the balcony, or at the back and sides of the auditorium. Because standard music
notation makes no provision for many of these innovations, recent music scores may contain
graphlike diagrams, new note shapes and symbols, and novel ways of arranging notation on
the page.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The use of non-traditional sounds in 2. The word "wider" in line 1 is closest in
contemporary music meaning to
(B) How sounds are produced (A) more impressive
electronically (B) more distinctive
(C) How standard musical notation has (C) more controversial
been adapted for non-traditional (D) more extensive
sounds
(D) Several composers who have
experimented with the electronic
production of sound
3. The passage suggests that Edgard Varese is
an example of a composer who 7. According to the passage, Krzystof
(A) criticized electronic music as too Penderecki is known for which of the
noiselike following practices?
(B) modified sonic of the electronic (A) Using tones that are clumped together
instruments he used in his music (B) Combining traditional and non-
(C) believed that any sound could be used traditional instruments
in music (C) Seating musicians in unusual areas of
(D) wrote music with environmental an auditorium
themes (D) Playing Western music for non-
Western audiences
4. The word "it" in line 12 refers to
(A) piano 8. According to the passage, which of the
(B) string following would be considered traditional
(C) blade elements of Western music?
(D) music (A) Microtones
(B) Tom-toms and bongos
5. According to the passage, which of the (C) Pianos
following types of instruments has played a (D) Hisses
role in much of the innovation in Western
music? 9. In line 27, the author mentions diagrams as
(A) String an example of a new way to
(B) Percussion (A) chart the history of innovation in
(C) Woodwind musical notation
(D) Brass (B) explain the logic of standard musical
notation
6. The word "thereby" in line 20 is closest in (C) design and develop electronic
meaning to instruments
(A) in return for (D) indicate how particular sounds should
(B) in spite of be produced
(C) by the way
(D) by that means
 Questions 10-19

Lines What unusual or unique biological train led to the remarkable diversification and
unchallenged success of the ants for ever 50 million years? The answer appears to be that they
were the first group of predatory eusocial insects that both lived and foraged primarily in the soil
and in rotting vegetation on the ground. Eusocial refers to a form of insect society characterized
5 by specialization of tasks and cooperative care of the young; it is rare among insects. Richly
organized colonies of the land made possible by eusociality enjoy several key advantages over
solitary individuals.
Under most circumstances, groups of workers are better able to forage for food and defend
the nest, because they can switch from individual to group response and back again swiftly and
10 according to need. When a food object or nest intruder is too large for one individual to handle,
nestmates can be quickly assembled by alarm or recruitment signals. Equally important is the fact
that the execution of multiple-step tasks is accomplished in a series-parallel sequence. That is,
individual ants can specialize in particular steps, moving from one object (such as a larva to be
fed) to another (a second larva to be fed). They do not need to carry each task to completion from
15 start to finish—.for example, to check the larva first, then collect the food, then feed the larva.
Hence, if each link in the chain has many workers in attendance, a sense directed at any particular
object is less likely to fail. Moreover, ants specializing in particular labor categories typically
constitute a caste specialized by age or body form or both. There has been some documentation of
the superiority in performance and net energetic yield of various castes for their modal tasks,
20 although careful experimental studies are still relatively few.
What makes ants unusual in the company of eusocial insects is the fact that they are the only
eusocial predators (predators are animals that capture and feed on other animals) occupying the
soil and ground litter. The eusocial termites live in the same places as ants and also have wingless
workers, but they feed almost exclusively on dead vegetation.

l0. Which of the following questions 12. The word "rotting" in line 4 is
does the passage primarily answer? closest in meaning to
(A) How do individual ants adapt (A) decaying
to specialized tasks? (B) collected
(B) What are the differences (C) expanding
between social and solitary (D) cultivated
insects?
(C) Why are ants predators? 13. The word "key" in line 6 is closest
(D) Why have ants been able to in meaning to
thrive for such a long time? (A) uncommon
(B) important
11. The word "unique" in line 1 is (C) incidental
closest in meaning to (D) temporary
(A) inherited
(B) habitual
(C) singular
(D) natural
14. According to the passage, one 16. The author uses the word "Hence"
thing eusocial insects can do is in line 16 to indicate
rapidly switch from (A) a logical conclusion
(A) one type of food consumption (B) the next step in a sense of steps
to another (C) a reason for further study
(B) one environment to another (D) the relationship among ants
(C) a solitary task to a group task
(D) a defensive to an offensive 17. All of the following terms are
stance defined in the passage EXCEPT
(A) eusocial (line 3)
15. The task of feeding larvae is (B) series-parallel sequence (lines
mentioned in the passage to 12)
demonstrate (C) caste (line 19)
(A) the advantages of (D) predators (line 22)
specialization
(B) the type of food that larvae are 18. The word "they" in line 24 refers to
fed (A) termites
(C) the ways ant colonies train (B) ants
their young for adult tasks (C) places
(D) the different stages of ant (D) predators
development
19. It can be inferred from the passage
that one main difference between
termites and ants is that termites
(A) live above ground
(B) are eusocial
(C) protect their nests
(D) eat almost no animal substances
 Questions 20-29

Lines Glaciers are large masses of ice on land that show evidence of past or present movement.
They grow by the gradual transformation of snow into glacier ice. A fresh snowfall is a fluffy
mass of loosely packed snowflakes, small delicate ice constals grown in the atmosphere. As
the snow ages on the ground for weeks or months, the crystals shrink and become more
5 compact, and the whole mass becomes squeezed together into a more dense form, granular
snow. As new snow falls and buries the older snow, the layers of granular snow further
compact to form firm, a much denser kind of snow, usually a year or more old, which has little
pore space. Further burial and slow cementation—a process by which crystals become bound
together in a mosaic of intergrown ice crystals—finally produce solid glacial ice. In this
10 process of recrystalization, the growth of new crystals at the expense of old ones, the
percentage of air is reduced from about 90 percent for snowflakes to less than 20 percent for
glacier ice. The whole process may take as little as a few years, but more likely ten or twenty
years or longer. The snow is usually many meters deep by the time the lower layers art
converted into ice.
15 In cold glaciers those formed in the coldest regions of the Earth, the entire mass of ice is at
temperatures below the melting point and no free water exists. In temperate glaciers, the ice is
at the melting point at every pressure level within the glacier, and free water is present as small
drops or as larger accumulations in tunnels within or beneath the ice.
The formation of a glacier is complete when ice has accumulated to a thickness (and thus
20 weight) sufficient to make it move slowly under pressure, in much the same way that solid
rock deep within the Earth can change shape without breaking. Once that point is reached, the
ice flows downhill, either as a tongue of ice filling a valley or as a thick ice cap that flows out
in directions from the highest central area where the most snow accumulates. The up-down
leads to the eventual melting of ice.

20. Which of the following does the passage

mainly discuss? 22. The word "bound" in line 8 is closest in
(A) The effect of glaciers on climate meaning to
(B) Damage from glaciers (A) covered
(C) Glacier formation (B) chosen
(D) The location of glaciers (C) planned
(D) held
21. Which of the following will cause
density within the glacier to increase? 23. Which of the following will be lost in
(A) Increased water and air content glacier forms?
(B) Pressure from the weight of new (A) Air
snow (B) Pressure
(C) Long periods of darkness and (C) Weight
temperature variations (D) Rocks
(D) Movement of the glacier
24. According to the passage, which of the 27. In temperate glaciers, where is water
following is the LEAST amount of time found?
necessary for glacial ice to form? (A) Only near the surface
(A) Several months (B) In pools at various depths
(B) Several years (C) In a thin layer below the firm
(C) At least fifty years (D) In tunnels
(D) A century
28. The word "it" in line 20 refers to
25. The word "converted" in line 14 is closest (A) formation
in meaning to (B) ice
(A) changed (C) thickness
(B) delayed (D) weight
(C) promoted
(D) dissolved 29. It can be inferred from the last paragraph
that a glacier
26. What is the purpose of the material in (A) can revert to a fluffy mass
lines 15-18? (B) maintains the same shape throughout
(A) To define two types of glaciers the glacial process
(B) To contrast glacier ice with non- (C) is too cold to be thoroughly studied
glacier ice (D) can contribute water to lakes, rivers,
(C) To present theories of glacier or ocean
formation
(D) To discuss the similarities between
glacial types
 Question 30-39

Lines The lack of printing regulations and the unenforceability of British copyright law in the
American colonies made it possible for colonial printers occasionally to act as publishers.
Although they rarely undertook major publishing projects because it was difficult to sell
books as cheaply as they could be imported from Europe, printers in Philadelphia did publish
5 work that required only small amounts of capital, paper, and type. Broadsides could be
published with minimal financial risk. Consisting of only one sheet of paper and requiring
small amounts of type, broadsides involved lower investments of capital than longer works.
Furthermore, the broadside format lent itself to subjects of high, if temporary, interest,
enabling them to meet with ready sale. If the broadside printer miscalculated, however, and
10 produced a sheet that did not sell, it was not likely to be a major loss, and the printer would
know this immediately. There would be no agonizing wait with large amounts of capital tied
up, books gathering dust on the shelves, and creditors impatient for payment.
In addition to broadsides, books, and pamphlets, consisting mainly of political tracts,
catechisms, primers, and chapbooks were relatively inexpensive to print and to buy.
15 Chapbooks were pamphlet-sized books, usually containing popular tales, ballads, poems, short
plays, and jokes, small, both in formal and number of pages, they were generally bound
simply, in boards (a form of cardboard) or merely stitched in paper wrappers (a sewn
antecedent of modern-day paperbacks). Pamphlets and chapbooks did not require fine paper
or a great deal of type to produce; they could thus be printed in large, cost-effective editions
20 and sold cheaply.
By far, the most appealing publishing investments were to be found in small books that had
proven to be steady sellers, providing a reasonably reliable source of income for the publisher.
They would not, by nature, be highly topical or political, as such publications would prove of
fleeting interest. Almanacs, annual publications that contained information on astronomy and
25 weather patterns arranged according to the days, weeks, and months of a given year, provided
the perfect steady seller because their information pertained to the locale in which they would
be used.
30. Which aspect of colonial printing does 35. Chapbooks produced in colonial
the passage mainly discuss? America were characterized by
(A) Laws governing the printing (A) fine paper
industry. (B) cardboard covers
(B) Competition among printers (C) elaborate decoration
(C) Types of publications produced (D) a large number of pages
(D) Advances in printing technology
36. The word "appealing" in line 21 is
31. According to the passage, why did closest in meaning to
colonial printers avoid major (A) dependable
publishing projects? (B) respectable
(A) Few colonial printers owned (C) enduring
printing machinery that was large (D) attractive
enough to handle major projects.
(B) There was inadequate shipping 37. What were "steady sellers" (line 22)?
available in the colonies. (A) Printers whose incomes were quite
(C) Colonial printers could not sell large
their work for a competitive price. (B) People who traveled from town to
(D) Colonial printers did not have the town selling Books and pamphlets
skills necessary to undertake large (C) Investors who provided reliable
publishing projects. financial support for new printers
(D) Publications whose sales were
32. Broadsides could be published with usually consistent from year to
little risk to colonial printers because year
they
(A) required a small financial 38. The word "locale" in line 26 is closest
investment and sold quickly in meaning to
(B) were in great demand in European (A) topic
markets (B) season
(C) were more popular with colonists (C) interest
than chapbooks and pamphlets (D) place
(D) generally dealt with topics of
long-term interest to many 39. All of the following are defined in the
colonists passage EXCEPT
(A) "Broadsides" (line 5)
33. The word "they" in line 16 refers to (B) "catechisms" (line 14)
(A) chapbooks (C) "chapbooks"(line l5)
(B) tales (D) "Almanacs" (line 24)
(C) jokes
(D) pages

34. The word "antecedent" in line 18 is

closest in meaning to
(A) predecessor
(B) format
(C) imitation
(D) component
Question 40-50

Lines Industrialization came to the United States after 1790 as North American
entrepreneurs increased productivity by reorganizing work and building factories. These
innovations in manufacturing boosted output and living standards to an unprecedented
extent; the average per capita wealth increased by nearly 1 percent per year—30 percent
5 over the course of a generation. Goods that had once been luxury items became part of
everyday life.
The impressive gain in output stemmed primarily from the way in which workers made
goods, since the 1790's, North American entrepreneurs — even without technological
improvements — had broadened the scope of the outwork system that made manufacturing
10 more efficient by distributing materials to a succession of workers who each performed a
single step of the production process. For example, during the 1820's and 1830's, the shoe
industry greatly expanded the scale of the outwork system. Tens of thousands of rural
women paid according to the amount they produced, fabricated the "uppers" of shoes,
which were bound to the soles by wage-earning journeymen shoemakers in dozens of
15 Massachusetts towns, whereas previously journeymen would have made the endure shoe.
This system of production made the employer a powerful "shoe boss" and eroded workers'
control over the pace and conditions of labor. However, it also dramatically increased the
output of shoes while cutting their price.
For tasks that were not suited to the outwork system, entrepreneurs created an even
20 more important new organization, the modern factory, which used power-driven machines
and assembly-line techniques to turn out large quantities of well-made goods. As early as
1782, the prolific Delaware inventor Oliver Evans had built a highly automated,
laborsaving flour mill driven by water power. His machinery lifted the grain to the top of
the mill, cleaned it as it fell into containers known as hoppers, ground the grain into flour,
25 and then conveyed the flour back to the top of the mill to allow it to cool as it descended
into barrels. Subsequently, manufacturers made use of new improved stationary steam
engines to power their mills. This new technology enabled them to build factories in the
nation's largest cities, taking advantage of urban concentrations of inexpensive labor, good
transportation networks, and eager customers.

40. What is the passage mainly about? 41. The word "boosted" in line 3 is closest
(A) The difficulties of industrialization in meaning to
in North America (A) ensured
(B) The influence of changes in (B) raised
manufacturing on the growth of (C) arranged
urban centers (D) discouraged
(C) The rapid speed of industrialization
in North America
(D) Improved ways of organizing the
manufacturing of goods
42. The word "scope" in line 9 is closest in (A) efficient
meaning to (B) productive
(A) value (C) self-employed
(B) popularity (D) progressive
(C) extent
(D) diversity 47. According to the passage, how did later
mills differ from the mill built by Oliver
43 . The author mentions the shoe industry in Evans?
the second paragraph to provide an (A) They were located away from large
example of how cities.
(A) entrepreneurs increased output by (B) They used new technology to
using an extended outwork system produce power.
(B) entrepreneurs used technological (C) They did not allow flour to cool
improvements to increase output before it was placed in Barrels.
(C) rural workers responded to "shoe (D) They combined technology with the
bosses" outwork system.
(D) changes in the outwork system
improved the quality of shoes 48. The word "it" in line 24 refers to
(A) water power
44. All of the following are mentioned as (B) machinery
effects of changes in the shoe industry (C) grain
during the 1820's and 1830's EXCEPT (D) mill
(A) an increase in the worker's
dependence on entrepreneurs 49. The passage mentions which of the
(B) an increase in the wages paid to following as a result of improvements in
journeymen shoemakers factory machinery?
(C) a decline in the workers ability to (A) It become easier for factory owners
control the speed of production to find workers and customers.
(D) a decrease in the price of shoes (B) Manufacturers had to employ more
highly skilled workers.
45. All of the following are true of the (C) The amount of power required for
outwork system EXCEPT factories operate was reduced.
(A) It involved stages of production. (D) Factories could operate more than
(B) It was more efficient than the one engine at a time.
systems used before 1790.
(C) It made many employers less 50. The word "eager" in line 29 is closest in
powerful than they had been before. meaning to
(D) It did not necessarily involve any (A) wealthy
technological improvements. (B) knowledgeable
(C) regular
46. The word "prolific" in line 22 is closest in (D) enthusiastic
meaning to