D.A.V.
PUBLIC SCHOOL, NEW PANVEL
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER FOR FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
2025-2026
BIOLOGY(044)
Class: XII Time allotted:3Hours
Date : Max.Marks:70
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General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:
(i) This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five sections .Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A questions 1 to 16 are multiple choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
(iv) Section B questions 17 to 21 are very short answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks.
(v) Section C questions 22 to 28 are short answer type questions. Each question carries
3 marks.
(vi) Section D questions 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each question carries
4 marks. Each question has subparts with internal choice in one of the subparts.
(vii) Section E questions 31 to 33 are long answer type questions. Each question carries
5 marks.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in Sections B, D and
E of the question paper. A candidate has to write answer for only one of the alternatives in such
questions..
(ix) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
SECTION-A
1. An anther is made up of the following major parts:lobes,theca and sporangia.The theca are
cavities in which the sporangia develop.
Which of the following types of anther structure can develop into a tetrasporangiate
anther?
(a)Filamentous (b) Monothecous (c)Dithecus (d)Unlobed
2. The is a temporary organ that connects a mammalian mother to its foetus.
(a)Placenta (b)Chorion (c) Endometrium (d)None of the above
3. How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have?
(a) 34 (b)44 (c )54 (d)33
4. Residual persistent nucellus in black pepper is known as
(a)Perisperm (b)Pericarp (c)Pulvinus (d)Perianth
5. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in ARTs is called
(a)GIFT (b)ZIFT (c )ICSI (d)ET
6. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by Valine. Which one of the following triplets
codes for valine?
(a)GGG (b) AAG (c)GAA (d)GUG
7. Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced?
(a) Chromosome 1 (b) Chromosome 11
(c)Chromosome 21 (d)Chromosome X
8. Which type of selection explains industrial melanism observed in moth,Biston bitularia?
(a)Stabilising (b)Directonal (c)Disruptive (d) Artifical
9. Three genes R,S and T are located on the same chromosome. If the recombinant percentage
between R and S is 20%,R and Ti s 35% and S and T is15% respectively, can you predict the
correct order of these genes on the chromosomes? Which of the following shows the correct
sequence of the genes on the chromosome?
(a)R—T—S (b)R—S—T (c)S—R--T (d)S—T—R
10. Identify the region ‘X’ the factor ‘Y’ and the enzyme ‘Z’ involved in the process of transcription
in prokaryote as shown in the schematic representation given below.
Region‘X’ Region‘Y’ Region‘z’
(a) Terminator Sigma(σ) RNA Polymerase
(b) Promoter Rho(ρ) RNA Polymerase
(c) Promoter Sigma(σ) RNA Polymerase
(d) Promoter Sigma(σ) DNA Polymerase
11. Which of the following products was produced as a result of DNA manipulation in the first
transgenic cow “Rosie”?
(a)α-1-antitrypsin (b)α-lactalbumin (c)β-lactglucose (d)α-deaminase
12. After the completion of biosynthetic stage in a bioreactor,the product under goes a series
of processes before it is ready for marketing.
List of the processes is given below.Identify the option that gives the correct sequence of the
processes carried out.
(i)Purification of product (ii)Formulation with suitable preservative
(iii)Separation of product (iv)Clinical trial of product
(a)(ii)(iii)(i)(iv) (b)(iii)(ii)(i)(iv)
(c)(iii)(i)(ii)(iv) (d)(i)(iii)(iv)(ii)
Queston No.13 to16 consist of two statement-Assertion(A) and Reason.Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R areTRUE and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
13. Assertion:IUT is the transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus.
Reason: IUT is a very popular method of forming embryos in-vitro.
14. Assertion:There is expression of only one gene of the parental character in Mendelian
Monohybrid cross in F1 generation.
Reason:In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates the other.
15. Assertion:RNA polymerases are able to catalyse all three steps of translation.
Reason:RNA polymerases contain an initiation factor and a termination factor in them.
16. Assertion:PCR primers do not have self complementary regions.
Reason:PCR involves use of Taq polymerase as it can withstand the high temperature of
the process.
SECTION-B
17. Explain the hormonal control of spermatogenesis in human male.
18. How does thalassemia-α differ from thalassemia-β?
19. Identify the untranslated regions from the following mRNA and mention their location.
5’ - ACGGCUUAUGGCGUUUCCCAGGCGAUAAGGCAGAA-3’
20. β-galactosidase enzyme is considered a better selectable marker. Justify the statement.
21. How did Eli Lilly Company produce human insulin?
OR
Identify the following picture. Mention its function and label the parts A,B,CandD.
SECTION-C
22. Trace the development of a 3-celled pollen grain of an angiosperm with in an anther.
23. Explain the role of pituitary and ovarian hormones in the menstrual cycle of human female.
24. Mention the composition of contraceptive pills. How do they prevent pregnancy? In which ways
‘Saheli’ is better than these pills?
25. Explain the process of maturation of mRNA in eukaryotes.
26. Describe the two major methodologies of DNA sequencing in HGP.
27. Explain Hardy-Weinberg Principle. What is its significance in study of evolution?
OR
Study the following pedigree and find out the type of disease inherited in the family.
(autosomal dominant / Autosomal recessive / sex-linked with reason)
28. Why can’t DNA pass through cell membrane? How are bacteria made competent to take up
DNA?
SECTION-D
29. In the last century an all-round development in various fields significantly improved the quality
of life of the people. However, increased health facilities along with better living conditions had
an explosive impact on the growth of population. The world population which was around 2
billion (2000million) in1900 rocketed to about 6 billion by 2000 and 7.2 billion in 2011.A similar
trend was observed in India too.Our population which was approximately 350 million at the
time of our independence reached close to the billion mark by 2000 and crossed 1.2 billion in
May 2011.
(i) Mention any four reasons of population explosion in our country?
(ii) Mention any two steps that are taken by our country to tackle this problem.
(iii) What are the major tasks of RCH programmes?
OR
(iv)What is amniocentesis? Why is it banned in our country?
30. Refer to the checker board for the genetic code and answer the following questions.
(i) Why is the genetic codes aid to be non-ambiguous and specific?
(ii) What does UAA, UGA and UAG code for?
(iii) A given amino acid can be specified by more than one codon. Which feature of genetic
code is shown here?
OR
Among all the codons shown above how many codons code for amino acids?
SECTION-E
31. Describe the process of oogenesis in human female.
OR
Explain the method of development of female gametophyte in angiosperms.Why is it called
monosporic development ?
32. Name the scientists who proved DNA as the genetic material. Describe their experiment.
OR
(i) Describe the experiment conducted by Morgan and his group.What did he prove?
(ii) Why did Morgan select Drosophila for his experiment? Give any four reasons.
33. (i)With the help of an example explain the phenomenon of ‘RNA interference’.
(ii)What are the two core techniques of modern biotechnology?
OR
What is the role of ADA in human body? Write down the different methods of treatment of ADA
deficiency disorder. Mention their disadvantages and suggest the remedy.
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