CBSE - TECHNO AP, TG &
X NORTH
– OT – 2
OBJECTIVE TEST – II
Class : X BOARD : CBSE TECHNO Max. Marks : 60
Subjects : Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry. Time : 90 min
SYLLABUS
Mathematics : Track (A) : 1) Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables, 2) Coordinate Geometry
Track (B) : 1) Introduction to Trigonometry, 2) Probability
Physics : Human eye and colourful world
Chemistry : Carbon and its Compounds Part - I
MATHEMATICS
TRACK - A :
Straight objective type questions :
1. A pair of equations ax + 2y = 9 and 3x + by = 18 represent parallel lines, where
a, b are integers, if [ ]
a) a = b b) 3a = 2b c) 2a = 3b d) ab = 6
2. The value of k for which the system of linear equations x + 2y = 3,
5x + ky + 7 = 0 is inconsistent is [ ]
−14 2
a) b) c) 5 d) 10
3 5
3. The pair of linear equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and – 3x = 6y – 1 has [ ]
a) unique solution b) exactly two solutions
c) infinitely many solutions d) no solution
4. If am ≠ bl, then the pair of equations ax + by = c; lx + my = n : [ ]
a) may or may not have a solution b) has infinitely many solutions
c) has no solution d) has a unique solution
5. The sum of the digits of a two - digit number is 9. If 27 is added to it, the digits
of the number get reversed. The number is [ ]
a) 36 b) 25 c) 63 d) 72
6. If 2x – 3y = 7 and (a + b) x – (a + b – 3) y = 4a + b represent coincident lines,
then a and b satisfy the equation [ ]
a) a + 5b = 0 b) 5a + b = 0 c) a – 5b = 0 d) 5a – b = 0
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7. If ABCD is a rectangle, then [ ]
a) x = 10, y = 2 D x +y C
b) x = 12, y = 8
x _y
8
c) x = 12, y = 10
A 12 B
d) x = 20, y = 10
8. If the distance between the points (4, p) and (1, 0) is 5, then the value of p is
a) 5 b4 c) 0 d) – 3 [ ]
9. The centre of a circle is at (2, 0). If one end of a diameter is at (6, 0), then the
other end is at [ ]
a) (0,0) b) (4, 0) c) (–2, 0) d) (– 6, 0)
10. If the point P(x, y) is equidistant from A(5, 1) and B(–1, 5), then [ ]
a) 5x = y b) x = 5y c) 3x = 2y d) 2x = 3y
11. The line segment joining points (–3, – 4) and (1, –2) is divided by Y –axis in
the ratio [ ]
a) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 1 c) 3 : 2 d) 1 : 3
12. If (–1, 2), (2, –1), (3, 1) and (a, b) taken in order as vertices of a parallelogram,
then [ ]
a) a = 0, b = 4 b) a = 2, b = 0 c) a = 6,b = 2 d) a = –2, b = 0
13. If the point (k, 0) divides the line segment joining the point A(2, – 2) and
B (– 7, 4) in the ratio is 1 : 2, then the value of k is [ ]
a) 1 b) 2 c) – 2 d) – 1
14. The point (– 4, 0), (4, 0) and (0, 3) are the vertices of a [ ]
a) right triangle b) isosceles triangle
c) equilateral triangle d) scalence triangle
15. If P is a point on +ve x – axis such that its distance from the origin is 3 units, then
the coordinates of a point Q on OY (+ve y – axis) such OP = OQ are
a) (0, 3) b) (3, 0) c) (0, 0) d) (0, – 3) [ ]
TRACK - B :
16. In a Δ ABC , if ∠B = 90° , BC = 5cm, AC – AB = 1cm. Then the value of
1 + sin C
is [ ]
1 + cosC
18 36 25 31
a) b) c) d)
25 31 18 36
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4sin A + 3cos A
17. If 2 tanA = 3, then the vlaue of is [ ]
4sin A − 3cos A
7 1 2
a) b) c) 3 d)
13 3 3
1
18. If sin θ = and θ is acute, then (3cos θ − 4 cos3 θ ) is equal to [ ]
2
1 1
a) 0 b) c) d) – 1
2 6
19. The value of 2 sin2 30° + 3 tan2 60° – cos2 45° is : [ ]
9 19
a) b) 3 3 c) 9 d)
4 2
1
20. The value of sin 2 θ + is [ ]
1 + tan 2 θ
a) 2sin 2 θ b) 2cos 2 θ c) 1 d) 0
21. In figure, AB = 4 cm, BC = 3cm, then cotθ equals [ ]
A
3 4
a) b) θ
5 3
4 cm
3 5
c) d) C 3 cm B
4 4
2
22. If sin θ + sin θ = 1 , then the value of cos2 θ + cos 4 θ is [ ]
a) 0 b) –1 c) 1 d) 2
⎛α + β ⎞
23. If cos(α + β ) = 0 , then the value of cos ⎜ ⎟ is equal to [ ]
⎝ 2 ⎠
1 1
a) b) c) 0 d) 2
2 2
1
24. If tan(A + B) = 3 and tan(A − B) = , 0° < A + B < 90°, A > B, then the
3
values of A and B respectively are : [ ]
a) 45°, 15° b) 60°, 15° c) 60°, 30° d) 60°, 45°
25. A number is chosen at random from the numbers – 5, – 4, – 3, – 2, – 1, 0, 1, 2,
3, 4, 5. Then the probability that square of this number is less than (or) equal to
1, is [ ]
9 3 8 7
a) b) c) d)
11 11 11 11
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26. Two dice are thrown together. The probability of getting the difference of
numbers on their upper faces equal to 2 is [ ]
5 4 1 2
a) b) c) d)
9 9 3 9
27. The probability of selecting a consonant from the letters of the word
“TRIANGLE” is _____ [ ]
2 3 5 1
a) b) c) d)
7 8 8 8
28. A bag contains three green marbles, four blue marbles, and two orange marbles.
If a marble is picked at random, then the probability that it is not an orange
marble is [ ]
4 7 1 1
a) b) c) d)
9 9 4 3
29. A card is drawn from the cards numbered 1 to 52. The probability that the
number on the card is a perfect square is [ ]
7 10 1 2
a) b) c) d)
52 13 13 13
30. The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 eggs is 0.035. The number
of bad eggs in the lot is [ ]
a) 28 b) 21 c) 14 d) 7
PHYSICS
I. Straight objective type questions :
31. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be
corrected by using a lens of power. [ ]
a) + 0.5 D b) – 0.5 D c) + 0.2 D d) – 0.2 D
32. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a
rainbow? [ ]
a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
b) Refraction, dispersion and scattering
c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
33. Which of the following statement is correct? [ ]
a) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly
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34. The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1m. What is the power of the lens
required to correct this defect? Assume that the near point of the normal eye is 25
cm. [ ]
a) + 3D b) – 2D c) + 2D d) – 3D
35. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 50 cm from his eyes,
the defect that he suffering from [ ]
a) Astimatism b) Myopia c) Hypermetropia d) Presbyopia
36. Assertion(A) : Owls can move freely during night. [ ]
Reason (R) : They have large number of rods on their retina.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is the true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is the false and (R) is true.
37. Kishore is wearing spectacles. His eyes appears to be larger than the normal size
as we look through the glasses then the defect of vision and type of lens that is
to the used by kishore is [ ]
a) myopia, convex lens b) hypermetropia, concave lens
c) myopia, concave lens d) hypermetropia, convex lens
38. The colour of the light that deviates the most while travelling through a prism is
a) yellow b) green c) red d) violet [ ]
39. The angles of incidence (i), refraction (r), emergence (e) and deviation (D) marked
by a student after tracing the path of a ray of light through a glass prism are
shown in the figure. The correctly marked angles are [ ]
A
r
e
i D
a) ∠i and ∠r b) ∠i and ∠e
c) ∠i and ∠r and ∠D d) ∠e and ∠D
40. “Stars appears higher than they actual” is due to [ ]
a) Scattering of light b) Atmospheric refraction of light
c) Dispersion of light d) Tyndall effect
41. When the near point of normal eye receeds away then the defect is called
a) Myopia b) Presbiopia [ ]
c) Hypermetropia d) Astigmetism
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42. The part of eye that can be donated after the death is [ ]
a) Eye lens b) Optic nerves
c) Cornea d) Ciliary muscles
43. Assertion (A) : Just before setting, the Sun may appear to be elliptical. This
happens due to atmospheric refraction of light. [ ]
Reason (R) : The apparent flatting of sun’s disc at sunrise and sunset is due
to scattering of light
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is the true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is the false and (R) is true.
44. A person uses a lens power + 3D to normalise vision. Near point of hypermetropic
eye is [ ]
a) 1m b) 1.66 m c) 2 m d) 3 m
45. The Angle of the prism is 60° and its refractive index is 2 . At minimum
deviation condition what is the possible value of angle of incidence ? [ ]
a) 45° b) 30° c) 60° d) 22.5 °
CHEMISTRY
I. Straight objective type questions :
46. The property of self combination of the atoms of the same element to form long
chains is known as [ ]
a) Catenation b) Protonation
c) Carbonation d) Coronation
47. Consider the following statements related to diamond and graphite
1) Both diamond and graphite are used as abrasives
2) Diamond and graphite have different arrangements of carbon atoms
3) The carbon atoms in graphite have a different number of neutrons form
those in diamond.
4) The carbon atoms in both graphite and diamond have four single covalent
bonds.
The incorrect statement(s) is / are [ ]
a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 1 and 3
c) 3 and 4 d) All of these
48. Which form of a carbon can be used both as a lubricant and in making pencil
leads due to its layered structure ? [ ]
a) Diamond b) Fullerence c) Graphite d) Char coal
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49. You observed two hydrocarbons: one has low reactivity and single bonds : the
other react with bromine water and decolourises it. What type of compounds are
these ? [ ]
a) Both are saturated
b) First is un-saturated; second is saturated
c) First is saturated; second is un-saturatd
d) Both are aromatic
50. The organic compound prepared by Wohler from an inorganic compound called
ammonium cyanate was [ ]
a) Asbestos sheets b) Glucose
c) Longs of wood d) Urea
51. Which of the following cannot exhibit chain ismerism? [ ]
a) C H b) C H c) C H d) C H
6 14 6 10 5 12 3 8
4+ 4+
52. C does not exist but Pb exists although both belong to the same group. This
is because
1) Size of carbon is much smaller than Pb. [ ]
2) Large amount of energy is needed in case of carbon.
3) Nucleus cannot hold such a large number of electrons.
4) Nucleus cannot hold such a large number of protons.
The correct statement(s) is/are
a) 2, 3 and 4 b) Only 1 c) 1 and 2 d) Only 3
53. Carbon has an atomic number of 6, which of the following explains its inability
to form ionic bonds ? [ ]
a) It is matallic
b) It cannot easily lose or gain 4 electrons
c) It has a complete octet
d) None
54. Why does carbon shows catenation while silicon shows limited catenation ?
a) Silicon is heavier [ ]
b) C – C bonds stronger than Si – Si bonds
c) Si – Si bonds are stronger than C – C bonds
d) Silicon has metallic character
55. Which statement correctly distinguishes saturated and Un-saturated compounds?
a) Saturated compounds always have oxygen [ ]
b) Un-saturated compounds are ionic
c) Un-saturated compounds have atleast one double/Triple bond
d) All of these above
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56. An element ‘E’ exists in three allotropic forms ‘A’, B and C, In allotrope ‘A’ the
atoms of element ‘E’ are joined to form spherical molecules. In allotrope ‘B’
each atom of element ‘E’ atoms to form a sheet like structure. In allotrope ‘C’
each atom of elements ‘E’ is surronded by four other ‘E’ atoms to form a rigid
structure. Then name which allotrope is used in making anode of a dry cell ?
a) E b) A c) B d) C [ ]
57. The solid element ‘A’ exhibits the property of catenation. It is also present in the
form of a gas ‘B’ in the air which is utilised by plants in photosythesis. An
allotrope ‘C’ of this element is used in glass cutters. then name another allotrope
of element ‘A’ which exists as spherical molecules. [ ]
a) Nanotubes b) Diamond c) Graphite d) Fullerenes
58. What is the percentage of carbon in atmosphere ? [ ]
a) 0.02% b) 0.03% c) 0.04% d) 0.05%
59. What causes different isomers to form from the same molecular formula ?
a) Different elements involved b) Rearrangement of atoms [ ]
c) Different hybridization d) Varying numbers of electrons
60. Which is not a use of fullerenes ? [ ]
a) MRI constrast agent b) Pencil leads
b) Drug delivery d) Photodynamic therapy
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