29-04-2025

4502CPF404021250014 PF

PART – A : Section – I : PHYSICS

1) Assertion: A ray incident along normal to the mirror retraces its path.
Reason: In reflection, angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason is false.

2) The speed of light in vacuum depends upon the

(1) frequency
(2) amplitude
(3) wavelength
(4) none of the above

3) When the distance between the object and the plane mirror increases

(1) The image remains at the same position

(2) The size of the image becomes less than the size of the object
(3) the distance between the image and the plane mirror increases
The distance between the image and the
(4)
plane mirror decreases

4) The given diagram shows a girl standing at a position X in front of a plane mirror, at a distance of
x m from the mirror. When she moves y m away to a new position Y, the distance between the girl

and her image increases by 8 m. what is the value of y?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) Data sufficient

5) A virtual image is always formed __________ w.r.t. object :

(1) On the same side of plane mirror
(2) On the opposite side of plane mirror
(3) Inside the plane mirror
(4) None of these

6)

Find the glance angle of reflection when angle of incidence is 72o :

(1) 72o
(2) 18o
(3) 90o
(4) 162o

7) Laws of reflection are valid for

(1) Plane mirror

(2) Curved mirrors
(3) Regular reflections
(4) All type of surfaces

8)

The image formed by a plane mirror is.

(1) Virtual
(2) real
(3) diminished
(4) upside-down

9) A ball is held 60 cm in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the ball and its image is

(1) 100 cm
(2) 120 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 0 cm

10) Moon, mirror and metals are example of

(1) luminous objects

(2) transparent objects
(3) translucent objects
(4) opaque objects

11) When light ray gets reflected then the quantities which will change:
(1) Frequency, wavelength and speed
(2) Frequency and wavelength
(3) Frequency and speed
(4) none of these

12) Which statement is true about the image produced by a plane mirror?

(1) It appears to be located on the same side of the mirror as the object.
(2) It appears to be larger than the object.
(3) It appears to be inverted relative to the object.
(4) It appears to have reversed left and right, relative to the object.

13) The incident rays ABC fall on plane miror kept inside PQRS and are reflected by the mirror as

A'B'C'. In which position is the plane mirror kept ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Section – II : CHEMISTRY

1) In the following equation Na2CO3 + x HCl → 2NaCl + CO2 + H2O, the value of x is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Consider the reaction: Na(s) + O2(g) → Na2O(s). Number of sodium needed to balance the
equation would be

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) In which of the following chemical equations, the abbreviations represent the correct states of the
reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) In the balanced chemical equation:

(a lead nitrate + b aluminium chloride c aluminium nitrate + d lead chloride)
Which of the following alternatives is correct?

(1) a = 1, b = 2, c = 2, d = 1
(2) a = 4, b = 3, c = 3, d = 4
(3) a = 2, b = 3, c = 2, d = 3
(4) a = 3, b = 2, c = 2, d = 3

5) Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?

(1) Souring of milk

(2) Dissolution of sugar in water
(3) Rusting of iron
(4) Digestion of food in the body

6) In electrolysis of water, the ratio of volume of gases at Anode : Cathode ?

(1) 2:1
(2) 1:2
(3) 1:8
(4) 8:1

7) A piece of granulated zinc was dropped into copper sulphate solution. After sometime, the colour
of the solution changed from

(1) light green to blue.

(2) blue to colourless.
(3) light green to colourless.
(4) blue to yellow.

8) Which of the following is not a clue that a chemical reaction has taken place ?
(1) A solid is formed when two clear solutions are mixed.
(2) A clear solution is added to a red solution and the result is a blue solution.
(3) A solid is added to water, and bubbles form.
(4) A pure solid is heated and turns into a pure liquid.

9) Which of the following is not the characteristic of a chemical change?

(1) It always involves absorption or liberation of energy

(2) No net energy change is involved
(3) Chemically new substance is formed
(4) It may be reversible

10) Select the correct statement based on flow chart carefully.

(1) An alloy of metal present in 'X' is used for soldering purposes.

(2) Colorless gas 'P' is nitric oxide.
(3) Metal oxide 'Y' produced is of yellowish brown color.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

11) Reaction between barium hydroxide and ammonium chloride is characterized by

(1) Evolution of heat

(2) Absorption of heat
(3) Change in colour
(4) None of these

12) Which of the following are chemical changes?

(i) Digestion of food
(ii) Liquefaction of air
(iii) Ripening of fruit
(iv) Dissolution of sulphur in carbon disulphide
(v) Freezing of water
(vi) Electrolysis of water

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

(2) (i), (iii) and (vi)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (iii), (iv) and (vi)

13)
The value of X and Y in the above chemical equation are:

(1) 1, 2
(2) 2, 1
(3) 1, 1
(4) 1, 3

Section – III : BIOLOGY

1) Synthesis of complex organic substances from simple inorganic raw materials in the presence of
sunlight and chlorophyll is called as .......... which is a .......... process.

(1) Photosynthesis, anabolic

(2) Photosynthesis, catabolic
(3) Respiration, anabolic
(4) Respiration, catabolic

2) The opening and closing of the stomatal pore depend upon

(1) CO2 concentration

(2) Water in the guard cells
(3) Oxygen
(4) Temperature

3) Stroma is present inside

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Ribosomes

4) The process in which water is split during photosynthesis is

(1) Photolysis
(2) Hydrolysis
(3) Plasmolysis
(4) Hemolysis

5) Carbohydrates in the plants are stored in the form of

(1) Glycogen
(2) Starch
(3) Glucose
(4) Maltose

6) Which of the following raw material is available in the air for photosynthesis?

(1) Carbon dioxide

(2) Oxygen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Hydrogen

7) The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires

(1) Chlorophyll
(2) Sunlight
(3) Carbon – dioxide & water
(4) All of the above

8) Which one of the following cell organelles contain the light- absorbing green pigment chlorophyll?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Nucleolus

9) The equation given below represents photosynthesis. Identify P and Q.

(1) P - Carbon dioxide, Q - Oxygen

(2) P - Oxygen, Q - Oxygen
(3) P - Carbon dioxide, Q - Carbon dioxide
(4) P - Oxygen, Q - Carbon dioxide

10) What do we call the organisms which derive its food from the dead decaying matters?

(1) Parasites
(2) Saprophytes
(3) Holozoic
(4) Autotrophs

11) The energy change in photosynthesis is from

(1) Light energy to electrical energy

(2) Light energy to molecular energy
(3) Light energy to chemical energy
(4) Light energy to mechanical energy

12) The process by which Amoeba obtains food is called

(1) Phagocytosis
(2) Assimilation
(3) Diffusion
(4) Absorption
13) An autotroph is an organism that

(1) Requires no input of materials from its environment

(2) Sustain itself by preparing its own food from inorganic raw materials using solar energy.
(3) Does not perform respiration.
(4) Does not show movement and locomotion.

14) In any organism, heterotrophic mode of nutrition could be -

(1) Holozoic
(2) Saprophytic
(3) Parasitic
(4) All of these

Section – IV : MATHEMATICS

1) The largest number that divides 2053 and 967 and leaves a remainder of 5 and 7 respectively is –

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 64

2) Two numbers are in the ratio of 15 : 11. If their H.C.F. is 13, then numbers can be

(1) 195 and 143

(2) 190 and 140
(3) 185 and 163
(4) 185 and 143

3) Which of the following rational numbers have terminating decimal expansion?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)

The least multiple of 7. Which leaves a remainder of 4, when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18 is :

(1) 74
(2) 94
(3) 184
(4) 364

5) If a and b are two positive integers such that the least prime factor of a is 3 and the least prime
factor of b is 5. Then, the least prime factor of (a + b) is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 8

6)

If n is a rational number, then 52n – 22n is divisible by

(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) Both 3 and 7
(4) None of these

7) The H.C.F. of and is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The 100th root of is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) 1192 – 1112 is

(1) Composite
(2) Prime number
(3) An odd prime number
(4) An odd composite number
10) The decimal expansion of the rational number will terminate after :

(1) four decimal places

(2) two decimal places
(3) tree decimal places
(4) one decimal places

11) The number of zeros of cubic polynomial are :

(1) More than 3

(2) Atmost 3
(3) Less than 3
(4) None of these

12) Quadratic polynomial having zeros 1 and –2 is

(1) x2 – x + 2
(2) x2 + x – 2
(3) x2 – x – 2
(4) None of these

13) If the LCM of the polynomials f(x) = (x + 1)5 (x + 2)a and g(x) = (x + 1)b (x + 2)a is (x + 1)a (x +
2)b, then find the minimum value of a + b.

(1) 10
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) Cannot say

14) Which of the following is not the graph of a quadratic polynomial?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

15) Which of the following is a cubic polynomial p (x) according to given graph?

(1) x3 + 2x2 – x – 2
(2) x3 + 2x2 + x + 2
(3) x3 + x2 + x + 1
(4) x3 + x2 + x + 2

16) If x = 2 and x = 3 are zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + ax + b, the values of a and b
respectively are

(1) 5, 6
(2) –5, 6
(3) –5, –6
(4) 5, 6

17)

The degree of the polynomial (x + 1) (x2 –x – x4 + 1) is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

18)
The zeroes of the polynomial are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

19) Which of the following is/are non-terminating repeating decimal number(s) ?

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) Only (i)

(2) Both (i) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) Both (ii) and (iii)

20) The LCM of two prime numbers x and y, where x > y, is 161. The value of 3y – x is

(1) –2
(2) –1
(3) 1
(4) 2

21) The product 5 × 10 × 25 × 40 × 50 × 55 × 65 × 125 × 80 has ____ number of zeroes in the end.

(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 13

22) If one zero of the quadratic polynomial (k – 1) x2 + kx + 1 is – 4, then the value of k is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
23) p(x) is a polynomial satisfying = p(x), for all real values of 'x'. If p(5) = 2010, what is
the value of p(8) ?

(1) 2010
2009
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Raj wanted to type the first 200 natural numbers, how many times does he have to press the
keys

(1) 489
(2) 492
(3) 400
(4) 365

25) The smallest rational number by which should be multiplied so that its decimal expansion
terminates after one place of decimal, is

(1)

(2)

(3) 3

(4)

Part-B Section-I English

1) Which sentence demonstrates correct subject-verb agreement?

(1) Each of the students are studying for their exams.

(2) Each of the students is studying for the exam.
(3) Each of the students were studying for their exams.
(4) Each of the students have been studying for his or her exams.

2) Which option demonstrates correct subject-verb agreement?

(1) Neither of the twins are coming to the party.

(2) Neither of the twins is coming to the party.
(3) Neither of the twins had coming to party.
(4) Neither of the twins have come to the party.

3) The main cause of concern _______ (be) the children.

(1) are
(2) is
(3) has
(4) have

4) The jury ________ not convinced.

(1) might
(2) were
(3) was
(4) would

5) Time and tide ________ for no man.

(1) wait
(2) waits
(3) waited
(4) has waited

6) The artist and the writer ________ died.

(1) were
(2) was
(3) has
(4) have

7) A number of soldiers ________ injured during the war

(1) is
(2) were
(3) was
(4) might

8) Bread and butter, both ________ sold in this grocery shop.

(1) have been

(2) is
(3) are
(4) was

9) He as well as you ________ to go to the market.

(1) like
(2) are like
(3) likes
(4) is like

10) His jeans________ torn during the match.

(1) was
(2) were
(3) is
(4) are

Section-II Social Science

1) Which one of the following conferences was convened to discuss environmental protection and
socio-economic development at the global level in 1992?

(1) Kyoto Protocol

(2) Montreal Protocol
(3) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit
(4) World Summit on Sustainable Development

2) Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus Net Sown Area is known as_______.

(1) Gross Cropped Area

(2) Gross Agricultural Area
(3) Gross Production Area
(4) Gross Domestic Product

3) Which of the following soils is most fertile?

(1) Khadar
(2) Bangar
(3) Laterite
(4) Arid

4) Which of the following soils is also known as Regur soil?

(1) Alluvial soil

(2) Black soil
(3) Red soil
(4) Laterite soil

5) Which of the following soils are more suitable for crops like "Cashew Nuts "
(1) Laterite Soils
(2) Black Soils
(3) Forest Soils
(4) None of these

6) Planting lines of trees to create shelter breaks up the force of the wind. Rows of such trees are
called ____ ?

(1) Shelter valleys

(2) Shelter Grounds
(3) Shelter Fields
(4) Shelter Belts

7) The storehouse of mineral's in India is :

(1) Deccan Plateau

(2) Northern Plains
(3) Himalayan Mountains
(4) Thar Desert

8) Assertion: The Agenda 21 was signed at Rio de Janeiro in 1992

Reason: Sustainable development focused on the planned utilization of resources.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If Assertion is False but the Reason is True.

9) Assertion: Soils rich in humus are very fertile.

Reason: The vegetation that grows on soil and the organisms that live in the soil add humus to the
soil.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If Assertion is False but the Reason is True.

10) _____ are left uncultivated for 1 - 5 agricultural years.

(1) Current fallow lands

(2) Other than current fallow lands
(3) Culturable waste land
(4) All of these

11) One of the following which does not check land degradation
(1) Control on overgrazing
(2) Creating shelter belts
(3) Deforestation
(4) Afforestation

12) Cultruable waste land (left uncultivated for more than 5 agricultural years) is the part
of_________.

(1) Other uncultivated land.

(2) Fallow lands
(3) Barren and waste land.
(4) gross cropped area.

13)

The Italian revolutionary nationalist Mazzini was described as."the most dangerous enemy of our
social order" by

(1) William-I
(2) Napoleon-I
(3) Duke Metternich
(4) Friedrich Wilhem-IV

14)

A cultural movement which sought to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment is known as :

(1) Renaissance
(2) Romanticism
(3) Humanism
(4) Feudalism

15)

Greece became independent by signing the :

(1) Treaty of Versailles

(2) Treaty of Constantinople
(3) Treaty of Vienna
(4) None of the above

16)

Who among the following was made the constitutional monarch by Liberal revolutionaries in 1830 in
France?

(1) Louis Philippe

(2) Mazzini
(3) Metternich
(4) Charles Albert

17) Who among the following formed the secret society called ‘Young Italy’ ?

(1) Otto Von Bismarck

(2) Guiseppe Mazzini
(3) Metternich
(4) Johann Herder

18) Which one of the following types of government was functioning in France before the revolution
of 1789 ?

(1) Dictatorship
(2) Military
(3) Body of French Citizens
(4) Monarchy

19) Elle, the measuring unit in Germany was used to measure

(1) Cloth
(2) Thread
(3) Land
(4) Height

20) Which of the following countries is considered as the cradle of European civilization.

(1) England
(2) France
(3) Greece
(4) Russia

Section-III Mental Ability

1) m _ nm _ n _ an _ a _ ma _

(1) aamnan
(2) ammanm
(3) aammnn
(4) amammn

2) Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.

Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ?

(1) Y44B
(2) Y66B
(3) Y88B
(4) Z88B

Common Content for Question No. 3 to 4

One term in the series is wrong. Find the wrong term.

3) 24, 60, 120, 210, 336, 492

(1) 60
(2) 336
(3) 210
(4) 24

Common Content for Question No. 4 to 5

Find the next term in the given number/alphabet series :

4) A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY

(1) LMNO
(2) MNO
(3) MNOP
(4) NOPQ

5) Find the next term in the given series.

BUP, COO, DIN, EEM, ?

(1) FFL
(2) LAF
(3) FAL
(4) FAA
 ANSWER KEYS

PART – A : Section – I : PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
A. 1 4 3 2 2 2 4 1 2 4 4 4 1

Section – II : CHEMISTRY

Q. 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
A. 2 4 4 4 2 2 2 4 2 4 2 2 1

Section – III : BIOLOGY

Q. 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 3 1 2 1 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 4

Section – IV : MATHEMATICS

Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 1 3 4 1 3 3 2 1 1 2 2 1 4 1 2 4 3 3 1
Q. 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 1 2 1

Part-B Section-I English

Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
A. 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 2

Section-II Social Science

Q. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95
A. 3 1 1 2 1 4 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 1 3

Section-III Mental Ability

Q. 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 3 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PART – A : Section – I : PHYSICS

12)

It appears to have reversed left and right, relative to the object.

13)

Section – II : CHEMISTRY

14) Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + CO2 + H2O

15) 4Na + O2 → 2Na2O

20)

24)
is an endothermic reaction characterized by absorption of heat.

25) Since new substances are getting formed in the processes (i), (iii) and (vi) and hence they
are chemical changes.

Section – III : BIOLOGY

39)

An autotroph is an organism that Sustain itself by preparing its own food from inorganic raw
materials using solar energy.

40) In any organism, heterotrophic mode of nutrition could be holozoic, saprophytic or

parasitic

Section – IV : MATHEMATICS
 41)

To find out the largest number which divides 2053 and 967 and leaves a remainder of 5 and 7,
we have to find out the HCF of two numbers.
⇒ 2053 – 5 = 2048, 967 – 7 = 960
HCF of 2048 and 960
⇒ 2048 = 960 × 2 + 128
⇒ 960 = 128 × 7 + 64
⇒ 128 = 64 × 2 + 0
HCF is 64
So largest number would be 64

Option (4) is correct

42) Let numbers are 15x and 11x.

HCF = x = 13
So, numbers are 15 × 13 = 195
and 11 × 13 = 143

43)
so this will have terminating decimal expansion.

44)

The required number will be of the form

7k = LCM of (6, 9, 15, 18)m + 4
7k = 90m + 4
LCM of(6, 9, 15, 18)

put m = 4 to get a multiple of 7 = 364

45)

Clearly, 2 is neither a factor of a nor that of b.

∴ a and b are both odd.
Hence, (a + b) is even.
∴ least prime factor of (a + b) is 2.
46)

47) HCF = =

48) root of

=
=
=
=

51)

Maximum number of zeroes of a cubic polynomial = 3

53) f(x) = (x + 1)5 (x + 2)a

g(x) = (x + 1)b (x + 2)a
LCM = (x + 1)a (x + 2)b = (x + 1)b or 5 (x + 2)a
so a = b and a = b or 5
For minimum value of (a + b), a = b = 5
⇒ (a + b) = (5 + 5) = 10

54)

It has 3 zeros but quadratic has at most two zeros.

55)

Formation of cubic polynomial

⇒ x3 – (sum of roots) x2 + (sum of products of roots taken two at a time) x – product of roots
⇒ x3 – (–2 – 1 + 1)x2 + [(–2) (–1) + (–1) (1) + (1) (–2)] x – [(–2) (–1) (1)]
⇒ x3 + 2x2 – x – 2

56)
57)

58) =

× or ×

59) (i)
q = 32 × 72

x is non-terminating repeating decimal number.

(ii)
Non terminating repeating decimal number.

(iii)
Non terminating repeating decimal number.

60)

The prime factors of 161 are 7 and 23

∴ It is given that x > y ⇒ x = 23, y = 7

∴ 3y – x = 3 × 7 – 23 = 21 – 23 = –2

61)

5 × 10 × 25 × 40 × 50 × 55 × 65 × 125 × 80,
= 51 × 21 × 51 × 52 × 23 × 51 × 51 × 21 × 51 × 11 × 51 × 13 × 51 × 53 × 51 × 24
= 29 × 513 × 11 × 13
= (2 × 5)9 × 54 × 11 × 13
= 109 × 54 × 11 × 13
So there are 9 zeros.

63)

p(5) = 2010 [given]

p(x) = p [given]

p(5) = = 2010
 = 2010

Part-B Section-I English

Section-II Social Science

76) (3) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit

Section-III Mental Ability

96)

The pattern is
man / man / man / man / man

97)

(i) Q , S , U , W ,

(ii)
(iii) F , E , D , C ,

98)

99)

100)

Pattern for the first letter:

Consecutive consonants starting with B. Next letter in that series is G.
Pattern for the second letter: Consecutive vowels starting with E.
The next letter in that series is E. Pattern for the third letter: Consecutive consonants starting
with P.
Hence, the next group in the series is GEV.