PHARMACOLOGY

PREVIOUS RESIDENCY, DIPLOMA AND

FCPS P-I QUESTIONS
PREVIOUS RESIDENCY & DIPLOMA QUESTIONS
GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY 6. Acidification of urine is useful in the treatment of
poisoning with [MD, Surgery, March-24]
1. Microsomal enzyme inducing drug(s) include(s) - a) Aspirin
[Basic, Medicine, Surgery, Paedi, July-2024] b) Morphine
a) Carbamazepine c) Amphetamine
b) Erythromycin d) Phenobarbital
c) Phenobarbitone e) Cocaine
d) Penicillin
F T T F T
e) Rifampicin
T F T F T
7. Receptors have been paired correctly with their
2. A patient treated with warfarin shows skin agonists is/are- [Basic, MD, Surgery, March-24]
necrosis, due to following causes- [Basic, Medicine, a) α2 receptor - clonidine
Surgery, Paedi, July-2024] b) β1 receptor - tarbutaline
a) Protein C deficiency c) β2 receptor - salbutamol'
b) Protein S deficiency d) D2 receptor - chlorpromazine
c) Antitrhombin III deficiency e) 5HT3 receptor – ondansetrone
d) Factor VII deficiency T F T T T
e) Factor X deficiency
T T T F F 8. Drug’s metabolized by acetylation include/s
3. Following drugs that causes bronchodilatation- [Basic, MD, MS, March-24]
[Surgery, July-2024] a) Acetaminophen
a) Ketamine b) Diazepam
b) Atrocuronium c) Isoniazid
c) Halothane d) Morphine
d) Morphine e) Sulphonamide
e) Salbutamol F F T F T
T F T F T
9. Nicotinic feature/s of organophosphorus
4. Drug(s) that is (are) associated with a facial poisoning is/are [Basic, MD, March-24]
“butterfly rash” is/are- [Basic, Medicine, Surgery, a) Bradycardia
Paedi, July-2024] b) Bronchorrhea
a) Captopril c) Diarrhea
b) Isoniazid d) Hypertension
c) Nifedipine e) Mydriasis
d) Phenytoin
F F F T T
e) Prednisolone
T T F F F
10. Factor(s) that may shorten the duration of
5. The pharmacokinetic half-life of the following action of drug is (are)- [Basic, Medicine, Surgery,
drugs resemble their pharmacodynamic half-life Paedi. Diploma July-2023]
is/are [Basic, MD, Surgery, March-24] a) Co-administration of vasoconstrictor agents
a) Salbutamol b) Extensive plasma protein binding
b) Phenelzine c) Rapid elimination through kidney
c) Dobutamine d) Rapid biotransformation
d) Omeprazole e) Redistribution of drug
e) Cyclophosphamide F F T T F
F F T T F

GENESIS 181
 PHARMACOLOGY
11. Drug(s) which undergo enterohepatic 16. Clearance of a drug (MS March 13, March-22)
circulation is (are)- [Basic, Medicine, Surgery, a) Is reduced when the drug is strongly protein bound
Paedi. Diploma July-2023] b) Is increased in hepatic failure
a) Estrogen c) Represents the volume of blood from which the drug
b) Cefuroxime is completely eliminated in unit time
c) Rifampicin d) Is not dependent on renal function
d) Gentamicin e) Cannot exceed glomerular filtration rate
e) Ciprofloxacin T F T F F
T F T F F
17. Antimicrobials that should be avoided during
12. The following drugs are teratogenic- (Surgery, pregnancy include [Basic, MD, MS, Paedi. March 22]
Diploma July-2023] a) Amoxicillin
a) Cyclophosphamide b) Cefuroxime
b) Penicillin c) Ciprofloxacin
c) Heparin d) Metronidozole
d) Testosterone e) Tretracycline
e) Barbiturate F F T T T
T F F T T 18. Atropine or its substitutes is/are used to treat
[Basic, MD, MS, Paedi. March 22]
13. Plasma half life (t1/2) of a drug determines its a) Bronchial asthma
(Diploma Basic, Medicine, Surgery, Paedi. b) Glaucoma
July’2022) c) Motion sickness
a) Clearance d) Parkinson’s disease
b) Dose e) Myasthenia gravis
c) Dosing frequencies T F T T F
d) Metabolism
e) Plasma steady state concentration achievement
19. Atropine [Basic, MS March 22]
F T T F T a) May cause bradycardia
b) Dilates pupil
14. Beneficial drug combinations is/are (Diploma c) Has shorted duration of action than glycopyrrolate
Basic, Medicine, Surgery, Paedi., July’2022) d) Increases physiological dead space
a) Losartan + thiazide e) Has both muscarinic and nicotinic effects
b) Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid T T T F F
c) Amiloride + thiazide
d) Iron + tetracycline
20. Following is/are the adverse effects of
e) Aspirin + prednisolone
propranolol due to blocking of the B2 receptors
T T T F F [Basic, MD, MS, Paedi. March 22]
15. Regarding postoperative pain management a) Bradycardia
following statements are correct (Diploma Basic, b) Hypotension
Medicine , Surgery , Paedi. , July’2022) c) Bronchoconstriction
a) Preoperative patient education is unnecessary d) Peripheral vasoconstriction
b) Opioids are always associated with addiction e) Cardiac depression
c) Pain assessment is crucial for dose determination F F T T F
d) Co-analgesics are useful for patient
e) It is better to avoid NSAIDs 21. The muscarinic actions of acetylcholine include
F F T T F [MD, MS, Basic, Paedi March -2019 MPhil/Diploma
March 15]
a) Slowing of the heart
b) Constriction of the pupil
c) Accommodation of the eye for distant vision
d) Increased secretions in the GIT
e) Decreased peristalsis
T T F T F
GENESIS
182
 PHARMACOLOGY

SYSTEMIC PHARMACOLOGY 28. Characteristic feature/s of the suicidal cut-

throat wound is/are presence of- [MD, Paedi,
22. The 5mg of prednisolone is equivalent to [MD, Surgery, March-24]
March-24] a) Tentative cut marks
a) Deflazacort 12 mg b) A deep transverse cut
b) Cortisone 20 mg c) A cut mark, usually in the lower part of the front of
c) Hydrocortisone 20 mg the neck
d) Dexamethasone 0.5 mg d) A cut mark, which is oblique usually
e) Fludrocortisone 0.5 mg e) A cut mark, usually in the side of the neck
F F T T F T F F T T

29. Drug/s used in acute attack of migraine is/are

23. Long term use of prednisolone may induce [MD,
[MD, Surgery, March-24]
Surgery, March-24]
a) Gabapentin
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Ibuprofen
b) Bronchial asthma
c) Sumatriptan
c) Hypertension
d) Propranolol
d) Osteoarthritis
e) Ergotamine
e) Peptic ulcer disease
F T T F T
T F T F T
30. Ephedrine [Surgery-March-24]
24. Metformin causes [Basic, MD, MS, Paedi. a) Causes increased nor adrenaline release from nerve
March-23] terminals
a) Gastrointestinal upset b) has broncho constrictor activity
b) Hypoglycemia c) Increases systemic vascular resistance
c) Impaired kidney function d) Increased uterine tone
d) Lactic acidosis e) Displays tachyphylaxis
e) Weight gain T F T F T
T F F T F
31. The tissue schizonticide/s is/are - [MD, Surgery,
25 Propranolol [MD, Surgery, March-24] March-24]
a) Enhances myocardial contraction a) artesunate
b) Decreases heart rate b) primaquine
c) Inhibits AV conduction c) tafenoquine
d) Promotes peripheral blood supply d) artemether
e) Reduces stroke volume e) chloroquine
F T T F T F T F F F
26. Warfarin [MD, Surgery, March-24] 32. Spironolactone [MD, Surgery, March-24]
a) can be given by IM route a) is an aldosterone antagonist
b) has high margin of safety b) may produce gynaecomastia
c) is used in deep vein thrombosis c) Acts on loop of Henle
d) Overdose can be antagonized by giving vitamin K d) is contraindicated in nephrotic syndrome
e) Causes teratogenesis e) may produce hypokalaemia
F F T T T T T F F F

27. Mechanism of action of bacteriocin/s is/are 33. Drug/s given in the treatment of MDR
[Basic, MD, Surgery March-24] tuberculosis is/are [MD, March-24]
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis a) Bedaquilone
b) Degradation of cell membrane by pore formation b) Linezolid
c) Inhibition of protein synthesis c) Levofloxacin
d) Degradation of bacterial DNA d) Streptomycin
e) Inhibition of folic acid synthesis e) Rifampicin
F T F T F T T T F F

GENESIS 183
 PHARMACOLOGY
34. Anti-tubercular drugs don’t need dose 40. Drug(s) cause(s) acute interstitial nephritis is
adjustment in chronic kidney disease are [MD, (are)- [Basic, Medicine, Diploma July-2023]
March-24] a) Proton pump inhibitor
a) Rifampicin b) Calcium carbonate
b) Isoniazid c) Penicillins
c) Pyrazinamide d) NSAIDS
d) Ethambutol e) Folic acid
e) Streptomycin T F T T F
F T T T F
41. Following is/are the side effect/s of loop
35. Linagliptin [MD, March-24, Basic, Medicine,
diuretics- [Basic, Medicine, Diploma July-2023]
Surgery, Paedi. Diploma July-2023]
a) Hyponatraemia
a) is an incretin mimetic
b) Hypercalciuria
b) Releases insulin from β-cell of pancreas
c) Hypocalcemia
c) can cause invariable hypoglycemia
d) Metabolic acidosis
d) Activates the enzyme dipeptidyl peptidase-4
e) Hyperparathyroidism
e) is an antagonist of GLP-1
T T T F F
T T F F F

36. Tolerance can develop with the use of- 42. Emergence of antimicrobial resistance can be
[Medicine, Diploma July-2023] delayed by [MD, MS, Paedi. March-23]
a) Lithium a) Innovation of newer antimicrobials
b) Barbiturates b) Antibiotic stewardship program
c) Heroin c) Prescribing broad spectrum antibiotics
d) Morphine d) Recycling of antimicrobials
e) Cocaine e) Institutional antimicrobial guidelines
F T T T F T T F T T

37. These are anticoagulants- [Surgery, Diploma 43. Ototoxic drugs are [Basic, MS March-23]
July-2023] a) Cisplatin
a) Warferin b) Cefixime
b) Enoxaparin c) Gentamicin
c) Aspirin d) Streptomycin
d) Clopidrogel e) Acetaminophen
e) Rivaroxaban T F T T F
T T F F T
44. Drugs causing hyperuricaemia include(s) [Basic,
38. Colchicine- [Basic, Medicine, Surgery, Paedi.
MD, March-23]
Diploma July-2023]
a) Sulfinpyrazone
a) Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
b) Frusemide
b) Inhibits the action of xanthine oxidase enzyme
c) Cyclosporin
c) Reduces the production of Leukotriene B4
d) Low dose of salicylates
d) Reduces leucocyte migration and phagocytosis
e) Bezafibrate
e) Selectively inhibits the microtubule assembly
F T T T F
F F T T T
39. Chronic use of morphine leads to the 45. Monitoring concentrations of the following drug
development of tolerance by- [Basic, Medicine, is recognized as a valuable supplement to clinical
Surgery, Paedi. Diploma July-2023] monitoring [Basic, MD, MS, Paedi. March-23]
a) Euphoric effect a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Sedative effect b) Warfarin
c) Constipating effect c) Gentamicin
d) Analgesic effect d) Lithium
e) Miotic effect e) Cyclosporine
T T F T F F T T T T

GENESIS
184
 PHARMACOLOGY

46. Following antibiotics have  lactam ring [Basic, 52. Following is/are crucial measures to contain
MS March-23] antimicrobial resistance [Basic, MD, MS, Paedi.
a) Benzathine penicillin March 22]
b) Tobramycin a) Prescribing of newer antimicrobials
c) Mecillinum b) Recycling of antimicrobials
d) Monobactam c) Adherence to local antimicrobial guidelines
e) Vancomycin d) Prescribing of injectable antimicrobials
T F T T F e) Availability of culture sensitivity
F T T F T
47. Following drugs are correctly paired with their
adverse effects [Basic, MD, MS, Paedi. March-23] 53. Drug/s that may cause liver injury is/are- [MD
a) Phenytoin - aplastic anemia March 22]
b) Valproic acid - teratogenesis a) Baricitunib
c) Carbamazepine - diplopia b) Favipiravir
d) Sulfonylurea - lactic acidosis c) Remdesivir
e) Amitryptiline - suicidal tendency d) Steroid
F T T F T e) Tocilizumab
T F T T T
48. Drugs causing iatrogenic hypertension are-
[Paedi. March 22] 54. The followings antimicrobial agents may cause
a) Erythropoeitin superinfection (Diploma, Basic, Medicine, Surgery,
b) Spironolactone Paedi. July-2021)
c) Mycophenolate mofetil a) Ampicillin
d) Steroid b) Cephradine
e) Cyclosporine c) Ciprofloxacin
T F T T T d) Penicillin G
e) Tetracycline
49. The following chemotherapeutic drugs act as T T F T T
antimetabolites [Basic, MS March 22]
a) Cyclophosphamide 55. The following statements are correct about
b) Methotrexate antimicrobial agents (Diploma, Basic, Medicine,
c) 5 flurouracil Surgery, Paedi. July-2021)
d) Mitomycine C a) Amoxicillin is the drug of choice for bacillary
e) Vinblastine dysentery
F T T F F b) Gentamicin is effective against pseudomons infection
c) Ceftriaxone is safe in patient with hepatic failure
50. Disease modifying anti rheumatic agent are- d) Meropenem is the 1st line drug in tonsillitis
[Paedi. March 22] e) Levofloxacin may produce toxic epidermal necrolysis
a) Naproxen T T F F F
b) Methotrexate
c) Sulphasaizine 56. The following adverse effects are correctly
d) Etanercept paired with anti TB drugs (Basic, MD, Paedi,
e) Indomethacin March-2021)
F T T F F a) Peripheral neuropathy→ Isoniazide
b) Ototoxicity→ Rifampicin
51. Simvastatin [Basic, MD, MS, Paedi. March 22] c) Hyperuricemia→ Pyrazinamide
a) Lowers LDL cholesterol d) Retrobulber neuritis→ Ethambutol
b) Acts by stimulating HMGCo-A reductase e) Hepatotoxicity→ Streptomycin
c) Is associated with rhabdomyolysis T F T T F
d) Reduces creatinine kinase
e) Can be safely used in pregnancy
T F T F F

GENESIS 185
 PHARMACOLOGY
57. Following antimicrobials acts against gram- 63. Drugs used for the management of hypertension in
negative bacilli (Basic, MD, Paedi, March-2021) pregnancy are (Diploma July-19, Medicine Faculty,
a) Azithromycin Surgery Faculty, Paediatrics Faculty, Basic Faculty
b) Ciprofloxacin MD, Basic, Paedi March -2019, 17, MPhil/Diploma
c) Gentamicin July 17, Basic, MD, MS March 16)
d) Amoxicillin a) Hydrochlorthiazide
e) Metronidazole b) Atenolol
T T T T T c) Labetalol
d) Captopril
58. Antimicrobials choice for the treatment of e) α-metyldopa
Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) F F T F T
are: (Basic, MD, MS, Paedi, March-2021)
a) Cloxacillin
64. Antibiotics act by inhibiting nucleic acid
b) Amoxicillin-Clavulanic acid
synthesis are (Diploma July 2018)
c) Vancomycin
a) Sparfloxacin
d) Cephradine
b) Gentamicin
e) Linezolid
c) Erythromycin
F F T F T d) Ciprofloxacin
59. Digoxin is likely to be useful in the treatment of e) Nalidixic acid
(Paedi. March-21) T F F T T
a) Thyrotoxic atrial fibrilation
b) Ventricular tachycardia 65. The following drugs cause bronchospasm in
c) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy asthmatics (MPhil/Diploma July 15)
d) Atrial flutter a) Morphine
e) Re-entrant tachycardia in Woll Parkinson-White b) Propofol
Syndrome c) Fentanyl
T T F T F d) Atracurium
60. Opioid agonists produce (MS, Basic March -20) e) Thiopentone
a) Amnesia T F T T T
b) Nausea and vomiting
c) Dilated pupil 66. MgSO4 (MPhil/Diploma July 15)
d) Unconsciousness at high dose a) Is the drug of choice to control convulsion in
e) Pruritus eclampsia
T T F F T b) Is used as tocolytic agent
c) Therapeutic level is 10 meq/L
61. Digoxin toxicity include (Diploma July-19, d) 20% calcium gluconate is used as antidote
Medicine Faculty) e) Has no fetal effect
a) Anorexia T T F F T
b) Diarrhoea
c) Xanthopsia
67. Nucleic acid inhibitor drugs are (Basic, MD, MS
d) Myalgia
March 15, 14)
e) Headache
a) Quinolone
T T T F F b) Caspofungin
62. Inhibitors of protein synthesis that target 50S c) Rifampicin
ribosomal subunit are (Diploma July-19, Medicine d) Imipenem
Faculty, Surgery Faculty, Paediatrics Faculty, Basic e) Trimethoprim
Faculty) T F T F T
a) Azithromycin
b) Amikacin
c) Clindamycin
d) Linezolid
e) Cephalosporin
T F T T F
GENESIS
186
 PHARMACOLOGY
68. Antipseudomonal drugs are (MS March 14, 13, 72. Stem: A 52-year-old man comes to outpatient
Jan-11) department of a district hospital with the
a) Piperacillin complaints of swelling in the both ankles for last 10
b) Amoxicillin days. He has been taking an antihypertensive dmg
c) Cefepime for last one month, but cannot remember the name
d) Metronidazole of the drug.
e) Ceftazidime His heart rate is 80/minutes.
T F T F T Lead in: Which is most likely causative agent?
[Basic, Medicine, Surgery, Diploma July-2023]
69. Post operative complications after use of a) Amlodipine
morphine include (Non Residency-10) b) Cilnidipine
a) Hypothermia c) Lercanidipine
b) Increase cough reflex d) Verapamil
c) Bradycardia e) Diltiazem
d) Hypertension Ans: A
e) Release of ADH
T F T F T 73. Stem: A 59-year-old man with a history of type-
2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic
70. The following drugs prolong the QT interval hypertrophy presents with acute retention of urine.
(Non Residency-10) His serum creatinine is 2.6 mg/dL.
a) Quinidine Lead in: Which one of the following drugs should
b) Disopyramide be withheld? [MD, Paedi, Surgery, March-24]
c) Phenytoin a) Finasteride
d) Amitryptilline b) Paroxetine
e) Magnesium c) Glickfide
T T F T F d) Metformin
e) Atenolol
SBA Ans: D
71. Stem : A 62-year-old male has come to the 74. Stem: A 25-year-old man has been diagnosed as
surgical assessment unit with lower abdominal pain a case of syphilis on the basis of personal history
and has been unable to pass urine for the last 12 and detection of Trepanoma pallidum on clinical
hours. On examination, he has a palpable tender and laboratory investigation.
bladder in suprapubic region. On PR examination, Lead: Which antibiotic will be the choice for shortest
his prostate is smooth and not enlarged. He has a duration of treatment? [Paedi, March-24]
background of high blood pressure, depression, a) Benzathine penicillin G
neuropathic pain and diabetes. Lead in: b) Aztreonam
What is the most likely cause for this clinical c) Ceftriaxone
presentation? [Basic, Medicine, Surgery, Paedi, d) Vancomycin
July-2024] e) Cefixime
a) Gabapentin Ans: A
b) Amlodipine
c) Metformin 75. Stem : A 40-year-old woman with a history of
d) Amitriptyline insecticide ingestion has been brought to the
e) Benign prostatic hyperplasia emergency department and admitted. Treatment has
Ans: D been started with atropine and other supportive
measures. Lead in : Which sign should be appropriate
for stopping atropine therapy? [Basic, Medicine,
Surgery, Paedi, July-2024]
a) Increased body temperature
b) Increased blood pressure
c) Dry mouth
d) Pupillary dilation
e) Urinary retention
Ans: C

GENESIS 187
 PHARMACOLOGY

PREVIOUS FCPS P-I QUESTIONS

GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY 6. A patient came with perforated hollow viscm. His

HR= 140 b/m -BP-90/60 mm its. Which is the drug
MCQ of choice – [FCPS, July’23]
a) Dopamine
1. Microsomal enzyme inducing drug(s) include(s) - b) Dobutamine
[FCPS, July-2024] c) Adrehaline
a) Carbamazepine d) Nor adrenaline
b) Erythromycin e) Boprenaline
c) Phenobarbitone Ans: D
d) Penicillin
e) Rifampicin SYSTEMIC PHARMACOLOGY
TFTFT
MCQ
2. Which drug crosses placental barrier? [FCPS,
Jan’24] 7. A patient treated with warfarin shows skin
a) Warfarin necrosis, due to following causes- [FCPS, July-2024]
b) L dopa a) Protein C deficiency
c) Heparin b) Protein S deficiency
d) Adrenalin c) Antitrhombin III deficiency
e) Dopamine d) Factor VII deficiency
TFFFF e) Factor X deficiency
TTTFF
3. Drug enters to the cell by- [FCPS, Jan’24]
a) Active transport 8. Following drugs that causes bronchodilatation-
b) Osmosis [FCPS, July-2024]
c) Passive diffusion a) Ketamine
d) Binding with amino acid b) Atrocuronium
e) Filtration c) Halothane
TFFFT d) Morphine
e) Salbutamol
SBA TFTFT
4. Stem : A 40-year-old woman with a history of
9. A diabetic pregnant patient is taking biguanides.
insecticide ingestion has been brought to the
How will it reduce blood glucose level? [FCPS, July-
emergency department and admitted. Treatment has
2024]
been started with atropine and other supportive
a) Decrease insulin sensitivity
measures. Lead in : Which sign should be appropriate
b) Enhance gluconeogenesis
for stopping atropine therapy? [FCPS, July-2024]
c) Enhance glycolysis
a) Increased body temperature
d) Reduce intestinal glucose absorption
b) Increased blood pressure
e) Reduce hepatic glucose production
c) Dry mouth
FFTTT
d) Pupillary dilation
e) Urinary retention
10. Which of the following drugs used for induction
Ans: C
of labor? [FCPS, July-2024]
5. Steroid given in a lady with 30 weeks of a) Estrogen
pregnancy…steroid causes? [FCPS, July’23] b) Progesterone
a) Fetal lung maturation c) Oxytocin
b) Increase HCL release d) Misoprostol
c) Osteoporosis e) Mifepristone
d) Stimulate type 1 pneumocyte FFTTF
e) Decrease risk of ARDS
Ans: A
GENESIS
188
 PHARMACOLOGY
11. Ergometrine- [FCPS, July-2024] 17. Regarding oxytocin-[ FCPS, July-2024]
a) Administration can cause hypertension a) Steroid in nature
b) can be used to augment labour b) Secrete from paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus
c) can be used in third stage of labour c) Contraction of myoepithelial cell of alveoli
d) is a serotonin agonist d) Control maternal behavior and mood
e) is a constituent of the drug oxytocin e) Release prostaglandin
TFTTF FTTTF
12. OCP has the chances of causing the following
18. Contra indication of Digoxin[FCPS, July-2024]
effect -[FCPS, July-2024]
a) Ventricular fibrillation
a) Breakthrough bleeding
b) Sinus Tachycardia.
b) Hepatocellular adenoma
c) Atrial flutter
c) Abnormal uterine bleeding
d) Re-entrant tachycardia in WPW Syndrome
d) Myocardial infraction
e) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiopathy.
e) Hypercoagulability
TTFFF
TFFTT
13. Common analgesic used in labour-[ FCPS, July- 19. Regarding MgSO4-[ FCPS, July-2024]
2024] a) 20% of calcium gluconate is its antidote
a) Entonox b) No effect on fetus
b) Pethidine c) Therapeutic level of serum Mg is 10 mEq/L
c) Epidural d) Used in pre-eclampsia
d) Nalbuphine e) MgSO4 is absolutely safe
e) NSAIDs FTFTF
FTFTF
20. Salbutamol side effect. [FCPS, July-2024]
14. Drug(s) that is (are) associated with a facial a) Palpitation
“butterfly rash” is/are- [FCPS, July-2024] b) HTN
a) Captopril c) Tremor
b) Isoniazid d) Visual blurring
c) Nifedipine e) Headache
d) Phenytoin TFTFT
e) Prednisolone
TTFFF 21. 5 years old boy came with respiratory distress &
Diagnosis as bronchopneumonia, Dr gives
15. A young lady taking OCP for 2 years. It antibiotics that covers gram negative organism
increases the risk of following carcinoma- [FCPS, mostly drug includes- [FCPS, July-2024]
July-2024] a) Amikacin
a) Endometrial carcinoma b) Azithromycin
b) Cervical carcinoma c) Gentamicin
c) Breast carcinoma d) Vancomycin
d) Colorectal carcinoma e) Ciprofloxacin
e) Ovarian carcinoma TFTFT
FTTFF
22. Patient with Nephrotic syndrome treatment
16. Which prostaglandins are used for induction of with long term steroid features of steroid toxicity.
abortion? [FCPS, July-2024] [FCPS, July-2024]
a) Misoprostol a) Hypoglycaemia
b) Dinoprostone b) Hypertension
c) Latanoprost c) Cataract
d) Gemeprost d) Muscle weakness
e) Carboprost e) Hyperglycemia
TFFTF FTTTT

GENESIS 189
 PHARMACOLOGY
23. Frusemide can cause- [FCPS, Jan’24] SBA
a) Hypocalcemia
b) Hyperkalamia 29. Stem : A 62-year-old male has come to the
c) Hyponatremia surgical assessment unit with lower abdominal pain
d) Metabolic acidosis and has been unable to pass urine for the last 12
e) Hyperuricemia hours. On examination, he has a palpable tender
TFTFT bladder in suprapubic region. On PR examination,
his prostate is smooth and not enlarged. He has a
24. Long term prophylaxis of asthma- [FCPS P-1, background of high blood pressure, depression,
Paedi, Jan’24] neuropathic pain and diabetes. Lead in:
a) Salmeterol What is the most likely cause for this clinical
b) Terbutaline presentation? [FCPS, July-2024]
c) Ipratropium bromide a) Gabapentin
d) Steroid b) Amlodipine
e) Montelukast c) Metformin
TFFTT d) Amitriptyline
e) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
25. Drug should be avoided by lactating mother- Ans: D
[FCPS, Jan’24]
a) Cephalosporin 30. A patient comes with BP- 85/60, pulse-125 b/m
b) Cyclophosphamide after taking ceftriaxone injection. Which of the
c) Phenytoin drug will give immediate relief? [FCPS, July-2024]
d) Diazepam a) Hydrocortisone
e) Naproxen b) Adrenaline
FTTTF c) Dexamethasone
d) Prednisolone
26. Which substances are used for treatment of ↑ e) Methylprednisolone
ICP-[FCPS, July’23] Ans: B
a) Methyl prednisolone
b) Dexamethasone 31. A women took OCP regularly. Now she
c) Labetalol developed venous thrombosis. Which of the
d) Mannitol following is most specific regarding this condition?
e) Chlorthiazide [FCPS, July-2024]
FFFTF a) Endothelial injury
b) Turbulence of blood flow
27. Protein synthesis inhibitor-[FCPS, July’23] c) Hypercoagulability
a) Aminoglycoside d) Stasis of blood flow
b) Ciprofloxacin e) Alteration of blood flow
c) Sufonamid Ans: A
d) Tetra cycline
e) Macrolides 32. A male patient come to OPD with azoospermia.
TFFTT Which hormone should be investigated regarding
clinical management? [FCPS, July-2024]
28. (Scenario) – Side effect of vincristine-[FCPS, a) FSH
July’23] b) LH
a) Alopecia c) Testosterone
b) SIADH d) Prolactin
c) Hepatotoxicity e) TSH
d) Peripheral neuropathy Ans: A
e) Megaloblastic anaemia
TTFTF

GENESIS
190
 PHARMACOLOGY
33. A pregnant lady travel to malaria endemic zone. 38. A child came with tingling & numbness in the
Then she developed high grade fever. Now which of hand & feet? [FCPS, July-2024]
the following drugs can be used for her? [FCPS, a) Isoniazide
July-2024] b) Rifamycin
a) Artesunate c) Pyrazinamide
b) Chloroquine d) Ethambutol
c) Fansider e) Streptomycin
d) Primaquine Ans: A
e) Pyrimethamine
Ans: B 39. Penicillin acts- [FCPS, Jan’24]
a) Alteration in cell well synthesis
34. Endometrial receptivity increased by- [July- b) Alteration in cell membrane synthesis
2024] c) Alteration in DNA synthesis
a) Oxytocin d) Alteration in 30s ribosome
b) Progesterone e) Alteration in 50s ribosome synthesis
c) Estrogen Ans: A
d) Prolactin
e) Prostaglandin 40. ACEI inhibit the section of which hormone?
Ans: C [FCPS, July’23]
a) Aldosterone
35. A pregnant lady comes to OPD with antepartum b) GnRH
eclampsia. Her BP – 160/110 mmHg, patient was c) ADH
disoriented, proteinuria was present. Which d) Angiotensinogen
anticonvulsant drug should you prescribe? [FCPS, e) Thyroid
July-2024] Ans: A
a) MgSO4
b) Phenytoin 41. Mechanism of action of BDZ-[FCPS, July’23]
c) Diazepam a) Enhance GABA receptor - hyperpolarization
d) Na valproate b) ↑ K+ influx
e) Phenobarbitone c) ↓ K efflux
Ans: A d) ↓ Cl- Conductance
e) ↑ Na Influx
36. Which drug acts on LH? [FCPS, July-2024] Ans: A
a) Amiloride
b) Eplerenone 42. M/A of DMPA [FCPS, July’23]
c) Furosemide a) Prevent ovulation
d) mannitol b) Prevent implantation
e) Acetazolamide c) decrease endometrial thickening
Ans: C d) prevent follicular maturity
e) Increases cervical thickness
37. Bronchial smooth muscle is contracted by- Ans: A
[July-2024]
a) Parasympathetic 43. Which is not a feature of atropine poisoning?
b) Local β-adrenergic stimulation (FCPS, Jan’20)
c) Cold environment a) Palpitation
d) Nor-adrenaline b) Mydriasis
e) Chemical irritation c) Hallucination
Ans: A d) Dry mouth
e) Diarrhoea
Ans: E

GENESIS 191
 PHARMACOLOGY

Practice Question
GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY 8. Following Agents may cause bronchospasm-
a) Acetylcholine
MCQ b) Formoterol
1. Muscarinic M2 receptor are located in- c) Noradrenaline
a) Exocrine gland d) Morphine
b) Myocardium e) NSAIDS
c) Gastric parietal cell
d) Smooth muscle 9. Biotransformation of a drug-
e) Some presynaptic site a) Reduces its water solubility
b) Increases its lipid solubility
2. Effects of adrenaline in blood pressure - c) May produce active metabolites
a) Systolic BP: ↑↑ d) May produce toxic metabolites
b) Diastolic BP: ↓ in large dose e) May prolong the plasma half-life (t 1/2) of the drug
c) Diastolic BP: ↑ in small dose
d) Mean pressure: ↑ 10. Factors decrease the bioavailability of a drug
e) Pulse pressure: ↑↑ after oral administration-
a) Pre-systemic metabolism
3. Drugs with high volume of distribution (Vd) b) Extensive plasma-protein binding
have- c) Destruction by gastric HCl
a) Short duration of action d) Diarrhoea
b) High lipid solubility e) Hepatic cirrhosis
c) High plasma concentration
d) High tissue protein binding capacity 11. Bioavailability of a drug is-
e) High plasma protein binding capacity a) A fraction of unchanged drug in the systemic
circulation
4. Prodrugs are - b) Identical with different formulations of the same
a) Levodopa drug
b) Azathioprine c) Is affected by metabolism in the liver
c) Paracetamol d) 100% with intravenous route
d) Sulfazalazine e) A measure of the rate of absorption of the drug
e) Frusemide
12. Biotransformation of a drug is influenced by
5. Causes of decreased bioavailability are - a) Delayed absorption
a) High first pass metabolism b) Frequency of drug administration
b) Increased absorption. c) Genetic variation
c) Poor lipid solubility d) Glomerular filtration
d) Intravenous absorption of drugs e) Chronic liver disease
e) Nonionization of drugs
13. Purpose of using prodrug is to modify-
6. Following are direct acting cholinomimetics: a) Absorption of the drug
a) Neostigmine b) Biotransformation of the drug
b) Carbacol c) Duration of action of the drug
c) Bethanecol d) Adverse effects of the drug
d) Ach e) Distribution of the drug
e) Pyridostigmine
7. Drugs having long half-life - 14. Anti-cholinergic drug may be used to treat
a) Chloroquine a) Vomiting
b) Insulin b) Urinary incontinence
e) Diazepam c) Glaucoma
d) Digitoxin d) Peptic ulcer disease
e) Frusemide e) Tachycardia

GENESIS
192
 PHARMACOLOGY
15. Enzyme inducing drugs are SYSTEMIC PHARMACOLOGY
a) Allopurinol
b) Phenobarbitone MCQ
c) Griseofulvin 21. Anti-epileptic drugs act by blockage of T-type
d) Phenytoin Ca2+ channel -
e) Erythromycin a) Ethosuximide
b) Trimethadione
16. Drugs having low therapeutic index — c) Vigabatrin
a) Warfarin d) Phenytoin
b) Digoxin e) Carbamazepine
e) Bromazepam
d) Thiopental sodium 22. Most serious adverse effect of estrogen hormone
e) Paracetamol replacement therapy -
a) Carcinoma endometrium
17. Conjugation of drugs with glucuronic acid - b) Carcinoma breast
a) Is enhanced in newborn c) Post-menopausal bleeding
b) Produces substances that have greater water d) Mastalgia
solubility e) Venous thromboembolism
c) Leads to prolongation of drug action
d) Leads to the formation of inactive metabolites 23. Followings fluoroquinolones causes prolonged
e) Leads to the formation of active metabolites QT interval -
a) Nalidixic acid
18. Factors decrease the bioavailability of a drug b) Ciprofloxacin
after oral administration- c) Levofloxacin
a) Pre-systemic metabolism d) Moxifloxacin
b) Extensive plasma-protein binding e) Gemifloxacin
c) Destruction by gastric HCl
d) Diarrhoea 24. Bacterial protein synthesis is inhibited by
e) Hepatic cirrhosis Aminoglycoside in following way -
a) Interference with the initiation complex of peptide
19. Regarding Volume of distribution- formation
a) May be greater than total body fluid volume b) Misreading of mRNA
b) Expressed in mg/L c) Breakup of polysomes into nonfunctional
c) Vd high indicates less plasma protein binding monosomes
d) Low in Water soluble drug d) By actively transport across the cell membrane to
e) Proportional to cellular penetration cytoplasm by a CO2 dependent mechanism
e) Binding with 50S ribosomal subunit
SBA
20. Which autonomic receptor mediators an 25. Meropenem is -
increase in heart rate a) Hydrolysed by renal peptidase
a) Adrenergic α1 receptor b) More potent against gram positive aerobes
b) Adrenergic β1 receptor c) Less potent on gram positive cocci
c) Adrenergic β2 receptor d) Need protection by cilastatin
d) Cholinergic muscarinic receptor e) Reserve drug for treatment serious nosocomial
e) Cholinergic nicotinic receptor infection

26. Anti-fungal azoles include –

a) Albendazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Metronidazole
d) Mebendazole
e) Miconazole

GENESIS 193
 PHARMACOLOGY
27. Inhalation anaesthetic agents are 34. Selective cox-2 inhibitors are –
a) Isoflurane a) Etoricoxib
b) Thiopental sodium b) Meloxicam
c) Enflurane c) Sulindac
d) Ketamine d) Celecoxib
e) Nitrous oxide e) Aspirin

28. Adverse effect of Bupropion - 35. Drugs causing iatrogenic hypertension are-
a) Dry mouth a) Erythropoietin
b) Sweating b) Spironolactone
c) Nervousness c) Mycophenolate mofetil
d) Tremor d) Steroid
e) Increased risk of seizure at high dose e) Cyclosporine

29. Antibiotics that potentiate warfarin action - 36. Drug(s) used in acute attack of migraine is/are
a) Chloramphenicol a) Diazepam
b) Metronidazole b) Paracetamol
c) Carbenicillin c) Pethidine
d) Rifampicin d) Propranolol
e) Griseofulvin e) Sumatryptan

30. The primary action of Thiazolidinedione is the 37. Adverse effects of heparin therapy-
regulation of gene that involved in metabolism of - a) Diarrhoea
a) Glucose b) Osteoporosis
b) Protein c) Loss of hair
c) Lipid d) Thrombocytosis
d) Adipocyte differentiation e) Abnormal LFT
e) Skeletal muscle differentiation
38. Following antibiotics have beta lactam ring
31. The following drugs are used to prevent motion a) Benzathine penicillin
sickness - b) Tobramycin
a) Hyoscine c) Mecillinum
b) Promethazine d) Monobactam
c) Cinnarizine e) Vancomycin
d) Metoclopramide
e) Chlorpromazine 39. SSRI has following advantages over TCAs
a) Serotonin reuptake inhibition is highly selective
32. What are the CNS disturbance caused by b) Undergo first pass metabolism
Isoniazid? - c) Sedative effect is absent or less
a) Insomnia d) Can be used in patient of benign prostatic
b) Agitation hyperplasia
c) Convulsion e) Produce autonomic toxicity
d) Restlessness
e) Tremor 40. Drugs that can be used in glaucoma –
a) Propranolol
33. Morphine is contraindicated in – b) Brinzolamide
a) Myocardial infarction c) Latanoprost
b) Biliary colic d) Atropine
c) Head injury e) Physostigmine
d) Acute pulmonary edema
e) Pain in terminal illness

GENESIS
194
 PHARMACOLOGY
41. Paracetamol has - 48. Following is/are 3rd generation cephalosporin-
a) Analgesic effect a) Ceftipime
b) Anti-inflammatory effect b) Ceftarolin
c) Anti-platelet effect c) Cefotaxim
d) Antipyretic effect d) Ceftazidime
e) Mucoprotective effect e) Cefoxitin

42. Euglycaemic anti-diabetic drugs are 49. Which are the Correct pairing regarding
a) Glipizide adverse drug reaction?
b) Tolazamide a) ACEi—Hypokalemia
c) Glyburide b) Aspirin–GI bleeding
d) Metformin c) CCB—Ankle edema
e) Pioglitazone d) Opioid — dementia
e) Digoxin—-Bradycardia
43. Which anti convulsants acts as mood stabilizer ?
a) Lithium 50. Antihypertensive agents safe in pregnancy-
b) Olanzapine a) Nifedipine
c) Lamotrigine b) Labetolol
d) Levetiracetam c) calcium gluconate
e) Sodium valproate d) Magnesium sulphate
e) Diazepum
44. Which drugs cause postural hypotension in old
age? 51. Anti-tubercular drugs causes hepatitis?
a) NSAID a) Streptomycine
b) Diuretics b) Isoniazide
c) ACEi c) Rifampicin
d) Beta blockers d) Pyrazinamide
e) Benzodiazepines e) Ethambutol

45. Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) 52. Agents acting on pregnant women that may
include- cause teratogenicity--
a) Citalopram a) Acetaminophen
b) Imipramine b) Doxycycline
c) Venlafaxine c) Nifedipine
d) Sertaline d) Phenytoin
e) Fluoxetine e) Ranitidine

46. Which anti convulsants has mood stabilizing 53. Drugs causing Gynecomastia:
effect? a) OCP
a) Lithium b) Anabolic steroid
b) Olanzapine c) Fluoxetine
c) Lamotrigine d) Flutamide
d) Levetiracetam e) Digoxin
e) Sodium valproate

47. Drug causes long QT syndrome-

a) Amiodarone
b) Risperidon
c) Haloperidol
d) Hydroxychloroquine
e) Flecainide

GENESIS 195
 PHARMACOLOGY
SBA 58. A 57-year-old woman with cardiac failure is
being managed in the High Dependency Unit. Her
54. A 56-year-old man from Barisal presents to his heart rate and systolic blood pressure are low and
GP with numbness and tingling in his feet for 1 after discussion with the cardiology team, you
week. He tells you he has recently started some new decide that she should receive inotropic support.
medications. Looking at his medical history you Lead in: Of the following drugs, which is most
discover he has recently been diagnosed with likely to cause significant tachycardia?
tuberculosis and hypertension. Which of the a) Adrenaline
following medications are most likely to be causing b) Dobutamine
the problem? c) Dopamine
a) Rifampicin d) Noradrenaline
b) Amlodipine e) Phenylephrine
c) Ramipril
d) Isoniazid 59. Oxytocic drug is-
e) Pyrazinamide a) Ciproterone
b) Ritordine
55. A 57-year-old woman with cardiac failure is c) Desogestrel
being managed in the High Dependency Unit. Her d) Mifepristone
heart rate and systolic blood pressure are low and e) PGF2
after discussion with the cardiology team, you
decide that she should receive inotropic support. 60. A 30-year-old women having had heavy periods.
Lead in: Of the following drugs, which is most She is prescribed with Mefenamic acid. What is the
likely to cause significant tachycardia? mode of action of Mefenamic acid?
a) Adrenaline a) Plasminogen activator inhibitor
b) Dobutamine b) Activates antithrombin -III
c) Dopamine c) Inhibits fibrin
d) Noradrenaline d) Inactivates factor Xa
e) Phenylephrine e) Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis

56. Which is not the CNS effect of ketamine? 61. Preservation of blood pressure and respiratory
a) Analgesia reflexes together with excellent analgesia makes it
b) Amnesia an Ideal choice for field anaesthesia. Emergence
c) Decrease cerebral blood flow delirium is associated with administration of this
d) Catatonia anaesthetic. Which one is this intravenous
e) Increase intraocular pressure anaesthetic?
a) Propofol
57. You are performing a neurological examination b) Etomidate
on a 68-year-old man who has presented with a c) Ketamine
headache. You notice that his left pupil is smaller d) Thiopentone
than his right. On further exploration, he reports e) Fospropofol
that he has a history of open-angle glaucoma and
applied eye drops to his left eye earlier today, 62. Which Antibiotic is commonly responsible for
although he cannot remember the name of the destruction of gut flora & overgrowth of Cl.Difficle
medication. causing nosocomial diarrhoea ?
Lead in: Which of the following eye drop a) Metronidazole
preparations is likely to account for this clinical b) Vancomycin
finding? c) Cephalosporin
a) Brimonidine d) Ciprofloxacin
b) Dorzolamide e) Aminoglycosides
c) Latanoprost
d) Pilocarpine
e) Timolol

GENESIS
196
 PHARMACOLOGY
63. Which drug mostly used induction agent & can 66. Induction of general anaesthesia is most widely
be used for maintaince of anesthesia - done by-
a) Propofol a) Propofol
b) Isoflurane b) Thiopentone
c) Sevoflurane c) Etomidate
d) Suxamethonium d) Ketamine
e) Vecuronium e) Fospropofol

64. Which one is highly cardiotoxic local anaesthetic 67. Which Anti retroviral drug causes insomnia &
drugs? Agitation?
a) Lignocaine a) Tenofovir
b) Bupivacaine b) Lamivudine
c) Prilocaine c) Didanosisne
d) Ropivacaine d) Emtricitabine
e) Levobupivacaine e) Efavirenz

65. Regarding local anesthetic drug:

a) Lignocaine is long acting
b) Lignocaine has poor sensory block
c) Bupivacaine is less cardiotoxic
d) Bupivacaine is long lasting
e) Prilocaine has more systemic toxicity

GENESIS 197
 PHARMACOLOGY

Answer
GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY SYSTEMIC PHARMACOLOGY

MCQ MCQ

1. FTFTT 21. TTFFF

2. TFFTT 22. TTFFT

3. FTFTF 23. FFTTT

4. TTFTF 24. TTTFF

5. TFTFF 25. FFTFT

6. FTTTF 26. FTFFT

7. ТFТТF 27. TFTFT

8. TFFTT 28. TTTTT

9. FFTTF 29. TTTFF

10. TFTTF 30. TFTTF

11. TFTTT 31. TTTTF

12. FFTFT 32. FFTFF

13. TFTTT 33. FTTFF

14. TTFTF 34. TTFTF

15. FTTTF 35. TFTTT

16. TTFTF 36. FTFFT

17. FTFTT 37. FTTFT

18. TFTTF 38. TFTTF

19. TFTTT 39. TFTTF

SBA 40. FTTFT

20. B
41. TTFTF

42. FFFTT

43. FFTFT

44. FTTTF

GENESIS
198
 PHARMACOLOGY

45. TFFTT 56. C

46. FFTFT 57. D

47. TTTTT 58. A

48. FFTTF 59. E

49. FTTFT 60. E

50. TTFFF 61. C

51. FTTTF 62. D

52. FTFTF 63. A

53. FTTTT 64. B

SBA 65. D

54. D 66. A

55. A 67. E

GENESIS 199