Date : ______/______/__________

Time: 180 Min. Fighter Pragati (O.S.) M.M.: 720

Regular Evaluation NEET Pattern Test (RENPT) – August

Topic : Physics – NLM+Friction, WPE & DOCM, COM (upto 14-08-2025)

Chemistry –Redox Reactions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics
Botany – Plant Kingdom, Morphology of Flowering Plants
Zoology – Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health

PHYSICS
1. Determine the direction of friction force: - The radius of death well is r. Here friction
(Here v  velocity, Fexternal force, between motorcycle & death well is f &
ffriction force) normal reaction is N. Find relation of f & N –

(1)

f g f 2g
(1) = 2 (2) = 2
N r N r
(2) f g f 4g
(3) = (4) = 2
(3) Can't be determined N 2r2 N r
(4) Insufficient data
4. A heavy mass is attached to a thin wire and is
2. A string of lenth L fixed at one end carries a whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most
mass m, at the other end. The strings makes - likely to break
2 (1) When the mass is at the highest point of the
rev / s around the axis through the fixed end
 circle
as shown in the figure, the tension in the string (2) When the mass is at the lowest point of the
is circle
(3) When the wire is horizontal
(4) At an angle of cos–1 (1/3) from the upward
vertical

5. A stone of mass 1kg is tied to the end of a

string of 1m length. It is whirled in a vertical
(1) 16 mL (2) 4 mL circle. If the velocity of the stone at the top be
(3) 8 mL (4) 2 mL 4 m/s. What is the tension in the string (at that
instant) ?
3. In case of death well a motorcyclist of mass m (1) 6N (2) 16N
drives a motorcycle on the vertical surface of (3) 5N (4) 10N
a large wooden well with angular velocity ω.

1
6. A collision is said to be perfectly inelastic 11. A point mass m is moved in a vertical circle of
when: radius r with the help of a string. The velocity
(1) Coefficient of restitution = 0 of the mass is 7gr at the lowest point. The
(2) Coefficient of restitution = 1 tension in the string at the lowest point will be:
(3) Coefficient of restitution = ∞ (1) 6mg (2) 7mg
(4) Coefficient of restitution < 1 (3) 8mg (4) mg
7. Three identical particles are joined together by 12. A uniform wire of sides 2 , and as shown
a thread as shown in figure. All the three
in figure. The x and y co-ordinate of the centre
particles are moving in a horizontal plane. If
of mass of each side are shown in figure. The
the velocity of the outermost particle is v 0 ,
x and y co-ordinates of the centre of mass of
then the ratio of tensions in the three sections wire are respectively
of the string is

(1) 3 : 5 : 7 (2) 3 : 4 : 5
(3) 7 : 11 : 6 (4) 3 : 5 : 6

8. A horizontal force F acts on the block of mass

m and the block remains stationary, the value
of friction force on the block is :-
(1) µmg (2) µmg – F  
(3) F (4) zero (1)  ,  (2) ( , )
4 4
9. If the pulley in the system shown below is    
(3)  ,  (4)  , 
moved vertically downward by a distance x,  4 4 
find the displacement of the block m.
13. A circular plate of uniform thickness has a
diameter 56 cm. A circular portion of diameter
42 cm is removed from one edge as shown in
the figure. The distance of centre of mass of
the remaining portion from the centre of plate
will be:

(1) 2x, vertically upward

(2) x, vertically upward
(3) 2x, vertically downward
(4) None of these

10. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have

position vector (iˆ + 2jˆ + k)
ˆ and (−3iˆ − 2jˆ + k)
ˆ
respectively. The centre of mass of this system (1) 5 cm (2) 7 cm
has a position vector (3) 9 cm (4) 11 cm
(1) −2iˆ + 2kˆ (2) −2iˆ − ˆj + kˆ
(3) 2iˆ − ˆj − 2kˆ (4) ˆi + ˆj + kˆ

2
14. If the system is released, then the acceleration 19. Two elastic bodies P and Q having equal
of the centre of mass of the system : masses are moving along the same line with
velocities of 20 m/s and 15 m/s respectively.
Their respective velocities after the elastic
collision will be in m/s :
(1) 15 and 20 (2) 5 and 20
(3) 20 and 15 (4) 20 and 5

20. A uniform solid cone of height 40 cm is shown

in figure. The distance of centre of mass of the
cone from point B (centre of the base) is:

g g
(1) (2)
4 2
(3) g (4) 2g

15. A body of mass 20 kg is moving with a

velocity of 2v and another body of mass 10 kg
is moving with velocity v along same (1) 20 cm (2) 10/3 cm
direction. The velocity of their centre of mass (3) 20/3 cm (4) 10 cm
is
(1) 5v/3 (2) 2v/3 21. Two blocks (A) 4 kg and (B) 6 kg rest one over
(3) v (4) Zero the other on a smooth horizontal plane. The
coefficient of static and dynamic friction
16. In the fig. given below masses m and m' are between (A) and (B) is the same and equal to
tied with a thread passing over pulley, m' is on 0.3. The maximum horizontal force F that can
a frictionless horizontal surface. If be applied to (B) in order that both (A) and (B)
acceleration due to gravity is g, the do not have any relative motion is:
acceleration of m in this arrangement will be:-

(1) 30N (2) 300 N

(3) 12 N (4) 120 N
(1) g (2) m'g/(m + m')
(3) mg/(m + m') (4) mg/(m – m') 22. Adjoining figure shows two blocks A and B
pushed against the wall with a force F. The
17. A bomb of mass 40 kg at rest explodes into wall is smooth but the surfaces in contact of A
two pieces of masses 22 kg and 18 kg. The and B are rough. Which of the following is
velocity of 22 kg mass is 9 m/s. The kinetic true for the system of blocks to be at rest
energy of the other mass is :- against the wall?
(1) 545 J (2) 1089 J
(3) 486 J (4) 324 J

18. A big ball of mass M, moving with velocity u

strikes a small ball of mass m, which is at rest.
Finally, small ball attains velocity u and big
ball v. What is the value of v :- (1) F should be be more than the weight of A
M−m m and B
(1) u (2) u (2) F should be equal to the weight of A and B
M M+m
(3) F should be less than the weight of A and
2m
(3) (4) None of these B
M+m (4) System cannot be in equilibrium
3
23. A body of mass 3 kg falls from a height of 20 29. A 3 kg body collides with another stationary
m. What is the loss in potential energy :- body. After the collision, the bodies move in
(1) 400 J (2) 300 J the same direction with one-fourth of the
(3) 200 J (4) 600 J velocity of the first body. The mass of the
second body will be-
24. Which of the following remains unchanged (1) 3 kg (2) 6 kg
(for the system) during an inelastic collision? (3) 9 kg (4) 12 kg
(1) Mechanical energy (2) Kinetic energy
(3) Momentum (4) All of the above. 30. The only force Fx acting on a 2.0 kg body as it
25. Figure shows a plot of the potential energy as moves along the x-axis varies as shown in the
figure. The velocity of the body along positive
a function of x for a particle moving along the
x-axis at x = 0 is 4 m/s. The kinetic energy of
x-axis:
the body at x = 3.0 m is :-

(1) 4 J (2) 8 J
Which of the following statement(s) is/are (3) 12 J (4) None of these
true?
(1) a, c, and d are points of equilibrium 31. A machine which is 75% efficient, uses 12 J
(2) a is a point of stable equilibrium of energy in lifting 1 kg mass through a certain
(3) b is a unstable equilibrium point distance. The mass is then allowed to fall
(4) All of the above through the same distance, the velocity at the
end of its fall is :-
26. A body of mass 10 kg is displaced from point
(1) 12m / s (2) 18m / s
A(2, 1, 3) to point B(3, 3, 4) under the effect
of a force of magnitude 20 N in the direction (3) 24m / s (4) 32m / s
of 6iˆ + 8j.
ˆ Calculate work done by the force :
(1) 22 J (2) 20 J 32. A variable force, given by the 2-dimensional
(3) 44 J (4) Zero ( )
vector F = 3x 2 ˆi + 4ˆj , acts on a particle. The
force is in newton and x is in metre. What is
27. Work done in time t on a body of mass m
the change in the kinetic energy of the particle
which is accelerated from rest to a speed v in
as it moves from the point with coordinates
time t 1 as a function of time t is given by :-
(2,3) to (3,0)? (The coordinates are in meters)
1 v 1 v2 (1) –7 J (2) Zero
(1) m t 2 (2) m 2 t 2
2 t1 2 t1 (3) +7J (4) +19 J
2
1  mv  2
(3)  t t (4) None of these 33. A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a
2  t1  variable force. The force varies with distance
covered by the body. What is the speed of the
28. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground body when the body has covered 25m
3 assuming that the body starts form rest :-
with some initial velocity say v0 . If of its
4
kinetic energy is lost due to friction in time t0
then coefficient of friction between the
particle and the ground is :-
v v
(1) 0 (2) 0
2gt 0 4gt 0
3v 0 (1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) (4) None of these
4gt 0 (3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s

4
34. A highly elastic ball moving at a speed of 3 40. In the set-up shown, a 200 N block is
m/s approaches a heavy wall moving towards supported in equilibrium with the help of
it with a speed of 3 m/s. After the collision, the strings and a spring. all knotted at point O.
speed of the ball will be: - Extension in the spring is 4 cm. Force constant
of the spring is closest to [g = 10 m/s2 ]

(1) 3 m/s (2) 6 m/s

(3) 9 m/s (4) zero

35. The power input of the pump which is 50% (1) 30 N/m (2) 2500 N/m
efficient and pumps 200 kg water to a height (3) 3000 N/m (4) 4000 N/m
20 m in 10 sec : -
(1) 4 KW (2) 6 KW 41. All surfaces are assumed to be frictionless.
(3) 7 KW (4) 8 KW Calculate the horizontal force F that must be
applied so that m1 and m2 do not move relative
36. If momentum is increased (2)1/4 times the to m3 is :–
percentage change in kinetic energy is :
(1) 41.4 % (2) 141%
(3) 1.41% (4) None of these

37. The potential energy of a certain spring when

stretched through a distance s is 10 Joule. The
amount of work done (in Joule) that must be m 2g
(1) ( m1 + m 2 + m 3 )
done on this spring to stretch it through m1
additional distance s will be: - m 2g
(1) 30 (2) 40 (2) ( m1 + m 2 )
m1
(3) 10 (4) 20
mg
(3) ( m 2 + m3 ) 1
38. The potential energy of a particle varies with m2
x according to the relation U(x) = x2 – 4x. The m1g
point x = 2 is a point of :- (4) ( m1 + m2 + m3 )
m3
(1) stable equilibrium
(2) unstable equilibrium
(3) neutral equilibrium 42. Two masses of 1 kg and 2 kg are attached to
(4) none of above the ends of a massless string passing over a
pulley of negligible weight. The pulley itself
39. A mass of 2 kg moving with a speed of is attached to a light spring balance as shown
10m/sec on a horizontal smooth surface in figure. The masses start moving; during this
compresses a spring of spring constant interval the reading of spring balance will be:-
N
K = 50 . The maximum compression of
m
spring: -

(1) More than 3 kg (2) Less than 3 kg

(1) 2m (2) 1.5m (3) Equal to 3 kg (4) None of the above
(3) 14m (4) 6m

5
43. For the given arrangement the position of
centre of mass will be –

(1) (4, 0) (2) (3, 0)

 10 
(3)  ,0  (4) (5, 0)
 3 

44. Three blocks of masses m, 3m and 5m are

connected by massless strings and pulled by a
force F on a frictionless surface as shown in
the figure below. The tension P in the first
string is 16N.

If the point of application of F is changed as

given below, the values of P' and Q' shall be :-

(1) 16N, 10N (2) 10N, 16N

(3) 2 N, 8N (4) None of these

45. Centroid and centre of gravity of a 2-

dimensional sheet coincides with its centre of
mass if,
Here (g  acceleration due to gravity, σ
surface mass density)
(1) g & σ is constant
(2) only σ is constant
(3) only g is constant
(4) None of these

6
 CHEMISTRY
46. −
The number of moles of MnO reduced to
4
of a cell decreases with increase in
Mn2+ by the addition of 7.5 mole electrons in concentration of reactants
−
MnO4 is
52. A voltaic cell is made by connecting two half
(1) 1.5 (2) 5 cells represented by half equations below:
(3) 3 (4) 7.5 Sn2+(aq) + 2 e– → Sn(s) E° = –0.14 V
Fe3+(aq) + e– → Fe2+ (aq) E° = +0.77 V
47. The limiting molar conductivities  for Which statement is correct about this voltaic
NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S cell?
cm2 mol–1 respectively. The  for NaBr is (1) Fe2+ is oxidised and the voltage of the cell
2
(1) 278 S cm mol –1 2
(2) 176 S cm mol –1
is –0.91 V
2
(3) 128 S cm mol –1 (4) 302 S cm2 mol–1 (2) Sn is oxidised and the voltage of the cell is
0.91 V
48. Standard reduction potentials of the half (3) Fe3+ is oxidised and the voltage of the cell
reactions are given below: is 0.91 V
F2 (g) + 2e– → 2 F– (aq) ; E° = +2.85 V (4) Sn is oxidised and the voltage of the cell is
Cl2 (g) + 2e– → 2Cl– (aq) ; E° = + 1.36 V 0.63 V
Br2 (s) + 2e– → 2 Br– (aq) ; E° = + 1.06 V
I 2 (S) + 2 e– → 2 I – (aq) ; E° = + 0.53 V 53. Assertion : Equivalent weight of any
The strongest oxidizing and reducing agents substance is 96500 times its electrochemical
respectively are : equivalent
(1) Cl2 and Br– (2) Cl2 and I 2 Reason : Each metal has a fixed value of
(3) F2 and I – (4) Br2 and Cl– electrochemical equivalent
(1) Assertion is true but reason is false.
49. Aluminium displaces hydrogen from dilute (2) Assertion is false but reason is true.
HCl whereas silver does not. The e.m.f. of a (3) Both assertion and reason are true.
cell prepared by combining Al/Al3+ and (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
Ag/Ag+ is 2.46 V. The reduction potential of
silver electrode is +0.80 V. The reduction 54. Assertion: Conductivity decreases with
potential of aluminium electrode is decrease in concentration of electrolyte
(1) + 1.66 V (2) – 3.26 V Reason: Number of ions per unit volume that
(3) 3.26 V (4) – 1.66 V carry the current in a solution decreases on
dilution.
50. Which pair of electrolytes could not be (1) Assertion is true but reason is false.
distinguished by products of electrolysis using (2) Assertion is false but reason is true.
inert electrodes? (3) Both assertion and reason are true.
(1) 1 M CuSO 4 solution, 1 M CuCl2 solution (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(2) 1 M KCl solution, 1 M KI solution
(3) 1 M AgNO 3 solution, 1 M Cu(NO 3)2 55. Which cell will measure standard electrode
solution potential of copper electrode ?
(4) 1 M KCl solution, 1 M NaCl solution (1) Pt(s) | H 2 (g, 0.1 bar) | H + (aq., 1 M) || Cu2+
(aq., 1 M) | Cu
51. Which of the following analogies is correct ? (2) Pt (s) | H 2 (g, 1 bar) | H + (aq., 1 M) || Cu2+
(1) Conductivity ; Units S m :: Molar –1
(aq., 2M) | Cu
conductivity : Units S m–2 mol–1 (3) Pt (s) | H 2 (g, 1 bar) | H + (aq., 1 M) ||
(2) Zn – Cu Cell : Daniell cell :: Zn – Zn cell : Cu2+(aq., 1 M) | Cu
Concentration cell (4) Pt(s) | H 2 (g, 1 bar) | H + (aq., 0.1 M) || Cu2+
(3) Conductivity : increase with dilution :: (aq., 1 M) | Cu
Molar conductivity :: decreases with dilution
(4) Electrode potential :: increase with
increase in concentration of electrolyte :: EMF

7
56. Which of the statements about solutions of 59. What current is to be passed for 0.25 s for
electrolytes is not correct ? deposition of a certain weight of metal which
(1) Conductivity of solution depends upon is equal to its electrochemical equivalent ?
size of ions. (1) 4 A (2) 100 A
(2) Conductivity depends upon viscosity of (3) 200 A (4) 2 A
solution.
(3) Conductivity does not depend upon 60. In an experiment 0.04 F was passed through
solvation of ions present in solution. 400 ml of 1 M solution of NaCl. What would
(4) Conductivity of solution increases with be the pH of the solution after the electrolysis?
temperature. (1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 13 (4) 6
57. ECell for some half cell reactions are given
below. on the basis of these mark the correct 61. Equivalent conductivity at infinite dilution for
answer. sodium potassium oxalate, (COO – )2 Na+ K +,
1 will be (given, molar conductivities of oxalate,
(b) H+(aq) + e– → H 2 (g) ; ECell = 0.00V K+ and Na+ ions at infinite dilution are 148.2,
2 50.1, 73.5 S cm2 mol–1 respectively)
(ii) 2H 2 O(l) → O2 (g) + 4 H +(aq) + 4 e–,
(1) 271.8 S cm2 eq–1 (2) 67.95 S cm2 eq–1
ECell = 1.23V (3) 543.6 S cm2 eq–1 (4) 135.9 S cm2 eq–1
(iii) 2SO24− (aq) → S2O82− (aq) + 2e− ; ECell = 1.96V
(1) In dilute sulphuric acid solution, hydrogen 62. The reaction taking place in the cell
will be formed at cathode. Pt | H 2 (g) | HCl (1.0 M) | AgCl | Ag is
(2) In concentrated sulphuric acid solution, (1) AgCl + (1/2) H 2 → Ag + H + + Cl–
water will be oxidised at anode. (2) Ag+ + H+ + Cl– → 2 Ag + 2H +
(3) In dilute sulphuric acid solution, water will (3) 2 Ag+ + H2 → 2 Ag + 2H +
be reduced at anode. (4) 2 Ag + 2H + → 2 Ag+ +H 2
(4) In dilute sulphuric acid solution, SO24− ion
63. Small quantities of solutions of compounds
will be oxidised to tetrahionate ion at anode.
TX, TY and TZ are put into separate test tubes
containing X, Y and Z solutions. TX does not
58. Match the items of Column I and Column II react with any of these. TY reacts with both X
Column I Column II and Z. TZ reacts with X. The decreasing order
(i) Lechanche (a) cell reaction 2 H 2 + of oxidation potential of the anions X – , Y–, Z–
cell O2 → 2 H2O is:
(ii) Ni-Cd cell (b) Dost not involve (1) Y– , Z– , Z– (2) Z– , X – , Y–
any ion in solution (3) Y – , X– , Z– (4) X – , Z– , Y–
and is used in
hearing aids. 64. Standard electrode potentials are
(iii) Fuel cell (c) rechargeable Fe2+/Fe, E° = – 0.44 V
(iv) Mercury (d) reaction at anode, Fe3+/Fe2+, E° = + 0.77 V
cell Zn → Zn2+ + 2e– 2+ 3+
Fe , Fe and Fe blocks are kept together,
(e) Converts energy of then
combustion into (1) Fe3+ increases
electrical energy (2) Fe3+ decreases
(1) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a, e), (iv)-(b) (3) Fe2+/Fe3+ remains unchanged
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a, e), (iv)-(b) (4) Fe2+ decreases
(3) (i)-(a,e), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
(4) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a, e), (iv)-(d)

8
65. An aqueous solution containing one mole per 70. In a fuel cell, methanol is used as fuel and
litre of each Cu(NO 3 ), AgNO 3 , Hg2 (NO 3 )2 and oxygen gas is used as an oxidizer. The reaction
Mg(NO 3 )2 is being electrolysed using inert 3
is CH 3 OH (l) + O2 (g) → CO 2 (g) + 2H 2 O(l)
electrodes. The values of the standard 2
electrode potentials in volts (reduction At 298 K, standard Gibbs energies of
potentials) are formation for CH 3 OH(l) and CO 2 (g) are –
Ag | Ag+ = 0.80, 2 Hg | Hg 22+ = +0.79 166.2, –237.2 and –394.4 kJ mol–1
Cu | Cu2+ = + 0.34, Mg | Mg2+ = –2.37 respectively. If standard enthalpy of
with increasing voltage, the sequence of combustion of methanol is –726 kJ mol–1 mol–
1 , efficiency of the fuel cell will be
deposition of metals on cathode will be
(1) Ag, Hg, Cu, Mg (2) Mg, Cu, Hg, Ag (1) 80% (2) 87%
(3) Ag, Hg, Cu (4) Cu, Hg, Ag (3) 90% (4) 97%

66. Given below are half cell reactions: 71. A lead storage battery has been used for one
MnO−4 +8H+ + 5 e– → Mn2+ + 4H2 O, month (30 days) at the rate of one hour per day
by drawing a constant current of 2 amperes
EMn2+ /MnO− = −1.510V H2 SO 4 consumed by the battery is
4

1 (1) 1.12 mole (2) 2.24 mole

O 2 +2H+ + 2e– → H2O, EO2 /H2O = +1.223V (3) 3.36 mole (4) 4.48 mole
2
Will the permanganate ion, MnO−4 liberate O2
72. Match the entries of column I with appropriate
from water in the presence of an acid? entries of column II and choose the correct
(1) Yes, because Ecell = +0.287V option out of the four option (a), (b), (c), (d)
(2) No, because Ecell = −0.287V given at the end of each question.
Column I Column II
(3) Yes, because Ecell = +2.733V
For the
(4) No, because Ecell = −2.733V deniell cell
suing Zn &
67. E1 , E2 and E3 are the emf values of the three Cu electrodes
galvanic cells respectively (A) Concentration (p) EMF of the cell
(i) Zn | Zn2+ (1 M) || Cu2+ (0.1 M) | Cu of copper increases
(ii) Zn | Zn2+ (1 M) || Cu2+ (1 M) | Cu sulphate
(iii) Zn | Zn2+ (0.1 M) || Cu2+ (1 M) | Cu solution is
Which one of the following is true? doubled
(1) E2 > E3 > E1 (2) E3 > E2 > E1 (B) Concentration (q) EMF of the cell
(3) E1 > E2 > E3 (4) E1 > E3 > E2 of zinc decreases
sulphate
68. Consider the following cell reaction : solution is
2 Fe(s) + O 2 (g) + 4 H + (aq) → 2 Fe2+ (aq) + doubled
2H2 O (l) E° = 1.67 V (C) Concentration (r) EMF of cell
At [Fe2+] = 10–3 M, pO2 = 0.1 atm and pH = 3, of both the becomes equal
the cell potential at 25° C is solution are to standard
(1) 1.47 V (2) 1.77 V doubled EMF
(3) 1.87 V (4) 1.57 V (D) Concentrations (s) No effect on
of both the EMF
69. 0.05 change is passed through a lead storage solutions are
battery. In the anodic half cell, the amount of kept equal
lead sulphate precipitated is (Molar mass of (1) A-p, B-q, C-s, D-r
PbSO 4 = 303 g mol–1 ) (2) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q
(1) 22.8 g (2) 15.2 g (3) A-q, B-r, C-s, D-p
(3) 7.6 g (4) 11.4 g (4) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p

9
73. Three litres of 0.5 M K 2 Cr2 O7 solution have to 78. Which of the following statements incorrect
be completely reduced in the acidic medium. about the collision theory of chemical
The number of faradays of electricity required reaction?
will be (1) It considers reacting molecules of atoms to
(1) 11 (2) 7 be hard spheres and ignores their structural
(3) 5 (4) 9 features
(2) Number of effective collisions determines
74. The rate of a reaction is expressed in different
the rate of reaction
ways as follows:
(3) Collision of atoms or molecules possessing
1 d[C] 1 d[D] 1 d[A] d[B]
+ =− =+ =− sufficient threshold energy results into the
2 dt 3 dt 5 dt dt product formation
The reaction is (4) Molecules should collide with sufficient
(1) 4 A + B → 2 C + 3D threshold energy and proper orientation for the
(2) B +3 D → 4 A + 2C collision to be effective.
(3) A +B → C + D
(4) B +D → A + C 79. At high pressure, the following reaction is of
zero order.
75. An endothermic reaction A → B has an 1130K
activation energy of 15 kcal/mol and the 2NH 3 (g) N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g)
Platinum catalyst
enthalpy change of reaction is 5 kcal/mole.
The activation energy for the reaction B→A Which of the following options are incorrect
is for this reaction ?
(1) 20 kcal/mole (2) 15 kcal/mole (1) Rate of reaction = Rate constant
(3) 10 kcal/mole (4) zero (2) Rate of the reaction depends on
concentration of ammonia
76. Which of the following analogies is correct? (3) Rate of decomposition of ammonia will
ln 2 remain constant until ammonia disappears
(1) First order reaction : t1/ 2 = :: Zero completely
k
(4) Further increase in pressure will change
[A]0
order reaction : t1/2 = the rate of reaction
k
(2) Zero order reaction : units of k = mol L–1 80. The rate of a gaseous reaction is generally
s–1 dP
(3) Acid catalyzed hydrolysis of ethyl acetate: expressed in terms of . If it were expressed
dt
Second order reaction :: Base catalyzed
in terms of change in number of mole per unit
hydrolysis of ethyl acetate : First order
reaction  dn 
time   or in terms of change in molar
(4) 2 N 2 O5 → 4 NO 2 + O 2 : first order reaction  dt 
:: 2 HI → H 2 + I 2 :: First order reaction  dC 
concentration per unit time   , which of
 dt 
77. If the initial concentration of a substance A is the following relationship will hold good?
1.5 M and after 120 seconds, the concentration dC dn dP
of the substance A is 0.75 M, the rate constant (1) = =
dt dt dt
of the reaction if it follows zero order kinetics
is dC 1  dn  1  dP 
(2) =  =  
(1) 0.00625 mol L–1 s–1 dt V  dt  RT  dt 
(2) 0.00625 s–1 dC dn V  dP 
(3) 0.00578 mol L–1 s–1 (3) = =  
dt dt RT  dt 
(4) 0.00578 s–1
(4) None of these

10
81. Consider the following reaction that goes from 85. A plot of log t 1/2 versus log C0 is given in the
A to B three steps as given below: adjoining fig. The conclusion that can be
Choose the correct option : drawn from this graph is

No. of No. of Rate 1

(1) Order = 1, t 1/2 =
Intermediated Activated Determining ka
complexes step 2.303
(1) 3 2 II (2) Order = 1, t 1/2 = log 2
k
(2) 2 3 II
1
(3) 2 3 I (3) Order = 0, t 1/2 =
(4) 2 3 III 2ka
1
(4) Order = 2, t 1/2 =
82. The time for half life period of a certain a
reaction A → Products is 1 hour. When the
initial concentration of the reactant 'A', is 2.0 86. For a reaction A + B → Products, rate law is
mol L–1 , how much time does it take for its d[A]
− = k[A]0 . The concentration of A left
concentration to come from 0.50 to 0.25 mol dt
L–1 if it is a zero order reaction? 1
after time t when t = is
(1) 0.25 h (2) 1 h k
(3) 4 h (4) 0.5 h [A]0
(1) (2) [A]0 × e
83. The initial rates of reaction 3 A + 2B + C→ e
Products, at different initial concentrations are [A] 1
(3) 2 0 (4)
given below: e [A]0
Initial rate, Ms–1 [A]0, M [B]0 , M [C]0 , M
5.0×10–3 0.010 0.005 0.010 87. The redox reaction among the following is
5.0×10–3 0.010 0.005 0.015 (1) reaction of [Co(H 2 O)6 ]Cl3 with AgNO 3
1.0×10–2 0.010 0.010 0.010 (2) formation of ozone from atomspharic
1.25×10–3 0.005 0.005 0.010 oxygen in the presence of sunlight
The order with respect to the reactants A, B (3) combination of dinitrogen with dioxygen
and C are respectively at 2000 K
(1) 3, 2, 0 (2) 3, 2, 1 (4) reaction of H 2 SO 4 with NaOH
(3) 2, 2, 0 (4) 2, 1, 0
88. Assuming complete ionization same moles of
84. t 1/4 can be taken as the time taken for the the following compounds will require the least
3 amount of acidified KMnO 4 for complete
concentration of a reactant to drop to of its
4 oxidation ?
initial value. If the rate constant for a first (1) FeSO 3 (2) FeC2 O4
order reaction is K, then t 1/4 can be written as (3) Fe(NO 2 )2 (4) FeSO 4
(1) 0.10/K (2) 0.29/K
(3) 0.69/K (4) 0.75/K 89. If a half cell, A + e– → A – has a large negative
potential, it follows that
(1) A is easily reduced
(2) A is readily oxidised
(3) A – is readily reduced
(4) A– is readily oxidised

11
90. When copper is treated with a certain
concentration of nitric acid, nitric oxide and
nitrogen dioxide are liberated in equal
volumes according to the equation.
xCu+y HNO 3 →Cu(NO 3 )2 +NO+NO 2 + H2 O
The coefficients of x and y are
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 2 and 6
(3) 1 and 3 (4) 3 and 8

12
 BIOLOGY
91. How many member are belongs to 96. Choose the correct statement
Chlorophyceae. (1) Only external fertilization occurs in all
Laminaria, fucus, Ulothrix, Chara, Porphyra, algae
Gracilaria, Spirogyra, dictyota, Sphagnum, (2) Internal fertilization also occurs in red
Volvox algae
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) Internal and external fertilization both
(3) 6 (4) 3 occurs in green algae
(4) Internal and external fertilization both
92. Examine the figures A, B, C, D. In which one occurs in Brown algae
of the four options all the items A, B, C and D
are correct 97. Non-motile, Sexual gametes in similar size,
are characters of following algae:
(1) Ulothrix (2) Chara
(3) Volvox (4) Spirogyra

98. Choose the correct option

(1) In bryophytes sexual reproduction is
(1) A-Porphyra, B-Fucus, C-Dictyota, D- oogamous type
Polysiphonia (2) Sex organs are unicellular in algae and
(2) A-Polysiphonina, B-Porphyra, C-Dictyota, fungi but multicellular in bryophytes to
D-Fucus angiosperms
(3) A-Fucus, B-Dictyota, C-Porphyra, D- (3) Archegonium is flask shaped
Polysiphonia (4) All
(4) A-Porphyra, B-Polysiphonia, C-Fucus, D-
Dictyota 99. Select mismatched pair on the basis of range
in algae
93. Consider the following facts- (1) Filamentous form – Ulothrix
I. Rhizoids of moss. (2) Massive plant – Kelp
II. Spore mother cell of moss (3) Colonial form – Spirullina
III. Cells of prothallus of Equisetum (4) Unicellular – Chlorella
Select ploidy of a above facts respectively:
(1) n, 2n, and n (2) n, n, and 2n 100. Match the following Column-I and II:
(3) 2n, 2n and n (4) n, n and n Column I Column I
(A) Livewort (i) Thalloid plant
94. Choose the correct option for Incorrect (B) Moss (ii) Unicellular
statement rhizoids
(A) Fucus & Chara are the members of green (iii) Erect, aerial plant
algae (iv) Multicellular
(B) Chlorella unicellular algae rich in proteins rhizoids
(C) Laminaria and Saragasstum are the Choose right option :
member of green algae (1) (A) – iii, iv, (B) – i, ii
(D) In Brown algae fertilization is mostly (2) (A) – i, ii, (B) – iii, iv
external (3) (A) – i, iii, (B) – ii, iv
(1) B & D (2) C & D (4) (A) – i, iv, (B) – ii, iii
(3) A, C & D (4) A & C
101. Select wrong option for gemmae:
95. Motile isogamous sexual reproduction may (1) Asexual bud of marchantia
studied in: (2) Green autotrophic structure
(1) Ulothrix (2) Eudorina (3) Found on sporophyte of marchantia
(3) Volvox (4) Spirogyra (4) Cup shaped structure arranged on midrid.

13
102. Ulothrix can be described as a (4) Green algae, brown algae, red algae
(1) Non-motile colonial alga lacking respectively
zoospores
(2) Filamentous alga lacking flagellated 108. Which of the following example belong to the
reproductive stages same class of algae
(3) Membranous alga producing zoospores (1) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia
(4) Filamentous alga with flagellated (2) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas
reproductive stages (3) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix
(4) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracilaria
103. Following marine algae use as food:
(1) Saragassum and Laminaria 109. Which one of the following statements
(2) Chlorella and Chara concerning the algae is incorrect
(3) Spirulina and Ulothrix (1) Most algae are photosynthetic
(4) Claviceps and Porphyra (2) Algae can be classified according to their
pigments
104. Choose the incorrect statement (3) All algae are filamentous
(1) The form and size of algae is highly (4) Spirogyra does not produce zoospores
variable.
(2) Red algae reproduce asexually by non- 110. A prothallus is
motile spores and sexually by non-motile (1) A structure in pteridophytes formed before
gametes. the thallus develops
(3) The red thalli of most of the red algae are (2) A sporophytic free living structure formed
unicellular. in pteridophytes
(4) In red algae sexual reproduction is only (3) A gametophyte free living structure
oogamous. formed in pteridophytes
(4) A primitive structure formed after
105. A. Pteridophytes include horse tails and fern. fertilization in pteridophytes
B. Mosses have more elaborate mechanism of
spore dispersal than liverworts 111. In a moss the sporophyte
Choose right option: (1) Arises from a spore produced from the
(1) A is right and B is wrong gametophyte
(2) A is wrong and B is right (2) Produces gametes that give rise to the
(3) Both A and B are right. gametophyte
(4) Both A and B are wrong. (3) Is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
(4) Manufactures food for itself, as well as for
106. Choose the correct statement - the gametophyte
(1) Many species of porphyra, laminaria and
sargassum are among 70 species of marine 112. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
algae used as food correct about mosses?
(2) Agar is used to grow microbes and in (1) The predominant stage of its life cycle is
preparations of ice-creams and jellies the gametophyte which consists of two stages
(3) Algae are useful to man in a variety of way – protonema and leafy stages
(4) All (2) Leafy stage are attached to the soil through
multi-cellular and branched rhizoids
107. Algin, carrageen and proteins are obtained (3) Sex organs-antheridia and archegonia are
from produced at the apex of the leafy shoots
(1) Red algae, brown algae, green algae (4) All of the above
respectively
(2) Brown algae, red algae, green algae
respectively
(3) Red algae, brown algae, red algae
respectively

14
113. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(1) Pyrenoids contain protein besides tarch
(2) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous,
oogamous and anisogamous in green and
brown algae
(3) Some of the members of algae also occur
in association with fungi (lichen) and animals
(eg, on sloth bear)
(4) The leaves in pteridophyta are small
(macrophyll) and large (microphyll)

114. Which of the following is incorrectly

matched?
(1) Ulothrix-Mannitol
(2) Porphyra-Floridian starch
(3) Volvox-Starch
(4) Ectocarpus – Fucoxanthin (1) A-Gemma cup, B-Archegoniophore, C-
Sporophyte, D-Sphagnum
115. Choose the incorrect statement for bryophyte (2) A-Archegoniophore, B-Gemma cup, C-
(1) Zygote does not undergo meiosis Gametophyte, D-Sphagnum
immediately (3) A-Archegonia, B-Antheridia, C-Gemma
(2) Zygote produces embryo which changes cup, D-Sphagnum
into sporophyte (4) A-Antheridia, B-Archegonia, C-Gemma
(3) Bryophytes are of little economic cup, D-Sphagnum
importance
(4) Bryophytes are of great economic 119. Protonema and leafy stage are the
importance predominant stage of the life cycle of
(1) Moss (2) Dicots
116. Which one of the following statements is (3) Liverwort (4) Gymnosperm
wrong?
(1) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space 120. Which of the following incorrect option for
food mustard
(2) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae (1) Syncarpous condition present
(3) Algin and carrageenan are products of (2) Hypogynous condition present
algae (3) Zygomorphic condition present
(4) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and (4) Actinomorphic condition present
Gracilaria
121. Given below are two statements :
117. Mosses are of great ecological importance Statement I: The stem is the ascending part of
because of the axis bearing branches, leaves, flowers and
(1) Its contribution to prevent soil erosion fruits.
(2) Its contribution in ecological succession Statement II: Stem develops from the plumule
(3) Its capability to remove CO from the of the embryo of a germinating seed.
atmosphere (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Both (1) and (2) incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
118. Examine the figures (A-D) given below and incorrect
select the right option out of (a)-(d), in which (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
all the four items A, B, C and D are identified correct
correctly (4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are
correct

15
122. Match the following column I and column II : 126. Arrange the different zone in root from lower
Column-I Column- II to upper side:
a. Valvate i. Calotropis (1) Meristematic zone, Root cap, zone of
b. Twisted ii. Lady's finger elongation, zone of maturation
c. Imbricate iii. Gulmohar (2) Root cap, Meristematic zone, zone of
d. Vaxillary iv. Bean elongation, zone of maturation
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (3) Root cap, Meristematic zone, zone of
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i maturation, zone of elongation
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (4) Root cap,zone of elongation, Meristematic
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i zone, zone of maturation

123. Match the following column I and column II : 127. Which of the following pairs are correctly
Column-I Column- II matched
a. Marginal i. Lemon
b. Axil ii. Pea
C. Parietal iii. Primrose
d. Free central - iv. Argemone
e. Basal v. Marigold
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii, e-v
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iv

124. Match the following column I and column II :

Column -I Column -II
a. Epipetalous i. Brinjal (1) a only (2) b only
b. Epiphyllous ii. Lily (3) c only (4) All of these
c. Monoadelphous iii. China rose
d. Diadelphous iv. Pea 128. When a flower can be divided into two equal
e. Polyadelphous v. Citrus radial halves in any radial plane passing
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i through the centre, it is said to be
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-v (1) Actinomorphic
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v (2) Zygomorphic
(4) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii (3) Heteromorphic
(4) Cyclic
125. Which of the following figure & its
representative is correct 129. Identify the type of inflorescence in the given
diagram with respective example

(1) Racemose - Solanum

(2) Cymose - Solanum
(3) Cymose - Trifolium
(4) Cymose – Bean
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

16
130. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of : 4. Both microspores and megaspores develop
(1) Bean into male gametophytes.
(2) Gulmohur (1) 1 and 2 only
(3) Cassia (2) 1, 2 and 3 only
(4) Calotropis (3) 1, 3 and 4 only
(4) All of the above
131. Match the following column-I and column-II:
column-I column-II 135. Which of the following is/are true about
i. G a. Superior ovary gymnosperm stem and leaves?
ii.  b. Zygomorphic 1. The stem is always unbranched in all
iii. % c. Actinomorphic gymnosperms.
iv. P d. Perianth 2. Cycas has an unbranched stem while Pinus
(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d and Cedrus have branched stems.
(2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d 3. Gymnosperm leaves are adapted to tolerate
(3) i-b, iv-c, iii-b, ii-d extreme conditions.
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b 4. Needle-like leaves in conifers help increase
water loss.
132. Given below are four statement (a-d) (1) 2 and 3 only
regarding inflorescence of angiospermic plant (2) 1 and 4 only
(a) In racemose type of inflorescences the (3) 1, 2 and 3 only
main axis continues to grow. (4) All of the above
(b) In cymose type of inflorescence the main
axis terminates in a flower.
(c) In cymose type of inflorescence the
flowers are borne in a acropetal succession
(d) In racemose type of inflorescences the
flower borne in an basipetal succession
Which of the statements are correct
(1) (a) (b) and (d)
(2) (a) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (a) and (d)

133. Identify the correct statements:

1. The main plant body in pteridophytes is a
sporophyte.
2. The leaves of Selaginella are macrophylls.
3. Spores in pteridophytes are formed by
meiosis.
4. Sporangia are present on sporophylls.
(1) 1 and 3 only
(2) 1, 3 and 4 only
(3) 2, 3 and 4 only
(4) All of the above

134. Select the correct statements about

heterospory in pteridophytes:
1. Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous.
2. Heterosporous plants produce megaspores
and microspores.
3. Heterospory is a precursor to seed habit.

17
136. Assertion (A): Vasectomy does not affect 140. Select the correct statements regarding
libido or secondary sexual characteristics in contraception
males. 1. Copper ions released by IUDs suppress
Reason (R): Vasectomy blocks the vasa sperm motility.
deferentia but does not interfere with hormone 2. Condom is a hormonal method of
production by testes. contraception.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct 3. Female feticide is one reason for declining
explanation of A. sex ratio in India.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the 4. STDs can be prevented by proper hygiene
correct explanation of A. and safe sex practices.
(3) A is true, but R is false. (1) 1, 3 and 4 (2) 2 and 4
(4) A is false, but R is true. (3) 1, 2 and 3 (4) 3 and 4 only

137. Select the correct statements regarding 141. Which of the following statements are
sexually transmitted diseases (STDs): correct?
1. Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum. 1. AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.
2. AIDS is caused by a DNA virus. 2. Gonorrhoea affects both male and female
3. Genital herpes is caused by a virus. reproductive tracts.
4. Gonorrhoea is a bacterial STD. 3. All IUDs prevent ovulation.
(1) 1, 3, and 4 only 4. Amniocentesis can help detect
(2) 2 and 4 only chromosomal abnormalities.
(3) 1, 2, and 3 only (1) 1, 2, and 4 only
(4) All four are correct (2) 1 and 3 only
(3) 1, 2, 3, and 4
138. Select the incorrect statement (4) 2 and 3 only
1. Vasectomy affects testosterone production
in males. 142. Assertion (A): Saheli is an oral contraceptive
2. Barrier methods of contraception prevent for females.
fertilization. Reason (R): It is a non-steroidal preparation
3. Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria taken daily.
gonorrhoeae. (1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
4. Saheli was developed by the Indian Council explanation of A.
of Medical Research (ICMR). (2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
(1) 1, 3, and 4 only correct explanation of A.
(2) 1 and 4 only (3) A is true, but R is false.
(3) 1, 2, and 3 only (4) A is false, but R is true.
(4) All four are correct
143. Select the correct statement
139. Select the correct statements regarding 1. Emergency contraceptive pills are effective
contraception if taken within 72 hours.
1. Surgical methods of contraception are 2. ARTs include techniques like IVF, ZIFT,
irreversible. and GIFT.
2. Condom use prevents pregnancy but not 3. Gonorrhoea and syphilis are caused by
STDs. viruses.
3. MTP is legal under medical supervision. 4. Barrier methods are 100% effective.
4. Copper-T is a hormonal contraceptive. (1) 1, 2, and 4 only
(1) 1 and 3 (2) 1 and 2 only
(2) 2 and 4 (3) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(3) 1 and 2 (4) 2 and 3 only
(4) 3 and 4

18
144. Assertion (A): Use of condoms is a good 151. Choose the option that completes the analogy
method of contraception. correctly amongst given STIs. Gonorrhoea :
Reason (R): Condoms protect against STDs Bacterial : : Trichomoniasis : ___
and are reusable. (1) Viral (2) Bacterial
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (3) Fungal (4) Protozoan
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the 152. In which of the following techniques does
correct explanation of A. fusion of gametes occurs inside female’s
(3) A is true, but R is false. reproductive tract?
(4) A is false, but R is true. (1) GIFT (2) ZIFT
(3) ICSI (4) IUT
Case Study (145-147)
A couple has been diagnosed with infertility due to 153. Method involving in-vitro fertilization that
blocked fallopian tubes in the female partner. The helps to overcome infertility is possible in case
doctors suggest IVF as a possible solution. Based on of :
this information, answer the following questions: (1) GIFT (2) IUI
(3) AI (4) ICSI
145. Why is IVF recommended for blocked
fallopian tubes? 154. Progestogen based contraceptives include all
(1) It helps unblock the tubes surgically except
(2) It bypasses the need for fertilization in the (1) Progestasert (2) LNG - 20
tubes (3) Multiload 375 (4) Implants
(3) It increases sperm count in males
(4) It corrects hormonal imbalances 155. Which of the following ARTs involves
transfer of an ovum collected from a donor
146. In IVF, where does fertilization occur? into the fallopian tube of another female who
(1) Inside the uterus cannot produce one, but can provide suitable
(2) Inside the fallopian tube environment for fertilisation and further
(3) In a laboratory culture medium development?
(4) In the ovary (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT
(3) IUI (4) IVF – ET
147. What is the next step after fertilization in IVF?
(1) Immediate transfer to the vagina 156. Pelvic inflammatory diseases, abortions, still
(2) Embryo culture for 2-6 days, then transfer birth are:
to the uterus (1) Effects of hormonal IUDs
(3) Freezing all embryos for future use (2) Early symptoms of STIs
(4) Injecting sperm directly into the egg (3) Complications of MTP
(4) Late complications of untreated STIs
148. Saheli, a new contraceptive drug was
developed at CDRI. This research institute is 157. All of the following are true for Saheli, except
located in (1) Has very few sides effects
(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh (2) Contains non-steroidal preparation
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Arunachal Pradesh (3) Twice a week pill
(4) Developed at CDRI, Lucknow
149. Select the odd one w.r.t. reusability.
(1) Diaphragms (2) Nirodh 158. Progestasert and LNG-20 are
(3) Vaults (4) Cervical caps (1) Injectable estrogen
(2) Hormone releasing IUDs
150. Surgical intervention technique that blocks (3) Copper releasing IUDs
gamete transport in females is called : (4) Non – medicated IUDs
(1) Hysterectomy (2) Tubectomy
(3) Vasectomy (4) Mastectomy

19
159. Statement 1: Placenta also connected with C. Leydig cells III. Meiosis and
foetus with the help of umbilical cord. sperm formation
Statement 2: Umbilical artery carry occurs
oxygenated blood from foetus to placenta and D. Prepuce IV. Place of
umbilical vein carry deoxygenated blood from implantation
placenta to foetus. E. V. Terminal skin
(1) Statement 2 is correct only of penis
(2) Statement 1 is correct only (1) A–I; B–II; C–III; D–IV
(3) Both are correct (2) A–III; B–I; C–II; D–V
(4) Both are incorrect (3) A–III; B–I; C–IV; D–II
(4) A–II; B–IV; C–III; D–V
160. If the amount of DNA in second polar body is
7 pg. What will be the DNA content in 165. Assertion (A): Breast feeding during initial
Primary and Secondary oocyte repectively. period of infant growth is recommended.
(1) 28 and 14 pg (2) 14 and 28 pg Reason (R): Colostrum contains several
(3) 14 and 7 pg (4) 7 and 14 pg antibodies, essential to render immunity in
new-borns.
161. How many sex chromosomes will be present (1) If both A and R are true and R is the
on Sertoli cells and spermatozoa respectively? correct explanation of the A.
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 1 and 1 (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
(3) 2 and 1 (4) 2 and 2 correct explanation of the A.
(3) If A is true, but R is false.
162. How many types of sex chromosomes will be (4) If A is false, but R is true.
present on uterine cell and Sertoli cells
respectively? 166. Vas deferens receives a duct from …A… and
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 1 and 1 opens into the ….B… as ejaculatory duct. A
(3) 2 and 1 (4) 2 and 2 and B in above statements are
(1) A – Vasa efferentia, B – Urinary bladder
163. Which of the following is true regarding the (2) A – Seminal vesicle, B - Urethra
male reproductive system? (3) A – Urethra, B – Seminal vesicles
(1) Sperms are diploid. (4) A – Urethra, B – Urinary bladder
(2) It includes testes, accessory ducts and
glands, and oviducts. 167. ‘X’ is a thick structure of male reproductive
(3) The scrotum keeps the testes warmer, thus system which arises from epididymis. ‘X’ are
helping it to promote the sperm formation. 2 in number. Identify ‘X’
(4) Sertoli cells are found in seminiferous (1) Vasa efferentia (2) Vasa deferens
tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells. (3) Penis (4) Scrotum

164. 168. Each ovary is about 2-4 cm in length

Column-I Column-II connected to the ….A…. wall by ….B…. .
(Structure of (Features) Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium
Male which encloses the ovarian stroma. Stroma is
Reproductive divided into two zones ….C…. and ….D…
System) Fill the suitable choices for a to D
A. Seminiferous I. Network of (1) A – inner medulla, B – peripheral cortex,
tubule seminiferous C – ligament, D – pelvic wall
tubule (2) A – pelvic, B – ligament, C – peripheral
B. Rete testis II. Secondary cortex, D – inner medulla
sexual (3) A – pelvic, B – peripheral, C – ligament,
characters D – inner medulla
(4) A – inner medulla, B – peripheral cortex,
C – ligament, D – pelvic wall
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169. FSH in males: 175. Identify the following method of
(1) Stimulates the Leydig cells for the contraception and its mode of action?
secretion of testosterone
(2) Induces the appearance of secondary
sexual characters
(3) Acts on sertoli cells that help in
spermiogenesis
(4) Is also known as ICSH
(1) IUDs and hormonal
CASE STUDY: Oogenesis and Ovulation (2) Barrier and non-steroidal
(170 to 174) (3) Implant and steroidal
A young girl named Riya, aged 12, experienced her (4) Implant and non-steroidal
first menstruation (menarche). Her biology
teacher explained that she is now undergoing 176. Amniocentesis is primarily used to:
(1) Determine the sex of the foetus
oogenesis, the process of ova formation in the
ovaries. (2) Test for genetic disorders like Down
syndrome
(3) Enhance foetal growth
170. At what stage is the oocyte arrested in a
newborn girl? (4) Treat infertility
(1) Prophase I (2) Metaphase I
(3) Metaphase II (4) Anaphase II
177. How many of the following can prevent STIs?
171. When is the second meiotic division of
oogenesis completed? (A)
(1) At birth
(2) After ovulation
(3) After fertilization
(4) During puberty
(B)
172. Which of the following is the correct sequence
of follicular development?
(1) Primary → Graafian → Tertiary
(2) Primary → Secondary → Tertiary →
Graafian
(3) Secondary → Primary → Tertiary →
Graafian (C)
(4) Tertiary → Secondary → Graafian

173. Which of the following structures ruptures to

release the oocyte?
(1) Primary follicle
(2) Secondary follicle
(3) Tertiary follicle
(4) Graafian follicle

174. How many secondary oocytes are produced (D)

from one oogonium
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 3

(1) (A) only (2) (A) and (B)

(3) (C) and (D) (4) (D) only

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178. Read the given statements.
Statement A: Amniocentesis is a fetal sex
determination test based on study of
chromosomal pattern from fetal cells extracted
from amniotic fluid.
Statement B: There is a statutory ban on this
technique w.r.t sex determination in India.
Choose the correct option.
(1) Only statement A is true
(2) Only statement B is true
(3) Both statements are wrong
(4) Both statements are true

179. Which of the following contraceptives are

effective for longer period compared to oral
pills and also have mechanism of action
similar to it?
(1) Implants
(2) Vaults
(3) Sterilisation
(4) Coitus interruptus

180. Which statement is correct regarding ART in

India?
(1) ART facilities are widely available and
affordable to all
(2) ART requires high precision and is
available in limited centres
(3) ART does not require specialised
professionals
(4) ART is free of emotional and social
concerns

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ROUGH WORK

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ROUGH WORK

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