1 The Atmosphere

The Significance of Tropopause Height

1
The Atmosphere

The significance of the tropopause height is that it usually marks:

• the maximum height of significant cloud.

• the presence of jet streams.
• the presence of Clear Air Turbulence (CAT). It is now referred to as TURB.
• the maximum wind speed.
• the upper limit of most of the weather

Temperatures
Temperature in the troposphere increases from the poles to the Equator.

Temperature in the lower stratosphere increases from the Equator to the poles in summer but
reaches max temperature in mid latitudes in winter.

Atmospheric Hazards
As aircraft operating altitudes increase, so concentrations of OZONE and COSMIC RADIATION
become of greater importance to the aviator.

Above 50 000 ft, normal concentrations of ozone exceed tolerable limits and air needs to be
filtered before entering the cabin. The heat of the compressor system will assist in the breaking
down of the ozone to an acceptable level.

Cosmic radiation is not normally hazardous, but at times of solar flare activity a lower flight
level may be necessary.

Advances in meteorological forecasting and communications should result in pilots receiving

prompt and accurate information regarding high altitude hazards, but it is important that they
should be aware of these hazards and prepared to take the necessary re-planning action.

The International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)

Because temperature and pressure vary with time and position, both horizontally and vertically,
it is necessary, in aviation, to have a standard set of conditions to give a common datum for:

• the calibration of aircraft pressure instruments

• the design and testing of aircraft.

The standard atmosphere now used in aviation is the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere
(ISA). ISA defines an ‘average’ atmosphere from -5 km (-16 400 ft) to 80 km (262 464 ft). For
practical purposes we just need to look at the ISA between mean sea level and 20 km.

The ICAO International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:

• a MSL temperature of +15° Celsius,

• a MSL pressure of 1013.25 hectopascals (hPa),
• a MSL density of 1225 grams / cubic metre,
• a lapse rate of 0.65°C/100 m (1.98°C/1000 ft) up to 11 km (36 090 ft),
• a constant temperature of -56.5°C up to 20 km (65 617 ft),
• an increase of temperature 0.1°C/100 m (0.3° C/1000 ft), up to 32 km (104 987 ft).

Note: Practically we use a lapse rate of 2°/1000 ft for calculations up to the Tropopause.

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 The Atmosphere
1
1
The Atmosphere
Figure 1.2 The International Standard Atmosphere (ISA).
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 1 The Atmosphere

ISA Deviation
1
The Atmosphere

To determine true altitude and for the assessment of performance data it is necessary to
determine the temperature deviation from the ISA at any specified altitude. To do this we
firstly need to determine what the ISA temperature is at a specified altitude, then calculate the
deviation from the ISA.

The ISA temperature at a particular pressure altitude is found by reducing the MSL temperature
by 2°C for each 1000 ft above 1013 hPa datum:

ISA Temperature = 15 - 2× altitude (in 1000 ft)

e.g. find the ISA temperature at 18 000 ft:

ISA temperature = 15 - 2 × 18 = -21°C

Note: Remember the temperature is isothermal above 36 000 ft (11 km) in the ISA at -57°C.

Now to find the deviation from ISA we subtract the ISA temperature from the actual
temperature:

ISA Deviation = actual temperature - ISA temperature

So if the actual temperature at 18 000 ft is -27°C, then the deviation is:

ISA Deviation = -27 - (-21) = -6°

For the temperatures below, calculate the ISA deviations:

Height (ft) Temperature ISA Temperature ISA Deviation

(°C)
1500 +28
17 500 -18
24 000 -35
37 000 -45
9500 -5
5000 +15
31 000 -50
57 000 -67

If the limiting deviation for your aircraft at an airfield 5000 ft AMSL is ISA +10, what is the
maximum temp at which you can operate?

If the deviation at 3500 ft is +12, what is the ambient temperature?

(Answers on page 14)

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 The Atmosphere
1
The ICAO International Standard Atmosphere

1
The Atmosphere
Height (km) Height (ft) Temp (°C) Pressure Height Change Density (%)
(hPa) (per hPa)
32.00 104 987 -44.7 8.9 1.1
30.48 100 000 -46.2 11.1 1.4
27.43 90 000 -49.2 17.3 2.2
24.38 80 000 -52.2 28.0 3.6
21.34 70 000 -55.2 44.9 5.8
20.00 65 620 -56.5 56.7 7.2
15.24 50 000 -56.5 116.6 15.3
13.71 45 000 -56.5 148.2 19.5
11.78 38 662 -56.5 200 103 ft 26.3
11.00 36 090 -56.5 228.2 91 ft 29.7
9.16 30 065 -44.4 300 73 ft 36.8
5.51 18 289 -21.2 500 48 ft 56.4
3.05 10 000 -4.8 696.8 37 ft 73.8
3.01 9882 -4.6 700 36 ft 74.1
1.46 4781 +5.5 850 31 ft 87.3
0 0 +15 1013.25 27 ft 100

Note: The above height change figures show how the pressure against height change equation is
modified as altitude changes but the figures offered only relate to ISA conditions of Temperature
and Pressure. We can assess changes outside these conditions by using the following formula:

96 ×T
H=
P

where H = height change per hPa in feet

T = Actual Absolute Temperature at that level in kelvin (K)
P = Actual Pressure in hPa

Note: this formula is only valid for calculating the height change per hPa change in pressure at
a specified altitude; it cannot be used to calculate a change in height between two pressure
levels, nor the change in pressure between two altitudes.

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 1 Questions

Questions
1
Questions

1. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the Northern
Hemisphere?

a. It decreases from south to north

b. It increases from south to north
c. It remains constant from north to south
d. It remains constant throughout the year

2. What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the Equator?

a. 8 km
b. 16 km
c. 11 km
d. 50 km

3. In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height

below 11 km is:

a. 0.5°C/100 m
b. 0.6°C/100 m
c. 0.65°/100 m
d. 1°C/100 m

4. The 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions which
of the following average heights is applicable?

a. FL390
b. FL300
c. FL100
d. FL50

5. The temperature at FL110 is -12°C. What will the temperature be at FL140 if the
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?

a. -6°C
b. -18°C
c. -9°C
d. -15°C

6. At a certain position the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -54°C, and according
to the significant weather chart the tropopause is at FL330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL350?

a. -48°C
b. -60°C
c. -56.5°C
d. -64°C

7. What is the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere called?

a. Ionosphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Atmosphere
d. Tropopause

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8. Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for 4781 ft pressure level (FL50)?

1
a. 500 hPa

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b. 300 hPa
c. 850 hPa
d. 700 hPa

9. An outside air temperature of -30°C is measured whilst cruising at FL200. What is

the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?

a. 5°C colder than ISA

b. 5°C warmer than ISA
c. 10°C colder than ISA
d. 10°C warmer than ISA

10. What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

a. -56.5°C
b. -75°C
c. -40°C
d. -25°C

11. Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?

a. It is, by definition, an isothermal layer

b. It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
c. It is, by definition a temperature inversion
d. It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere

12. In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature:

a. is almost constant
b. decreases with altitude
c. increases with altitude
d. increases at first and decreases afterwards

13. What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere?

a. 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen and the rest other gases

b. 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen and the rest other gases
c. 50% oxygen, 40% nitrogen and the rest other gases
d. 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen and the rest other gases

14. How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the tropopause?

a. Remains constant
b. Decreases
c. Increases
d. At first it increases and higher up it decreases

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 1 Questions

15. How would you characterize an air temperature of -15°C at the 700 hPa level over
1

western Europe?
a. Within +/-5°C of ISA
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b. 20°C below standard

c. Low
d. High

16. If you are flying at FL300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a standard
atmosphere what is the outside temperature likely to be?

a. -15°C
b. -30°C
c. -45°C
d. -60°C

17. If you are flying at FL140 and the outside temperature is -8°C at what altitude will
the freezing level be?

a. FL75
b. FL100
c. FL130
d. FL180

18. What is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather
standpoint?

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Water vapour
d. Methane

19. The average height of the tropopause at a latitude of 50° is about:

a. 8 km
b. 11 km
c. 14 km
d. 16 km

20. Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km the lowest temperature in the
international standard atmosphere (ISA) is:

a. -273°C
b. -44.7°C
c. -56.5°C
d. -100°C

21. The international standard atmosphere (ISA) assumes that the temperature will
reduce at a rate of:

a. 1.98°C per 1000 feet up to 36 090 feet after which it remains constant to 65
617 feet
b. 1.98°C per 1000 feet up to 36 090 feet and then will rise at 0.3°C per 1000 feet
up to 65 617 feet when it will remain constant
c. 2°C per 1000 feet up to 65 617 feet after which it will remain constant to 104
987 feet
d. 2°C per 1000 feet up to 36 090 feet and will then increase at 0.3°C per 1000
feet up to 65 617 feet

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 Questions
1
22. In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on average from:

1
a. 0 to 11 km

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b. 11 to 50 km
c. 50 to 85 km
d. 11 to 20 km

23. In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere
between mean sea level and a height of 5500 m is approximately:

a. 1%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 99%

24. A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above mean sea
level. If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what
will be the temperature at the summit of a mountain 2500 metres above mean sea
level?

a. 0°C
b. +2°C
c. +4°C
d. -2°C

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 1 Answers

Answers
1
Answers

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
a b c a b b d c a b d a
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
d b c b b c b c a b c b

Answers to Questions on page 8

Height (ft) Temperature ISA Temperature ISA Deviation

(°C)
1500 +28 +12 +16
17 500 -18 -20 +2
24 000 -35 -33 -2
37 000 -45 -57 +12
9500 -5 -4 -1
5000 +15 +5 +10
31 000 -50 -47 -3
57 000 -67 -57 -10

Max temperature = +15°C

Ambient temperature = +20°C

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 2 Questions

Questions
1. The barometric pressure at the airfield datum point is known as:
2
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a. QFF
b. QNH
c. QFE
d. Standard Pressure

2. The instrument that gives a continuous printed reading and record of the
atmospheric pressure is:

a. barometer
b. hygrometer
c. anemograph
d. barograph

3. The pressure of the atmosphere:

a. decreases at an increasing rate as height increases

b. decreases at a constant rate as height increases
c. decreases at a decreasing rate as height increases
d. decreases at a constant rate up to the tropopause and then remains constant

4. When considering the actual tropopause which statement is correct?

a. It is low over the poles and high over the Equator

b. It is high over the poles and low over the Equator
c. It is the same height of 36 090 ft all over the world
d. It is at a constant altitude of 26 000’

5. Atmospheric pressure may be defined as:

a. the weight of the atmosphere exerted on any surface with which it is in

contact
b. the weight of the atmosphere at standard sea level
c. the force per unit area exerted by the atmosphere on any surface with which
it is in contact
d. a pressure exerted by the atmosphere of 1013.2 hPa

6. The QFF is the atmospheric pressure:

a. at the place where the reading is taken

b. corrected for temperature difference from standard and adjusted to MSL
assuming standard atmospheric conditions exist
c. at a place where the reading is taken corrected to MSL taking into account the
prevailing temperature conditions
d. as measured by a barometer at the aerodrome reference point

7. The pressure of 1013 hPa is known as:

a. standard pressure setting

b. QNH
c. QFE
d. QFF

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 Questions
2
8. The aircraft altimeter will read zero at aerodrome level with which pressure setting
set on the altimeter subscale:

2
a. QFF
b. QNH

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c. SPS
d. QFE

9. The aerodrome QFE is:

a. the reading on the altimeter on an aerodrome when the aerodrome

barometric pressure is set on the subscale
b. the reading on the altimeter on touchdown at an aerodrome when 1013 is set
on the subscale
c. the reading on the altimeter on an aerodrome when the sea level barometric
pressure is set on the subscale
d. the aerodrome barometric pressure

10. When an altimeter subscale is set to the aerodrome QFE, the altimeter reads:

a. the elevation of the aerodrome at the aerodrome reference point

b. zero at the aerodrome reference point
c. the pressure altitude at the aerodrome reference point
d. the appropriate altitude of the aircraft

11. The aerodrome QNH is the aerodrome barometric pressure:

a. corrected to mean sea level assuming standard atmospheric conditions exist

b. corrected to mean sea level, assuming isothermal conditions exist
c. corrected for temperature and adjusted to MSL assuming standard
atmosphere conditions exist
d. corrected to MSL using ambient temperature

12. A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric pressure at the
same level and at the same time is:

a. an isotherm
b. an isallobar
c. a contour
d. an isobar

13. An isobar on a meteorological chart joins all places having the same:

a. QFE
b. QFF
c. QNH
d. standard pressure

14. Pressure will _________ with increase of height and will be about __________ at
10 000 ft and ___________ at 30 000 ft.

a. Increase 800 hPa 400 hPa

b. Decrease 700 hPa 300 hPa
c. Increase 200 hPa 800 hPa
d. Decrease 500 hPa 200 hPa

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 2 Questions

15. An airfield in England is 100 m above sea level, QFF is 1030 hPa, temperature at the
surface is -15°C. What is the value of QNH?
2

a. Impossible to determine
b. Less than 1030 hPa
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c. Same as QFF
d. More than 1030 hPa

26
 2 Answers

Answers
2

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answers

c d c a c c a d d b a d
13 14 15
b b b

28
 Questions
3
Questions
1. Consider the following statements relative to air density and select the one which
is correct:

3
a. Because air density increases with decrease of temperature, air density must

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increase with increase of height in the International Standard Atmosphere
(ISA)
b. At any given surface temperature the air density will be greater in anticyclonic
conditions than it will be when the MSL pressure is lower
c. Air density increases with increase of relative humidity
d. The effect of change of temperature on the air density is much greater than
the effect of change of atmospheric pressure

2. The tropopause in mid latitudes is:

a. lower in summer with a lower temperature

b. lower in winter with a higher temperature
c. lower in summer with a higher temperature
d. lower in winter with a lower temperature

3. Generally as altitude increases:

a. temperature decreases and density increases

b. temperature, pressure and density decreases
c. temperature and pressure increase and density decreases
d. temperature decreases and pressure density increases

4. In the troposphere:

a. over cold air, the pressure is higher at upper levels than at similar levels over
warm air
b. over cold air, the pressure is lower at upper levels than at similar levels over
warm air
c. over warm air, the pressure is lower at upper levels than at similar levels over
warm air
d. the upper level pressure depends solely on the relative humidity below

5. Density at the surface will be low when:

a. pressure is high and temperature is high

b. pressure is high and temperature is low
c. pressure is low and temperature is low
d. pressure is low and temperature is high

6. Which of the following combinations will give the lowest air density?

a. Low pressure, low humidity, low temperature

b. High pressure, high temperature, high humidity
c. High pressure, low temperature, low humidity
d. Low pressure, high humidity, high temperature

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 3 Answers

Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6
b b b b d d
3
Answers

36
 Pressure Systems
4
Questions
1. A steep pressure gradient is characterized by:

a. isobars close together, strengthened wind

b. isobars far apart, decreased wind

4
c. isobars close together, temperature increasing
d. isobars far apart, temperature decreasing

Pressure Systems
2. QNH at Timbuktu (200 m AMSL) is 1015 hPa. What is the QFE? (Assume 1 hPa = 8 m)

a. 1000 hPa
b. 990 hPa
c. 1020 hPa
d. 995 hPa

3. In temperate latitudes in summer what conditions would you expect in the centre
of a high pressure system?

a. Thunderstorms
b. Calm winds, haze
c. Showers
d. Dense cloud

4. If the pressure level surface bulges upwards, the pressure system is a:

a. cold low
b. warm low
c. cold high
d. warm high

5. The QNH at an airfield 200 m AMSL is 1009 hPa; air temperature is 10°C lower than
standard. What is the QFF?

a. Not possible to give a definite answer

b. Less than 1009 hPa
c. 1009 hPa
d. More than 1009 hPa

6. QNH is defined as:

a. the pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere

b. the pressure at MSL obtained using the actual conditions
c. QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
d. QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere

7. Landing at an airfield with QNH set the pressure altimeter reads:

a. zero feet on landing only if ISA conditions prevail

b. zero
c. the elevation of the airfield if ISA conditions prevail
d. the elevation of the airfield

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 4 Pressure Systems

8. Airfield is 69 metres below sea level, QFF is 1030 hPa, temperature is ISA -10°C.
What is the QNH?

a. Impossible to tell
b. Less than 1030 hPa
c. 1030 hPa
d. More than 1030 hPa
4
Pressure Systems

9. What is the vertical movement of air relating to a trough?

a. Descending and diverging

b. Ascending and diverging
c. Descending and converging
d. Converging and ascending

10. What is the vertical movement of air relating to a ridge?

a. Descending and diverging

b. Ascending and diverging
c. Descending and converging
d. Ascending and converging

11. What is subsidence?

a. Horizontal motion of air

b. Vertical down draught of air
c. Vertical up draught of air
d. Adiabatic cooling

12. Aerodrome at MSL, QNH is 1022 hPa. QFF is:

a. greater than 1022 hPa

b. less than 1022 hPa
c. same as QNH
d. cannot tell without temperature information

13. Air at the upper levels of the atmosphere is diverging. What would you expect at
the surface?

a. Rise in pressure with clouds dissipating

b. Rise in pressure with clouds forming
c. Fall in pressure with cloud dissipating
d. Fall in pressure with cloud forming

14. Subsidence would be described as:

a. vertical ascension of air

b. horizontal movement of air
c. the same as convection
d. vertical down flow of air

50
 Questions
4
15. You are flying at FL170. The pressure level which is closest to you is the:

a. 300 hPa
b. 700 hPa
c. 500 hPa
d. 850 hPa

4
16. On a surface weather chart, isobars are lines of:

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a. QNH
b. QFE
c. QFF
d. QNE

17. At FL60 what pressure chart would you use?

a. 700 hPa
b. 500 hPa
c. 800 hPa
d. 1000 hPa

18. (For this question use Annex B) A ridge is indicated by letter:

a. D
b. A
c. B
d. C

19. (For this question use Annex A) Which of the following best describes Zone D?

a. Ridge of high pressure

b. Anticyclone
c. Trough of low pressure
d. Col

20. (For this question use Annex A) Which of the following best describes Zone C?

a. Trough of low pressure

b. Depression
c. Ridge of high pressure
d. Anticyclone

21. (For this question use Annex B) Which of the following best describes Zone A?

a. Col
b. Ridge of High Pressure
c. Depression
d. Trough of low pressure

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 4 Questions

22. (For this question use Annex B) Which of the following best describes Zone B?

a. Ridge of high pressure

b. Depression
c. Anticyclone
d. Col
4

23. (For this question Annex C) The pressure system at position A is a:

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a. trough of low pressure

b. anticyclone
c. col
d. secondary low

24. (For this question use Annex C) The pressure system located in area “B” is a

a. Ridge of high pressure

b. col
c. trough of low pressure
d. depression

25. At which average height can the 500 hPa pressure level be expected in moderate
latitudes?

a. 12.2 km
b. 3 km
c. 5.5 km
d. 9.0 km

26. The average pressure found at a height of 1620 m in mid latitudes would be:

a. 350 hPa
b. 400 hPa
c. 850 hPa
d. 950 hPa

52
 4 Answers

Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
a b b d d d d d d a b c
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
4

d d c c c b d d b b a b
Answers

25 26
c c

54
 Questions
5
Questions
1. The measurement of surface temperature is made:

a. at ground level
b. at approximately 10 metres from ground level
c. at approximately 4 feet above ground level
d. at approximately 4 metres above ground level

5
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2. The purpose of a “Stevenson screen” is to:

a. maintain a moist atmosphere so that the wet bulb thermometer can function
correctly
b. prevent the mercury freezing in the low winter temperatures
c. protect the thermometer from wind, weather and from direct sunshine
d. keep the wet and dry bulb thermometers away from surface extremes of
temperature

3. If temperature remains constant with an increase in altitude there is:

a. an inversion
b. an inversion aloft
c. uniform lapse rate
d. an isothermal layer

4. The surface of the earth is heated by:

a. convection
b. conduction
c. long wave solar radiation
d. short wave solar radiation

5. Cloud cover will reduce diurnal variation of temperature because:

a. incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing terrestrial

radiation is reflected back to earth
b. incoming solar radiation is re-radiated back to space and atmospheric heating
by convection will stop at the level of the cloud layer
c. the cloud stops the sun’s rays getting through to the earth and also reduces
outgoing conduction
d. incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing terrestrial
radiation is re-radiated from the cloud layer back to the surface

6. Diurnal variation of the surface temperature will:

a. be unaffected by a change of wind speed

b. decrease as wind speed increases
c. increase as wind speed increases
d. be at a minimum in calm conditions

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 5 Questions

7. Which of the following surfaces is likely to produce a higher than average diurnal
variation of temperature:

a. rock or concrete
b. water
c. snow
d. vegetation

8. Most accurate temperatures above ground level are obtained by:

5
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a. tephigram
b. aircraft reports
c. temperature probe
d. radiosonde

9. The method by which energy is transferred from one body to another by contact is
called:

a. radiation
b. convection
c. conduction
d. latent heat

10. The diurnal variation of temperature is:

a. greater over the sea than overland

b. less over desert areas then over temperate grassland
c. reduced anywhere by the presence of cloud
d. increased anywhere as wind speed increases

11. The troposphere is heated largely by:

a. absorption of the sun’s short wave radiation

b. radiation of heat from cloud tops and the earth’s surface
c. absorption by ozone of the sun’s short wave radiation
d. conduction from the surface, convection and the release of latent heat

12. An inversion is one in which:

a. there is no horizontal gradient of temperature

b. there is no change of temperature with height
c. there is an increase of temperature as height increases
d. there is a decrease of temperature as height increases

13. The sun gives out________ amount of energy with _________ wavelengths.
The earth gives out relatively___________ amounts of energy with
relatively___________ wavelengths:

a. large, large, small, small

b. small, small, large, large
c. large, large, small, large
d. large, small, small, large

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5
14. With a clear night sky, the temperature change with height by early morning is
most likely to show:

a. a steady lapse rate averaging 2°C per 1000 ft

b. a stable lapse rate of 1°C per 1000 ft
c. an inversion above the surface with an isothermal layer above
d. an inversion from near the surface and a 2°C per 1000 ft lapse rate above

15. Over continents and oceans, the relative temperature conditions are:

5
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a. warmer in winter over land, colder in summer over sea
b. colder in winter over land, warmer in winter over sea
c. cold in winter over land and sea
d. warmer in summer over land and sea

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Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
c c d d d b a d c c d c
13 14 15
d d b
5
Answers

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 Questions
6
Questions
1. Throughout the 24 hours of a day the Relative Humidity can be expected to:

a. increase during the day and decrease at night

b. stay reasonably constant throughout the 24 hours
c. reduce during the day and increase at night
d. only change with a change of air mass

2. During a night with a clear sky, surface temperature will ____________ RH

6
will______________ and dew point will___________.

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a. fall, rise, rise
b. rise, rise, fall
c. fall, rise, remain the same
d. fall, fall, remain the same

3. A change of state directly from a solid to a vapour or vice versa is:

a. insolation
b. condensation
c. evaporation
d. sublimation

4. The instrument used for measuring the humidity of air is a:

a. hydrometer
b. hygrometer
c. wet bulb thermometer
d. hygroscope

5. The process of change of state from a gas to a liquid is:

a. evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed

b. evaporation in which latent heat is released
c. condensation in which latent heat is absorbed
d. condensation in which latent heat is released

6. The process of change of state from a liquid to a gas is:

a. condensation in which latent heat is released

b. evaporation in which latent heat is released
c. condensation in which latent heat is absorbed
d. evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed

7. Air is classified as dry or saturated according to its relative humidity. If the relative
humidity were 95% the air would be classified as:

a. conditionally saturated
b. partially saturated
c. saturated
d. dry

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 6 Questions

8. On a wet bulb thermometer in an unsaturated atmosphere there will be a

reduction of temperature below that of the dry bulb thermometer because:

a. heat is absorbed during the process of condensation

b. heat is released during the process of condensation
c. heat is absorbed by the thermometer during the process of evaporation
d. heat is released from the thermometer during the process of evaporation

9. Relative humidity is:

a. air temperature over wet bulb temperature × 100

6

b. air temperature over dew point temperature × 100

Questions

c. the actual amount of water vapour in a sample of air over the maximum
amount of water vapour that the sample can contain × 100
d. the maximum amount of water vapour that a sample of air can contain over
the actual amount of water vapour the sample does contain × 100

10. Absolute humidity is:

a. the number of water droplets in a given quantity of air

b. the amount of water vapour that a given quantity of air holds
c. the maximum amount of water vapour that a given quantity of air can hold
d. the maximum number of water droplets that a given quantity of air can hold

11. Wet bulb temperature would normally be lower than the dry bulb temperature
because:

a. condensation causes a release of latent heat

b. evaporation causes cooling
c. latent heat is absorbed by the bulb thermometer
d. of condensation on the muslin wick of the bulb

12. The wet bulb temperature:

a. is measured using a hydrometer

b. is the minimum temperature to which a thermometer bulb can be cooled by
the evaporation of water
c. measures the dew point of the air
d. is the minimum temperature reached by the surface of the earth as measured
by a thermometer placed 1.2 metres above the ground

13. Which one of the following statements relating to atmospheric humidity is correct?

a. If the air temperature falls then the absolute humidity must increase
b. The absolute humidity is the mass of water vapour contained in unit volume of
air
c. The diurnal variation of dew point temperature is greatest when skies are
clear at night
d. The dew point temperature is the temperature indicated by the wet bulb
thermometer

84
 Questions
6
14. When condensation takes place, the higher the temperature, the __________the
amount of latent heat___________:

a. lesser; released
b. greater; absorbed
c. greater; released
d. lesser; absorbed

15. When water vapour changes to ice:

a. latent heat is absorbed

6
b. specific heat is released

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c. latent heat is released
d. specific heat is absorbed

85
 6 Answers

Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
c c d b d d d d c b b b

13 14 15
b c c
6
Answers

86
 7 Adiabatics and Stability

When ELR > DALR we have absolute instability.

Unstable Weather: Cumuliform clouds

Moderate to heavy showers

Potential for moderate to heavy precipitation

Good visibility except in showers

• The clouds which form in unstable

7

air tend to be large in vertical

extent and small in horizontal
Adiabatics and Stability

extent - heap clouds.

Figure 7.14 Cumulus of moderate to strong vertical development

Examples
Assuming a constant lapse rate in the layer between 2000 ft and 5000 ft and ignoring the
effects of pressure change, what is the state of stability when:
TEMP AT TEMP AT RH STABILITY
2000’ 5000’ STATE
1 +7° +1° 60%
2 +15° +9° 100%
3 +12° +9° 100%
4 +16° +2° 75%
5 +11° +5° 100%
6 +11° +8° 100%
7 0° -9° 88%
8 +11° +4° 50%
9 +15° +3° 98%
10 +5° 0° 100%
11 +10° +10° 90%
12 +10° +15° 100%

What else is unusual about the environment with regard to questions 11 and 12?

Answers on page 102.

96
 7 Questions

Questions
1. If the ELR is 0.65°C / 100 m, the layer is:

a. atmosphere is conditionally stable

b. atmosphere is stable
c. atmosphere is unstable
d. atmosphere is stable when dry

2. ELR is 1°C / 100 m, the layer is:

a. neutral when dry

7

b. absolute stability
c. absolute instability
Questions

d. conditional stability

3. Why does air cool as it rises?

a It expands
b. It contracts
c. The air is colder at higher latitudes
d. The air is colder at higher altitudes

4. From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?

a. Surface pressure
b. Surface temperature
c. DALR
d. ELR

5. When the upper part of a layer of warm air is advected:

a. Stability increases within the layer

b. Stability decreases within the layer
c. Wind speed will always decrease with increase in height in the Northern
Hemisphere
d. Wind will back with increase in height in the Northern Hemisphere

6. The temperature at the surface is 15°C, the temperature at 1000 m is 13°C.

The atmosphere is:

a. unstable
b. conditionally unstable
c. stable
d. cannot tell

7. Which of the following gives conditionally unstable conditions?

a. 1°C / 100 m
b. 0.65°C / 100 m
c. 0.49°C / 100 m
d. None of the above

98
 Questions
7
8. A mass of unsaturated air is forced to rise till just under the condensation level. It
then settles back to its original position. What happens to the temperature?

a. Temp. is greater than before

b. Temp. stays the same
c. Temp. is less than before
d. It depends on QFE

9. What happens to the stability of the atmosphere in an inversion? (Temp increasing

with height)

a. Absolutely stable
b. Unstable

7
c. Conditionally stable

Questions
d. Conditionally unstable

10. What happens to stability of the atmosphere in an isothermal layer? (Temp

constant with height)

a. Absolutely stable
b. Unstable
c. Conditionally stable
d. Conditionally unstable

11. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?

a. Good visibility
b. Calm conditions
c. Turbulence
d. Unstable conditions

12. A layer of air can be:

a. conditional; unstable when unsaturated and stable when saturated

b. conditional; unstable when saturated and stable when unsaturated
c. neutrally stable when saturated and unstable when unsaturated
d. all of the above

13. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when forced to descend?

a. It heats up more than dry because of expansion

b. It heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. It heats up more than dry because of sublimation
d. It heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation

14. In still air a lapse rate of 1.2°C / 100 m refers to:

a. DALR
b. SALR
c. ELR
d. ALR

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 7 Questions

15. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when descending?

a. It heats up more than dry because of expansion

b. It heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. It heats up more than dry because of compression
d. It heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation

16. The DALR is:

a. variable with time

b. fixed
c. variable with latitude
d. variable with temperature
7
Questions

17. An environment cooling at more than 1°C / 100 m is said to be:

a. conditionally stable
b. conditionally unstable
c. unstable
d. stable

100
 7 Answers

Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
d a a d a c b b a a c b
13 14 15 16 17
b c b b c
7

Answers to Questions on Page 96

Answers

Question Answer
1. Stable
2. Unstable
3. Stable
4. Unstable
5. Unstable
6. Stable
7. Neutral
8. Stable
9. Unstable
10. Stable
11. Stable
(isothermal)
12. Stable (inversion)

102
 Questions
8
Questions

1. Maximum turbulence associated with the mountain waves is likely to be:

a. two wavelengths downwind and just above the surface

b. approximately one wavelength downwind of, and approximately level with,
the top of the ridge
c. just below the tropopause above the ridge
d. down the lee side of the ridge and along the surface

2. For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge should:

a. decrease or even reverse direction

8
b. increase initially then decrease
c. increase with little change in direction

Questions
d. increase and then reverse in direction

3. When flying in IMC in a region close to a range of hills 2000 ft high, in stable air and
with wind direction at right angles to the axis of the range of hills, which of the
following is probably the most dangerous practice:

a. flying towards the hills, into the wind, at flight level 65

b. flying parallel to the hills on the downwind side at flight level 40
c. flying towards the hills downwind at flight level 55
d. flying parallel to the hills on the upwind side at flight level 40

4. Which of the following statements referring to jet streams is correct?

a. Turbulence associated with jet streams is probably associated with the rapid
windshear in the vicinity of the jet
b. The maximum wind speed in a jet stream increases with increase of height up
to the tropopause and remains constant thereafter
c. The core of a jet stream is usually located just below the tropopause in the
colder air mass
d. The rate of change of wind speed at any given level is usually greatest on the
warmer side of the jet

Continued overleaf

119
 8 Questions

Refer to the diagram (Appendix A) below, for questions 5-8, assuming mountain waves are
present.

Appendix A
8
Questions

5. The wind at square A3 is likely to be:

a. 35 kt
b. 50 kt
c. 25 kt
d. light

6. The wind at ABC 4 may be:

a. 50 kt
b. 40 kt
c. 35 kt
d. a jet stream

7. Flight conditions at B1 are likely to be:

a. smooth
b. turbulent
c. turbulent in breaking wave crests
d. turbulent due to marked up and down currents

8. The most extreme turbulence can occur:

a. at B1
b. at A2
c. at ABC 4
d. at B2, 3, 4 and at C2, 3, 4

120
 Questions
8
9. The significance of lenticular cloud is:

a. there may be mountain waves present and there will be severe turbulence
b. there are mountain waves present but they may not give severe turbulence
c. a Föhn wind can be expected with no turbulence
d. a katabatic wind is present which may lead to fog in the valleys

10. A mountain range is aligned in an east/west direction. Select the conditions from
the table below that will give rise to mountain waves:

2000 ft 5000 ft 10 000 ft

a. 020/40 020/30 020/50

b. 170/20 190/40 210/60
c. 270/15 270/20 270/40

8
d. 090/20 090/40 090/60

Questions
11. For mountain waves to form, the wind direction must be near perpendicular to a
ridge or range of mountains and the speed must:

a. decrease with height within a stable layer above the hill

b. increase with height within an unstable layer above the hill
c. decrease with height within an unstable layer above the hill
d. increase with height within a stable layer above the hill

12. A north/south mountain range, height 10 000 ft is producing marked mountain

waves. The greatest potential danger exists for an aircraft flying:

a. on the windward side of the ridge

b. at FL350 over and parallel to the ridge
c. towards the ridge from the lee side at FL140
d. above a line of clouds parallel to the ridge on the lee side at FL25

13. Clear air turbulence, in association with a polar front jet stream in the Northern
Hemisphere, is more severe:

a. underneath the jet core

b. in the centre of the jet core
c. looking downstream on the right hand side
d. looking downstream on the left hand side

14. Mountain waves can occur:

a. up to a maximum of 5000 ft above the mountains and 50 NM to 100 NM

downwind
b. up to mountain height only and 50 NM to 100 NM downwind
c. above the mountain and downwind up to a maximum height at the
tropopause and 50 NM to 100 NM downwind.
d. in the stratosphere and troposphere

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 8 Questions

15. Clear air turbulence (CAT) should be reported whenever it is experienced. What
should be reported if crew and passengers feel a definite strain against their seat
or shoulder straps, food service and walking is difficult and loose objects become
dislodged?

a. Light TURB
b. Extreme TURB
c. Severe TURB
d. Moderate TURB
8
Questions

122
 8 Answers

Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
b c b a b d d a b b d d

13 14 15
d d d
8
Answers

124
 9 Altimetry
9

Figure 9.14
Altimetry

This is now rounded up to 10 500 ft (FL105) or 11 000 ft (FL110) dependent of the status of the
flight and the type of airspace through which the flight is to be made.

Fill in the blank spaces in the following examples.

Assume 1 hPa = 27 ft

QNH ALTIMETER SETTING TRUE ALTITUDE ALTIMETER READING

1012 1010 4060
1015 1010 5000
1010 641 560
1020 1013 10 500
999 1013 8500
1015 46 125
1017 1027 3300
1012 270 0
993 405 0
1025 1015 4760

Transition Altitude
The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to
altitude (QNH).

Transition Level
The lowest flight level (1013) available for use above the transition altitude.

Transition Layer
The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.

136
 Altimetry
9
Answers to Questions on page 135 and page 136

1. 593 ft

2. 1010 hPa

3. 365 ft

4. Yes, by 130 ft

QNH ALTIMETER SETTING TRUE ALTITUDE ALTIMETER READING

1012 1010 4060 4006
1015 1010 5135 5000
1013 1010 641 560
1020 1013 10 689 10 500

9
999 1013 8122 8500
1015 1018 46 125

Altimetry
1017 1027 3300 3570
1012 1002 270 0
1008 993 405 0
1025 1015 4760 4490

137
 9 Questions

Questions
1. MSA given as 12 000 ft, flying over mountains in temperatures +9°C, QNH set as
1023 (obtained from a nearby airfield). What will the true altitude be when 12 000
ft is reached?

a. 11 940
b. 11 148
c. 12 210
d. 12 864

2. When flying at FL180 in the Southern Hemisphere you experience a left to right
crosswind. What is happening to your true altitude if indicated altitude is constant?

a. Remains the same

b. Increasing
9

c. Decreasing
Questions

d. Impossible to tell

3. Flying from Marseilles (QNH 1012) to Palma (QNH 1015) at FL100. You do not reset
the altimeter, why would true altitude be the same throughout the flight?

a. Not possible to tell

b. Air at Palma is warmer than air at Marseilles
c. Air at Marseilles is warmer than air at Palma
d. Blocked static vent

4. Which of these would cause your true altitude to decrease with a constant
indicated altitude?

a. Cold/Low
b. Hot/Low
c. Cold/High
d. Hot/High

5. An aircraft flying in the Alps on a very cold day, QNH 1013 set in the altimeter, flies
level with the summit of the mountains. Altitude from aneroid altimeter reads:

a. same as mountain elevation

b. lower than mountain elevation
c. higher than mountain elevation
d. impossible to determine

6. You are flying in an atmosphere which is warmer than ISA, what might you
expect?

a. True altitude to be the same as indicated altitude

b. True altitude to be lower than indicated altitude
c. True altitude to be the decreasing
d. True altitude to be higher than indicated altitude

138
 Questions
9
7. The QNH is 1030 hPa and at the transition level you set the SPS. What happens to
your indicated altitude (assume 27 ft per 1 hPa)?

a. Drops by 459 ft
b. Rises by 459 ft
c. No change
d. Rises

8. You are flying from Madrid (QNH 1012) to Paris (QNH 1015) at FL80. If your true
altitude and indicated altitude remain the same then:

a. the air at Madrid is warmer than Paris

b. the air at Paris is warmer than Madrid
c. the altimeters are incorrect
d. your indicated altitude must be changing

9
9. If you are flying on a QNH 1009 on very cold day and you circle the top of a peak in
the Alps, your altimeter will read:

Questions
a. the same as the elevation of the peak
b. lower than the elevation of the peak
c. higher than the elevation of the peak
d. not enough information to tell

10. How do you calculate the lowest usable flight level?

a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA

b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA
c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA
d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

11. QNH is 1003. At FL100 true altitude is 10 000 ft. It is:

a. warmer than ISA

b. colder than ISA
c. same as ISA
d. cannot tell

12. How is QNH determined from QFE?

a. Using the temperature of the airfield and the elevation of the airfield
b. Using the temperature
c. Using the elevation
d. Using the temperature at MSL and the elevation of the airfield

139
 9 Questions

13. Using the diagram below you are on a flight from A to B at 1500 ft. Which
statement is true?

a. True altitude at A is greater than B

b. True altitude at B is greater than A
c. True altitude is the same
d. Cannot tell
9
Questions

14. QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield elevation of 200 m AMSL. What is QNH? (use 8 m
per hPa).

a. 975 hPa
b. 1025 hPa
c. 1008 hPa
d. 992 hPa

15. Which of the following is true?

QNH is:

a. Always more than 1013.25 hPa

b. Always less than 1013.25 hPa
c. Never 1013.25 hPa
d. Can never be above or below 1013 hPa

16. Flying from Marseilles to Palma you discover your true altitude is increasing, but
oddly the QNH is identical at both places. What could be the reason?

a. Re-check the QNH

b. Re-check the radio altimeter
c. The air at Palma is warmer
d. Palma is lower than Marseilles

17. QNH is 1030. Aerodrome is 200 m AMSL. What is QFF?

a. Higher than 1030

b. Lower than 1030
c. Same
d. Not enough info

140
 Questions
9
18. If an aerodrome is 1500 ft AMSL on QNH 1038, what will the actual height AGL to
get to FL75 be?

a. 6675 ft
b. 8175 ft
c. 8325 ft
d. 5325 ft

19. Altimeter set to 1023 at aerodrome. On climb to altitude the SPS is set at transition
altitude. What will the indication on the altimeter do on resetting to QNH?

a. Dependent on temperature
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Same

9
20. What temperature and pressure conditions would be safest to ensure that your
flight level clears all the obstacles by the greatest margin?

Questions
a. Cold temp/low pressure
b. Warm temp/high pressure
c. Temp less than or equal to ISA and a QNH less than 1013
d. Temp more than or equal to ISA and a QNH greater than 1013

21. You are flying from Marseilles (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012
hPa) at FL100. You notice that the effective height above MSL (radio altitude)
increases constantly. Hence:

a. one of the QNH values must be wrong

b. you have the altimeters checked, as their indications are obviously wrong
c. the air mass above Palma is warmer than that above Marseilles
d. you have to adjust for a crosswind from the right

22. You are flying from Marseilles (QNH 1026 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1026
hPa) at FL100. You notice that the effective height above MSL (Radio Altitude)
decreases constantly. Hence:

a. one of the QNH values must be wrong

b. the air mass above Marseilles is warmer than that above Palma
c. you have the altimeters checked, as their indications are obviously wrong
d. you have to adjust for a crosswind from the right

23. Flying at FL135 above the sea, the radio altimeter indicates a true altitude of
13 500 ft. The local QNH is 1019 hPa. Hence the crossed air mass is, on average:

a. at ISA standard temperature

b. colder than ISA
c. warmer than ISA
d. there is insufficient information to determine the average temperature
deviation

141
 9 Questions

24. You are flying in the Alps at the same level as the summit on a hot day. What does
the altimeter read?

a. Same altitude as the summit

b. Higher altitude as the summit
c. Lower altitude as the summit
d. Impossible to tell

25. An airfield has an elevation of 540 ft with a QNH of 993 hPa. An aircraft descends
and lands at the airfield with 1013 hPa set. What will its altimeter read on landing?

a. 380 ft
b. 1080 ft
c. 0 ft
d. 540 ft
9

26. When is pressure altitude equal to true altitude?

Questions

a. In standard conditions
b. When surface pressure is 1013.25 hPa
c. When the temperature is standard
d. When the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

27. What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50 ft below MSL?

a. QFE = QNH
b. QFE < QNH
c. QFE > QNH
d. There is no clear relationship

28. You are flying at FL160 with an OAT of -27°C. QNH is 1003 hPa. What is your true
altitude?

a. 15 540 ft
b. 15 090 ft
c. 16 330 ft
d. 15 730 ft

142
 Questions
9
29. Flying from A to B at a constant indicated altitude in the Northern Hemisphere.

a. True altitude increases

b. Wind is northerly
c. True altitude decreases
d. Wind is southerly

9
Questions
30. Up to FL180 ISA Deviation is ISA +10°C. What is the actual depth of the layer
between FL60 and FL120?

a. 6000 ft
b. 6240 ft
c. 5760 ft
d. 5700 ft

31. Up to FL 180 ISA Deviation is ISA -10°C. What is the actual depth of the layer
between FL60 and FL120?

a. 6000 ft
b. 6240 ft
c. 5760 ft
d. 5700 ft

32. What condition would cause your indicated altitude to be lower than that being
actually flown?

a. Pressure lower than standard

b. Pressure is standard
c. Temperature lower than standard
d. Temperature higher than standard

143
 9 Questions

33. You fly over the sea at FL90, your true altitude is 9100 ft and QNH is unknown.
What can be said about the atmosphere temperature?

a. QNH is lower than standard

b. It is colder than ISA
c. It is warmer than ISA
d. Nothing, insufficient information

34. You are flying at FL100 in an air mass that is 15°C colder than ISA. Local QNH is
983 hPa. What would the true altitude be?

a. 8590 ft
b. 11 410 ft
c. 10 000 ft
d. 10 210 ft
9

35. Which statement is true?

Questions

a. QFE is always lower than QNH

b. QNH is always lower than QFE
c. QNH can be equal to QFE
d. QFE can be equal to QFF only

36. You fly from east to west at the 500 hPa level in the Northern Hemisphere;

a. if the wind is from the north there will be a gain in altitude

b. if the wind is from the south there is again in altitude
c. if you encounter northerly drift, there is a gain in altitude
d. you fly towards an area of lower pressure, and therefore, experience a loss in
altitude

37. You have landed on an airport elevation 1240 ft and QNH 1008 hPa. Your altimeter
subscale is erroneously set to 1013 hPa. The indication on the altimeter will be:

a. 1200 ft
b. 1375 ft
c. 1105 ft
d. 1280 ft

38. You are cruising at FL200, OAT is -40°C, sea level pressure is 1033 hPa. Calculate the
true altitude.

a. 20660 ft
b. 21740 ft
c. 18260 ft
d. 19340 ft

144
 Questions
10
Questions
1. In central Europe, where are the greatest wind speeds?

a. Tropopause level
b. 5500 m
c. Where the air converges
d. Above the Alps

2. Standing in the Northern Hemisphere, north of a polar frontal depression travelling

west to east, the wind will:

a. continually veer
b. continually back
c. back then veer
d. veer then back

10
3. ATC will only report wind as gusting if:

Questions
a. gust speeds exceeds mean speed by >15 kt
b. gusts to over 25 kt
c. gusts exceeds mean speed by 10 kt
d. gusts to over 25 kt

4. What is a land breeze?

a. From land over water at night

b. From land over sea by day
c. From sea over land by night
d. From sea over land by day

5. When heading south in the Southern Hemisphere you experience starboard drift:

a. you are flying towards a lower temperature

b. you are flying away from a lower temperature
c. you are flying towards a low pressure
d. you are flying out of a high

6. What are the factors affecting the geostrophic wind?

a. PGF,r, q, Ω
b. r, q, Ω
c. r, q, PGF
d. r, PGF, Ω

7. What is the Bora?

a. Cold katabatic wind over the Adriatic

b. Northerly wind blowing from the Mediterranean
c. Warm anabatic wind blowing to the Mediterranean
d. An anabatic wind in the Rockies

169
 10 Questions

8. Flying away from an area of low pressure in the Southern Hemisphere at low
altitudes, where is the wind coming from?

a. Right and slightly on the nose

b. Left and slightly on the tail
c. Left and slightly on the nose
d. Right and slightly on the tail

9. What causes the geostrophic wind to be stronger than the gradient wind around a
low?

a. Centrifugal force adds to the gradient force

b. Centrifugal force opposes the gradient force
c. Coriolis force adds to the gradient force
d. Coriolis force opposes the centrifugal force

10. A METAR for Paris gave the surface wind at 260/20. Wind at 2000 ft is most likely to
be:
10

a. 260/15
Questions

b. 210/30
c. 290/40
d. 175/15

11. A large pressure gradient is shown by:

a. closely spaced isobars - low temperature

b. distant spaced isobars - high temperature
c. close spaced isobars - strong winds
d. close spaced isobars - light winds

12. Where would you expect to find the strongest wind on the ground in temperate
latitudes?

a. In an area of Low pressure

b. In an area of High pressure
c. In the warm air between two fronts
d. In a weak anticyclone

13. At a coastal airfield, with the runway parallel to the coastline, you are downwind
over the sea with the runway to your right. On a warm summer afternoon, what
would you expect the wind to be on finals?

a. Crosswind from the right

b. Headwind
c. Tailwind
d. Crosswind from the left

14. What causes wind at low levels?

a. Difference in pressure
b. Rotation of the earth
c. Frontal systems
d. Difference in temperature

170
 Questions
10
15. If flying in the Alps with a Föhn effect from the south:

a. clouds will be covering the southern passes of the Alps

b. CAT on the northern side
c. wind veering and gusting on the northern side
d. convective weather on the southern passes of the Alps

16. Comparing the surface wind to the 3000 ft wind:

a. surface wind veers and is less then the 3000 ft wind

b. surface wind blows along the isobars and is less than the 3000 ft wind
c. surface wind blows across the isobars and is less than the 3000 ft wind
d. both are the same

17. 90 km/h wind in kt is approximately:

a. 70
b. 60

10
c. 50
d. 30

Questions
18. The geostrophic wind blows at your flight level in Northern Hemisphere and the
true altitude and indicated altitude remain constant. The crosswind is:

a. from the left

b. from the right
c. no crosswind
d. impossible to determine

19. With all other things being equal with a high and a low having constantly spaced
circular isobars, where is the wind the fastest?

a. Anticyclonic
b. Cyclonic
c. Where the isobars are closest together
d. Wherever the PGF is greatest

20. Föhn winds are:

a. warm katabatic
b. cold katabatic
c. warm descending winds
d. warm anabatic

21. What is the effect of a mountain valley wind?

a. It blows down a mountain to a valley at night

b. It blows down a mountain to a valley during the day
c. It blows from a valley up a mountain by day
d. It blows from a valley up a mountain at night

171
 10 Questions

22. What is the difference between gradient and geostrophic winds?

a. Difference in temperatures
b. A lot of friction
c. Curved isobars and straight isobars
d. Different latitudes and densities

23. What prevents air from flowing directly from a high to a low pressure?

a. Centripetal force
b. Centrifugal force
c. Pressure force
d. Coriolis force

24. What is the relationship between the 5000 ft wind and the surface wind in the
Southern Hemisphere?

a. Surface winds are veered from the 5000 ft and have the same speed
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b. Surface winds are backed from the 5000 ft and have a slower speed
c. Surface winds are veered from the 5000 ft and have a slower speed
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d. Surface winds are backed from the 5000 ft and have a faster speed

25. What is the relationship between the 2000 ft wind and the surface wind in the
Northern Hemisphere?

a. surface winds blow across isobars towards a high

b. surface winds blow parallel to isobars
c. surface winds blow across isobars towards a low
d. surface winds have laminar flow

26. Wind is caused by:

a. mixing of fronts
b. horizontal pressure difference
c. earth rotation
d. surface friction

27. For the same pressure gradient at 50N, 60N and 40N, the geostrophic wind speed
is:

a. greatest at 60N
b. least at 50N
c. greatest at 40N
d. the same at all latitudes

28. The wind in the Northern Hemisphere at the surface and above the friction layer at
2000 ft would be:

a. veered at the surface, veered above the friction layer

b. backed at the surface, veered above the friction layer
c. veered at the surface, backed above the friction layer
d. backed at the surface, backed above the friction layer

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29. Where are easterly and westerly jets found?

a. Northern Hemisphere only

b. Southern Hemisphere only
c. Northern and southern Hemisphere
d. There are no easterly jets

30. In high pressure systems:

a. the winds tend to be stronger in the morning

b. the angle between the isobars and the wind direction is greatest in the
afternoon
c. the winds tend to be stronger at night
d. the winds tend to be stronger in early afternoon

31. An aircraft is flying East to West in the Northern Hemisphere. What is happening to
its altitude?

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a. Flying into a headwind will decrease altitude
b. If the wind is from the south, it will gain altitude

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c. If the wind is from the north, it will gain altitude
d. Tailwind will increase altitude

32. Where would an anemometer be placed?

a. Close to station, 2 m above ground

b. On the roof of the station
c. 10 m above aerodrome elevation on a mast
d. Next to the runway, 1 m above ground

33. Which of the following is an example of a Föhn wind?

a. Bora
b. Harmattan
c. Chinook
d. Ghibli

34. Wind at altitude is usually given as …….. in ……..

a. true, m/s
b. magnetic, m/s
c. true, kt
d. magnetic, kt

35. If you fly with left drift in the Northern Hemisphere, what is happening to surface
pressure?

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stays the same
d. Cannot tell

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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
a b c a b a a c b c c a
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
a a a c c c a c a c d c
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
c b c b a d c c c c a
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 11 Questions

Questions
1. How do you recognize high level jet streams and associated TURB?

a. High pressure centre at high level

b. Streaks of Cirrus
c. High level dust
d. Lenticularis

2. What type of jet stream blows constantly through the Northern Hemisphere?

a. Arctic
b. Equatorial
c. Polar night
d. Subtropical

3. In central Europe, where are the greatest wind speeds?

a. Tropopause level
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b. 5500 m
c. Where the air converges
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d. Above the Alps

4. The Arctic Jet core is at:

a. 20 000 ft
b. 30 000 ft
c. 40 000 ft
d. 50 000 ft

5. FL180, Northern Hemisphere with a wind from the left, what can you say about
temperature with a heading of 360°?

a. Not possible to tell without a pressure

b. Increases from south to north
c. Increases from north to south
d. Nothing

6. When heading south in the Southern Hemisphere you experience starboard drift:

a. You are flying towards a lower temperature

b. You are flying away from a lower temperature
c. You are flying towards a low pressure
d. You are flying out of a high

7. With a polar front jet stream (PFJ), the area with the highest probability of
turbulence in the Southern Hemisphere is:

a. in the jet core

b. above the jet core in the boundary of the warm and cold air
c. looking downstream, on your left hand side
d. looking downstream, on your right hand side

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8. Contours on a weather chart indicate:

a. heights of pressure levels

b. distance between pressure levels
c. thickness between pressure levels
d. height of ground

9. If an isohypse on a surface pressure chart of 500 hPa shows a figure of 522, this
indicates:

a. topography of 522 m above MSL

b. topography of 522 decametres above MSL
c. pressure is 522 hPa
d. a low surface pressure

10. The polar front jet stream in summer compared to winter in the Northern
Hemisphere moves:

a. north and decreases in strength

b. north and increases in strength

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c. south and decreases in strength
d. south and increases in strength

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11. A jet stream with a wind speed of 350 kt is:

a. impossible
b. possible but very rare
c. possible in polar areas
d. common

12. If you fly at right angles to a jet stream and below the jet core in Europe with a
decreasing outside air temperature, you will experience:

a. increasing headwind
b. increasing tailwind
c. wind from the left
d. wind from the right

13. On a particular day the PFJ runs north to south in the Northern Hemisphere.

a. The temperature gradient runs north to south below the jet core
b. The temperature gradient runs north to south above the jet core
c. The polar air is east of the jet above the core
d. The polar air is below the jet to the east

14. Flying 2500 ft below core of jet, with temperature increasing in the Southern
Hemisphere, where does the wind come from?

a. Head
b. Tail
c. Left
d. Right

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15. When flying from south to north in the Southern Hemisphere, you cross over the
polar front jet. What happens to the temperature?

a. It increases
b. It decreases
c. It remains the same
d. Impossible to determine

16. The core of a jet stream is located:

a. at the level where temperature change with altitude becomes little or nil and
the pressure surface is at maximum slope
b. in the warm air where the pressure surface is horizontal
c. in the warm air and directly beneath at the surface
d. in cold air

17. What is the ratio of height to width in a typical jet stream?

a. 1:10
b. 1:100
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c. 1:1000
d. 1:10000
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18. When and where does an easterly jet stream occur?

a. All year through the Equator

b. In summer from SE Asia through S. India to Central Africa
c. In summer from the Middle East through N. Africa and the Mediterranean to
S. Spain
d. In winter in Arctic Russia

19. From the preflight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31 000 ft whilst you are at
FL270. You experience moderate CAT. What would be the best course of action?

a. Stay level
b. Descend
c. Climb
d. Reduce speed

20. What is most different about the equatorial easterly jet stream?

a. Its height
b. Its length
c. Its direction
d. Its speed

21. Where are easterly and westerly jets found?

a. Northern Hemisphere only

b. Southern Hemisphere only
c. Northern and Southern Hemisphere
d. There are no easterly jets

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22. Wind at altitude is usually given as .......... in ..........

a. true, m/s
b. magnetic, m/s
c. true, kt
d. magnetic, kt

23. Under which of the following circumstances is the most severe CAT likely to be
experienced?

a. A westerly jet stream at low altitude in the summer

b. A curved jet stream near a deep trough
c. A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
d. A jet stream where there is a large spacing between the isotherms

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b d a a c b d a b a b c

13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
d c a a b b b c a c b
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Answers

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 12 Questions

Questions
1. What cloud does hail fall from?

a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Cu
d. Ci

2. Flying conditions in Ci cloud and horizontal visibility:

a. less than 500 m vis, light/mod clear icing

b. greater than 1000 m vis, light/mod rime ice
c. less then 500 m vis, no icing
d. greater than 1000 m vis, no icing

3. What is the composition of Ci cloud?

a. Super cooled water droplets

b. Ice crystals
c. Water droplets
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d. Smoke particles
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4. What cloud types are classified as medium cloud?

a. Ns + Sc
b. Ac + As
c. Cb + St
d. Ci + Cs

5. What type of cloud is associated with drizzle?

a. St
b. Cb
c. Ci
d. Ac

6. Fair weather cumulus gives an indication of:

a. poor visibility
b. thunderstorms
c. turbulence
d. smooth flying below

7. What best shows Altocumulus Lenticularis?

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8. What are lenticularis clouds a possible indication of?

a. Mountain waves
b. Instability
c. Developing Cu and Cb
d. Horizontal windshear in the upper atmosphere

9. In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe?

a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Sc
d. Ci

10. What will snow most likely fall from?

a. Ns
b. Ci
c. Cs
d. Ac

11. A plain in Western Europe at 500 m (1600 ft) AMSL is covered with a uniform

12
altocumulus cloud during summer months. At what height AGL is the base of the

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cloud expected?

a. 100 - 1500 ft
b. 15000 - 25000 ft
c. 7000 - 15000 ft
d. 1500 - 7000 ft

12. What best shows Cumulonimbus capillatus?

13. Clouds classified as low level are considered to have a base height of:

a. 500 - 1000 ft
b. 1000 - 2000 ft
c. the surface - 6500 ft
d. 100 - 200 ft

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14. In a tropical downpour the visibility is sometimes reduced to:

a. 1000 m
b. 500 m
c. 200 m
d. less than 100 m

15. What type of cloud is usually found at high level?

a. St
b. Ac
c. Cc
d. Ns

16. What best shows Acc?

12
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17. Altostratus is:

a. a low level cloud

b. a medium level cloud
c. a high level cloud
d. a heap type cloud

18. What would be reflected to radar?

a. Fog
b. Hail
c. Cloud
d. Mist

19. Which cloud would you encounter the most intensive rain?

a. Ci
b. Ns
c. St
d. Sc

20. CB cloud in summer contains:

a. water droplets
b. ice crystals
c. water droplets, ice crystals and super cooled water droplets
d. water droplets and ice crystals

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21. Which cloud would produce showers?

a. NS
b. AS
c. CS
d. CB

22. When would you mostly likely get fair weather Cu?

a. 15:00
b. 12:00
c. 17:00
d. 07:00

23. What type of cloud extends into another level?

a. As
b. Acc
c. Ns
d. Ci

24. Ceilometers measure:

12
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a. RVR
b. cloud height
c. met vis
d. turbulence

25. Which of the following will indicate medium level instability, possibly leading to
thunderstorms?

a. Halo
b. Altocumulus Castellanus
c. Altocumulus Capillatus
d. Red Cirrus

26. What is the base of altocumulus in summer?

a. 0 - 1500’
b. 1500 - 7000’
c. 7000’ - 15 000’
d. 7000’ - 16 500’

27. When a CC layer lies over a West European plain in summer, with a mean terrain
height of 500 m above sea level, the average cloud base could be expected to be:

a. 0 - 100 ft above ground level

b. 5000 - 15 000 ft above ground level
c. 15 000 - 25 000 ft above ground level
d. 15 000 - 35 000 ft above ground level

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28. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across all three cloud levels (low,
medium and high level)?

a. CI
b. ST
c. AC
d. CB

29. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across at least two cloud levels?

a. ST
b. NS
c. CI
d. SC

30. From which cloud do you get hail?

a. Sc
b. Cb
c. Ns
d. Ts
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31. If you see Alto Cu Castellanus what does it indicate?

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a. The upper atmosphere is stable

b. Subsistence
c. Instability in the lower atmosphere
d. Middle level instability

32. To dissipate cloud requires:

a. subsidence
b. a decrease in temperature
c. an increase pressure
d. convection

33. Cu is an indication of:

a. vertical movement of air

b. stability
c. the approach of a warm front
d. the approach of a cold front

34. Which clouds are evidence of stable air?

a. St, As
b. Cb, Cc
c. Cu, Ns
d. Cu, Cb

35. Lack of cloud at low level in a stationary high is due to:

a. instability
b. rising air
c. sinking air
d. divergence at high level

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36. What is the most common freezing precipitation?

a. Freezing pellets
b. Freezing rain and freezing drizzle
c. Freezing graupel
d. Freezing hail and freezing snow

37. From which of the following clouds are you least likely to get precipitation in
summer?

a. CS/NS
b. CS/AS
c. CB/CU
d. CU/ST

38. A layer of air cooling at the SALR compared to the DALR would give what kind of
cloud?

a. Stratus if saturated
b. Cumulus if saturated
c. No cloud if saturated
d. Convective cloud

12
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39. Over flat dry land what would cause cloud?

a. Orographic uplift
b. Convective uplift during the day
c. Release of latent heat
d. Advection

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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
a d b b a c a a a a c d
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
c d c c b b b c d d c b
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
b d d d b b d a a a c b

37 38 39
b a b
12
Answers

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 Questions
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Questions
1. If you observe drizzle falling, the cloud above you is most likely to be:

a. AS
b. CU
c. ST
d. NS

2. Turbulence cloud is usually a sheet of stratus, stratocumulus some 2000 ft thick

with a flat top because:

a. the air is usually at low temperatures containing little water vapour

b. turbulence steepens the lapse rate producing an inversion above the friction
layer
c. air is not allowed to remain in contact with the surface due to the strong wind
thus maintaining cool surface air with warm air above
d. the lapse rate becomes stable in the friction layer, due to turbulent mixing

3. Clouds formed by convection will always:

a. be layer clouds
b. be CU, CB or NS

13
c. have a rising cloud base and may develop into CB as the day progresses
d. form only in Polar maritime air

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4. With reference to anticyclones affecting the UK, which of the following statements
is correct?

a. The pressure gradient is greatest towards the centre of the anticyclone

b. Anticyclones are more common in winter than they are in summer. This is why
radiation fog is much more frequent in the winter
c. Apart from turbulence cloud, the formation of all other cloud types is unlikely
in anticyclonic conditions
d. Warm anticyclones are those which are caused by the extreme air density
associated with warmer weather

5. The type of cloud from which continuous moderate or heavy rain is likely to fall is:

a. large cumulus
b. altostratus
c. nimbostratus
d. cumulonimbus

6. The movement of cool moist air over a warmer surface is likely to cause:

a. cumulus or cumulonimbus cloud

b. advection fog
c. nimbostratus cloud
d. altocumulus lenticular cloud

7. Intensity of precipitation is described as either:

a. intermittent, continuous or showery

b. drizzle, rain or snow
c. slight, moderate or heavy
d. intermittent, moderate or heavy

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8. The term “shower” implies that:

a. precipitation is in the form of rain and is continuous

b. precipitation is from cumulonimbus cloud and lasts for short periods
c. precipitation is intermittent and is from strato form cloud
d. precipitation is continuous for long periods from cumuloform cloud

9. Precipitation in the form of snow will not reach the surface unless the surface
temperature is:

a. less than +4°C

b. less than 0°C
c. less than 45°F
d. less than 30°F

10. The type of precipitation in which visibility is likely to be most reduced is:

a. drizzle
b. snow
c. light rain
d. sleet

11. The type of precipitation usually associated with shallow stratocumulus is:
13

a. mainly water droplets which can be supercooled if the temperature is low

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enough
b. ice crystals
c. supercooled water droplets only
d. large water droplets due to the strong up-currents associated with this type of
cloud

12. If there are small cumulus in the morning in summer, it is reasonable to forecast
later in the day:

a. clear skies
b. St and drizzle
c. CB Cloud
d. haze

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c b c c c a c b a b a c
13
Answers

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 14 Questions

Questions
1. The conditions which must exist to allow thunderstorms to develop are:

a. a trigger action, a plentiful supply of moisture and a very stable atmosphere

b. a steep lapse rate, a stable atmosphere through a large vertical extent and a
plentiful supply of moisture
c. a plentiful supply of moisture and a steep lapse rate through a large vertical
extent and a trigger action
d. a steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent, a low relative humidity and
a trigger action

2. When moist air moves across France in the . . . . . . . . . . . . TS activity is common in

southern UK in the . . . . . . . . . . .

Complete the above statement correctly using one of the following:

a. winter/morning
b. summer/late afternoon or evening
c. winter/late afternoon or evening
d. summer/morning

3. Hazards of the mature stage of a TS cell include lightning, turbulence and:

a. microburst, windshear and anvil

14

b. icing, microburst and windshear

c. icing, drizzle and microburst
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d. windshear, hail and fog

4. On a significant weather chart the thunderstorm symbol signifies:

a. moderate turbulence and moderate icing

b. severe turbulence and severe icing
c. moderate turbulence and severe icing
d. moderate/severe turbulence and/or moderate/severe icing

5. Thunderstorms require a trigger action to release the conditional instability. Which

of the following would be the least suitable as a trigger?

a. Convergence in temperate latitudes

b. Convergence in tropical latitudes
c. Subsidence in tropical latitudes
d. Convection in polar latitudes

6. During the . . . . . . . . . stage of a thunderstorm cell, the cloud contains . . . . . . . .

Complete the above statement correctly using one of the following:

a. building/up currents and down currents

b. mature/up currents and down currents
c. dissipating/up currents and down currents
d. building/down currents only

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14
7. The following is unlikely to be a hazard below a thunderstorm:

a. severe turbulence
b. severe icing
c. windshear
d. large variations in pressure setting values

8. Thunderstorms are likely if:

a. air is unstable, there is sufficient water vapour and there is trigger action
b. air is completely stable, there is sufficient water vapour and there is lifting
orographically
c. there is a warm front
d. there is a col in winter

9. Hail grows by:

a. freezing as it leaves the cloud

b. up and down progress in CU cloud
c. collision with supercooled water drops
d. collision with ice crystals

10. How long approximately does a cumulonimbus cell take to complete the full cycle
from the cumulus (building) to dissipating stage?

a. 2-3 hours

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b. 1-2 hours

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c. 4-5 hours
d. About 1 hour

11. When approaching at flight level 300 a cumulonimbus cloud with an anvil top,
pilots should aim to avoid the cloud by ---- NM horizontally if avoiding visually,
or by ---- NM horizontally if using cloud avoidance radar. Select the appropriate
respective ranges from those given below:

a. 10 20
b. 15 10
c. 10 15
d. 5 10

12. A microburst usually lasts for _________ and is about ____________across.

a. 20 minutes 20 NM
b. 5 minutes 5 km
c. 30 minutes 10 NM
d. 45 minutes 5 NM

13. Thunderstorms caused by _________are most common in the summer and by

____________in the__________

a. lapse rate air masses late spring

b. air masses frontal activity winter
c. cold fronts air masses autumn
d. air masses frontal activity summer

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14. When flying through an active CB cloud, lightning strikes are most likely:

a. above 5000’ and underneath the anvil

b. in the clear air below the cloud in rain
c. in the temperature band between +10°C and –10°C
d. at or about 10 000 ft AMSL

15. Regarding thunderstorms, the most accurate statement amongst the following is:

a. there will always be windshear under the cloud

b. the average movement is in accord with the wind at 10 000 ft
c. if the cloud base has a temperature below 0°C then freezing rain will occur
d. the number of lightning flashes is directly proportional to the degree of
turbulence
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Questions

248
 Answers
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Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
c b b d c b b a c a c b
13 14 15
b c b
14
Answers
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 15 Questions

Questions
1. Which of the conditions given below is most likely to lead to the formation of
radiation fog?

Wind speed Cloud Cover Temperature Dew Point

a. 7 kt 8/8 St 12°C 11°C

b. 15 kt NIL 15°C 14°C
c. 3 kt 1/8 Ci 8°C 7°C
d. 12 kt NIL -2°C -3°C

2. When _______ moist air passes over a surface which is _________ than the dew
point of the air, _______fog can form. This occurs over____________

Examine the statement above; the line which contains the correct words in the
correct order to complete the statement is:

a. cool warmer radiation the sea

b. warm cooler radiation the land only
c. cool warmer frontal land
d. warm cooler advection land and sea

3. Radiation fog is most likely at an inland airfield in the UK with a relative humidity
of 80% in the ________with ___________and a wind of _______

a. autumn clear skies 2-8 knots

15

b. spring 6/8 ST& SC 2-10 knots

c. winter clear skies 15/20 knots
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d. summer clear skies no wind

4. Advection fog is formed when __________air moves over a___________surface and

is __________its dew point:

a. humid cold kept above

b. warm moist cooler cooled below
c. dry frozen well below
d. warm moist warmer kept above

5. On a night when radiation fog is forming over most of southern England, the
aerodromes likely to be first to experience the fog will be those situated:

a. near the coast with a light onshore wind and clear skies
b. at the bottom of the hill with a light katabatic wind blowing
c. near the coast with a land breeze and cloudy skies
d. at the top of a hill with clear skies and no wind

6. Radiation fog is most likely:

a. with a wind speed up to 15 kt, a clear sky and a high relative humidity
b. with a wind of 2-8 kt, a high density and the summer season
c. in an anticyclone in winter
d. on a hill in autumn

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15
7. If a station equipped with IRVR equipment reports RVR 1000, this means:

a. RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres

b. RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres and at ‘mid point’ and ‘stop end’ the RVR is
800 metres or more
c. RVR at touchdown is 1000 metres and ‘mid point’ and ‘stop end’ equipment is
unserviceable
d. RVR all along the runway is 1000 metres or more

8. Changes of RVR are reported for increments of:

a. 25 m up to 250 m
b. 25 m up to 200 m
c. 50 m between 300 m and 800 m
d. 50 m between 500 m and 800 m

9. Frontal fog is most likely to:

a. form ahead of a vigorous fast moving cold front

b. form ahead of a warm front
c. form on a vigorous cold front and last for many hours
d. form to the rear of a warm front but only last for 1 to 2 hours

10. Fog may be defined as:

a. a reduction of visibility to less than 1000 metres due to the presence of water
vapour in the atmosphere

15
b. a reduction of visibility to less than 1000 metres due to the presence of water
droplets in suspension in the atmosphere

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c. a reduction of visibility to less than 1500 metres due to the presence of water
droplets in suspension in the atmosphere
d. a reduction of visibility to less than 1000 ft due to the presence of water
vapour in suspension in the atmosphere

11. Several types of pressure distribution may be associated with radiation fog but all
have one feature in common which is:

a. closely spaced isobars

b. a tight pressure gradient
c. a slack pressure gradient
d. a rapidly falling pressure

12. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . forms when moist air . . . . . . . . . . over a surface which is . . . . . . . . .

than the dew point of the air. Fill in the missing words from the list given below:

a. Radiation fog, passes, warmer

b. Advection fog, settles, cooler
c. Advection fog, passes, cooler
d. Radiation fog, settles, warmer

13. Advection fog:

a. only occurs at night and early morning

b. is most likely with Polar Maritime air
c. will only clear by insolation
d. can sometimes last for 24 hours or more in winter

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14. In circumstances where there is a clear sky, calm wind and a high relative humidity
in autumn:

a. radiation fog is likely over night

b. advection fog will form
c. radiation fog is likely at sunrise after previous mist
d. hill fog can be expected

15. At a station equipped with IRVR, reports are given:

a. every ½ hour
b. when the normal visibility is 1500 m or less
c. when there is mist
d. when there is haze
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Questions

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 15 Answers

Answers
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c d a b b c b b b b c c
13 14 15
d c b
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 16 Questions

Questions
1. At temperatures of between 0°C and –10°C clouds will consist of:

a. entirely water droplets

b. entirely ice crystals
c. mostly water vapour
d. mostly supercooled water droplets and a few ice crystals

2. Turbulent clouds are most serious from the icing standpoint because:

a. strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of large supercooled water

droplets will be present
b. strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of small supercooled water
droplets will be present
c. turbulent clouds produce hail which sticks to the aircraft
d. turbulent clouds indicate a low freezing level

3. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft when:

a. the aircraft suddenly enters a cloud at below freezing temperature

b. the aircraft in subzero clear air suddenly enters a colder region
c. the aircraft in subzero clear air suddenly enters a warmer moist region
d. the aircraft suddenly enters a cloud which is at a higher temperature than the
surrounding air

4. Most cases of serious piston engine icing occur in cloud, fog, or precipitation with a
temperature range between:
16

a. -10°C to +25°C
b. -18°C to +5°C
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c. -10° C to 0°C
d. -20°C to +15°C

5. Stratus cloud of limited depth at a temperature of -5°C will most likely give:

a. moderate to heavy rime ice

b. moderate to heavy glaze ice
c. light to moderate rime ice
d. light to moderate glaze ice

6. Clear ice forms as a result of:

a. large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze

b. ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
c. small supercooled water droplets splashing over the aircraft
d. water vapour freezing to the aircraft

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 Questions
16
7. Orographic uplift in stable conditions gives a strong vertical component to air
movement thus supporting larger supercooled droplets in orographically formed
cloud. Consideration should also be given to the fact that in this cloud:

a. the 0°C isotherm will be higher

b. the 0°C isotherm will be lower
c. the lapse rate will be isothermal
d. an inversion can be anti-cyclonic

8. Which of the following conditions is most favourable for the formation of

carburettor icing if the aircraft is descending with glide power set?

Relative Humidity Ambient Temperature

a. 25% +25°C
b. 40% +20°C
c. 50% -10°C
d. 30% -5°C

9. Flying in large CU at a temperature of -20°C, the amount of each cloud droplet that
will freeze on impact with the aircraft will be:

a. all the droplet

b. ½ of the droplet
c. ¼ of the droplet
d. 20% of the droplet

10. Carburettor icing is unlikely:

16
a. in cloud

Questions
b. at temperatures between –10°C and –30°C
c. in clear air
d. when the RH is 40%

11. Flying 50 NM ahead of a warm front out of cloud at 1000 ft in winter, with an
ambient temperature of -8°C, there is a strong risk of:

a. hoar frost
b. rime icing and carburettor icing
c. structure damage caused by hail
d. clear ice in the form of rain ice

12. In AS cloud at FL170 and a temperature of -20°C the airframe icing most likely to be
experienced is:

a. moderate clear icing

b. light rime icing
c. hoar frost
d. severe clear icing

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 16 Answers

13. Mixed (rime and clear) icing is most likely to be encountered:

a. in nimbostratus at a temperature of –10°C

b. in stratocumulus cloud at a temperature of –20°C
c. in fair weather cumulus at a temperature of –15°C
d. in towering cumulus at a temperature of –10°C

14. When considering icing in cloud over high ground compared with icing in other
clouds, the effect of orographic lifting is to:

a. cause the height of the freezing level to fall and increases the intensity of the
icing
b. cause the height of the freezing level to rise and increases the severity of the
icing
c. cause the free water content of the cloud to increase and the freezing level to
rise so reducing the icing risk
d. increase the temperature inside the cloud due to the release of extra latent
heat so reducing the icing risk

15. Kinetic heating will:

a. increase the risk of icing if it raises the airframe temperature to just below 0°C
b. increase the risk of icing if it raises the airframe temperature to just above 0°C
c. always increase the risk of airframe icing
d. always decrease the risk of airframe icing
16
Answers

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 17 Questions

Questions
1. An air mass that has travelled over an ocean is known as:

a. continental air and has a high humidity

b. continental air and has a low humidity
c. maritime air and has a high humidity
d. maritime air and has a low humidity

2. Characteristic weather associated with a mPc air mass transiting the British Isles in
summer would include:

a. widespread Cu and Cb activity overland during the day

b. clear quiet settled weather overland by day with good visibility
c. warm moist conditions with some Sc or Cu and moderate to poor visibility
d. extensive low stratus cloud giving drizzle to light rain overland by day

3. If air in transit is heated from below it tends to become more:

a. stable
b. neutrally stable
c. unstable
d. none of these

4. The weather associated with polar maritime air is:

a. overcast, moderate drizzle

b. overcast moderate intermittent rain
c. broken cloud, light, moderate or heavy rain
d. broken cloud, moderate continuous rain
17

5. Polar maritime air is . . . . . . . . . . . and can bring . . . . . . . . . . . in the UK in winter but

. . . . . . . . . in summer.
Questions

Complete the above sentence correctly using one of the following:

a. very unstable/heavy snow showers/does not arrive

b. cold and stable/advection fog/rain showers
c. unstable/intermittent or continuous snow/cool dry weather
d. unstable/heavy showers/light rain showers

6. Tropical continental air normally brings to the UK:

a. hot dry cloudless weather with a thick haze

b. warm weather with broken Cu and showers on coasts, visibility very good
except in showers
c. warm dry cloudless weather with very good visibility
d. hot dry cloudless weather on coasts but Cu building up inland with rain
showers, visibility good except in showers

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 Questions
17
7. Referring to the area of the North Atlantic, the mean position of the polar front in
January is:

a. from Florida to southwest England

b. from Newfoundland to the north of Scotland
c. from Florida to the north of Scotland
d. from Newfoundland to southwest England

8. When air from an air mass moves to a lower latitude, it can be expected that:

a. surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will rise and the air will become
unstable
b. surface layer air will become colder, the RH will rise and the air will become
more stable
c. surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will fall and the air will become
unstable
d. surface layer air will become warmer, the RH will fall and the air will become
more stable

9. In the N. Hemisphere when flying in the troposphere above the surface friction
layer in the polar maritime air mass behind the cold front of a fully developed
frontal depression:

a. the wind will tend to veer in direction and increase in speed with progressive
increase of altitude
b. the wind will tend to veer in direction with increase of altitude but the speed
may remain constant in the lower layers of the atmosphere
c. the wind speed will reduce progressively with increase of altitude until at
about 10 000 feet above mean sea level where it will then tend to increase in
speed from another direction
d. the wind will tend to back in direction and increase in speed with progressive

17
increase of altitude

Questions
10. The average surface level winds at A3, B3 and C3 in Appendix ‘A’ are respectively:

a. easterly, westerly, southwesterly

b. westerly, westerly, southwesterly
c. southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly
d. southwesterly, westerly, northerly

11. The average upper winds at A1, B1 and C1 in Appendix ‘A’ are respectively:

a. easterly, westerly, northwesterly

b. northwesterly, westerly, southwesterly
c. southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly
d. southwesterly, westerly, northerly

12. It can be expected that the depth of the friction layer over the UK will be:

a. greater in Polar Maritime air due to the instability and moderate wind
b. greater in Tropical Maritime air due to the warm temperature
c. greater in Polar Continental air due to the very low temperatures
d. greater in Tropical Continental air due to the relatively high temperatures in
winter

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 17 Questions

13. The air masses involved in the development of a polar front depression are:

a. Polar Maritime and Polar Continental

b. Tropical Maritime and Polar Continental
c. Tropical Continental and Polar Maritime
d. Polar Maritime and Tropical Maritime

14. When a cold front passes a station in the British Isles:

a. The wind veers and the dew point falls

b. The wind backs and the dew point falls
c. The wind veers and the dew point rises
d. The wind backs and the dew point rises

15. Refer to Appendix B

The air masses indicated in the diagrams by the hand are respectively:

a. Arctic, Tropical Continental, Polar Maritime, Arctic Maritime

b. Polar Continental, Tropical Maritime, Tropical Continental, Arctic
c. Polar Maritime, Tropical Maritime, Polar Continental, Arctic
d. Polar Continental, Polar Maritime, Tropical Maritime, Arctic
17
Questions

320
 Questions
17
Appendix A
ft
ft
ft
Cross-section through a polar front depression

17
Questions
321
 17 Questions

Appendix B

February March
17
Questions

July November

322
 17 Answers

Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
c a c c d a a c d c b a
13 14 15
d a b
17
Answers

324
 18 Questions

Questions
Refer to Appendix A for Questions 1-3:

1. The cloud in grid square M11 is most likely to be:

a. cirrus
b. nimbostratus
c. altocumulus
d. stratus fractus

2. Precipitation will reach the ground mainly in the area:

a. L14 -R14
b. Q14 -S14
c. O14 -T14
d. J14-O14

3. In grid square M6 the worst cloud conditions for flying could be:

a. altrocumulus
b. cumulonimbus embedded in nimbostratus
c. cumulonimbus
d. nimbostratus

4. Which of the conditions below would lead to the worst icing condition:

Size of Drop Ambient Temp.

a. 2 mm -30°C
b. 1 mm -1°C
c. 5 mm -4°C
d. 3 mm -12°C
18
Questions

5. Refer to Appendix ‘B’. In a warm occlusion flying at 20 000’ where will the most
turbulence be found?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. A and C

6. Refer to Appendix ‘C’. Which area will get the most rain at the surface?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

7. Refer to Appendix ‘D’. What type of cloud will be found at X?

a. CS
b. NS
c. SC
d. CB

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 Questions
18
8. Refer to Appendix ‘D’. What type of cloud is most likely at Z?

a. CU
b. CB
c. AS
d. NS

9. After passage of an occluded front in the Northern Hemisphere:

Wind Temperature Precipitation

a. backs stops falling continues

b. veers drops rapidly stops abruptly
c. veers drops or rises begins to dry up
d. backs rises quickly increases in strength

10. With a cold occlusion:

a. the air ahead of the warm front is colder than the air behind the cold front
b. the warm sector remains on the surface
c. the cloud type is predominately layer with a wide precipitation band
d. there is a risk of CB embedded in NS

Refer to Appendix ‘A’ for question 11

11. The front at P14 is:

a. cold
b. warm
c. warm at an occlusion
d. cold at an occlusion

Refer to Appendix ‘B’ for questions 12 -14

18
12. The relative temperatures at A, B, and C could be respectively:

Questions
a. +6 +8 +10
b. +6 +10 +8
c. +8 +10 +8
d. +10 +6 +8

13. Precipitation at the surface underneath B is likely to be:

a. Light drizzle
b. Continuous moderate
c. Showers, heavy with the possibility of hail
d. Nil

14. Flight conditions at B are likely to be:

a. smooth and clear

b. layer clouds with only light turbulence
c. some turbulence in NS with the possibility of embedded
CB giving moderate/severe turbulence
d. flight in CU, CB with some turbulence

335
 18 Questions

15. When flying from west to east through a cold occlusion (below the warm air) over
the North Atlantic you would expect the wind to . . . . . . . . . . and the temperature
to . . . . . . . . . . . . . .:

a. veer/decrease
b. back/increase
c. back/decrease
d. veer/increase

16. A warm occlusion occurs when:

a. warm air is forcing cool air over cold air

b. cold air is forcing cool air over warm air
c. cool air is forcing warm air over cold air
d. cool air is forcing cold air aloft
18
Questions

336
 18 Answers

Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
c d b c b c a b c d d d

13 14 15 16
c c b c
18
Answers

340
 Questions
19
Questions
1. A thermal depression is likely to form:

a. over the Iberian peninsular during the summer

b. in the lee of the Alps over northern Italy in winter
c. in association with a marked trough of low pressure over the USA
d. on the trailing edge of a warm sector mid latitude depression

2. Tropical revolving storms usually:

a. form close to one side of the Equator and while moving slowly in a westerly
direction, cross over to the other hemisphere
b. move in a westerly direction before recurving towards the Equator
c. move in an easterly direction before recurving towards the nearest pole
d. do not form within 5° of the Equator

3. With reference to tropical revolving storms, which of the following statements is

correct?

a. Typhoons are found in the South China sea in January

b. Cyclones occur in the Bay of Bengal in winter
c. Hurricanes in the South Atlantic sometimes affect the east coast of Brazil
d. Hurricanes affect the southeast of the USA in late summer

4. Which of the following statements accurately describes the “West African

tornado”?

a. The West African tornado is similar to the North American and European
tornadoes
b. It is a line of thunderstorms producing a line squall aligned roughly north/
south
c. It is another name for the cyclones that affect the West African coast in
summer
d. It is the name given to a line of thunderstorms that lie along the ITCZ but

19
some 200 miles to the south

Questions
5. Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal thermal
depression because of:

a. surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent

of air in the depression
b. surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent
of air in the depression
c. surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of
air in the depression
d. surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of
air in the depression

361
 19 Questions

6. In comparison with a primary depression a secondary depression is:

a. always more active

b. sometimes more active
c. never more active
d. unlikely to produce gale force winds

7. A secondary depression would form in association with:

a. a polar depression
b. a col
c. a summer thermal depression over the Mediterranean or Caspian Sea
d. a polar front low

8. Tropical revolving storms:

a. are always given a male first name beginning with “A” for the first of the
season and thereafter named in alphabetical order of occurrence
b. have internal wind speeds of 10-20 knots rotating cyclonically round a
subsiding clear air core known as the eye
c. usually have the most severe weather in the quadrant to the right of the track
in a hurricane
d. regenerate after crossing the coast from sea to land

9. Which of the following are thermal depressions?

a. Tropical revolving storms, polar air depressions, tornadoes

b. The equatorial trough, monsoon lows, some depressions over the central and
eastern Mediterranean sea in summer
c. The equatorial trough, polar air depressions, monsoon lows, orographic lows
d. The lows forming over flat land in summer, polar air depressions, tropical
revolving storms, some of the lows which form over inland seas in winter

10. A secondary low pressure system rotates around a primary low:

19

a. cyclonically
b. anticyclonically
Questions

c. into the primary

d. at a constant distance

11. Flying conditions in a secondary low pressure system are:

a. always more severe than in a primary low

b. sometimes more severe than in a primary low
c. less severe than in a primary low
d. relatively calm

12. Tropical revolving storms:

a. do not occur in the South Atlantic

b. generally move from east to west before turning towards the Equator
c. intensify after crossing coasts
d. occur principally in spring and early summer

362
 19 Answers

Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
a d d b c b d c d a b a
19
Answers

364
 20 Questions

Questions
1. The tropical transitional climatic zone is:

a. approximately 20° - 30° of latitude and provides very dry desert conditions
throughout the year
b. approximately 10°- 20° of latitude and provides dry trade wind conditions in
winter and a wet summer season
c. approximately 10° - 20° of latitude and provides a wet winter season and a dry
hot summer
d. approximately 10° - 30° of latitude and has a period of long rains in spring and
autumn, but is never dry

2. The temperate transitional climatic zone is:

a. approximately 20° - 35° of latitude and covers the high pressure desert regions
of the world
b. approximately 35° - 40° of latitude and is under the influence of polar front
depressions throughout the year
c. approximately 35° - 40° of latitude and provides a warm dry summer with a
cool wet winter
d. approximately 35° - 40° of latitude and provides a wet summer season and a
dry cold winter

3. Northern Hemisphere summers tend to be:

a. warmer than the Southern Hemisphere and winters are warmer too
b. colder than the Southern Hemisphere due to the smaller amount of solar
radiation
c. colder than the Southern Hemisphere because of the large land masses
d. warmer than the Southern Hemisphere and the winters are colder

4. The effect of mountain barriers on temperature is exemplified by the following:

a. European temperatures are low in winter because there is no barrier to

prevent cold Atlantic air crossing the area
b. the Rocky mountains of North America prevent cold Pacific air reaching
20

inland, so summer temperatures to the east of the mountains are high

Questions

c. the Himalayas prevent warm dry air from Russia reaching India and Pakistan
d. the Ural mountains of West Russia prevent most of the cold Siberian air
reaching Europe in summer

5. The tropopause is:

a. more or less constant for any latitude

b. is a boundary layer between the troposphere and the stratosphere
c. normally the upper limit of weather
d. the upper limit for jet streams and mountain waves

6. Statistical pressure values tend to be:

a. on average parallel to the lines of latitude

b. on average parallel to the lines of latitude in the Southern Hemisphere and
much more variable in the Northern Hemisphere
c. much lower in winter in the Northern Hemisphere than in the Southern
Hemisphere
d. higher over the oceans in winter

392
 Questions
20
7. The heat equator is:

a. another name for the geographic equator

b. coincident with the equatorial trough and ITCZ
c. a line over the land joining places where the summer temperatures are highest
d. a line over the land joining places where the winter temperatures are highest

8. The average temperature around the equatorial regions:

a. is always above +40°C

b. is higher over the sea areas
c. varies on average from winter to summer by only some 5°C
d. has a very high range of temperatures throughout the year

9. Trade winds:

a. blow towards the subtropical anticyclones

b. are caused by lifting over the heat equator and the subsequent air movements
from the subtropical anticyclones
c. only blow in the winter months
d. blow from the equatorial low pressure systems throughout the year

10. Trade winds in the Southern Hemisphere are:

a. southeasterly
b. southeast at first becoming southwest
c. in opposition to the monsoons
d. usually from the northeast

11. The Hadley cell is the name given to:

a. the CU cells which continue to form a CB

b. an initial bubble of air which is lifted by convection
c. the centre portion of a jet stream
d. a cell formed by lifted air over the heat equator descending to the subtropical
highs

20
12. The large change in the direction of trade winds is caused by:

Questions
a. local pressure differences
b. an excess of air at height in association with the Hadley cells
c. the change in geostrophic force when crossing the geographic equator
d. the cyclostrophic force in the equatorial regions

13. Monsoons are seasonal winds which:

a. develop due to the high pressure over continents in winter and the
subsequent low pressure which develops over the same areas in summer
b. are never in combination with trade winds
c. blow only in the southeast Asia region
d. are from the southeasterly direction over the Indian sub continent in summer

393
 20 Questions

14. The outflow from the Siberian High:

a. is northwesterly over Japan, northerly and northeasterly over China and

northerly over the whole of India
b. is the source of Polar Maritime air
c. is northwesterly over Japan, northeasterly over southeast Asia and easterly
over Europe
d. is evident throughout the year

15. The upper winds tend to be westerly outside the tropics because:

a. the rotation of the earth is west to east

b. the thermal winds are westerly on average
c. surface winds are nearly always westerly
d. jet streams are usually westerly

16. Jet stream main locations are:

a. in the warm air some 400 NM ahead of a warm or cold front and near the
subtropical highs
b. in the warm air some 400 NM ahead of a warm front and some 200 NM
behind a cold front and near the subtropical highs
c. only in association with the polar front
d. in association with the polar front and with mountain waves

17. Jet streams:

a. only occur in the troposphere

b. have a speed in excess of 80 kt
c. are located above the tropopause
d. are caused by a large difference in mean temperature in the horizontal

18. Near the Equator upper winds tend to be:

a. easterly
b. westerly
c. at speeds greater than 60 kt
20

d. calm
Questions

19. The polar front is:

a. the boundary surface between polar continental and tropical continental air
b. near the poles
c. only apparent over the Atlantic ocean
d. the region where warm sector depressions develop

20. The ITCZ is:

a. the region between the two trade wind systems centred on the heat equator
b. the boundary region between the two monsoons
c. the boundary between polar air and equatorial air
d. a region of calm winds and layer type clouds with much haze

394
 Questions
20
21. Tropical revolving storms:

a. are a summer weather feature

b. are easily predictable
c. can be very active well inland
d. can travel at speeds of 100 kt

22. The areas of greatest rainfall are:

a. those where there is much polar front depression activity

b. in the equatorial regions
c. in the polar regions
d. in central North America in summer due to the large convective cloud
formations

23. Thunderstorms most frequently occur:

a. in association with the ITCZ over central Africa

b. over the east Indies area (Java) due to the intense surface heating
c. in regions affected by cold fronts
d. in association with tropical revolving storms

24. Dust storms and haze are most common:

a. in association with the subtropical anticyclones over land

b. with the Haboobs in winter
c. in unstable air with low pressure
d. in temperate latitudes

25. The most notorious advection fogs occur:

a. over southwest UK
b. over the sea in the region of Newfoundland and the Kamchatka peninsula
c. over Europe with high pressure to the north
d. over central North America in autumn and winter

26. The cloud to be expected along the front at A3 in Appendix A is:

20
a. CU CB

Questions
b. ST SC
c. ST NS
d. AS NS

27. The cloud to be expected at B2 between the fronts in Appendix A is:

a. AS
b. ST SC
c. NS
d. NIL

28. The cloud to be expected at C2 along the front in Appendix A is:

a. CU CB
b. AS NS
c. ST SC
d. AC

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 20 Questions

29. The cloud to be expected along the front at A2 in Appendix A is:

a. CI
b. AS NS
c. ST
d. CU

30. The average surface level winds at A3, B3 and C3 in Appendix A are respectively:

a. easterly, westerly, southwesterly

b. westerly, westerly, southwesterly
c. southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly
d. southwesterly, westerly, northerly

31. The average upper winds at A1, B1 and C1 in Appendix A are respectively:

a. easterly, westerly, northwesterly

b. northwesterly, westerly, southwesterly
c. southwesterly, westerly, northwesterly
d. southwesterly, westerly, northerly

32. The names of the air masses indicated A, B, C and D at Appendix B are respectively:

a. Polar Maritime, Polar Continental, Tropical Maritime, Tropical Continental

b. Returning Polar Maritime, Arctic, Tropical Continental, Tropical Maritime
c. Polar Maritime, Arctic, Tropical Continental, Tropical Maritime
d. Polar Maritime, Arctic, Polar Continental, Tropical Maritime

33. The names of the air masses indicated E, F, G and H at Appendix B are respectively:

a. Tropical Maritime, Polar Continental, Tropical Continental, Arctic

b. Polar Continental, Tropical Maritime, Tropical Continental, Arctic
c. Polar Continental, Tropical Continental, Tropical Maritime, Arctic
d. Tropical Maritime, Polar Maritime, Tropical Continental, Polar Maritime
20
Questions

REFER TO THE ABOVE DIAGRAM FOR QUESTIONS 34 - 39.

396
 Questions
20
34. In area L the main wet seasons will be:

a. at the equinoxes
b. in January/February
c. in July/August
d. in November/December

35. In area M in winter there will be:

a. equatorial rains
b. extensive low cloud
c. the Doldrums
d. dry trade wind conditions

36. In area N there will be:

a. extensive winter rains

b. anticyclonic desert areas
c. dry summers and wet winters
d. polar front weather

37. In area O the climate will include:

a. the trade winds

b. dry warm summers and a wet winter season
c. steppe type with grassy plains
d. a wet summer and dry cold winters

38. In area P the main weather factor will be:

a. polar front depressions

b. depressions in winter, anticyclones in summer
c. extensive low cloud throughout the year
d. monsoon weather

39. In area Q the climate will include:

20
a. polar front depressions
b. cold anticyclonic weather

Questions
c. temperatures above zero for 3 months of the year
d. good visibility throughout the year

397
 20 Answers

Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
b c d b c b b c b a d c
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
a c b b d a d a a b b a
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
b c d a b c b c b a d b
37 38 39
b a b
20
Answers

402
 Chapter

25
Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .471
Decoding the METAR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .471
Report Type . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .471
Aerodrome . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .471
Date-Time Group . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .472
Wind Information . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .472
Visibility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .472
The Weather Group . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .473
Thunderstorms . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .474
Cloud Coverage . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .474
Obscuration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .475
Temperature and Dew Point . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .476
QNH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .476
Recent Weather . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .477
Windshear . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .477
TREND, BECMG, TEMPO . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .477
Runway State Group . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .478
Special Reports . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .479
Auto . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .480
End of Message . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .480
Summary. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .480
Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .481
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .484

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 Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)
25
Introduction
The letters METAR stand for METeorological Aerodrome Report. METARs contain coded
messages pertaining to the actual weather conditions at a given aerodrome, at a stated
time. Typical METARs for United Kingdom aerodromes, extracted from the United Kingdom
Met Office website, are shown below.

ZCZC ZKA498 031428

GG EGTKZGZX
031428 EGGYYBYA
SAUK34 EGYY 031420
METAR EGDG NIL=
METAR EGHD 031420Z 00000KT 9999 SCT025 13/08 Q1032=
METAR EGHE NIL=
METAR EGHK 031420Z 34005KT 9999 SCT020 BKN040 15/08 Q1031 NOSIG=
METAR EGJA 031420Z 05008KT 020V100 9999 FEW030 SCT050 15/09 Q1031=
METAR EGJB 031420Z 04008KT 9999 FEW028 BKN250 15/08 Q1031
METAR EGJJ 031420Z 04010KT 010V100 9999 FEW030 16/08 Q1030 NOSIG=
METAR EGTE 031420Z 02005KT 040V050 9999 FEW024 BKN045 15/07 Q1031=
METAR EGTG 031420Z 00000KT 9999 BKN036 14/06 Q1032=

METARs are usually issued every half hour during aerodrome operating hours. The aim of this
chapter is to explain the METAR coding, group by group.

Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

Decoding the METAR
This example reproduces the irst eight code-groups normally found in a METAR.

METAR EGTK 231020Z 26012G25KT 220V300

For clarity the METAR has been split into its signiicant parts - (a) to (h):

METAR EGTK 231020Z 260 12 G 25KT 220 V 300

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h)

Report Type
25

The first code, (a), is the identification of the type of report; in this case a METAR.

Aerodrome
The four-letter ICAO designator of the issuing aerodrome is shown next, (b); this example is
for Oxford/Kidlington, EGTK.

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 25 Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

Date-Time Group
The third group, (c), is the date/time group, which simply gives the date of the actual weather
observation. The first two digits represent the day of the month, followed by the time in
hours and minutes. Time is always given as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC), which is, for
all practical purposes, the same as Greenwich Mean Time (GMT): the local time at Greenwich,
London. In the METAR, itself, UTC is indicated by the code Z, pronounced “Zulu”.

Wind Information
The next items in the METAR (d, e, f and g) are the observed wind information. Firstly, the
direction of the wind given in degrees true, rounded up or down to the nearest 10 degrees,
(d), and then the wind speed in knots, (e), which is a mean speed taken over a 10 minute
period. However, if a gust is observed which is at least 10 knots more than the mean wind
speed, then a gust figure, (g), comes after the mean wind; this gust figure is preceded by the
letter G, (f).

The next code-group, (h), may or may not appear depending on the directional variability of
the wind. Variability of direction is included when the wind direction, over the preceding 10
minutes, has changed by 60° or more. The letter V will appear between these two extremes.
If there is no wind, the coding, 00000KT, will be used. If the wind direction cannot be defined
then VRB (for variable) replaces the direction.

Visibility
Visibility in the METAR is represented by the next group, depicted in red in the example. In
the METAR, the reported visibility is the prevailing visibility and, may, under certain conditions,
include the minimum visibility. Here, the prevailing visibility is reported as 0800 metres.

Prevailing visibility is the visibility value which is either reached, or exceeded, around at least
Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

half the horizon circle, or within at least half of the surface of the aerodrome. If the visibility
in one direction, which is not the prevailing visibility, is less than 1500 m, or less than 50% of
the prevailing visibility, the lowest visibility observed, and its general direction, should also be
reported.

Up to 10 km, the visibility is measured in metres. For example, 6000 means that the prevailing
visibility is 6000 metres. Once the visibility reaches 10 km or more, the code figure used is 9999.

Visibility of less than 50 metres is indicated by the code 0000. In this example the prevailing
visibility is 800 metres.

METAR EGTK 231020Z 26012G25KT 220V300 0800

25

In some instances, runway visibility information is given in a METAR; this is known as Runway
Visual Range (RVR.) RVR is given only when either the horizontal visibility or the RVR, itself,
is less than 1500 metres. The RVR group starts with the letter R, and then goes on to give the
runway in use, followed by the threshold visibility in metres.

In the following example, for Oxford Kidlington, we have a prevailing visibility of 800 metres,
with an RVR, at the threshold of Runway 30, of 1100 metres.

METAR EGTK 211020Z 26012G25KT 0800 R30/1100

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 Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)
25
If the RVR is more than the maximum reportable value of 1500 metres, the code P is used in
front of the visibility value, R30/P1500. If the visibility is less than 50 m then the prefix M will
be used e.g. R30/M0050

A letter can sometimes come after the RVR to indicate any trends that the RVR has shown. A U
means that the visibility has increased by 100 m or more in the last 10 minutes, e.g. R30/1100U.
A D shows that visibility has decreased by 100 m or more in that same time period, R30/1100D.
An N added to the visibility group shows that there is no distinct trend observed, R30/1100N.

The Weather Group

The next section of the METAR is the weather group. The weather group gives information on
the present weather at, or near, the aerodrome at the time of the observation. The weather
group +SHRA added to our example METAR means “heavy showers of rain”.

METAR EGTK 211020Z 26012G25KT 0800 R30/1100 +SHRA

The following table lists the various codes which may be used in the METAR weather group to
describe different weather phenomena.

Significant Present and Forecast Weather Codes

Qualifier Weather Phenomena
Intensity or Proximity Descriptor Precipitation Obscuration Other
- Light MI - Shallow DZ - Drizzle BR - Mist PO - Dust/Sand
Whirls (Dust
Moderate BC - Patches RA - Rain FG - Fog Devils)
(no Qualifier)
BL - Blowing SN - Snow FU - Smoke SQ - Squall
+Heavy (well

Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

developed in the case SH - Shower(s) IC - Ice VA - Volcanic FC - Funnel
of FC and PO) Crystals Ash Cloud(s)
TS - Thunderstorms (Diamond (tornado or
VC - In the vicinity Dust) DU - water spout)
FZ - Freezing Widespread
(Supercooled) PL - Ice Dust SS - Sandstorm/
Pellets Duststorm
PR - Partial SA - Sand
(covering part of GR - Hail
aerodrome) HZ - Haze
GS - Small
hail - (<5 mm
in diameter
25

and/or snow
pellets)

UP -
Unknown
Precipitation

PY - Spray

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 25 Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

The first column represents the intensity or proximity of a weather phenomenon. These have
the following meaning:

• - meaning light
• + meaning heavy
• VC meaning in the vicinity of, but not at, the observation point
• If there is no qualifier (+ or -) in front of precipitation then the precipitation is moderate

The second column in the table, bearing the title Descriptor, contains letters which add detail
to each weather phenomenon; for example, BC means patches, and is frequently used to
describe fog, SH means showers, and TS means thunderstorm.

The last three columns in the table contain codes which describe the weather phenomena
themselves.

The column headed Precipitation contains codes for drizzle, rain, snow, hail etc. The next
column covers those weather phenomena which are classified as Obscurations; these include
mist, fog, smoke, and ash.

The last column in the table contains those weather phenomena which have not already been
mentioned in the table. This group mainly consists of the more unusual weather events that
are rarely reported in the United Kingdom.

Referring to the weather group of the partially complete METAR which indicated heavy showers
of rain, +SHRA, we see that + means heavy, SH indicates showers and RA stands for rain.

Thunderstorms
A Thunderstorm report will appear in a METAR if thunder has been heard within the last 10
minutes.
Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

A thunderstorm is represented by the letters TS. If there is no precipitation, the letters TS will
appear on their own. However, if there is precipitation, a further two letters, which signify the
type of precipitation, are inserted after the TS. For example, if there is rain observed from the
thunderstorm, TSRA will appear in the METAR. If hail were to be observed, the code would
read TSGR, or TSGS, with GS meaning small hail.

Cloud Coverage
The next code-group to appear in the METAR gives detail of cloud coverage, as highlighted in red
below. In this case the highlighted code means: overcast sky, base 2000 ft, with cumulonimbus.

METAR EGTK 211020Z 26012G25KT 0800 R30/1100 +SHRA OVC020CB

25

There are several prefixes which are used to describe cloud amount, at any given level. Cloud
coverage is reported in the METAR using the following three-letter codes:

• FEW (FEW) meaning one to two eighths of cloud coverage.

• SCATTERED (SCT) meaning three to four eighths of cloud coverage.
• BROKEN (BKN) meaning five to seven eighths of cloud coverage.
• OVERCAST (OVC) meaning complete cloud coverage, or eight eighths.

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 Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)
25

Figure 25.1

Cloud base is given as a three-digit figure showing hundreds of feet. Cloud base in a METAR
is always measured as height above aerodrome level, using the current aerodrome QFE.

For example, 6 eighths of cloud (6 oktas) at 1900 ft above aerodrome level would appear in the
METAR as BKN019. 8 oktas at five hundred feet would be abbreviated to OVC005.

The only cloud types that are specified in the METAR are the significant convective clouds.
These are cumulonimbus (CB) and towering cumulus (TCU).

Looking back to the cloud group we see the code OVC020CB. This refers to an overcast sky
covered by convective cumulonimbus cloud whose base is 2000 ft above aerodrome level.

Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

The previous weather group, +SHRA, indicates that the cloud detailed in the cloud group is
producing a heavy shower of rain. If there is no cloud of operational significance (CB or TCU)
or no cloud at or below the greater of 5000 ft or the highest minimum sector altitude then the
term NSC (no significant cloud) will be used unless CAVOK (see below) is appropriate.

Obscuration
If the sky at an aerodrome is obscured for reasons other than cloud cover, and cloud coverage
cannot easily be determined, the code VV is used in place of the cloud information. VV is
followed by the vertical visibility in hundreds of feet.

METAR EGTK 231020Z 26005KT 0300 FG VV002

25

(a) (b)

The highlighted codes in this METAR indicate that:

Visibility is 300 m in fog (a), the sky is obscured and the vertical visibility is 200 ft.

This METAR decodes as follows:

METAR for Oxford/Kidlington, observed at 1020 UTC on 23rd of the month; the surface wind
is 260° True, at 5 kt; the visibility is 300 m in fog (a); the sky is obscured with a vertical visibility
of 200 ft (b).

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 25 Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

If the vertical visibility cannot be assessed, three forward slashes will replace the cloud height
figures, e.g. VV///.

The code CAVOK is frequently used in the METAR code, being the abbreviation for “cloud,
ceiling and visibility are OK.” If CAVOK is used, it will replace the visibility, RVR, weather and
cloud groups. There are four criteria which must be met in order for CAVOK to appear in the
METAR. These are:

• the visibility must be 10 kilometres or more.

• the height of the lowest cloud must be no less than 5000 ft, or the level of highest minimum
sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
• there must be no cumulonimbus or ‘towering cumulus’ (TCU) present.
• there must be no significant weather at or in the vicinity of the aerodrome.

METAR EGTK 231020Z 26012G25KT 220V300 CAVOK

Temperature and Dew Point

The temperature and dew point constitute the next group in the METAR code. The
temperature and dew point code is simply a two-digit number giving the air temperature,
with a forward slash, followed by another two-digit number which indicates the dew point.
Both temperatures are measured in degrees Celsius. For example, the code 10/02 indicates
that the air temperature is plus 10°C, and the dew point is plus 2°C. If either figure is negative,
the prefix M will be used, as in 10/M02. The dew point in the example just given is minus 2°C.

Note: the normal mathematical convention of rounding 0.5 to the next highest digit is used. So
+1.5 would be reported as ‘02’, and -1.5 would be reported as ‘M01’. -0.5 would be reported
as M00.

METAR EGTK 231020Z 26012G25KT 220V300 CAVOK 10/M02

Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

This METAR decodes as follows:

METAR for Oxford/Kidlington, observed at 1020 UTC on 23rd of the month; the surface wind is
260° (True) at 12 knots, gusting to 25 knots and varying in direction from 220° (T) to 300° (T);
the visibility is 10 km or more, with no cloud below 5000 ft; there are no CB or TCU and there
is no significant weather at, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome; the air temperature is +10°C
and the dew point is -2°C.

QNH
The next METAR code is the QNH. The QNH will be represented by the letter Q, followed
by a four digit number representing the actual pressure value. If the QNH is less than 1000
25

hectopascals, the value will be preceded by a zero. For example, a QNH of 991 hectopascals
would appear as Q0991.

METAR EGTK 231020Z 26012G25KT 220V300 9999 -RA FEW060 SCT120 10/M02 Q0991

It is important to note that the only pressure value given in a METAR is the QNH. The QNH
is always rounded down for safety reasons, if there are digits after the decimal point; for
instance, if the QNH were 991.7 hectopascals, the QNH would be reported as Q0991.

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 Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)
25
In N. America QNH is reported in inches of mercury. The letter ‘A’ is used to indicate this, e.g.
A2989 means a QNH of 29.89 inches of mercury.

The above METAR decodes as follows:

METAR for Oxford/Kidlington observed at 1020 UTC on 23rd of the month; the surface wind
is 260° (T) at 12 kt, gusting to 25 kt, and variable in direction from 220° (T) to 300° (T);
the prevailing visibility is 10 km or more with light rain; there are 1 to 2 oktas of cloud at
6000 ft and 3 to 4 oktas at 12 000 ft; the air temperature is +10° C and the dew point is -2° C;
the QNH is 991 hectopascals.

Recent Weather
If there has been recent significant weather, either in the past hour, or since the last METAR
was issued, and if the significant weather has ceased, or reduced in intensity, a METAR code
group beginning with RE will appear. RE stands for recent. If there has been a thunderstorm
during the hour, but which has now abated, giving only light rain, the present weather is
reported as light rain, –RA; the fact that there have been thunderstorms in the past hour is
reported by the code RETS:

METAR EGTK 231020Z 26012G25KT 220V300 9999 –RA FEW060 SCT120 10/M02 Q0991 RETS

Windshear
Although not currently issued at United Kingdom airfields, windshear information may
be reported in the METAR. This will simply be denoted by the letters WS, followed by the
necessary details, such as WS ALL RWY, meaning windshear on all runways, or WS 30,
meaning windshear present on Runway 30.

METAR EGTK 231020Z 26012G25KT 220V300 9999 –RA FEW060 SCT120 10/M02 Q0991 RETS

Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

WS ALL RWY

TREND, BECMG, TEMPO

A TREND forecast is valid for 2 hours after the time of the observation of the METAR, and
constitutes the final section of the METAR. The change in weather conditions indicated by the
code, TREND, can be further qualified by the codes, BECMG, meaning becoming, or TEMPO
meaning temporarily.

BECMG indicates that the change in the present weather will be long-lasting. TEMPO, on the
other hand, means that the change is temporary, and that the different conditions will prevail
for periods of less than one hour, only, and no more than half the time period, in aggregate.
The codes may be followed by a time period in hours and minutes. The time periods given may
25

be preceded by FM meaning from, TL meaning until, or AT meaning at.

For example, TEMPO FM1020 TL1220 1000 +SHRA translates as: temporarily, from 1020Z to
1220Z, the visibility will reduce to 1000 metres, in heavy showers of rain.

If there is no expected change in the meteorological conditions being forecast by the METAR,
the code NOSIG is used to indicate that no significant change is expected in the next two
hours.
METAR EGTK 231020Z 26012G25KT 220V300 9999 –RA FEW060 SCT120 10/M02 Q0991 RETS
WS ALL RWY NOSIG

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 25 Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

Runway State Group

A runway state group will be added to a METAR or SPECI (see below) when there is significant
contamination on the runway. The format is RXX/XXXXXX the runway designator followed by
an oblique then 6 digits describing the contamination state.

Runway Designator
R27 = Runway 27 or R27L = runway 27 left
R88 = All runways
R99 = A repetition of the last message received because no new information received

Runway Deposits - 1st digit

0 = Clear and dry
1 = Damp
2 = Wet or water patches
3 = Rime or frost covered (depth normally less than 1 mm)
4 = Dry snow
5 = Wet snow
6 = Slush
7 = Ice
8 = Compacted or rolled snow
9 = Frozen ruts or ridges
/ = Type of deposit not reported (e.g. due to runway clearance in progress)

Extent of Runway Contamination - 2nd digit

1 = 10% or less
2 = 11% to 25%
5 = 26% to 50%
9 = 51% to 100%
/ = Not reported (e.g. due to runway clearance in progress)
Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

Depth of Deposit - 3rd & 4th digits

The quoted depth is the mean number of readings or, if operationally significant, the greatest
depth measured.
00 = less than 1 mm
01 = 1 mm etc. through to ...
90 = 90 mm
91 = not used
92 = 10 cm
93 = 15 cm
94 = 20 cm
95 = 25 cm
25

96 = 30 cm
97 = 35 cm
98 = 40 cm or more
99 = Runway(s) non-operational due to snow, slush, ice, large drifts or runway clearance, but
depth not reported
// = Depth of deposit operationally not significant or not measurable

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 Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)
25
Friction Coefficient or Braking Action - 5th & 6th digits
The mean value is transmitted or, if operationally significant, the lowest value.
For example:
28 = Friction coefficient 0.28
35 = Friction coefficient 0.35
or
91 = Braking action: Poor
92 = Braking action: Medium/Poor
93 = Braking action: Medium
94 = Braking action: Medium/Good
95 = Braking action: Good
99 = Figures unreliable (e.g. if equipment has been used which does not measure satisfactorily
in slush or loose snow)
// = Braking action not reported

Note 1:
CLRD. If contamination conditions on all runways cease to exist, a group consisting of the code
R88/, the abbreviation CLRD, and the Braking Action, is sent.

Note 2:
Within the UK friction coefficient measurements are only made on runways contaminated
by ice (gritted or ungritted) and dry or compacted snow. Where contamination is caused by
water, slush or wet snow then the friction coefficient or braking action should be reported as
//.

Note 3:
It should be noted that runways can only be inspected as frequently as conditions permit,
so that a re-issue of a previous half hourly report does not necessarily mean that the runway
has been inspected again during this period, but might mean that no significant change is
apparent.

Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

Note 4:
It is emphasized that this reporting system is completely independent of the normal NOTAM
system and these reports are not used by AIS for amending SNOWTAM received from
originators.

If the aerodrome is closed due to contamination of runways, the abbreviation SNOCLO is used
in place of a runway state group.

Special Reports
A variation on the METAR is the Special Report. A Special Report, which is denoted by the
abbreviation, SPECI, has the same format as a METAR except that the code SPECI will replace
25

METAR at the beginning of the report. A SPECI will be issued when the weather conditions
significantly change in the period between routine observations. A SPECI can be issued to
indicate either an improvement or a deterioration in the weather.

SPECI EGTK 231025Z 26012G25KT 220V300 2000 +RA OVC010 5/M02 Q0991 RETS WS ALL
RWY NOSIG

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 25 Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)

Auto
Many aerodromes which are not used on a regular basis, or have limited staff available, have
automatic meteorological stations which generate the METARs. This is an example of such a
METAR:

EGDL 070650Z AUTO 03013KT //// // FEW110/// 09/06 Q1023 =

Note that where a field cannot be determined it is not omitted but replaced by ‘/’. So at
Lyneham the visibility, weather and type of cloud cannot be determined and these groups
have been replaced by a ‘/’ for each element of the group.

End of Message
An equals sign (=) appears at the end of the METAR to denote that the message is complete.

METAR EGTK 231020Z 26012G25KT 220V300 9999 –RA FEW060 SCT120 10/M02 Q0991 RETS
WS ALL RWY NOSIG =

Summary
Although METARs may appear confusing to the uninitiated, with practice, it is quite a simple
task to decode a METAR accurately and speedily. Pilots should consult METARs for departure
and destination aerodromes and also for other aerodromes along the planned route, and, in
particular, for aerodromes upwind of a destination aerodrome, in order to get a picture of the
weather which is approaching the destination.

If the aerodrome of destination does not issue a METAR, consult a METAR from an aerodrome
in the vicinity of your destination.
Meteorological Aerodrome Reports (METARs)
25

480
 Questions
25
Questions
1. When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for:

a. 1 hour after the time of observation

b. 2 hours after the time of observation
c. 2 hours after it was issued
d. 1 hour after it was issued

2. A METAR may be defined as being:

a. a routine weather report for a large area

b. an aerodrome forecast containing a TREND for the next 2 hours
c. a routine weather report concerning a specific aerodrome
d. a forecast weather report concerning a specific aerodrome

3. In the METAR shown below, the cloud base has been omitted. At what height
might you expect the cloud base to be?

28005KT 9999 ?????? 12/11 Q1020 NOSIG

a. SCT042
b. OVC090
c. SCT280
d. OVC005

4. Which of the following correctly decodes the METAR shown below?

METAR EGKL 130350Z 32005KT 0400N DZ BCFG VV002

a. Observed on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320° True,
05 kt, minimum visibility 400 metres to the north, moderate drizzle, with fog
patches and a vertical visibility of 200 ft

b. Reported on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320° magnetic,
05 kt, minimum visibility 400 metres to the north, moderate drizzle, with fog
patches and a vertical visibility of 200 ft

c. Valid on the 13th day of the month between 0300 and 1500Z, surface wind
320°T/05 kt, minimum visibility 400 metres, drizzle, with fog patches and a
vertical visibility of 200 ft
Questions

d. Valid between 1300 and 1350Z, surface wind 320°T/05 kt, minimum visibility
400 metres to the north, moderate drizzle, with fog patches and a vertical
visibility of 200 ft
25

5. A temperature group of 28/24 in a METAR means that:

a. the temperature is 28°C at the time of reporting, but it is expected to become

24°C by the end of the TREND report
b. the dry bulb is 28°C and the wet bulb temperature is 24°C
c. the dew point is 28°C and the temperature is 24°C
d. the temperature is 28°C and the dew point is 24°C

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 25 Questions

6. Providing the minimum sector altitude is not a factor, CAVOK in a TAF or

METAR:

a. means visibility 10 km or more, and no cloud below 5000 ft

b. means visibility 10 km or more, and few cloud below 5000 ft
c. means visibility 10 nm or more, and no cloud below 5000 ft
d. means visibility 10 nm or more, and no scattered cloud below 5000 ft

7. The visibility group R20/0050 in a METAR means:

a. as measured by runway measuring equipment for runway 20, a current

visibility of 50 metres
b. for runway 20, a current visibility of 500 metres measured by runway visual
range equipment
c. the runway visibility reported is 50 metres as measured by runway visual range
equipment in the last 20 minutes
d. on runway 20 the current viability is less than 5000 metres

8. The code “BECMG FM 1100 –RASH” in a METAR means:

a. from 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers

b. becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers
c. becoming from 1100UTC rain showers
d. becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers
Questions
25

482
 25 Answers

Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
b c d a d a a b
Answers
25

484
 Chapter

26
Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs)

Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .487
Decoding TAFs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .487
The Date-Time Information . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .487
Wind . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .488
Weather . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .488
Cloud. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .488
Forecast Change Indicators. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .488
The From (FM) Group. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .489
The Becoming (BECMG) Group . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .489
The Temporary (TEMPO) Group . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .489
The Probability (PROB) Indicator . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .490
Temperature. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .490
Amendment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .490
End of Message . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .490
Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .491
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .494

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 Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFS)
26
Introduction
Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs) are forecasts of meteorological conditions at an
aerodrome, as opposed to the report of actual, present conditions as given in a METAR. The
format of the TAF is similar, however, to that of a METAR, with many of the coding groups
identical in both the METAR and TAF. TAFs usually cover a period of between 9 and 30 hours.
9-hour TAFs are issued every 3 hours, and 12 to 24-hour TAFs every 6 hours.

9 Hour TAFs
KIRKWALL TAF EGPA 160602Z 1607/1616 15010 9999
SCT012 BKN030 PROB320 TEMPO 1607/1613 7000 -RADZ
SCT008 BKN012=
ABERDEEN TAF EGPD 160656Z 1607/1616 13008KT 4000HZ
TEMPO 1609/1612 5000 HZ BKN007=
INVERNESS TAF EGPE 160656Z 1607/1616 VRB03KT 9999
FEW035=
SANTIAGO TAF LEST 160800Z 1610/1619 24007KT 9999
SCT040=
VALENCIA TAF LEVC 160800Z 1610/1619 12008KT CAVOK
TEMPO 1614/1619 05006KT=

Decoding TAFs
The first code which appears in the TAF is the identifier, TAF. The next code is the ICAO location
indicator of the aerodrome for which the report is issued. The example given below is for
EGTK, Oxford, Kidlington, airport.

TAF EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 -SHRA SCT010 BKN018=

Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs)

The Date-Time Information
As we have established, the TAF gives a forecast for a period of time. Consequently, the date-
time information in TAFs is slightly different from that given in a METAR. In the TAF, there are
two items of date-time information.

The first date-time group, highlighted in red below, indicates the date and time at which the
TAF was issued.

TAF EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 -SHRA SCT010 BKN018=

26

The digits 13 identify the day of the month; this information is followed by the time in hours
and minutes UTC. The above TAF, then, was issued on 13th of the month, at 0600 hours, UTC.
In the TAF, Coordinated Universal Time, UTC, is indicated by the letter, Z.

The next code-group identifies the period of validity of the TAF. The information here uses an
eight-digit format. The first four digits show the start date and time, so 1307 indicates that the
TAF’s validity period starts on the 13th at 0700Z. The next four digits are the end date and time

487
 26 Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFS)

of the validity period. So, in the example given below, the date and time of the origin of the
report is 0600 UTC on 13th of the month, and the validity period, highlighted in red, is from
the 13th at 0700 UTC to 1600 UTC on the same day. This example, then, is a nine hour TAF.

TAF EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 –SHRA SCT010 BKN018=

Wind
The wind codes in the TAF are the same as in the METAR. Our example TAF shows a mean
wind direction of 310° (True), at a wind speed of 15 knots.

TAF EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 –SHRA SCT010 BKN018=

Weather
The weather coding in the TAF is also the same as in the METAR. In our example, the visibility
is 8000 m with light showers of rain.

TAF EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 –SHRA SCT010 BKN018=

Cloud
Cloud coding in the TAF can be slightly different from the METAR.

If there is no cloud below the greater of 5000 ft or minimum sector altitude and if there is no
CB or TCU and CAVOK is not appropriate, the code NSC is used, which stands for no significant
cloud.

As with METARs, only CB or TCU clouds will be included in TAFs.

TAF EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 –SHRA SCT010 BKN018=

Our example TAF, above, is forecasting 3-4 oktas of cloud at 1000 ft, with 5-7 oktas of cloud at
1800 ft.
Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs)

The main TAF information ends with the cloud group. TAFs do not contain information on
temperature and dew point, QNH, recent weather, windshear or runway state information.
However, some countries do forecast maximum and minimum temperatures for the forecast
period (see below).

Only significant changes of weather follow the cloud group. These significant changes are
introduced by codes classified as forecast change indicators.

Forecast Change Indicators

There are distinctive TAF codes which indicate that a change is expected in some or all of the
26

forecast meteorological conditions. The nature of the change can vary: it may, for instance, be
a rapid, gradual or temporary change. These codes are FM (meaning FROM), BECMG (meaning
BECOMING), TEMPO (meaning TEMPORARILY), and PROB (meaning PROBABILITY).

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 Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFS)
26
The From (FM) Group
The FROM group in a TAF is introduced by the code FM and marks the fact that a rapid change
in the forecast conditions is expected, which will lead to the appearance of a new set of
prevailing conditions becoming established at the aerodrome.

TAF EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 –SHRA SCT010 BKN018 FM 131220 27017KT
4000 BKN010=

The change indicator FM is followed by a six-digit date and time group. The first two digits
are the day of the month followed by the hours and minutes to indicate the time at which the
change is expected to begin. In our example FM 131220 means that certain weather changes
will occur from the 13th at 1220 UTC. This weather forecast following the code FM supersedes
the TAF forecast, prior to 1220 UTC.

The FM indicator, therefore, introduces what is effectively a new forecast, associated with a
new weather situation, and which supersedes the previous forecast. The FM group contains all
the elements of a complete TAF forecast: wind, visibility, weather and cloud.

In the example below, highlighted in red, we read that from the 13th at 1220Z until the end of
the TAF period, the wind will change to be 270° (T) at 17 kt, with a prevailing visibility of 4000
metres, and broken cloud at 1000 ft.

TAF EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 –SHRA SCT010 BKN018 FM 131220 27017KT
4000 BKN010=

The forecast following the FM indicator continues either to the end of the current TAF, or until
another change indicator occurs in the TAF.

The Becoming (BECMG) Group

The change group BECMG, meaning becoming, is followed by an eight-figure date and time
group which indicates the period during which there will be a permanent change in the
forecast conditions.

Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs)

The forecast change, introduced by BECMG, will occur at an unspecified time within the time
period stated.

The following example TAF indicates that, at some time on the 13th between 0900 UTC and
1100 UTC, but definitely by 1100 UTC, the prevailing conditions will give 5000 metres visibility,
in light rain. There is no new wind information after BECMG, so the inference is that the wind
will be as previously forecast: 310° (T) at 15 kt.

TAF EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 –SHRA SCT010 BKN018 BECMG 1309/1311 5000
–RA=
26

The Temporary (TEMPO) Group

TEMPO, meaning temporarily, indicates that a change in meteorological conditions will occur
at any time within the specified time period, but is expected to last less than one hour each
time, and, in aggregate, will last no longer than half the time period of the complete forecast.
The TEMPO indicator is followed by an 8-digit date and time group indicating the hours
between which the temporary conditions are expected to begin and end.

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 26 Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFS)

The example TAF, which follows, tells us that sometime on the 13th between 1200 UTC and
1400 UTC, the visibility will fall to 4000 metres, with the weather being thunderstorms and
moderate rain. There will be 5 - 7 oktas of cumulonimbus cloud at 1000 ft. However, after
1400 UTC, the weather will return to the conditions specified in the first part of the message.

TAF EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 –SHRA SCT010 BKN018 TEMPO 1312/1314 4000
TSRA BKN010CB=

The Probability (PROB) Indicator

The code PROB (meaning probability) in a TAF indicates the probability of the occurrence of
specified weather phenomena.

The probability indication is a percentage probability of the occurrence of significant weather

events such as thunderstorms and associated precipitation. A 30% probability is considered
low, while a 40% probability indicates that it is highly likely that the weather being forecast
will actually occur. The code PROB can be followed by a time group of its own, and/or by an
indicator, such as BECMG or TEMPO.

The example TAF below tells us that there is a high probability that, between 1000 UTC and
1400 UTC, there will be thunderstorms with heavy rain and hail, and from 3 to 4 oktas of
cumulonimbus clouds at 500 ft.

The storms will not last longer than one hour at a time and less than two hours in total, which
is one half of the period to which the TEMPO applies.

TAF EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 –SHRA SCT010 BKN018 PROB40 TEMPO
1310/1314 +TSRAGR SCT005CB=

Temperature
Some meteorological authorities include forecast maximum and minimum temperatures
likely to be experienced in the forecast period of the TAF. The format is:
Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFs)

TX15/2016Z, meaning maximum temperature is expected to be 15°C at 201600Z.

TN09/2105Z, meaning minimum temperature is expected to be 9°C at 210500Z.

Amendment
When a TAF requires an amendment, the amended forecast may be indicated by the code
AMD, highlighted in red, after the TAF identifier, as shown below:

TAF AMD EGTK 130600Z 1307/1316 31015KT 8000 –SHRA SCT010 BKN018 PROB40 TEMPO
26

1310/1314 +TSRAGR SCT005CB=

Used correctly, TAFs will enable a pilot to make accurate and informed decisions about a
planned flight, including the expected conditions en-route, and at destination and alternate
aerodromes.

End of Message
An equals sign (=) appears at the end of the TAF to denote that the message is complete.

490
 Questions
26
Questions
1. The weather group RERA in a TAF means:

a. rain in retreat
b. recent rain
c. returning rain
d. retreating rain

2. TEMPO in a TAF means:

a. a temporary variation to the main forecast that will last for less than one hour,
or if recurring, for less than half the period indicated
b. a temporary variation to the main forecast lasting less than an hour
c. the development of unpredictable conditions that may be a hazard to aviation
d. a variation to the base line conditions laid down in the main forecast that will
continue to prevail until the end of the main forecast

3. The weather group SHSNRA in a TAF means:

a. slight showers of snow and rain

b. moderate showers of snow and rain
c. heavy showers of snow and rain
d. showers of snow and rain

4. A TAF time group 0202/0220 means that the TAF:

a. is a short range forecast only, at 0220 UTC

b. was observed at 0220 UTC
c. was issued at 0220 UTC
d. is a long range forecast for the 18 hour period from the 2nd at 0200 UTC to
the 2nd at 2000 UTC

5. BECMG 1618/1620 BKN030 in a TAF means:

a. becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft AGL
b. becoming from 1820 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft AGL
c. becoming from 1820 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft AGL
d. becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft AGL

6. Which of the following correctly decodes a TAF that reads:

EGLL 1306/1315 VRB08KT 9999 SCT025=

Questions

a. Valid from 0600 UTC to 1500 UTC; surface wind variable at 8 kt; visibility
10 NM or more; with a cloud base of 2500 ft above mean sea level
b. Observed at 0615 UTC; the surface wind was variable in direction and speed;
averaging 8 kt; with a visibility of 10 km or more, and a cloud base of 2500 ft
26

above aerodrome level

c. Valid from the 13th at 0600 UTC to the 13th at 1500 UTC; surface wind will be
variable at 8 kt, with a visibility 10 km or more; 3-4 oktas of cloud with a base
of 2500 ft above aerodrome level
d. Observed at 0600 UTC; the surface wind was variable in direction and speed;
with a visibility of 10 km and a cloud base of 2500 ft above ground level

491
 26 Questions

7. The correct decode for a TAF 1206/1215 14025G40KT 1200 BR would be:

a. the forecast is for a nine hour period from 0615 UTC with a surface wind of
140° M at 25 kt gusting 40 kt, visibility 1200 metres in mist
b. the forecast is for a nine hour period from 0615 UTC with a surface wind of
140° T at 25, visibility 1200 metres in fog
c. the forecast is for a nine hour period from 0600 to 1500 UTC with a surface
wind of 140° M at 25 kt gusting 40 kt, visibility 1200 metres in broken patches
d. the forecast is for a nine hour period from the 12th at 0600 to 1500 UTC on
the same day with a surface wind of 140° T at 25 kt gusting 40 kt, visibility
1200 metres in mist
Questions
26

492
 Answers
26
Answers
1 2 3 5 6 7
b a b d c d

Answers
26

494
 Significant Weather and Wind Charts
27
Symbols for Significant Weather, Tropopause, Freezing Level Etc

Figure 27.2 Significant weather symbology

* In flight documentation for flights operating up to FL100. This symbol refers to “squall
line”.

** The following information should be included at the side of the chart: radioactive

Significant Weather and Wind Charts

materials symbol; latitude/longitude of accident site; date and time of accident; check
NOTAM for further information

*** The following information should be included at the side of the chart: volcanic eruption
symbol; name and international number of volcano (if known); latitude/longitude; date
and time of the first eruption. Check SIGMETs and NOTAM or ASHTAM for volcanic ash.

**** This symbol does not refer to icing due to precipitation coming into contact with an
aircraft which is at a very low temperature.
27

***** Visible ash cloud symbol applies only to model VAG not to SIGWX charts.

NOTE: Height indications between which phenomena are expected, top above base per chart
legend.

499
 28 Questions

6. In the weather briefing room during the preflight phase of a passenger flight
from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing
importance at the time:

EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir blw fl 050
south of 53n wkn =

LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst
limm fir stnr nc =

EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for london fir isol cb embd in lyr
cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst mov e
wkn =

Which decision is correct?

a. Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL250
b. You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the
route to be flown
c. Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy
thunderstorms at planned FL310 you select a higher flight level (FL370)
d. You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along
the route would demand too much of the passengers

7. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.

FCFR31 281400
LFBD 2815/2824 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 2816/2820 26020G30KT 8000
+SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 2816/2820 TSRA =

Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on
the approach to Bordeaux ?

a. Continuous moderate rain

b. Light drizzle and fog
c. Moderate snow showers
d. Heavy rain showers

8. What does the term TREND signify?

a. It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily

b. It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
c. It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-
hourly intervals
d. It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions

9. Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:

TAF 2407/2416 VRB02KT CAVOK =
Questions

0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS =

What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports?

a. That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have
28

predicted earlier in the morning

b. That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF
c. That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the TAF
d. That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no
way the latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF

524
 Questions
28
10. Which statement is true?

a. QNH can be 1013.25 only for a station at MSL

b. QNH can be only lower than 1013.25 hPa
c. QNH can not be 1013.25 hPa
d. QNH is lower than 1013.25 hPa at any time

11. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?

LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat
fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf =

a. Severe turbulence observed below FL260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to
cross this area above FL380
b. Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected
north of the Alps
c. Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps.
Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL260 and FL380
d. Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the
Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL260

12. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:

FCNL31 281500
EHAM 2816/2901 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 2816/2818 12015G25KT SCT008
BKN013 TEMPO 2818/2823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2823/2901 25020KT
8000 NSW BKN020 =
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC.

What is the minimum visibility forecast for ETA Amsterdam ?

a. 5 NM
b. 6 km
c. 3 km
d. 5 km

13. At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are
respectively:
T = - 0.5°C, DP = -1.5°C.

In the METAR message transmitted by this station, the “temperature group” will
be:

a. M00/M01
b. M01/M02
c. 00/M01
d. M01/M01
Questions
28

525
 28 Questions

14. Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport

TAF LSZH 2507/2516 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 2508/2510 0800 VV002
BECMG 2510/2512 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 2513/2516 6000 SCT007 =

Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200
UTC?

a. Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 ft, wind speed 5 kt

b. Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloud base 500 ft, wind speed 5 kt
c. Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230°, cloud base 500 ft
d. Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 ft, calm

15. In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the
coming night the highest?

a. 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =

b. 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
c. 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
d. 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =

16. In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued?

a. Marked mountain waves

b. Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome
c. Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome
d. A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR

17. What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on?

a. The average speed of the previous 30 minutes

b. The strongest gust in the previous hour
c. The actual speed at the time of recording
d. The average speed of the previous 10 minutes

18. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?
(MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)

a. LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =

b. LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =
c. LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =
d. LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 =

19. What does the term METAR signify?

a. A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times

daily
b. A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief
Questions

prognostic report
c. A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally
issued in half-hourly intervals
d. A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR
28

526
 Questions
28
20. Does the following report make sense?
LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG

a. The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when
the meteorological visibility is more than 2 km
b. The report is nonsense, because it is impossible to observe a meteorological
visibility of 5 km if shallow fog is reported
c. The report is not possible, because, with a temperature of 2°C and a dew
point of 2°C there must be uniform fog
d. The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog
below eye level

21. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is:

a. measured with ceilometers alongside the runway

b. usually better than meteorological visibility
c. reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000 m
d. reported in TAFs and METARs

22. When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor?

a. With gusts of at least 25 kt

b. With gusts of at least 35 kt
c. When gusts are at least 10 kt above the mean wind speed
d. When gusts are at least 15 kt above the mean wind speed

23. What does the term SIGMET signify?

a. A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report

b. A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued
at half-hourly intervals
c. A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
d. A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several
times daily

24. In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing
conditions on the runway?

a. GAFOR
b. TAF
c. METAR
d. SIGMET

25. A SPECI is:

a. an aviation routine weather report

b. a warning for special weather phenomena
c. a forecast for special weather phenomena
Questions

d. an aviation selected special weather report

28

527
 28 Questions

26. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.

LSZH 0610/0619 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 0610/0615 23012KT
6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 0615/0618 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=

The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:

a. 1000 ft
b. 1500 m
c. 5000 ft
d. 1500 ft

27. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.

FCFR31 281400
LFBD 2815/2824 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 2816/2820 26020G30KT 8000
+SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 2816/2820 TSRA =

Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest
quoted visibility forecast?

a. 10 or more km
b. 8 km
c. 8 NM
d. 10 NM

28. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?

a. 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =

b. 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =
c. 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =
d. 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =

29. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be
potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ?

a. SIGMET
b. ATIS
c. SPECI
d. TAF

30. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.

FCNL31 281500
EHAM 2816/2901 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 2816/2818 12015G25KT SCT008
BKN013 TEMPO 2818/2823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2803/2901 25020KT
8000 NSW BKN020 =

Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what
surface wind is forecast ?
Questions

a. 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt
b. 140° / 10 kt
c. 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
28

d. 250° / 20 kt

528
 Questions
28
31. Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced
strong clear air turbulence in certain airspace. What is the consequence of these
reports?

a. The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed

b. The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI
c. The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning
d. The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET

32. In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken:

160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG =
160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG =
160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG =
161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG =
161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG =
161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS =
161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG =
161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG =

What do you conclude based on these observations?

a. A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during
late afternoon
b. A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during
late afternoon
c. Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station
d. A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during
late afternoon

33. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 0918/0921 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 0921/0924 0500 FG VV001

What does the abbreviation “PROB30” mean?

a. Change expected in less than 30 minutes

b. Probability of 30%
c. Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes
d. The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 ft

34. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 2218/2221 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2221/2224 0500 FG VV001
What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?

a. 500 m
b. 2000 m
c. Between 500 m and 2000 m
d. Between 0 m and 1000 m
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35. What is a TREND forecast?

a. An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours

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b. A route forecast valid for 24 hours

c. A routine report
d. A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours

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36. SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to:

a. VFR operations only

b. heavy aircraft only
c. all aircraft
d. light aircraft only

37. Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of aquaplaning?

a. SA
b. +RA
c. FG
d. BCFG

38. In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog
formation, in the coming night, the highest?

a. 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =

b. VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =
c. 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =
d. VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =

39. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?

a. 1 hour
b. 30 minutes
c. 2 hours
d. 9 hours

40. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1918/1921 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 1921/1924 0500 FG VV001

What does the abbreviation “BKN004” mean?

a. 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m

b. 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m
c. 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 ft
d. 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 ft

41. What is a SPECI?

a. A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when

required
b. An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours
c. A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant
change of the weather conditions have been observed
d. A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours
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42. Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few
hours?

a. 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG =

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b. 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =

c. 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG =
d. 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 =

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43. Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1318/1321 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 1321/1324 0500 FG VV001

What does the abbreviation “VV001” mean?

a. Vertical visibility 100 m

b. Vertical visibility 100 ft
c. RVR less than 100 m
d. RVR greater than 100 m

44. If CAVOK is reported then:

a. low level windshear has not been reported

b. any CBs have a base above 5000 ft
c. no low drifting snow is present
d. no clouds are present

45. The following weather message

EDDM 2413/2422 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 2415/2417 00000KT 0500 FG
VV002 TEMPO 2420/2422 0400 FG VV001
is a:

a. 24 hour TAF
b. SPECI
c. METAR
d. 9 hour TAF

46. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?

25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW =

a. Mean wind speed 20-38 kt, meteorological visibility 1200 metres, temperature
23°C
b. Broken, cloud base 600 ft and 1500 ft, temperature 18°C
c. Wind 250°, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa
d. Gusts of 38 kt, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18°C

47. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?
(MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)

a. LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
b. LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
c. LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =
d. LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =

48. On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed
with intervals of:
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a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 3 hours
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49. The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the:

a. highest value of the A-, B- and C-position

b. lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position
c. value representative of the touchdown zone
d. average value of the A-, B- and C-position

50. In the TAF for Delhi (India), during the summer, for the time of your landing you
note: TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last
in any one instance ?

a. 60 minutes
b. 120 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 20 minutes

51. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 3018/3021 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 3021/3024 0500 FG VV001
What does the “BECMG” data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?

a. A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC
b. Many short term changes in the original weather
c. Many long term changes in the original weather
d. The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC

52. The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above:

a. airfield level
b. mean sea level
c. the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
d. the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station

53. Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428
What must you consider when making performance calculations?

a. The braking action will be medium to good

b. The runway will be wet
c. Aquaplaning conditions
d. The friction coefficient is 0.28

54. Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the
next few hours?

a. 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG =

b. 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG =
c. 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000 =
d. 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS =
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55. The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to:

a. magnetic north
b. the 0-meridian
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c. grid north
d. true north

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1. An aerodrome VOLMET report for 0450 UTC, during the autumn in the United
Kingdom is:

Surface wind 150/05 kt

Visibility 2000 m
Weather Nil
Temperature 9°C
Dew point 8°C
QNH 1029 hPa
Trend NOSIG

From the information above, what type of pressure system, do you deduce, is
dominating the region?

a. An anti-cyclone
b. A cyclone
c. A low pressure
d. A trough

2. A VOLMET is defined as:

a. a radio broadcast of selected aerodrome forecasts

b. a continuous telephone message of selected aerodrome METARs
c. a continuous radio broadcast of selected aerodrome actual weather
observations and forecasts
d. a teleprinter message of selected aerodrome TAFs and METARs

3. VOLMETs are updated:

a. every hour
b. 4 times a day
c. 2 times a day
d. every half hour

4. VOLMETs are:

a. air to ground radio transmissions on HF and VHF

b. air to ground radio transmissions on HF and SVHF
c. ground to air radio transmissions on LF and VHF
d. ground to air radio transmissions on HF and VHF
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5. An aerodrome VOLMET report for 0450 UTC, during the autumn in the United
Kingdom is:

Surface wind 150/05 kt

Visibility 2000 m
Weather Nil
Temperature 9°C
Dew point 8°C
QNH 1029 hPa
Trend NOSIG

Given that sunrise is at 0600 UTC, what might you expect during the 2 hours
following this report?

a. CAVOK
b. Radiation Fog
c. Low Stratus
d. Advection Fog

6. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

a. Any time the aerodrome or weather information changes

b. Only when the aerodrome information changes
c. Every 30 minutes
d. Every hour

7. To minimize VHF frequency use, the ATIS can be broadcast on the voice frequency
of which navigation aid?

a. ILS
b. NDB
c. VOR
d. GPS

8. In an ATIS broadcast, what is used to identify the current report?

a. An alphabetical code
b. A number
c. A validity number
d. An issue time

9. What is the ATIS?

a. A chart of current aerodrome and weather information

b. A continuous broadcast of current aerodrome and weather information
c. A continuous broadcast of weather information
d. A printed text report of current aerodrome and weather information

10. In what frequency band is the ATIS normally broadcast?

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a. LF
b. HF
c. ADF
d. VHF
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1. MSA given as 12 000 ft, flying over mountains in temperatures +9°C, QNH set as
1023 (obtained from a nearby airfield). What will the true altitude be when
12 000 ft is reached?

a. 11 940
b. 11 148
c. 12 210
d. 12 864

2. Why do TRS not occur in the SE Pacific and South Atlantic?

a. Low water temperatures

b. No Coriolis effect
c. SE trade crosses Equator
d. SE trade winds blow there

3. In the Northern Hemisphere a man observes a low pressure system passing him to
the south, from west to east. What wind will he experience?

a. Backs then Veers

b. Constantly Backs
c. Veers then Backs
d. Backs then steady

4. When would a rotor cloud be ahead of a Cb?

a. Mature stage
b. Cumulus stage
c. Dissipating stage
d. Initial stage

5. What are the conditions under which advection fog will be formed?

a. Warm moist air over cold surface

b. Cold dry air over warm surface
c. Warm dry air over cold surface
d. Cold moist air over warm surface

6. What cloud does hail fall from?

a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Cu
d. Ci

7. What is a cold pool, in the Northern Hemisphere?

a. Cold air found on the lee side of the Alps in winter in a cold northwesterly air
stream
b. Cold air brought down from the north behind frontal systems
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c. Air from tropical continental origin

d. Air from Polar maritime origin only
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8. What is relative humidity dependent upon?

a. Moisture content and temperature of the air

b. Temperature of the air
c. Temperature and pressure
d. Moisture content of the air

9. If the ELR is 0.65°C/100 m:

a. atmosphere is conditionally stable

b. atmosphere is stable
c. atmosphere is unstable
d. atmosphere is stable when dry

10. Where are you most likely to find moderate to severe icing?

a. In upper levels of cumulonimbus capillatus

b. Nimbostratus
c. Stratus
d. Cirrus

11. Height of the tropopause at 50°N:

a. 11 km
b. 16 km
c. 5 km
d. 20 km

12. What are the indications of a TRS from a great distance?

a. Thick Ci
b. Thick Cbs
c. Ns
d. Sc

13. Flying form London to Bombay in January, what average wind might you expect?

a. Light easterly
b. Light westerly
c. Westerly polar front jet stream
d. Tropical easterly jet

14. What pressure systems affect the North Atlantic in summer?

a. Azores low, Scandinavian high

b. Azores low, North Canadian low
c. North Canadian low, Azores High
d. Azores high, Scandinavian High

15. A characteristic of a stable air mass:

a. lapse rate of 1°C/100 m

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b. rising air slows down and dissipates

c. lapse rate of 0.3°C/100 m
d. good visibility and showers
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16. How do you recognize high level jet streams and associated CAT?

a. High pressure centre at high level

b. Streaks of cirrus
c. High level dust
d. Lenticularis

17. Which conditions lead to mountain waves?

a. Unstable moist air, speeds <5 kt across the ridge

b. Stable air, speed, >20 kt across the ridge
c. Unstable air, speed >20 kt across the ridge
d. Stable air, speed >30 kt, parallel to the ridge

18. Where is the coldest air in a cold occlusion?

a. Behind the cold front

b. At the junction of the occlusion
c. In front of the occlusion
d. Behind the warm front

19. What causes low level cloud in front of the warm front?

a. Rain falling into the cold air

b. Rain falling into warm air
c. Warm air passing over cold surface
d. Cold air passing over warm surface

20. Where is the largest chance of squalls occurring?

a. In front of an active cold front

b. Above the occlusion along the cold front
c. Behind the cold front
d. Above the occlusion along the warm front

21. ELR is 1°C/100 m:

a. Neutral when dry

b. Absolute stability
c. Absolute instability
d. Conditional stability

22. Typical tornado diameter:

a. Less than 100 m

b. 100 - 150 m
c. 2 - 6 km
d. More than 10 km

23. In the areas of the ITCZ why are the heights of the tropopause not reported?

a. Because it is too cold

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b. Because it cannot be measured

c. Because it is likely to be above your FL
d. Because it is in the stratosphere
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24. Flying conditions in Ci cloud and horizontal visibility:

a. less than 500 m vis, light/mod clear icing

b. greater than 1000 m vis, light/mod rime ice
c. less then 500 m vis, no icing
d. greater than 1000 m vis, no icing

25. Description of radiation fog:

a. marked increase in ground wind speed

b. marked increase in wind speed close to the ground
c. ground cooling due to radiation
d. warm air over warm surface

26. Flying over an airfield, at the surface the temp. is -5°C, freezing level is at 3000 ft,
rain is falling from clouds with a base of 4000 ft caused by warm air rising above
cold air. Where would you experience icing?

a. Never
b. No icing because you are not in cloud
c. Between 3000 - 4000 ft
d. Below 3000 ft

27. Climbing out of Dhahran, Saudi Arabia on a clear night you suddenly lose your rate
of climb. Why?

a. Engine full of sand

b. Downdraft
c. Marked temperature inversion
d. VSI blocked

28. What is the composition of Ci cloud?

a. Supercooled water droplets

b. Ice crystals
c. Water droplets
d. Smoke particles

29. What cloud types are classified as medium cloud?

a. Ns + Sc
b. Ac + As
c. Cb + St
d. Ci + Cs

30. What is the approximate height of the tropopause at 50°N?

a. 14 km
b. 13 km
c. 11 km
d. 16 km
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31. Isolated TS occur mostly due to:

a. warm frontal uplift

b. cold front uplift
c. insolation
d. convection

32. What type of cloud is associated with drizzle?

a. St
b. Cb
c. Ci
d. Ac

33. Fair weather cumulus gives an indication of:

a. poor visibility
b. thunderstorms
c. turbulence
d. smooth flying below

34. What cloud type are you least likely to get icing from?

a. Ci
b. Cu
c. St
d. Ns

35. When flying from south to north in the Southern Hemisphere crossing over and
above a polar frontal jet at FL400, what might happen to the OAT?

a. Initially fall then rise

b. Initially rise then fall
c. Rise
d. Fall

36. What type of jet stream blows constantly through the Northern Hemisphere?

a. Arctic jet
b. Equatorial jet
c. Polar night jet
d. Subtropical jet

37. Why is clear ice such a problem?

a. Translucent and forms along leading edges

b. Not translucent and forms along leading edges
c. Very heavy and can affect aircraft controls and surfaces
d. Forms in clear air
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38. What best shows altocumulus lenticularis?

39. A steep pressure gradient is characterized by:

a. isobars close together, strengthened wind

b. isobars far apart, decreased wind
c. isobars close together, temperature increasing
d. isobars far apart, temperature decreasing

40. Assuming a generalized zonal distribution of winds, which zones on the diagram
contain the temperate lows?

a. t
b. t+x
c. s+y
d. u+w

41. If you fly with left drift in the Northern Hemisphere, what is happening to your true
altitude?

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stays the same
d. Cannot tell

42. What type of icing requires immediate diversion?

a. Light
b. Moderate
c. Severe
d. Extreme

43. What is the weather inside the warm sector in a frontal depression in central
Europe?

a. Fair weather Cu
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b. Low stratus and drizzle

c. Cb and thunderstorms
d. As with light rain
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44. Flying from Dakar to Rio de Janeiro, where is the ITCZ in winter?

a. > 8°S
b. 0 - 7°N
c. 8 - 12°N
d. 12 - 16°N

45. At a stationary front:

a. winds blow parallel to the isobars and front

b. winds blow perpendicular to the isobars
c. winds are always very strong
d. winds are usually gusty and variable

46. In central Europe, where are the greatest wind speeds?

a. Tropopause level
b. 5500 m
c. Where the air converges
d. Above the Alps

47. Sublimation is:

a. solid to vapour
b. vapour to liquid
c. liquid to vapour
d. liquid to solid

48. Standing in the Northern Hemisphere, north of a polar frontal depression travelling
west to east, the wind will:

a. continually veer
b. continually back
c. back then veer
d. veer then back

49. What is the coldest time of the day?

a. 1 hour before sunrise

b. 30 min before sunrise
c. At exact moment of sunrise
d. 30 min after sunrise

50. Which of the following would lead to the formation of advection fog?

a. Warm moist air over cold surface, clear night and light winds
b. Cold dry air over warm surface, clear night and light winds
c. Cold moist air over warm surface, cloud night with strong winds
d. Warm dry air over cold surface, cloudy night with moderate winds
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51. Using the radiosonde diagrams, which would most likely show ground fog?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

52. Which of the following would lead to the formation of steaming fog?

a. Cold air over warm sea

b. Warm air over cold sea
c. Cold sea near coast
d. Warm air over land

53. When is diurnal variation a maximum?

a. Clear sky, still wind

b. Clear sky, strong wind
c. OVC, still
d. OVC, windy

54. QNH at Timbuktu (200 m AMSL) is 1015 hPa. What is the QFE?
(Assume 1 hPa = 8 m)

a. 1000
b. 990
c. 1020
d. 995

55. The Arctic jet core is at:

a. 20 000 ft
b. 30 000 ft
c. 40 000 ft
d. 50 000 ft

56. If flying cross country at FL50 you first see NS, AS, CC then CI, you can expect:

a. increasing temperature
b. decreasing temperature
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c. a veer in the wind

d. increase in pressure
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57. Which is likely to cause aquaplaning?

a. +RA
b. SA
c. FG
d. DS

58. Prevailing winds in Northwest Africa will be:

a. SW monsoon in summer, NE trade winds in winter

b. SE monsoon in summer, NW trade winds in winter
c. SE trade wind in summer, NE monsoon in winter
d. SE trade wind in winter, NE monsoon in summer

59. ATC will only report wind as gusting if:

a. gust speeds exceeds mean by >15 kt

b. gusts to over 25 kt
c. gusts exceed mean by 10 kt
d. gusts to over 25 kt

60. Hill fog will be most likely when:

a. clear sky, little wind, dry air

b. humid, stable, blowing onto a range of hills
c. precipitation is lifted by air blowing over the hills
d. high RH, unstable

61. In temperate latitudes in summer what conditions would you expect in the centre
of a high pressure system?

a. TS, CB
b. calm winds, haze
c. TS, SH
d. NS

62. Above a stable layer in the lower troposphere in an old high pressure system is
called:

a. radiation inversion
b. subsidence inversion
c. frontal inversion
d. terrestrial inversion

63. If the pressure level surface bulges upwards, the pressure system is a:

a. cold low
b. warm low
c. cold high
d. warm high
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64. What is a land breeze?

a. From land over water at night

b. From land over sea by day
c. From sea over land by night
d. From sea over land by day

65. When travelling from Stockholm (55N 18E) to Rio de Janeiro (22S 80W), you
encounter:

a. polar front jet stream then subtropical jet then polar jet
b. polar front jet then 1 or 2 subtropical jets
c. one subtropical jet stream
d. one subtropical jet stream then one polar front jet

66. Why does air cool as it rises?

a. It expands
b. It contracts
c. The air is colder at higher latitudes
d. The air is colder at higher altitudes

67. When flying at FL180 in the Southern Hemisphere you experience a left crosswind.
What is happening to your true altitude if indicated altitude is constant?

a. Remains the same

b. Increasing
c. Decreasing
d. Impossible to tell

68. In a polar front jet stream in the Northern Hemisphere, where is there likely to be
the greatest probability of turbulence?

a. Above the jet core in the boundary between warm and cold air
b. Looking downstream, to the right
c. In the core
d. Looking downstream, to the left

69. Dew point is defined as:

a. the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
b. the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the
relative humidity
c. the temperature below which the change of state for a given volume of air
will result in absorption of latent heat
d. the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to reach saturation

70. Flying from Marseilles (QNH 1012) to Palma (QNH 1015) at FL100. You do not reset
the altimeter, why would true altitude be the same throughout the flight?

a. Not possible to tell

b. Air at Palma is warmer than air at Marseilles
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c. Air at Marseilles is warmer than air at Palma

d. Blocked static vent
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71. FL180, Northern Hemisphere with a wind from the left, what can you say about
temperature with a heading of 360°?

a. Not possible to tell without a pressure

b. Increases from south to north
c. Increases from north to south
d. Nothing

72. From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?

a. Surface pressure
b. Surface temperature
c. DALR
d. ELR

73. How do you define convection?

a. Horizontal movement of air

b. Vertical movement of air
c. Same as advection
d. Same as conduction

74. In a class A aircraft if you encounter freezing rain, you should:

a. climb to the cooler air above

b. climb to the warmer air above
c. accelerate
d. descend

75. When heading south in the Southern Hemisphere you experience starboard drift:

a. you are flying towards a lower temperature

b. you are flying away from a lower temperature
c. you are flying towards a low pressure
d. you are flying out of a high

76. When is the latest time radiation fog is most likely?

a. Just after dawn

b. Late afternoon
c. Midday
d. Midnight

77. When are thunderstorms most likely in Europe?

a. Just after dawn

b. Late afternoon
c. Midday
d. Midnight
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78. How does the level of the tropopause vary with latitude in the Northern
Hemisphere?

a. Decreases north - south

b. Decreases south - north
c. Constant
d. It varies with longitude not latitude

79. What is the tropopause?

a. The layer between the troposphere and stratosphere

b. The boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere
c. Where temperature increases with height
d. Upper boundary to CAT

80. Where do you find the majority of the air within the atmosphere?

a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Tropopause
d. Mesosphere

81. What are lenticularis clouds a possible indication of?

a. Mountain waves
b. Instability
c. Developing Cu and Cb
d. Horizontal windshear in the upper atmosphere

82. What are the factors affecting the geostrophic wind?

a. PGF, θ, Ω, ρ
b. θ, Ω, ρ
c. Ω, ρ
d. ρ

83. What is the Bora?

a. Cold katabatic wind over the Adriatic

b. Northerly wind blowing from the Mediterranean
c. Warm anabatic wind blowing to the Mediterranean
d. An anabatic wind in the Rockies

84. Where is the 300 hPa level approx. in ISA?

a. 30 000 ft
b. 39 000 ft
c. 18 000 ft
d. 10 000 ft

85. What is the usual procedure when encountering CAT en route?

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a. Request climb to get out of it

b. Turn around immediately
c. Descend immediately to clear it
d. Accelerate through it and stay level
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86. When are cyclones most likely?

a. Mid winter
b. Late autumn
c. Late summer
d. Late spring

87. At a certain position the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C. According to
the chart the tropopause is at FL330. The most likely temperature at FL350 is:

a. -54°C
b. -50°C
c. -56.5°C
d. 58°C

88. When are the rains most likely in Equatorial Africa?

a. March to May, August to October

b. March to May, October to November
c. June to July
d. December to January

89. What is the likely hazard association with the Harmattan?

a. Poor visibility from dust and sand

b. Sand up to FL150
c. Thunderstorms
d. Dense fog

90. General surface winds in West Africa with ITCZ to the north:

a. NE trade wind to the north, SW monsoon to the south

b. east - west
c. SE trade winds to the north, NE trade winds to the south
d. west - east

91. In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe?

a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Sc
d. Ci

92. What will snow most likely fall from?

a. Ns
b. Ci
c. Cs
d. Ac
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93. Referring to the diagram below the TAF applies best to which aerodrome
19010KT 8000 RA BKN014 TEMPO 1518 4000 RADZ BKN010

a. EBBR
b. Madrid
c. Paris
d. LOWW

94. Rime ice is caused by:

a. large supercooled water droplets

b. small supercooled water droplets
c. slow freezing of water droplets onto the wing
d. rapid re-freezing of large water droplets

95. What is the most severe form of icing?

a. Dry ice
b. Hoar frost
c. Clear ice
d. Rime ice

96. Cold occlusion is:

a. cold air undercutting warm air

b. warm air overriding cold air
c. air ahead of the warm front undercutting the air behind the cold front
d. air behind the cold front undercutting the air in front of the warm front

97. Warm occlusion is:

a. warm air undercutting cold air

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b. warm air overriding cold air

c. air ahead of the warm front over riding the air behind the cold front
d. air behind the cold front over riding the air in front of the warm front
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98. Where is the warmest air?

A C

99. What happens to the polar front jet stream in NH winter compared to summer?

a. Moves south, speed increases

b. Moves north, speed increases
c. Moves south, speed decreases
d. Moves north, speed decreases

100. Which is likely to give freezing rain?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

101. What is the duration and size of a microburst:

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a. 5 min, 5 km
b. 20 min, 5 km
c. 15 min, 25 km
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d. 45 min, 25 km

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102. Where is the surface wind usually westerly in a Northern Hemisphere polar front
depression?

a. In front of the warm front

b. In front of the cold front
c. Behind the cold front
d. To the north of centre of the depression

103. Flying from an area of low pressure in the Southern Hemisphere at low altitudes,
where is the wind coming from?

a. Right and slightly on the nose

b. Left and slightly on the tail
c. Left and slightly on the nose
d. Right and slightly on the tail

104. What causes the geostrophic wind to be stronger than the gradient wind around a
low?

a. Centrifugal force adds to the gradient force

b. Centrifugal force opposes the gradient force
c. Coriolis force adds to the gradient force
d. Coriolis force opposes the centrifugal force

105. The subtropical high pressure belt is at which latitude?

a. 25° - 35°
b. 10° - 15°
c. 55° - 75°
d. 40° - 55°

106. A METAR for Paris gave the surface wind as 260/20. Wind at 2000 ft is most likely
to be:

a. 260/15
b. 210/30
c. 290/40
d. 175/15

107. When the upper part of a layer of warm air is advected:

a. stability increases within the layer

b. stability decreases within the layer
c. wind speed will always decrease with increase in height in the Northern
Hemisphere
d. wind will back with increase in height in the Northern Hemisphere

108. The QNH at an airfield 200 m AMSL is 1009 hPa; air temperature is 10°C lower than
standard. What is the QFF?
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a. Not possible to give a definite answer

b. Less than 1009
c. 1009
d. More than 1009
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109. A plain in Western Europe at 500 m (1600 ft) AMSL is covered with a uniform
alto-cumulus cloud during summer months. At what height AGL is the base of the
cloud expected?

a. 100 - 1500 ft
b. 15 000 - 25 000 ft
c. 7000 - 15 000 ft
d. 1500 - 7 000 ft

110. With the passage of a polar frontal depression what would be most likely?

a. Showers for 2 hours, Drizzle for 12 hours, then snow and rain
b. Continuous snow and rain, then it stops to be followed by showers of rain and
snow
c. Continual backing of the wind
d. Heavy showers of rains and possible hail, followed by drizzle and light rain

111. A pilot experiences severe turbulence and icing. A competent met. man would
issue a:

a. SPECI
b. METAR
c. TEMPO
d. SIGMET

112. Which of these would cause your true altitude to decrease with a constant
indicated altitude?

a. Cold/Low
b. Hot/Low
c. Cold/High
d. Hot/High

113. Flying from Bangkok to Bombay, why does the wind at 30 000 ft change from 15 kt
headwind in winter to 20 kt tailwind in summer?

a. Freak weather conditions experienced on route

b. The equatorial easterly jet changes direction through 180 degrees
c. This is due to local changes in the upper winds due to the movement of the
ITCZ
d. The subtropical jet changes direction through 180 degrees

114. ITCZ weather is:

a. thundery strong convergence

b. clear Wx
c. showers
d. light winds
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115. Where is the ITCZ during the year?

a. Does not move

b. Always north of the Equator
c. Always south of the Equator
d. Moves in accordance with the heat Equator

116. Flying from Marseilles to Dakar in summer where is the ITCZ?

a. Canaries
b. Algeria
c. Gibraltar
d. Near Dakar

117. Where is the ozone layer?

a. Ionosphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Tropopause
d. Troposphere

118. Which of the following diagrams depicts cumulus capillatus:

119. What wind would you expect between the Equator and 20° South?

a. NE monsoon
b. Trade wind
c. Strong westerlies
d. Roaring forties

120. Where are TRS not likely to form?

a. South China sea

b. South Pacific
c. South Atlantic
d. South Indian Ocean

121. Where is the most severe weather in a TRS?

a. In the centre of the eye

b. In the wall of cloud surrounding the eye
c. Within the eye
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d. 300 km from the eye

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122. Satellite images are used to:

a. locate fronts in areas with few ground stations

b. achieve 14 day forecasts
c. locate precipitation zones
d. locate wind currents on the ground

123. What best describes the diagram below?

a. Cutting winds
b. Westerly wave
c. Easterly wave
d. Uniform pressure gradient

124. A large pressure gradient is shown by:

a. closely spaced isobars - low temperature

b. distant spaced isobars - high temperature
c. close spaced isobars - strong winds
d. close spaced isobars - light winds

125. The degree of CAT experienced by an aircraft is proportional to:

a. intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear

b. intensity of solar radiation
c. stability of the air
d. height of the aircraft

126. Squall lines are encountered:

a. in an air mass with cold air properties

b. ahead of a cold front
c. behind a stationary front
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d. at an occluded front
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127. Microbursts:

a. only affect tropical areas

b. average lifespan 30 min
c. typical horizontal dimensions 1 - 3 km
d. always associated with CB clouds

128. Which of the following are described as precipitation?

a. TS
b. SQ
c. SA
d. DZ

129. An aircraft flying in the Alps on a very cold day, QNH 1013 set in the altimeter, flies
level with the summit of the mountains. Altitude from aneroid altimeter reads:

a. same as mountain elevation

b. lower than mountain elevation
c. higher than mountain elevation
d. impossible to determine

130. Clouds classified as low level are considered to have a base height of:

a. 500 - 1000 ft
b. 1000 - 2000 ft
c. the surface - 6500 ft
d. 100 - 200 ft

131. With a polar front jet stream (PFJ), the area with the highest probability of
turbulence in the Southern Hemisphere is:

a. in the jet core

b. above the jet core in the boundary of the warm and cold air
c. looking downstream, on your left hand side
d. looking downstream, on your right hand side

132. After such a fine day yesterday, the ring around the moon indicated bad weather
today. Sure enough, it is pouring down rain, with a very low cloud base of uniform
grey. It is a little warmer though.

This describes:

a. a warm front
b. a cold front
c. the weather behind a cold front
d. poetic licence

133. On a flight from London to New York in summer, where would you cross the ITCZ?

a. Newfoundland, Grand Banks

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b. New York
c. Azores
d. You wouldn’t
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134. What type of low is usually associated with frontal activity?

a. Polar front low

b. Mountain lee low
c. Warm low
d. Cold low

135. When would you encounter hoar frost?

a. Climbing through an inversion

b. Ns
c. Cb
d. Ac

136. What is the temperature decrease with height below 11 km?

a. 1°C - 100 m
b. 0.5°C - 100 m
c. 0.65°C - 100 m
d. 0.6°C - 100 m

137. Contours on a weather chart indicate:

a. heights of pressure levels

b. distance between pressure levels
c. thickness between pressure levels
d. height of ground

138. When do you get TRS at Darwin?

a. July - October
b. Never
c. November - April
d. In the winter

139. Subtropical highs are found:

a. 5 - 15°
b. 25 - 35°.
c. 40 - 60°.
d. between the Polar and Ferrell cells

140. Equatorial easterly jets occur in the:

a. Northern Hemisphere in summer

b. Northern Hemisphere all year
c. Southern Hemisphere all year
d. Southern Hemisphere

141. What causes ‘echoes’ on airborne weather radar screens?

a. Water vapour
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b. All cloud
c. Fog
d. Hail
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142. In a tropical downpour the visibility is sometimes reduced to:

a. 1000 m
b. 500 m
c. 200 m
d. less than 100 m

143. Aircraft with thick wing (T) and thin wing (S) fly at the same TAS and altitude
through cloud containing small super cooled water droplets. What extent of icing
will be experienced?

a. S and T same icing

b. Nothing as its super cooled water droplets
c. S more, T less
d. T more, S less

144. What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region, over
land, in the winter?

a. Ns and continuous rain

b. A tendency for fog and low stratus
c. The possibility of snow showers
d. Thunderstorms

145. QNH is defined as:

a. the pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere

b. the pressure at MSL obtained using the actual conditions
c. QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
d. QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere

146. Where would you expect to find the strongest wind on the ground in temperate
latitudes?

a. In an area of low pressure

b. In an area of high pressure
c. In the warm air between two fronts
d. In a weak anticyclone

147. Landing at an airfield with QNH set the pressure altimeter reads:

a. zero feet on landing only if ISA conditions prevail

b. zero
c. the elevation of the airfield if ISA conditions prevail
d. the elevation of the airfield

148. The fastest moving thunderstorms are:

a. orographic
b. thermal
c. frontal
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d. lifting
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149. Where are the fastest winds in a Tropical Revolving Storm?

a. Near the eye

b. In the wall of cloud surrounding the eye
c. To the right of the track
d. To the right of the track in hurricanes and cyclones

150. What type of cloud is usually found at high level?

a. St
b. Ac
c. Cc
d. Ns

151. You are flying in an atmosphere which is warmer than ISA, what might you
expect?

a. True altitude to be the same as Indicated altitude

b. True altitude to be lower than Indicated altitude
c. True altitude to be the decreasing
d. True altitude to be higher than Indicated altitude

152. The environmental lapse rate in the real atmosphere:

a. has a fixed value of 2°C / 1000 ft

b. has a fixed value of 0.65°C / 100 m
c. varies with time
d. has a fixed value of 1°C / 100 m

153. Airfield is 69 metres below sea level, QFF is 1030 hPa, temperature is ISA -10°C.
What is the QNH?

a. Impossible to tell
b. Less than 1030 hPa
c. 1030 hPa
d. More than 1030 hPa

154. The QNH is 1030 hPa and at the Transition Level you set the SPS. What happens to
your indicated altitude?

a. Drops by 510 ft
b. Rises by 510 ft
c. Rises
d. Drops

155. What is the movement of air relating to a trough?

a. Descending and diverging

b. Ascending and diverging
c. Descending and converging
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d. Converging and ascending

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156. What is the movement of air relating to a ridge?

a. Descending and diverging

b. Ascending and diverging
c. Descending and converging
d. Ascending and converging

157. What would the code 01650428 tell you about the condition of the runway?

a. It is raining
b. It is snowing
c. Braking coefficient of 0.28
d. It is broken

158. What time of year is the tornado season in North America?

a. Spring to summer
b. Summer and autumn
c. Spring
d. Summer

159. What is the min. temperature according to ISA?

a. -56.5°C
b. -273°C
c. -100°C
d. 215.6 K

160. At a coastal airfield, with the runway parallel to the coastline. You are downwind
over the sea with the runway to your right. On a warm summer afternoon, what
would you expect the wind to be on finals?

a. Crosswind from the right

b. Headwind
c. Tailwind
d. Crosswind from the left

161. What diagram best shows Acc?

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For questions 162 to 164, use the diagram below.

162. What symbol is used to describe widespread haze?

163. What symbol is used to describe a TRS?

164. What symbol is used to describe freezing rain?

165. The temperature at the surface is 15°C, the temperature at 1000 m is 13°C. The
atmosphere is:

a. unstable
b. conditionally unstable
c. stable
d. cannot tell

166. Altostratus is:

a. a low level cloud

b. a medium level cloud
c. a high level cloud
d. a heap type cloud

167. Which of the following would give you the worst airframe icing?

a. GR
b. SN
c. FZFG
d. +FZRA

168. Small supercooled water droplets hit the aerofoil, will it:

a. freeze on impact giving clear ice

b. partially freezing and running back giving clear ice
c. freeze on impact giving rime ice
d. partially freezing and running back giving a cloudy rime ice

169. In a METAR you see the coding R16/P1300. What does this imply?

a. RVR assessed to be more than 1300 metres

b. RVR equipment is problematic
c. RVR is improving
d. RVR is varying
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170. If at 0600 the temperature and dew point were recorded as T= - 0.5 and DP = - 1.5,
how would a METAR record this?

a. M01, M02
b. M01, M01
c. M00, M01
d. 00, M01

171. What causes wind?

a. Difference in pressure
b. Rotation of the earth
c. Frontal systems
d. Difference in temperature

172. What is the approximate height of the 250 hPa level?

a. 30 000 ft
b. 32 000 ft
c. 39 000 ft
d. 34 000 ft

173. Several aircraft report clear air turbulence in a certain area en route:

a. ATC should issue a storm warning

b. ATC should close the specified area
c. a competent ATC should issue a SPECI
d. a competent ATC should issue a SIGMET

174. What is the flight hazard associated with the Harmattan?

a. Sand up to FL150
b. Windshear
c. Dust and poor visibility
d. Dense fog

175. Where are icing conditions on a runway specified?

a. TAF
b. METAR
c. SIGMET
d. GAFFO

176. Where are icing conditions en route specified?

a. TAF and METAR

b. METAR and SIGMET
c. SWC (sig. weather chart) and SIGMET
d. SPECI and TREND
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177. If flying in the Alps with a Föhn effect from the south:

a. clouds will be covering the southern passes of the Alps

b. CAT on the northern side
c. wind veering and gusting on the northern side
d. convective weather on the southern passes of the Alps

178. If flying en route and you encounter moderate turbulence with convective clouds
and you decide to continue, you should:

a. decrease power and climb above the clouds if flight parameters allow
b. decrease power and fly below the clouds
c. increase power and climb above the clouds if flight parameters allow
d. increase power and fly below the clouds

179. You are flying from Madrid (QNH 1012) to Paris (QNH 1015) at FL80. If your true
altitude and indicated altitude remain the same then:

a. the air at Madrid is warmer than Paris

b. the air at Paris is warmer than Madrid
c. the altimeters are incorrect
d. your indicated altitude must be changing

180. If you are flying on a QNH 1009 on very cold day and you circle the top of a peak in
the Alps, your altimeter will read:

a. the same as the elevation of the peak

b. lower than the elevation of the peak
c. higher than the elevation of the peak
d. not enough information to tell

181. ICAO statement no diversion necessary, de-icing is not required or is effective; the
icing in this case is:

a. light
b. moderate
c. severe
d. extreme

182. Aircraft A has a sharp leading edge and a thin aerofoil. Aircraft B has a thick
cambered wing aerofoil. If they are flying at the same TAS into clouds with small
supercooled water droplets then:

a. depends upon the differential kinetic heating

b. B gets more icing than A
c. both get the same
d. A gets more icing than B
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183. What is subsidence?

a. Horizontal motion of air

b. Vertical down draught of air
c. Vertical up draught of air
d. Adiabatic cooling

184. If an isohypse on a surface pressure chart of 500 hPa shows a figure of 522, this
indicates:

a. topography of 522 m above MSL

b. topography of 522 decametres above MSL
c. pressure is 522 hPa
d. a low surface pressure

185. Moderate turbulence can be expected in:

a. altocumulus lenticularis
b. cirrocumulus
c. nimbostratus
d. stratus

186. The polar front jet stream in summer compared to winter in the Northern
Hemisphere moves:

a. north and decreases in strength

b. north and increases in strength
c. south and decreases in strength
d. south and increases in strength

187. The Bora is a:

a. cold katabatic wind with a air mass of maritime origin

b. cold katabatic wind with a air mass of Arctic origin
c. cold katabatic wind that may produce violent gusts
d. warm squally katabatic wind

188. RVR is:

a. measured using ceilometers along the runway

b. displayed in TAFs and METARs
c. usually greater than met visibility
d. given when the met visibility is below 2000 m

189. Comparing the surface wind to the 3000 ft wind:

a. surface wind veers and is less then the 3000 ft wind

b. surface wind blows along the isobars and is less than the 3000 ft wind
c. surface wind blows across the isobars and is less than the 3000 ft wind
d. both are the same
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190. In which air mass can extreme cold temperatures be found?

a. Polar continental
b. Arctic maritime
c. Polar maritime
d. Tropical maritime

191. Up and down going draughts in a thunderstorm occur in which stage?

a. Cumulus stage
b. Mature stage
c. Dissipating stage
d. Precipitation stage

192. Relative humidity increases in:

a. warmer air compared to colder air

b. warm air at a constant vapour pressure
c. cold air at a constant vapour pressure
d. colder air compared to warmer air

193. Supercooled water droplets are found in:

a. clouds only
b. clouds, fog and precipitation
c. precipitation and clouds
d. precipitation

194. Which of the following, with no orographic intensification, will give rise to light to
moderate icing conditions?

a. Ns and Cs
b. As and Ac
c. Cb and Ns
d. Ns and Cc

195. If an active cold front is approaching what will the altimeter read on a parked
aircraft shortly before the front arrives?

a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Fluctuates -50 ft to +50 ft
d. Stays the same

196. Which of the following METARs at 1850UTC will most likely give fog formation over
the coming night?

a. 240/04 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC 3000 17/14 Q1002 NOSIG=

b. VRB002 9999 SCT150 17/M08 Q1012 NOSIG=
c. VRB001 8000 SCT280 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000
d. VRB002 8000 FEW100 12/09 Q1025 BECMG 0800
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197. The lowest temperature in the international standard atmosphere (ISA) is?

a. -50.6°C
b. -56.5°F
c. 216.5 K
d. 56.5°C

198. What would be reflected to radar?

a. Fog
b. Hail
c. Cloud
d. Mist

199. A jet stream with a wind speed of 350 kt is:

a. impossible
b. possible but very rare
c. possible in polar areas
d. common

200. Turbulence is worst in a jet stream:

a. in the core
b. along the axis of the core to the right
c. along the axis of the core to the left
d. between the boundaries of the cold and warm air

201. If you fly at right angles to a jet stream in Europe with a decreasing outside air
temperature, you will experience:

a. increasing headwind
b. increasing tailwind
c. wind from the left
d. wind from the right

202. Low level windshear is likely to be greatest:

a. at the condensation level when there is a strong surface friction

b. at the condensation level when there is no night radiation
c. at the top of the friction layer during strong solar radiation
d. at the top of a surface based inversion during strong night radiation

203. The North African rains occur:

a. March to May and August to October

b. March to May and October to November
c. December to April
d. June to August

204. TEMPO TS indicates:

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a. TS that will last for the entire period indicated

b. TS that will last for a max of 1 hour in each instance
c. TS that will last for at least 30 min
d. TS that will last for less than 30 min
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205. What happens in a warm occlusion?

a. Warm air behind the cold front overrides the cold air in front of the warm
front
b. Cold air under rides the warm air
c. Cold air behind the cold front undercuts the warm air ahead of the warm
front
d. Warm air undercuts the cold air

206. Which of the following gives conditionally unstable conditions?

a. 1°C/100 m
b. 0.65°C/100 m
c. 0.49°C/100 m
d. None of the above

207. A mass of unsaturated air is forced to rise till just under the condensation level. It
then settles back to its original position:

a. temp. is greater than before

b. temp. stays the same
c. temp. is less than before
d. it depends on QFE

208. Which of the radiosonde diagrams below will show low stratus?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1

209. What is a microburst?

a. Air descending at high speed, the air is colder than the surrounding air
b. Air is descending at high speed; the air is warmer than the surrounding air
c. A small tropical revolving storm
d. A small depression with high wind speeds
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210. The high bringing tropical continental air masses to Europe in summer is positioned
over:

a. southern Italy
b. southern France
c. the Balkans
d. the Azores

211. What most likely gives freezing rain over Central Europe?

a. Warm occlusion
b. Cold occlusion
c. Warm front
d. Cold front

212. Which of the cuts in the plan view of the polar front depression best represents the
profile view?

a. A, B
b. B, C
c. C, D
d. D, E

213. On a polar front depression, the point of occlusion moves mainly in which direction
in the Northern Hemisphere?

a. Along the front to the west

b. Across the front to the north
c. Across the front to the south
d. Along the front to the east

214. In the Northern Hemisphere between lat. 35°N - 65°N in the North Atlantic during
winter, the principle land based depression affecting the region is located at:

a. USA high
b. Siberia high
c. Greenland/Icelandic low
d. Azores high

215. The ITCZ is best described as:

a. where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres meet
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b. where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt
c. where cold fronts are formed in the tropics
d. where the Harmattan meets the NE trades in Africa
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216. When would you most likely find cold occlusions across central Europe?

a. Winter and spring

b. Summer
c. Winter and autumn
d. Winter

217. Clear ice is most likely to form:

a. -10°C to -17°C
b. -30°C to -40°C
c. -20°C to -30°C
d. -40°C to -60°C

218. How do you calculate the lowest flight level?

a. Lowest QNH and lowest negative temperature below ISA

b. Lowest QNH and highest negative temperature below ISA
c. Highest QNH and highest temperature above ISA
d. Highest QNH and lowest temperature

219. TRS off Somalia are called:

a. hurricanes
b. typhoons
c. cyclones
d. tornadoes

220. In which cloud would you encounter the most intensive rain?

a. Ci
b. Ns
c. St
d. Sc

221. What height is the tropopause and at what temperature?

a. At the poles 8 km and -16°C

b. At the pole 18 km and -75°C
c. At the Equator 8 km and -40°C
d. At the Equator 18 km and -76°C

222. Where do you get freezing rain?

a. Rain hitting the ground and freezing on impact

b. Rain falling into warmer air
c. Rain falling from an inversion into an area below 0°C
d. Rain falling into colder air and freezing into pellets

223. Flying from Dakar to Rio de Janeiro in winter where would you cross the ITCZ?

a. 0 to 7°N
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b. 7°N to 12°N
c. 7°S to 12°S
d. 12°S to 18°S
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224. Where are polar front depressions located?

a. 10 to 15°N
b. 25 to 35°N
c. 35 to 55°N
d. 55 to 75°N

225. Which of the following is worst for icing?

a. -2°C to -15°C
b. -15°C to -20°C
c. -25°C to -30°C
d. Near freezing level

226. Which of the following is worst for icing?

a. Speed and shape of aerofoil

b. Relative humidity and temperature
c. Size of droplet and temperature
d. Freezing levels

227. With low pressures dominating the Med, which of the following would likely be
found in central Europe?

a. Thunderstorms and snow

b. Thermal depressions
c. Northerly Föhn wind over the Alps
d. Warm clear sunny spells

228. Which of the following will give the greatest difference between temperature and
dew point?

a. Dry air
b. Moist air
c. Cold air
d. Warm air

229. CB cloud in summer contains:

a. water droplets
b. ice crystals
c. water droplets, ice crystals and supercooled water droplets
d. water droplets and ice crystals
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230. Using the diagram below you are on a flight from A to B at 1500 ft. Which
statement is true?

a. True altitude at A is greater than B

b. True altitude at B is greater than A
c. True altitude is the same
d. Cannot tell

231. Solar radiation heats the atmosphere by:

a. heating the air directly

b. heating the surface, this then heats the air in the atmosphere
c. heating the water vapour in the atmosphere directly
d. heating the water vapour directly unless there are clouds present

232. How are CBs that are not close to other CBs described on a SIGMET?

a. Isolated
b. Embedded
c. Frequent
d. Occasional

233. When do you mainly get cold occlusions?

a. Summer
b. Autumn and winter
c. Winter
d. Winter and spring

234. A coded SIGMET message for Athens reads

“TS W Athenia MOV E”

a. there will be TS coming from the east

b. there will be TS coming from the west
c. there will be TS coming from the west, moving east
d. there will be TS coming from the east, moving west

235. In a very deep depression in Iceland, the likely weather is:

a. convection causing snow

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b. high wind, clear vis

c. high wind, rain, snow
d. high windshear
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236. What affects how much water vapour the air can hold?

a. RH
b. Temperature
c. Dew point
d. Pressure

237. In a METAR/TAF what is VV?

a. RVR in metres
b. Vertical visibility
c. Horizontal visibility in metres
d. Vertical visibility in feet

238. In a METAR the cloud height is above:

a. MSL
b. aerodrome level
c. the measuring station
d. the highest point within 5 km

239. Aerodrome at MSL, QNH is 1022. QFF is:

a. greater than 1022

b. less than 1022
c. same as QNH
d. cannot tell without temperature information

240. Air at the upper levels of the atmosphere is diverging. What would you expect at
the surface?

a. Rise in pressure with clouds dissipating

b. Rise in pressure with clouds forming
c. Fall in pressure with cloud dissipating
d. Fall in pressure with cloud forming

241. What happens to the stability of the atmosphere in an inversion? (Temp increasing
with height)

a. Absolutely stable
b. Unstable
c. Conditionally stable
d. Conditionally unstable

242. What happens to stability of the atmosphere in an isothermal layer? (Temp

constant with height)

a. Absolutely stable
b. Unstable
c. Conditionally stable
d. Conditionally unstable
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243. Air temperature in the afternoon is +12°C with a dew point of +5°C. What
temperature change must happen for saturation to occur?

a. Cool to +5°C
b. Cool by 5°C
c. Cool to +6°C
d. Cool to +7°C

244. What is the gradient of a warm front?

a. 1:50
b. 1:150
c. 1:300
d. 1:500

245. Subsidence would be described as:

a. vertical ascension of air

b. horizontal movement of air
c. the same as convection
d. vertical down flow of air

246. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?

a. Inversion
b. Advection
c. Adiabatic
d. Subsidence

247. What units are used to measure vertical windshear?

a. m/sec
b. kt
c. kt/100 ft
d. km/100 ft

248. The Pampero is:

a. marked movement of cold polar air in North America

b. marked movement of cold air in South America
c. Föhn type wind in North America
d. polar air over the Spanish Pyrenees

249. If you fly from Bombay to Karachi in summer you might experience a 70 kt tailwind
and the same flight in winter experiences a headwind. This is due to:

a. the normal local changes in the winds at that time of the year
b. the route happens to be in a region of the STJs
c. in winter you had unusually unfavourable conditions
d. in summer you had unusually good weather conditions
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250. Why is the “Icelandic low” more intense in winter?

a. The temperature contrast between Arctic/polar air and Equatorial areas are
much greater in winter
b. The developments of lows over the North Atlantic Sea, east of Canada are
stronger in winter
c. The winds over the North Atlantic are more favourable for lows during winter
d. In winter, strong winds favour the developments of lows

251. What causes the formation of aircraft contrails at certain altitudes?

a. Water vapour that condenses behind the engines

b. Soot particles from the engine exhaust
c. Water vapour that condenses in the wing tips due to pressure changes in the
relative warm air
d. Unburnt fuel

252. QNH is 1003. At FL100 true altitude is 10 000 ft. It is:

a. warmer than ISA

b. colder than ISA
c. same as ISA
d. cannot tell

253. Winds in western India:

a. SW monsoon in summer, NE monsoon in winter

b. NE monsoon in summer and SW monsoon in winter
c. SE monsoon in summer and SW monsoon in winter
d. SE monsoon in summer and NE monsoon in winter

254. Ice pellets on the ground are evidence that:

a. a warm front has past

b. a cold front has passed
c. there are thunderstorms in the area
d. there may be freezing rain at a higher level

255. You have to fly through a warm front. The freezing level in the warm air is at
10 000 ft and the freezing layer in the cold air is at 2000 ft. Where are you least
likely to encounter freezing rain?

a. 12 000 ft
b. 9000 ft
c. 5000 ft
d. 3000 ft

256. You are flying at FL170. The pressure level which is closest to you is the:

a. 300 hPa
a. 700 hPa
c. 500 hPa
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d. 850 hPa
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257. When you have icing conditions forecast en route, on what chart would you find
this information?

a. 500 hPa
b. 300 hPa
c. Surface charts
d. Significant weather charts

258. The average duration of a microburst is:

a. 1-5 min
b. 10 min
c. 15 min
d. less than 2 min

259. How is QFE determined from QNH?

a. Using the temperature of the airfield and the elevation of the airfield
b. Using the temperature
c. Using the elevation
d. Using the temperature at MSL and the elevation of the airfield

260. Which cloud would produce showers?

a. NS
b. AS
c. CS
d. CB

261. What clears radiation fog?

a. Temperature drop
b. Wind speed decreases
c. Wind speed increases
d. Mixing

262. QFE is 1000 hPa with an airfield elevation of 200 m AMSL. What is QNH?

a. 976 hPa
b. 1024 hPa
c. 1008 hPa
d. 992 hPa

263. With the approach of a warm front:

a. QNH/QFE decreases
b. QNH/QFE increases
c. QNH decreases and QFE increases
d. QNH increases and QFE decreases

264. With the approach of a cold front, temperature will:

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a. decrease
b. remain the same
c. increase
d. decrease then increase
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265. On a surface weather chart, isobars are lines of:

a. QNH
b. QFE
c. QFF
d. QNE

266. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?

a. Good visibility
b. Calm conditions
c. Turbulence
d. Unstable conditions

267. A moist stable air mass is forced to rise against a mountain range. What might you
expect?

a. Large Cu clouds and turbulence

b. Altocumulus lenticularis
c. Cap clouds and standing waves
d. Clear skies

268. Air temperature is 12°C, Dew point is 10°C and the sea temperature is 8°C. What
might you expect if the air is blown over the sea?

a. Steaming fog
b. Radiation fog
c. Arctic smoke
d. Advection fog

269. A cold pool over land in summer would give rise to:

a. clear skies
b. low stratus with intermittent rain
c. a potentially very unstable atmosphere
d. extensive industrial haze

270. Near industrial areas with lots of smoke the worst situation for met vis is:

a. low level inversion

b. strong winds
c. fast moving cold fronts
d. Cbs in the area

271. Upper level winds are forecast in significant weather charts as:

a. true/knots
b. magnetic/knots
c. magnetic/km/h
d. true/km/h2

272. Melbourne in July will experience:

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a. the Equatorial low pressure belt

b. subtropical high
c. continuous waves of troughs and ridges
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d. the Antarctic high

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273. How often are METARs issued at main European airfields?

a. 1h
b. 30 min
c. 3h
d. 1 h 30 min

274. METAR winds are meaned over the .............. period immediately preceding the
time of observation.

a. 10 minute
b. 30 minute
c. 1 hour
d. 1 minute

275. Main TAFs at large aerodromes are valid for approximately:

a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 24 hours

276. What are the TRS off the west coast of Africa called?

a. Typhoons
b. Cyclones
c. Easterly waves
d. Hurricanes

277. The most severe in-flight icing occurs in:

a. Cb
b. Cu
c. Ns
d. FZRA

278. Which of the following constituents in the atmosphere has the greatest effect on
the weather?

a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Hydrogen
d. Water vapour

279. When would you mostly likely get fair weather Cu?

a. 15:00
b. 12:00
c. 17:00
d. 07:00
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280. RVR is defined as being:

a. the maximum distance an observer on the runway can see marker boards by
day and runway lights by night
b. the maximum distance a pilot in the threshold area at 15 ft above the runway
can see marker boards by day or runway lights by night, when looking in the
direction of take-off or landing
c. the maximum distance in metres a pilot 15 ft above the touchdown zone can
see marker boards by day and runway lights by night in the direction of take-
off
d. the distance it would be possible to see an observer 15 ft above the runway
when standing in the direction of take-off or landing

281. What type of cloud extends into another level?

a. As
b. Acc
c. Ns
d. Ci

282. Ceilometers measure:

a. RVR
b. Cloud height
c. Met vis
d. Turbulence

283. In a METAR, the pressure group represents:

a. QFE rounded up to the nearest hectopascal

b. QFE rounded down to the nearest hectopascal
c. QNH rounded up to the nearest hectopascal
d. QNH rounded down to the nearest hectopascal

284. On a station circle decode, the cloud cover is divided into:

a. 8 parts
b. 6 parts
c. 4 parts
d. 10 parts

285. Which of the following is true?

QNH is:

a. Always more than 1013.25 hPa

b. Always less than 1013.25 hPa
c. Never 1013.25 hPa
d. Can never be above or below 1013 hPa

286. When does Darwin (Australia) experience TRS?

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a. June and July

b. December to March
c. Early summer
d. Not at all
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287. Radiation fog extends from the surface to:

a. 5000 ft
b. 2000 ft
c. 10 000 ft
d. 800 ft

288. Flying from Marseilles to Palma you discover your true altitude is increasing, but
oddly the QNH is identical at both places. What could be the reason?

a. Re-check the QNH

b. Re-check the radio altimeter
c. The air at Palma is warmer
d. Palma is lower than Marseilles

289. Hurricanes in the Caribbean generally move:

a. west, then NE
b. east, then SE
c. west, then SE
d. east, the NE

290. Low level inversions give:

a. good vis at night

b. good vis in the morning
c. poor vis due to the lack of vertical moving air
d. poor vis because of the lack of horizontal movement of air

291. What are the TRS off the coast of Madagascar called and when would you expect
to find them?

a. Cyclones, in December and January

b. Hurricanes, in July and August
c. Typhoons, in May to November
d. Cyclones, in June and July

292. A forecast trend is:

a. for an aerodrome and valid for 9 hours

b. for a route and valid for 24 hours
c. a SPECI and valid for 2 hours
d. for a landing and valid for 2 hour

293. On rare occasions TS can be found along the warm front. What conditions could
lead to this?

a. The warm sector being stable

b. The warm sector being unstable
c. The cold air being stable
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d. The cold air being unstable

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294. QNH is 1030. Aerodrome is 200 m AMSL. What is QFF?

a. Higher than 1030

b. Lower than 1030
c. Same
d. Not enough info

295. Where are downdraughts predominant in a thunderstorm?

a. Mature
b. Dissipating
c. Initial
d. Cumulus

296. If an aerodrome is 1500 ft AMSL on QNH 1038, what will the actual height AGL to
get to FL75?

a. 6670 ft
b. 8170 ft
c. 8330 ft
d. 2330 ft

297. What is FG VV100?

a. RVR less than 100 m

b. RVR less than 100 ft
c. Vertical visibility is 100 m
d. Vertical visibility is 100 ft

298. The line connecting C to D crosses which type of front?

a. Cold front
b. Warm front
c. Warm occlusion
d. Cold occlusion
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299. What is B?

a. A trough of high pressure

b. Col
c. A ridge of low pressure
d. A low

300. On a particular day the PFJ runs north to south in the Northern Hemisphere:

a. the temperature gradient runs north to south below the jet core
b. the temperature gradient runs north to south above the jet core
c. the polar air is east of the jet above the core
d. the polar air is below the jet to the east

301. A 350 kt jet stream is:

a. impossible
b. common near Equator
c. possible but rare
d. common in the Southern Hemisphere over the oceans

302. Why do TRS tend to form in the western side of tropical oceans?

a. Because the land temperature and sea temperature provide unstable gradient
for formation
b. Because the coastal gulf provides a strong rotational force
c. Because the areas tend to have high ‘shear’ in the atmosphere
d. Because the air humidity is high, due to long passage of trade winds over
ocean

303. Where would an anemometer be placed?

a. Close to station, 2 m above ground

b. On the roof of the station
c. 10 m above aerodrome elevation on a mast
d. Next to the runway, 1 m above ground
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304. Altimeter set to 1023 at aerodrome. On climb to altitude the SPS is set at transition
altitude. What will indication on altimeter do on resetting to QNH?

a. Dependent on temperature
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Same

305. 90 km/h wind in kt is:

a. 70
b. 60
c. 50
d. 30

306. The ITCZ is best described as:

a. the area where trade winds from the Northern Hemisphere meets those from
the Southern Hemisphere
b. where west winds meet subtropical high pressure zone
c. where Harmattan meets the N.E. trade winds
d. where cold fronts form in the tropics

307. When landing at Dakar in July, the weather to be expected is:

a. clear and dry

b. wet and stormy, due to proximity of the ITCZ
c. settled/warm/clear skies due to influence of the Azores High
d. low visibility/dust storms due to the Harmattan

308. When is the hurricane season in the Caribbean?

a. July to November
b. October to January
c. January to April
d. April to July

309. An aircraft is stationary on the ground. With the passage of an active cold front its
altimeter will:

a. show an increase then a decrease

b. fluctuate ± 50 ft
c. show a decrease then an increase
d. remain constant

310. What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

a. 2000 ft
b. 500 ft
c. 5000 ft
d. 10 000 ft
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311. Where is clear ice most likely in a Cb?

a. Near the freezing level

b. -2°C to -15°C
c. -20°C to -40°C
d. Below -40°C

312. You have to make an emergency ditch at sea. The QNH of a nearby island airfield
is 1025 hPa, airfield elevation 4000 ft. The temp is -20°C. With 1025 set on your sub-
scale, on ditching the altimeter will read:

a. 0 ft
b. less than 0 ft
c. > 0 ft but less than 4000 ft
d. 4000 ft

313. Which of the following will indicate medium level instability, possibly leading to
thunderstorms?

a. Halo
b. Altocumulus castellanus
c. Altocumulus capillatus
d. Red Cirrus

314. Radiation fog extends to:

a. 8000 ft
b. 4000 ft
c. 2000 ft
d. 500 ft

315. What is reported as precipitation?

a. FZFG
b. FG
c. TS
d. SN

316. At FL60 what pressure chart would you use?

a. 700 hPa
b. 850 hPa
c. 800 hPa
d. 900 hPa

317. On a descent through cloud cover at high level you notice a white, cloudy or
opaque, rough powder like substance on the leading edge of the wing. This
contamination is likely to be:

a. frost
b. clear ice
c. mixed ice
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d. rime ice
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318. In association with CB in temperate latitudes, at about what levels can hail be
anticipated?

a. Ground to FL100
b. Ground to FL200
c. Cloud base to FL200
d. Ground to FL450

319. Moderate turbulence gives:

a. changes in altitude and/or attitude but the aircraft remains in positive control
at all times
b. slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude
c. large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. Aircraft maybe momentarily
out of control
d. slight, rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness

320. ATIS reports:

a. aerodrome operational and meteorological information

b. met only
c. operational only
d. none of the above

321. +TSRA come from what sort of cloud?

a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Cc
d. Cu

322. Flying 2500 ft below core of jet, with temperature increasing in the Southern
Hemisphere, where does the wind come from?

a. Head
b. Tail
c. Left
d. Right

323. Secondary depressions move:

a. around the primary in a cyclonic fashion

b. around the primary in an anticyclonic fashion
c. eastwards
d. westwards

324. What temperature and pressure conditions would be safest to ensure that your
flight level clears all the obstacles by the greatest margin?

a. Cold temp/low pressure

b. Warm temp/high pressure
c. Temp less than or equal to ISA and a QNH less than 1013
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d. Temp more than or equal to ISA and a QNH greater than 1013
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325. In which part of the world are TRS most frequent?

a. Caribbean
b. Madagascar, Eastern Indian Ocean
c. NW Pacific i.e. Japan, Korea
d. Northern Indian Oceans around India, Sri Lanka

326. As an active cold front passes, the altimeter of an a/c parked on the apron:

a. increases then decreases

b. fluctuates by ± 50 ft
c. decreases then increases
d. remains unchanged

327. Where does a TRS gain its energy from?

a. Energy gained directly from the sun

b. Latent heat from water in oceans
c. The very fast winds
d. The very low pressures inside the storm

328. What is the height and temperature of the tropopause?

a. 8 km and -40°C at Equator

b. 16 km and -75°C at Equator
c. 16 km and -40°C at Pole
d. 8 km and -75°C at Pole

329. What is the easterly wave?

a. A wave of weather travelling east-west

b. A wave of weather travelling west-east
c. A wave of weather travelling north-south
d. A wave of weather travelling south-north

330. Where is icing worst?

a. Near condensation level

b. Near freezing level
c. -2°C to -15 °C
d. -16°C to -30°C etc.
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331. What is in position A?

a. Col
b. Ridge of high pressure
c. A low
d. A high

332. The geostrophic wind blows at your flight level in Northern Hemisphere, true
altitude and indicated altitude remain constant, is the crosswind:

a. from the left

b. from the right
c. no crosswind
d. impossible to determine

333. What is the base of altocumulus in summer?

a. 0 - 1500 ft
b. 1500 - 7000 ft
c. 7000 ft - 15 000 ft
d. 7000 ft - 16 500 ft

334. What is the general height of radiation fog?

a. 500 ft
b. 2000 ft
c. 3000 ft
d. 1500 ft

335. When a CC layer lies over a West European plain in summer, with a mean terrain
height of 500 m above sea level, the average cloud base could be expected:

a. 0- 100 ft above ground level

b. 5000 - 15 000 ft above ground level
c. 15 000 - 25 000 ft above ground level
d. 15 000 - 35 000 ft above ground level
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336. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across all three cloud levels (low,
medium and high level)?

a. CI
b. ST
c. AC
d. CB

337. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across at least two cloud levels?

a. ST
b. NS
c. CI
d. SC

338. Shortly after the passage of an active cold front you observe the aneroid altimeter
of a parked aircraft. The indication of the instrument will:

a. decrease
b. not be influenced by the air pressure
c. increase
d. show no appreciable change due to such minor pressure fluctuation

339. In a shallow pressure distribution (widely spaced isobars or low pressure

gradients) you observe the aneroid altimeter of a parked aircraft for 10 minutes (no
thunderstorms observed). The reading of the instrument will:

a. not be influenced by the air pressure

b. increase greatly
c. show no appreciable change due to such a minor pressure fluctuation
d. experience great changes

340. You are flying from Marseilles (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012
hPa) at FL100. You notice that the effective height above MSL (radio altitude)
increases constantly. Hence:

a. one of the QNH values must be wrong

b. you have the altimeters checked, as their indications are obviously wrong
c. the air mass above Palma is warmer than that above Marseilles
d. you have to adjust for a crosswind from the right

341. Which air mass has the coldest temperature?

a. mAc
b. mPc
c. cPc
d. mTw

342. You are flying from Marseilles (QNH 1026 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH
1026 hPa) at FL100. You notice that the effective height above MSL (radio altitude)
decreases constantly. Hence:
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a. one of the QNH values must be wrong

b. the air mass above Marseilles is warmer than that above Palma
c. you have the altimeters checked, as their indications are obviously wrong
d. you have to adjust for a crosswind from the right
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343. Flying at FL135 above the sea, the radio altimeter indicates a true altitude of
13 500 ft. The local QNH is 1019 hPa. Hence the crossed air mass is, on average:

a. at ISA standard temperature

b. colder than ISA
c. warmer than ISA
d. there is insufficient information to determine the average temperature
deviation

344. What happens to an aircraft altimeter on the ground once a cold front has passed?

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Increases then decreases
d. Remains the same

345. What happens to an aircraft’s altimeter on the ground at the approach of a cold
front?

a. Increases then decreases

b. Decreases then increases
c. Remains the same
d. Increases

346. Even pressure system, no CB - what would you notice the altimeter in an aircraft on
the ground do during a 10 min period?

a. Remains the same as any fluctuations are small

b. Increases
c. Rapidly fluctuates
d. Impossible to tell

347. What weather phenomenon is over northern Italy?

a. A high
b. Easterly wind
c. Cloud and rain
d. A col
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348. You are flying in the Alps at the same level as the summits on a hot day. What
does the altimeter read?

a. Same altitude as the summit

b. Higher altitude as the summit
c. Lower altitude as the summit
d. Impossible to tell

349. What cloud is between a warm and cold front?

a. St with drizzle
b. Cs
c. Ns
d. St with showers

350. From which cloud do you get hail?

a. Sc
b. Cb
c. Ns
d. Ts

351. When flying from south to north in the Southern Hemisphere, you cross over the
polar front jet. What happens to the temperature?

a. It increases
b. It decreases
c. It remains the same
d. Impossible to determine

352. If you see alto castellanus what does it indicate?

a. The upper atmosphere is stable

b. Subsistence
c. Instability in the lower atmosphere
d. Middle level instability

353. To dissipate cloud requires:

a. subsidence
b. a decrease in temperature
c. an increase pressure
d. convection

354. When would a SIGMET be issued for subsonic flights?

a. Thunderstorms and fog

b. Severe mountain waves
c. Solar flare activity
d. Moderate turbulence
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355. Which of these statements about icing is correct?

a. Ice will occur going through cirrus cloud

b. Large amounts of icing if temperature is way below -12°C
c. Icing increases if dry snow starts to fall from cloud
d. Icing will occur if supercooled water and ice are present

356. You will get least amount of icing in which cloud?

a. NS
b. SC
c. CS
d. AS

357. The core of a jet stream is located:

a. at the level where temperature change with altitude becomes little or nil and
the pressure surface is at maximum slope
b. in the warm air where the pressure surface is horizontal
c. in the warm air and directly beneath at the surface
d. in cold air

358. Isolated TS in summer are because of:

a. convection
b. cold fronts
c. warm front occlusions
d. cold front occlusions

359. Trade winds are most prominent or strongest in the:

a. upper troposphere over sea

b. lower troposphere over ocean
c. lower troposphere over land
d. upper troposphere over land

360. A layer of air can be:

a. conditional; unstable when unsaturated and stable when saturated

b. conditional; unstable when saturated and stable when unsaturated
c. neutrally stable when saturated and unstable when unsaturated
d. all of the above

361. On a significant weather chart you notice a surface weather front with an arrow
labelled with the no. 5 pointing outward perpendicular from the front. This would
indicate:

a. front speed is 5 kt
b. front movement is 5 NM
c. front thickness is 5 km
d. front is 5000 ft AMSL
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362. With all other things being equal with a high and a low having constantly spaced
circular isobars, where is the wind the fastest?

a. Anticyclonic
b. Cyclonic
c. Where the isobars are closest together
d. Wherever the PGF is greatest

363. Blocking anticyclones prevent the polar front from arriving over the UK and
originate from where?

a. Warm anticyclones over the Azores

b. Warm anticyclones over Siberia
c. Cold anticyclones over the Azores
d. Cold anticyclones over Siberia

364. Föhn winds are:

a. warm katabatic
b. cold katabatic
c. warm descending winds
d. warm anabatic

365. The gust front is:

a. characterized by frequent lightning

b. formed by the cold outflow from beneath TS
c. another name for a cold front
d. directly below a TS

366. Cu is an indication of:

a. vertical movement of air

b. stability
c. the approach of a warm front
d. the approach of a cold front

367. Which clouds are evidence of stable air?

a. St, As
b. Cb, Cc
c. Cu, Ns
d. Cu, Cb

368. Lack of cloud at low level in a stationary high is due to:

a. instability
b. rising air
c. sinking air
d. divergence at high level

369. What is the ratio of height to width in a typical jet stream?

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a. 1:10
b. 1:100
c. 1:1000
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370. When and where does an easterly jet stream occur?

a. All year through the Equator

b. In Summer from SE Asia through S. India to Central Africa
c. In Summer from the Middle East through N. Africa and the Mediterranean to
S. Spain
d. In winter in Arctic Russia

371. What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through
a cold front in the summer over central Europe at FL100?

a. Light turbulence in ST cloud

b. Moderate turbulence in NS cloud
c. Light turbulence in Cb cloud
d. Severe turbulence in Cb cloud

372. An easterly wave is a:

a. wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west with severe convective
activity in rear of its trough
b. small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west with
severe convective activity ahead of its trough
c. wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of indices moving from east to
west with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
d. disturbance in the higher levels associated with the Equatorial easterly jets,
moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough

373. What is the most common freezing precipitation?

a. Freezing pellets
b. Freezing rain and freezing drizzle
c. Freezing graupel
d. Freezing hail and freezing snow

374. Which of the following is an example of a Föhn wind?

a. Bora
b. Harmattan
c. Chinook
d. Ghibli

375. From which of the following clouds are you least likely to get precipitation in
summer?

a. CS/NS
b. CS/AS
c. CB/CU
d. CU/ST

376. What is a cold pool?

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a. Found south of the Alps if there is NW airflow

b. Cool area of weather which disappears at night
c. Cold pool is most evident behind polar frontal weather in mid temperate areas
with little or no sign on significant weather charts
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d. Air trapped on the leeward side of mountain ranges

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377. Where do you find information on ICING and CAT?

a. 300 hPa chart

b. 700 hPa chart
c. Sig. WX chart
d. Analysis chart

378. Which of these statements is true about hurricanes?

a. They are 400-500 m wide

b. They pick up in force when they hit land
c. The air inside is warmer than outside and can reach up to the tropopause
d. They are never found more than 25° latitude

379. Relative humidity:

a. is not affected by temperature

b. is not affected by air expanding and contracting
c. does not change when water is added
d. changes when water is added, even if the temperature is the same

380. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when forced to descend?

a. It heats up more than dry because of expansion

b. It heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. It heats up more than dry because of sublimation
d. It heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation

381. A warm front occlusion is approaching the east coast of the UK.
What WX would you expect in the North Sea during summer?

a. High level Ci
b. TS/showers/CB
c. Medium level cloud 3/8 oktas, isolated showers
d. Low level stratus

382. What is the average height of the tropopause at the Equator?

a. 16 km
b. 11 km
c. 5 km
d. 3 km

383. The tropopause is lower:

a. in summer in mid latitudes

b. at the North Pole than at the Equator
c. in summer at the Equator
d. at the Equator than at the South Pole

384. An airfield has an elevation of 540 ft with a QNH of 993 hPa. An aircraft descends
and lands at the airfield with 1013 hPa set. What will its altimeter read on landing?
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a. 380 ft
b. 1080 ft
c. 0 ft
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d. 540 ft

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385. In a METAR a gust is reported when:

a. it is 10 kt greater than the mean wind speed

b. it is 15 kt greater than the mean wind speed
c. it is 20 kt greater than the mean wind speed
d. it is 5 kt greater than the mean wind speed

386. When is pressure altitude equal to true altitude?

a. In standard conditions
b. When surface pressure is 1013.25 hPa
c. When the temperature is standard
d. When the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

387. What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 50 ft below MSL?

a. QFE = QNH
b. QFE < QNH
c. QFE > QNH
d. There is no clear relationship

388. Where would a pilot find information about the presence of a jet stream?

a. On an Upper Air chart

b. On a Significant Weather chart
c. On a Surface Analysis chart
d. On a Wind/Temperature chart

389. Up to FL180 ISA Deviation is ISA +10°C. What is the actual depth of the layer
between FL60 and FL120?

a. 6000 ft
b. 6240 ft
c. 5760 ft
d. 5700 ft

390. Thunderstorms will occur on a warm front:

a. when air is cold moist and cools quicker than SALR

b. when air is warm moist and cools quicker than SALR
c. when air is cold moist and cools slower than SALR
d. when air is warm moist and cools slower than DALR

391. What is the effect of a mountain valley wind?

a. It blows down a mountain to a valley at night

b. It blows down a mountain to a valley during the day
c. It blows from a valley up a mountain by day
d. It blows from a valley up a mountain at night

392. What is the name of the dry, dusty wind blowing in Northwest Africa from the
northeast?
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a. Pampero
b. Khamsin
c. Harmattan
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d. Ghibli

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393. What is the difference between gradient and geostrophic winds?

a. Difference in temperatures
b. A lot of friction
c. Curved isobars and straight isobars
d. Different latitudes and densities

394. In still air a lapse rate of 1.2°C/100 m refers to:

a. DALR
b. SALR
c. ELR
d. ALR

395. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when descending?

a. Heats up more than dry because of expansion

b. Heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. Heats up more than dry because of compression
d. Heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation

396. What prevents air from flowing directly from a high to a low pressure?

a. Centripetal force
b. Centrifugal force
c. Pressure force
d. Coriolis force

397. You are flying at FL160 with an OAT of -27°C. QNH is 1003 hPa. What is your true
altitude?

a. 15 540 ft
b. 15 090 ft
c. 16 330 ft
d. 15 730 ft

398. Flying from A to B at a constant indicated altitude in the Northern Hemisphere:

B
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a. true altitude increases

b. wind is northerly
c. true altitude decreases
d. wind is southerly
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399. What is the relationship between the 5000 ft wind and the surface wind in the
Southern Hemisphere?

a. Surface winds are veered from the 5000 ft and have the same speed
b. Surface winds are backed from the 5000 ft and have a slower speed
c. Surface winds are veered from the 5000 ft and have a slower speed
d. Surface winds are backed from the 5000 ft and have a faster speed

400. What is the relationship between the 2000 ft wind and the surface wind in the
Northern Hemisphere?

a. Surface winds blow across isobars towards a high

b. Surface winds blow parallel to isobars
c. Surface winds blow across isobars towards a low
d. Surface winds have laminar flow

401. The DALR is:

a. variable with time

b. fixed
c. variable with latitude
d. variable with temperature

402. Which frontal or occlusion system is the fastest moving?

a. Warm front
b. Cold front
c. Cold occlusion
d. Warm occlusion

403. From the preflight briefing you know a jet stream is at 31 000 ft whilst you are at
FL270. You experience moderate CAT, what would be the best course of action?

a. Stay level
b. Descend
c. Climb
d. Reduce speed

404. On a significant weather chart you notice a symbol with the letter “H” and the
number “400” inside. What does this imply?

a. The height of the significant weather chart

b. Tropopause “low”
c. Tropopause “high”
d. Tropopause “middle”

405. You are at 12 000 ft (FL120) with an outside air temperature of -2°C. Where would
you find the freezing level?

a. FL110
b. FL100
c. FL090
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d. FL140
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406. How does a polar front depression normally move?

a. Same direction as the isobars behind the cold front

b. Same direction as the isobars in the warm sector
c. Same direction as isobars in front of the warm front
d. Same direction as the isobars north of the centre of the low

407. Flying away from a low pressure at low levels in the Southern Hemisphere, where
is the wind coming from?

a. From the left and slightly on the nose

b. From the right and slightly on the nose
c. From the rear and slightly on the left
d. From the rear and slightly on the right

408. The ITCZ in July is:

a. over West Africa at 25°N and stretches up to the north of the Arabian Sea
b. 20°N over West Africa
c. over the Canaries
d. passing through Freetown

409. Using the diagram shown, what cross-section is through an occluded front?

a. DE
b. CD
c. CB
d. AB

410. What is true about the dew point temperature?

a. Can be higher or lower than the air mass temperature

b. Can be higher than the temperature of the air mass only
c. Can be only lower than the temperature of the air mass
d. Can be equal to or lower than the temperature of the air mass

411. What kind of weather system might you typically find between 45° - 70°N?

a. Subtropical highs
b. Polar highs
c. Polar front depressions
d. Arctic front depressions

412. What is true regarding supercooled water droplets?

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a. Always below -60°C

b. All large
c. All small
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d. All below 0°C

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413. What is most different about the equatorial easterly jet stream?

a. Its height
b. Its length
c. Its direction
d. Its speed

414. Flying towards a warm front, at what distances might you expect the following
cloud types from the surface position of the front?

a. CS 600 km; AS 400 km: NS 200 km

b. CS 200 km: AS 400 km: NS 600 km
c. CS 800 km: AS 200 km: NS 400 km
d. CS 400 km: AS 600 km: NS 800 km

415. Wind is caused by:

a. mixing of fronts
b. horizontal pressure difference
c. earth rotation
d. surface friction

416. What weather might you expect behind a fast moving cold front?

a. 8 oktas of layered cloud

b. Scattered ST
c. Isolated CBs and showers
d. Continuous rain

417. How would an unstable atmosphere likely reduce the visibility?

a. By mist
b. By haze
c. By rain and or snow
d. Low stratus

418. Which is true regarding a polar front jet stream?

a. It is found in the warm air and so does its plan projection show this
b. It is located where there is little vertical temperature gradient but the
horizontal pressure gradient is at its steepest
c. It is located where there is significant horizontal temperature difference but
the pressure gradient is flat
d. It is always in the colder of the air masses

419. Which of the following indicates upper level instability and possibly the formation
of TS?

a. Halo
b. Red cirrus
c. Altocumulus lenticularis
d. Altocumulus castallanus
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420. When are the North Atlantic lows at their most southerly position?

a. Spring
b. Summer
c. Autumn
d. Winter

421. A layer of air cooling at the SALR compared to the DALR would give what kind of
cloud?

a. Stratus if saturated
b. Cumulus if saturated
c. No cloud if saturated
d. Convective cloud

422. For the same pressure gradient at 50N, 60N and 40N, the geostrophic wind speed
is:

a. greatest at 60N
b. least at 50N
c. greatest at 40N
d. the same at all latitudes

423. What is a SPECI?

a. A forecast valid for 3 hours

b. A report produced when significant changes have occurred
c. A forecast and valid for 6 hours
d. A landing forecast

424. A parcel of air cooling by more than 1°C/100 m is said to be:

a. conditionally stable
b. conditionally unstable
c. unstable
d. stable

425. The wind in the Northern Hemisphere at the surface and above the friction layer at
2000 ft would be:

a. veered at the surface, veered above the friction layer

b. backed at the surface, veered above the friction layer
c. veered at the surface, backed above the friction layer
d. backed at the surface, backed above the friction layer

426. Where are easterly and westerly jets found?

a. Northern Hemisphere only

b. Southern Hemisphere only
c. Northern and Southern Hemisphere
d. There are no easterly jets
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427. Which weather phenomena are typical for the north side of the alps with stormy
winds from the south (Föhn)?

a. Drop in temperature, moderate to severe icing

b. Icing, huge mass of cloud
c. Good visibility, turbulence
d. Continuous precipitation and moderate turbulence

428. At 15 000 ft in nimbostratus cloud with an outside air temperature of -12°C, what
icing might you expect?

a. Moderate rain ice

b. Moderate to severe mixed ice
c. Moderate to severe ice if orographically intensified
d. Light rime ice

429. Comparing rain to drizzle, visibility will generally:

a. rain has a visibility of 1 km, drizzle has 2 km

b. remains the same
c. deteriorate
d. improve

430. What statement is true regarding the tropopause?

a. It is higher over the Equator with a higher temperature

b. It is lower over the Equator with a lower temperature
c. It is higher over the poles with a lower temperature
d. It is lower over the poles with a higher temperature

431. See Figure opposite.

What is the temperature deviation, in degrees Celsius, from the International
Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt (50N 08E) at FL180?

a. ISA +2°C
b. ISA -13°C
c. ISA +13°C
d. ISA -2°C

432. Polar front depression normally move:

a. in the direction of the isobars behind the cold front

b. in the direction of the isobars in front of the warm front
c. in the direction on the isobars ahead of the depression
d. in the direction of the isobars inside the warm sector
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433. QNH in a METAR is:

a. rounded up to the nearest whole hectopascal

b. rounded down to the nearest even hectopascal
c. rounded up to the nearest even hectopascal
d. rounded down to the nearest whole hectopascal

434. Thermal lows usually develop:

a. over the sea in summer

b. over the sea in winter
c. over the land in summer
d. over the land in winter

435. TAFs are usually valid:

a. for the period indicated in the TAF itself

b. for 18 hours
c. for 24 hours
d. for 8 hours

436. Tornadoes are usually associated with which cloud type?

a. Ns
b. Cu
c. Cb
d. Ts

437. Wind at altitude is usually given as …….. in ……..

a. true, m/s
b. magnetic, m/s
c. true, kt
d. magnetic, kt

438. The surface wind circulation found between the subtropical highs and the
Equatorial lows are called:

a. the doldrums
b. the trade winds
c. the easterlies
d. the westerlies

439. If an occlusion is mimicking a cold front, where would the coldest air be found?

a. Behind the original cold front

b. Behind the original warm front
c. In front of the occlusion
d. In front of the original warm front
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440. In high pressure systems:

a. the winds tend to be stronger in the morning

b. the angle between the isobars and the wind direction is greatest in the
afternoon
c. the winds tend to be stronger at night
d. the winds tend to be stronger in early afternoon

441. Over flat dry land what would cause cloud?

a. Orographic uplift
b. Convective uplift during the day
c. Release of latent heat
d. Advection

442. Where does freezing rain come from?

a. Cold hail falling into a warm layer

b. Cold rain falling into a warmer layer
c. Warmer rain falling into a colder layer
d. Cold rain falling into cold layer

443. Without the ability to de-ice or land immediately, what should you do if you
encounter rain ice at about 2000 ft?

a. Turn around immediately before loss of controllability

b. Descend immediately to stop the rain ice
c. Climb into the warm air found above
d. Fly faster

444. What is the feature W?

a. Warm occlusion
b. Cold occlusion
c. Quasi-stationary front
d. Warm front

445. Using the picture shown above, what will be expected to happen to the surface
pressure after the feature Y has passed?

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same
d. Increase, then decrease
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446. A man is flying east to west in the Northern Hemisphere. What is happening to his
altitude?

a. Flying into a headwind will decrease altitude

b. If the wind is from the south, he will gain altitude
c. If the wind is from the north, he will gain altitude
d. Tailwind will increase altitude

447. Up to FL180 ISA Deviation is ISA -10°C. What is the actual depth of the layer
between FL60 and FL120?

a. 6000 ft
b. 6240 ft
c. 5760 ft
d. 5700 ft

448. In central Europe in summer, under the influence of a polar depression in a wide
warm sector, you would expect the following wx:

a. thunderstorms and rain showers

b. low stratus and drizzle
c. fair weather Cu
d. clear skies

449. An easterly wave will produce:

a. frontal weather
b. thunderstorms and rain
c. low stratus
d. clear skies

450. The line connecting A to B crosses what pressure system?

a. A trough
b. A ridge
c. A front
d. An occlusion

451. Which coast of the USA is affected by the most frequent hurricanes?

a. NE
b. NW
c. SE
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d. SW
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452. Flying over France at dawn, with 8/8 St at 200 ft, QNH 1026, wind Var3, what will
be the most likely conditions at mid-day in winter and summer?

a. OVC 2000 ft St OVC 200 ft St

b. OVC 500 ft AGL St SCT 3000 ft St
c. OVC 2000 ft AGL St OVC 200 ft St
d. clear skies CBs

453. What do the following one hour interval METARS indicate the passage of?
22010KT 9999 SCT200 14/08 Q1012=
22010KT 9999 OVC200 13/08 Q1011=
23012KT 9KM SCT 060 OVC120 13/08 Q1010=
24012KT 8KM -RA BKN040 OVC090 12/08 Q1009=
25015KT 2000 +RA SCT002 OVC008 12/08 Q1008=
27015KT 0800 DZ BKN002 OVC010 17/16 Q1008=
27015KT 0800 DZ BKN002 OVC010 17/16 Q1008=
27015G30KT 1000 +SHRA TS OVC010 17/16 Q1008=
29020KT 9000 SHRA BKN020 14/07 Q1010=
31020KT 9999 SCTO30 13/07 Q1012=

a. Cold occlusion
b. Polar front
c. Ridge
d. Warm front

454. Paris reports OVC 8/8 St at +3°C during the day. What will happen on the night of
3/4 Jan?

a. Slightly above +3°

b. Slightly below +3°
c. Stays at +3°
d. Well below 0°

455. With a cold front over the North Sea, what weather would you expect 300 km
behind the front?

a. Stratus with drizzle

b. Thunderstorms and heavy showers
c. Scattered Cu and showers
d. Clear skies

456. Surface wind is 320/12 what is the wind at 2000 ft in the Northern Hemisphere?

a. 330/25
b. 220/20
c. 270/20
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d. 210/12
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457. Lucarno airfield elv 1735 ft altimeter indicates 1310 ft with 1013 hPa set what is the
QNH?

a. 990 hPa
b. 980 hPa
c. 1028 hPa
d. 998 hPa

458. Where is the ITCZ in July?

a. 25N over the Atlantic

b. 10 - 20N over East Africa and the Arabian sea
c. 10 - 30N over West Africa
d. 20 - 30N over East Africa

459. The letters NC used at the end of a SIGMET, mean:

a. no cloud
b. no change
c. no cumulus
d. not clear

460. On the route London to Bombay, which feature would you most likely encounter
between 30E and 50E?

a. Polar front jet in excess of 90 kt

b. Sub tropical jet in excess of 90 kt
c. Variable winds less than 30 kt
d. Easterly winds

461. When would the strongest convection occur?

a. Land in summer
b. Land in winter
c. Sea in summer
d. Sea in winter

462. Which way does a depression move?

a. Direction of the isobars in the warm sector

b. 90 degrees to the plane of the warm front
c. Towards the east
d. Direction of the isobars behind the cold front

463. Freezing rain is most likely from a:

a. warm front in summer

b. cold front in summer
c. warm front in winter
d. cold front in winter

464. With regard to RVR and met vis:

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a. met vis is usually less than RVR

b. met vis is usually greater than RVR
c. RVR is usually less than met vis
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d. met vis and RVR are usually the same

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465. When are thermal lows most likely?

a. Land in summer
b. Land in winter
c. Sea in summer
d. Sea in winter

466. What is the validity of a significant weather chart?

a. 3h
b. 6h
c. 9h
d. 12 h

467. What is the main feature of the initial stage of a thunderstorm?

a. Downdrafts
b. Up currents
c. Rain
d. Rotor cloud

468. What is haze?

a. Poor visibility due to drizzle

b. Poor visibility due to rain
c. Poor visibility due to dust or sand
d. All of the above

469. On the chart below, where is rain least likely?

a. EBBR
b. Madrid
c. Paris
d. LOWW
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470. On a flight from Zurich to Rome, which of the following METARs would be
applicable?

a. London
b. Shannon
c. Madrid
d. Milan

471. Which of the following is true about freezing precipitation?

a. It only falls from a warm front

b. It is either rain or drizzle
c. It only falls from a cold front
d. It only falls from an occlusion

472. What do the letters NO SIG mean at the end of a METAR?

a. No significant change
b. No significant weather
c. No significant cloud
d. No signature on report

473. What is a TREND forecast?

a. An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours

b. A routine report
c. A landing forecast appended to a METAR/SPECI valid for 2 hours
d. A route forecast, valid for 24 hours

474. How does clear ice form?

a. SWDs spreading on impact

b. Ice pellets shattering on impact
c. Frost on the wing
d. Water vapour freezing on the aircraft surface

475. Where is windshear the greatest?

a. Near a strong low level inversion and in the region of a thunderstorm

b. Near a valley with wind speeds greater than 35 kt
c. On the windward side of a mountain
d. When the wind is greater than 35 kt
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477. On the chart below, for the route Edinburgh to Zurich, state the optimum flight
level.

a. FL220
b. FL240
c. FL370
d. FL390

476. Where do you find squall lines?

a. Where there are thunderstorms

b. Ahead of a fast moving cold front
c. Foggy areas
d. Regions of snow

478. A Föhn wind occurs:

a. on the windward side caused by surface heating

b. on the leeward side, because the condensation level is higher
c. on the windward side, caused by surface cooling and wind flow reversal
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d. on the leeward side, caused by precipitation

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479. The Harmattan is:

a. a SE monsoon wind
b. a NE wind over NW Africa between Nov - April reducing visibility with dust
c. a local depression wind
d. SE wind over NW Africa between Nov - April reducing visibility with dust

480. Icing is most likely:

a. -20 to --35 C
b. +10 to 0 C
c. 0 to -10C
d. below - 35 C

481. At what height is half the mass of the atmosphere?

a. 5 km
b. 11 km
c. 8 km
d. 3 km

482. How can you determine QNH from QFE?

a. Temperature and elevation

b. Elevation
c. Pressure and temperature
d. Temperature

483. What is true about moderate to severe airframe icing?

a. It will occur in clear sky conditions

b. Always occurs in AS cloud
c. May occur in the uppermost levels of CB capillatus formation
d. Most likely in NS

484. A winter day in N Europe with a thick layer of SC and surface temperature zero
degrees C. You can expect:

a. decreasing visibility due to snow below the cloud base and light icing in cloud
b. high probability of icing in clouds, severe icing in the upper levels due to large
droplets
c. turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing due to clouds being formed
from ice crystals
d. reduced visibility and light icing in cloud

485. If an aircraft flies into an area of supercooled rain with a temperature below zero,
what kind of icing is most likely?

a. Clear
b. Rime
c. Hoar frost
d. Granular frost
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486. With regard to the idealized globe below, where are travelling lows located?

a. V
b. S+Y
c. T+W
d. U+W

487. If Paris has a surface wind of 160/40, what is the wind at 2000 ft?

a. 180/60
b. 120/40
c. 160/60
d. 160/40

488. What causes convection in a low pressure system?

a. Height
b. Latitude
c. Centripetal force
d. Friction

489. What is the cause of the formation of the polar front jet?

a. Pressure
b. Azores High
c. Temperature
d. Tropopause height

490. You are flying at FL120 with a true altitude of 12 000 ft, why would this be?

a. ISA conditions prevail

b. Temperature higher than ISA
c. Temperature lower than ISA
d. An altimeter fault

491. TAF 130600Z 130716 VRB02 CAVOK =

Volmet 0920 28020G40KT BKN050CB OVC090 TEMPO TS =

a. TAF is correct Volmet is wrong

b. TAF & Volmet match
c. Volmet speaker surely must have mixed up airports because there is no way
that TAF & Volmet can differ by that much
d. Conditions just turned out to be much more volatile than originally forecast
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492. What will be the position of the polar front in 24 hours time, assuming the usual
path of movement of the PF?

493. Considering the North Atlantic area at 60°N in winter, the mean height of the
tropopause is approximately:

a. 56 000 ft
b. 37 000 ft
c. 29 000 ft
d. 70 000 ft

494. An unsaturated parcel of air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. As long
as it stays unsaturated the temperature of the parcel will:

a. remain the same

b. become equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer
c. decrease at 1.0 deg C per 100 m
d. decrease at 0.65 deg C per 100 m
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Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
d a b a a a b a d b a a
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
b c c b b a a a a b c d
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
c d c b b c d a c a c d
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
c b a c a c b b a a a b
49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
d a b a a b a b a a c b
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72
b b d a b a b d d c c d
73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84
b b b a b b b a a a a a
85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96
c c a b a a a a a b c d
97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108
d b a b a b c b a c b d
109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
c b d a c a d d b d b c
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132
b a b c a b c d c c d a
133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144
d a a c a c b a d d c b
145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156
d a d c b c d c d a d a
157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168
c a a a c c b d c b d c
169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
a c a d d c b c a a a c
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192
a d b b c a c c c a b c
Answers

193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204
b b b d c b b d c d d b
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205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216
a b b c a c c c d c a b
217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228
a c c b d c a c a c c a
229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
c b b a a c c b d b c d
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252
a a a b d a c b a a a a
253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264
a d a c d a c d c b a b
265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276
c c c d c a a c b a d d
277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288
d d d b c b d a c b d c
289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
a c a d b d b a d b b d
301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312
c d c c c a b a a b b b
313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324
b d d c d d a a a c a d
325 326 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335 336
c a b b a c a c d a d d
337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348
b a c c c b b b d a c c
349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360
a b a d a b d c a a b b
361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372
a a a c b a a c b b d a
373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384
b c b c c c d b d a b b
385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396
a a c b b b a c c c b d
397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408
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b c c c b b b c a b a b
409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420
d d c d c a b c c b d d
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421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431 432
a c b c b a c c d d b d
433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444
d c a c c b a d b c a a
445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456
a c c b b a c b b b c a
457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468
c b b b a a c a a c b c
469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480
b d b a c a a b b b b c
481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492
a b d d a b a d c a d c
493 494
c c
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EASA Final Examination
1. MSA given as 12,000 ft, flying over mountains in temperatures +9°C, QNH set as
1023 (obtained from a nearby airfield). What will the true altitude be when 12 000
ft is reached?

a. 11 940
b. 11 148
c. 12 210
d. 12 864

2. In the Northern Hemisphere a man observes a low pressure system passing him to
the south, from west to east. What wind will he experience?

a. Backs then Veers

b. Constantly Backs
c. Veers then Backs
d. Backs then steady

3. What is Relative Humidity dependent upon?

a. Moisture content and temperature of the air

b. Temperature of the air
c. Temperature and pressure
d. Moisture content of the air

4. If the ELR is 0.65°C/100 m:

a. atmosphere is conditionally stable

b. atmosphere is stable
c. atmosphere is unstable
d. atmosphere is stable when dry

5. Height of the tropopause at 50°N:

a. 11 km
b. 16 km
c. 5 km
d. 20 km

6. ELR is 1°C/100 m:

a. neutral when dry

b. absolute stability
c. absolute instability
d. conditional stability

7. A steep pressure gradient is characterized by:

a. isobars close together, strengthened wind

b. isobars far apart, decreased wind
c. isobars close together, temperature increasing
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d. isobars far apart, temperature decreasing

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8. If you fly with left drift in the Northern Hemisphere, what is happening to your true
altitude?

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stays the same
d. Cannot tell

9. Sublimation:

a. solid to vapour
b. vapour to liquid
c. liquid to vapour
d. liquid to solid

10. What is the coldest time of the day?

a. 1 h before sunrise
b. 1/2 h before sunrise
c. at exact moment of sunrise
d. 1/2 h after sunrise

11. When is diurnal variation a maximum?

a. Clear sky, still wind

b. Clear sky, strong wind
c. OVC, still
d. OVC, windy

12. QNH at Timbuktu (200 m AMSL) is 1015 hPa. What is the QFE?
(Assume 1 hPa = 8 m)

a. 1000
b. 990
c. 1020
d. 995

13. Above a stable layer in the lower troposphere in an old high pressure system is
called:

a. radiation inversion
b. subsidence inversion
c. frontal inversion
d. terrestrial inversion

14. Why does air cool as it rises?

a. It expands
b. It contracts
c. The air is colder at higher latitudes
d. The air is colder at higher altitudes
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15. When flying at FL180 in the Southern Hemisphere you experience a left crosswind.
What is happening to your true altitude if indicated altitude is constant?

a. Remains the same

b. Increasing
c. Decreasing
d. Impossible to tell

16. Dew point is defined as:

a. the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
b. the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the
relative humidity
c. the temperature below which the change of state for a given volume of air
will result in absorption of latent heat
d. the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to reach saturation

17. Flying from Marseilles (QNH 1012) to Palma (QNH 1015) at FL100. You do not reset
the altimeter, why would true altitude be the same throughout the flight?

a. Not possible to tell

b. Air at Palma is warmer than air at Marseilles
c. Air at Marseilles is warmer than air at Palma
d. Blocked static vent

18. From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?

a. Surface pressure
b. Surface temperature
c. DALR
d. ELR

19. If when heading south in the Southern Hemisphere you experience starboard drift:

a. you are flying towards a lower temperature

b. you are flying away from a lower temperature
c. you are flying towards a low pressure
d. you are flying out of a high

20. How does the level of the tropopause vary with latitude in the Northern
Hemisphere?

a. Decreases north - south

b. Decreases south - north
c. Constant
d. It varies with longitude not latitude

21. What is the tropopause?

a. The layer between the troposphere and stratosphere

b. The boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere
c. Where temperature increases with height
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d. Upper boundary to CAT

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22. Where do you find the majority of the air within the atmosphere?

a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Tropopause
d. Mesosphere

23. Flying from an area of low pressure in the Southern Hemisphere at low altitudes,
where is the wind coming from?

a. Right and slightly on the nose

b. Left and slightly on the tail
c. Left and slightly on the nose
d. Right and slightly on the tail

24. The QNH at an airfield 200 m AMSL is 1009 hPa; air temperature is 10°C lower than
standard. What is the QFF?

a. Not possible to give a definite answer

b. Less than 1009
c. 1009
d. More than 1009

25. Which of these would cause your true altitude to decrease with a constant
indicated altitude?

a. Cold/Low
b. Hot/Low
c. Cold/High
d. Hot/High

26. Where is the ozone layer?

a. Ionosphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Tropopause
d. Troposphere

27. An aircraft flying in the Alps on a very cold day, QNH 1013 set on the altimeter, flies
level with the summit of the mountains. Altitude from aneroid altimeter reads:

a. same as mountain elevation

b. lower than mountain elevation
c. higher than mountain elevation
d. impossible to determine

28. QNH is defined as:

a. the pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere

b. the pressure at MSL obtained using the actual conditions
c. QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
d. QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere
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29. Where would you expect to find the strongest wind on the ground in temperate
latitudes?

a. In an area of low pressure

b. In an area of high pressure
c. In the warm air between two fronts
d. In a weak anticyclone

30. Landing at an airfield with QNH set the pressure altimeter reads:

a. zero feet on landing only if ISA conditions prevail

b. zero
c. the elevation of the airfield if ISA conditions prevail
d. the elevation of the airfield

31. You are flying in an atmosphere which is warmer than ISA, what might you
expect?

a. True altitude to be the same as indicated altitude

b. True altitude to be lower than indicated altitude
c. True altitude to be the decreasing
d. True altitude to be higher than indicated altitude

32. The environmental lapse rate in the real atmosphere:

a. has a fixed value of 2°C / 1000 ft

b. has a fixed value of 0.65°C / 100 m
c. varies with time
d. has a fixed value of 1°C /100 m

33. Airfield is 69 metres below sea level, QFF is 1030 hPa, temperature is ISA -10°C.
What is the QNH?

a. Impossible to tell
b. Less than 1030 hPa
c. 1030 hPa
d. More than 1030 hPa

34. The QNH is 1030 hpa and at the transition level you set the SPS. What happens to
your indicated altitude?

a. Drops by 510 ft
b. Rises by 510 ft
c. Rises
d. Drops

35. What is the movement of air relating to a trough?

a. Descending and diverging

b. Ascending and diverging
c. Descending and converging
d. Converging and ascending
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36. What is the movement of air relating to a ridge?

a. Descending and diverging

b. Ascending and diverging
c. Descending and converging
d. Ascending and converging

37. What is the min. temperature according to ISA?

a. -56.5°C
b. -273°C
c. -100°C
d. 215.6 K

38. The temperature at the surface is 15°C, the temperature at 1000 m is 13°C. The
atmosphere is:

a. unstable
b. conditionally unstable
c. stable
d. cannot tell

39. You are flying from Madrid (QNH 1012) to Paris (QNH 1015) at FL80. If your true
altitude and indicated altitude remain the same then:

a. the air at Madrid is warmer than Paris

b. the air at Paris is warmer than Madrid
c. the altimeters are incorrect
d. your indicated altitude must be changing

40. If you are flying on a QNH 1009 on very cold day and you circle the top of a peak in
the Alps, your altimeter will read:

a. the same as the elevation of the peak

b. lower than the elevation of the peak
c. higher than the elevation of the peak
d. not enough information to tell

41. What is subsidence?

a. Horizontal motion of air

b. Vertical down draught of air
c. Vertical up draught of air
d. Adiabatic cooling

42. Relative humidity increases in:

a. warmer air compared to colder air

b. warm air at a constant vapour pressure
c. cold air at a constant vapour pressure
d. colder air compared to warmer air
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43. Which of the following gives conditionally unstable conditions?

a. 1°C/100 m
b. 0.65°C/100 m
c. 0.49°C/100 m
d. None of the above

44. A mass of unsaturated air is forced to rise till just under the condensation level.
If it then settles back to its original position:

a. temp. is greater than before

b. temp. stays the same
c. temp. is less than before
d. it depends on QFE

45. What height is the tropopause and at what temperature?

a. At the poles 8 km and -16°C

b. At the pole 18 km and -75°C
c. At the Equator 8 km and -40°C
d. At the Equator 18 km and -76°C

46. Which of the following will give the greatest difference between temperature and
dew point?

a. Dry air
b. Moist air
c. Cold air
d. Warm air

47. Solar radiation heats the atmosphere by:

a. heating the air directly

b. heating the surface, this then heats the air in the atmosphere
c. heating the water vapour in the atmosphere directly
d. heating the water vapour directly unless there are clouds present

48. What affects how much water vapour the air can hold?

a. RH
b. Temperature
c. Dew point
d. Pressure

49. Aerodrome at MSL, QNH is 1022. QFF is:

a. greater than 1022

b. less than 1022
c. same as QNH
d. cannot tell without temperature information

50. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?
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a. Inversion
b. Advection
c. Adiabatic
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d. Subsidence

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51. On a surface weather chart, isobars are lines of:

a. QNH
b. QFE
c. QFF
d. QNE

52. Which of the following constituents in the atmosphere has the greatest effect on
the weather?

a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Hydrogen
d. Water Vapour

53. Which of the following is true?

QNH is:

a. always more than 1013.25 hPa

b. always less than 1013.25 hPa
c. never 1013.25 hPa
d. can never be above or below 1013 hPa

54. If an aerodrome is 1500 ft AMSL on QNH 1038, what will be the actual height AGL
to get to FL75? (27 ft = 1 hPa).

a. 6675 ft
b. 8170 ft
c. 8330 ft
d. 2330 ft

55. Altimeter set to 1023 at aerodrome. On climb to altitude the SPS is set at transition
altitude. What will indication on altimeter do on resetting to QNH?

a. Dependent on temperature
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Same

56. Secondary depressions move:

a. around the primary in a cyclonic fashion

b. round the primary in an anticyclonic fashion
c. eastwards
d. westwards

57. What temperature and pressure conditions would be safest to ensure that your
flight level clears all the obstacles by the greatest margin?

a. Cold temp/low pressure

b. Warm temp/high pressure
c. Temp less than or equal to ISA and a QNH less than 1013
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d. Temp more than or equal to ISA and a QNH greater than 1013
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58. In a shallow pressure distribution (widely spaced isobars or low pressure
gradients) you observe the aneroid altimeter of a parked aircraft for 10 minutes (no
thunderstorms observed). The reading of the instrument will:

a. not be influenced by the air pressure

b. increase greatly
c. show no appreciable change due to such a minor pressure fluctuation
d. experience great changes

59. You are flying from Marseilles (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012
hPa) at FL100. You notice that the effective height above MSL (radio altitude)
increases constantly. Hence:

a. one of the QNH values must be wrong

b. you have the altimeters checked, as their indications are obviously wrong
c. the air mass above Palma is warmer than that above Marseilles
d. you have to adjust for a crosswind from the right

60. You are flying from Marseilles (QNH 1026 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1026
hPa) at FL100. You notice that the effective height above MSL (radio altitude)
decreases constantly. Hence:

a. one of the QNH values must be wrong

b. the air mass above Marseilles is warmer than that above Palma
c. you have the altimeters checked, as their indications are obviously wrong
d. you have to adjust for a crosswind from the right

61. Flying at FL135 above the sea, the radio altimeter indicates a true altitude of
13 500 ft. The local QNH is 1019 hPa. Hence the crossed air mass is, on average:

a. at ISA standard temperature

b. colder than ISA
c. warmer than ISA
d. there is insufficient information to determine the average temperature
deviation

62. You are flying in the Alps at the same level as the summits on a hot day. What
does the altimeter read?

a. Same altitude as the summit

b. Higher altitude as the summit
c. Lower altitude as the summit
d. Impossible to tell

63. To dissipate cloud requires:

a. subsidence
b. a decrease in temperature
c. an increase pressure
d. convection

64. A layer of air can be:

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a. conditional; unstable when unsaturated and stable when saturated

b. conditional; unstable when saturated and stable when unsaturated
c. neutrally stable when saturated and unstable when unsaturated
d. all of the above
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65. Relative humidity:

a. is not affected by temperature

b. is not affected by air expanding and contracting
c. does not change when water is added
d. changes when water is added, even if the temperature is the same

66. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when forced to descend?

a. It heats up more than dry because of expansion

b. It heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. It heats up more than dry because of sublimation
d. It heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation

67. An airfield has an elevation of 540 ft with a QNH of 993 hPa. An aircraft descends
and lands at the airfield with 1013 hPa set. What will its altimeter read on landing?

a. 380 ft
b. 1080 ft
c. 0 ft
d. 540 ft

68. When is pressure altitude equal to true altitude?

a. In standard conditions
b. When surface pressure is 1013.25 hPa
c. When the temperature is standard
d. When the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

69. What happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when descending?

a. Heats up more than dry because of expansion

b. Heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c. Heats up more than dry because of compression
d. Heats up less than dry because of latent heat released during condensation

70. The DALR is:

a. variable with time

b. fixed
c. variable with latitude
d. variable with temperature

71. Which of the following defines RH?

a. HMR/ Satuaration mixing ratio × 100

b. Absolute humidity/ mixing ratio × 100
c. Saturation mixing ratio/ HMR × 100
d. Amount of water held/ amount of water air could hold × 100
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72. A winter day in N Europe with a thick layer of SC and surface temperature zero
degrees C. You can expect:

a. decreasing visibility due to snow below the cloud base and light icing in cloud
b. high probability of icing in clouds, severe icing in the upper levels due to large
droplets
c. turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing due to clouds being formed
from ice crystals
d. reduced visibility and light icing in cloud

73. TAF 130600Z 130716 VRB02 CAVOK =

Volmet 0920 28020G40KT BKN050CB OVC090 TEMPO TS =

a. TAF is correct Volmet is wrong

b. TAF & Volmet match
c. Volmet speaker surely must have mixed up airports because there is no way
that TAF & Volmet can differ by that much
d. Conditions just turned out to be much more volatile than originally forecast

74. What will be the position of the polar front depression in 24 hours time, assuming
the usual path of movement of the polar front depression?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

75. The Harmattan is:

a. a SE monsoon wind
b. a NE wind over NW Africa between Nov - April reducing visibility with dust
c. a local depression wind
d. a SE wind over NW Africa between Nov - April reducing visibility with dust

76. Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on aircraft icing?

a. Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil

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b. RH inside the cloud

c. Cloud temperature and droplet size
d. Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets
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77. In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate?

a. British Isles
b. Baltic sea
c. Black sea
d. East of Greenland

78. What is the validity of a significant weather chart:

a. 3h
b. 6h
c. 9h
d. 12 h

79. On the route London to Bombay, which feature would you most likely encounter
between 30E and 50E?

a. Polar front jet in excess of 90 kt

b. Subtropical jet in excess of 90 kt
c. Variable winds less than 30 kt
d. Easterly winds

80. Where is the ITCZ in July?

a. 25N over the Atlantic

b. 10 - 20N over East Africa and the Arabian sea
c. 10 - 30N over West Africa
d. 20 - 30N over East Africa
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Answers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
d b a d a a a a a d a b
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
b a c d c d b b b a c d
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
a b c d a d d c d a d a
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
a c a c b c b b d a b b
49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
c a c d c a c a d c c b
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72
b c a b d b b a b b a d
73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
d c b c d b c c

1. 12 000ft = 12 × 2 = 24 - 15 = -9 ISA
Ambient +9 ISA -9, deviation ISA +18
12(000) × 18 × 4 (constant) = 864
12 000 + 864 (ISA +) = 12 864 ft.

67. Aircraft is 540 ft above

the 993 hPa level, but
a further 540 ft above
the 1013 hPa level
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