CLASS CONTACT PROGRAMME

Academic Session 2025-26

TARGET: JEE (M + A) : 2026
CLASS: IIT-ENTHUSIAST (CHENNAI SCHOOL) PHASE-01
TEST TYPE: OFFLINE DATE: 23.07.2025 PATTERN: JEE ADVANCED
Time: 3 Hours MAJOR TEST - 01 Maximum Marks: 198
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
Important Instructions:

1. The question paper has 3 parts: PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY and MATHEMATICS. Each part has 3 SECTIONS.

2. Section I(i): This section contains SIX (06) questions. SINGLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Marking scheme : +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

3. Section I(ii): This section contains SIX(06) questions. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –2 in all other cases.

4. Section II: This section contains SIX (06) questions. NUMERICAL VALUE.

Marking scheme : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered. 0 In all other cases.

5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any
electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.

6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in

the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

8. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

9. Take g = 10 m/s unless 2 otherwise stated.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals): ……………………………… Batch : ……………………………..

Candidate's Signature : …………………………………… Invigilator's Signature : …………………………

SYLLABUS
Physics Capacitance, Magnetic Effects Of Current.
Chemistry d & f-Block, Coordination Compounds & RX, ArX & RMgX.
Relations & Function, Inverse Trigonometric Function, Limits &
Mathematics
Continuity, Derivability.

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE(Advanced) 2026

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 IIT-Enthusiast (Chennai School)/Phase-01/Major Test-01/23-07-2025

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

PHYSICS
SECTION-I(i) : (Maximum Marks: 18)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. In the circuit shown below, initially the switch is open and the capacitors are uncharged. The ratio of current
through 2 Ω resistor, just after the switch is closed and a long time after the switch is closed?

(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
2. Find the potential difference across AB. If voltage of ideal battery 5 Volt?

(A) 4 V (B) 2 V
(C) 1 V (D) None of these
3. In the circuit shown here C1 = 6 μ F, C2 = 3 μ F and battery B = 20 V. The switch S1 is first closed. It is then
opened and afterwards S2 is closed. What is the charge on C2?

(A) 120 μ C (B) 80 μ C

(C) 40 μ C (D) 20 μ C

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4. Find time constant of the RC circuit shown in figure.

(A) 3RC (B) 3RC

2
(C) RC (D) RC
3
5. A particle of mass M and carrying charge Q is launched with initial speed v and at an angle of θ relative to the
horizontal direction. When it reaches the maximum height it enters a region of uniform magnetic field. In the
region it moves at constant velocity in the horizontal direction. Determine the direction and strength of the
magnetic field.

Mg Mg
(A) outward (B) inward
Qv cos θ Qv cos θ
Mg Mg
(C) outward (D) inward
Qv sin θ Qv sin θ
6. A wire carrying a current of 4A is bent in the form of a parabola x2 + y = 16 as shown in figure, where x and y
are in meter. The wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field B→ = 5k^ tesla. The force acting on the wire is :-

^
(A) 80 j N (B) – 80 ^j N
^ ^
(C) −160 j N (D) 160 j N

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SECTION-I(ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second option being
an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the
three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this
case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect
option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

7. Consider the following statements regarding a charged particle in a magnetic field. Which of the statements are true?
(A) Starting with zero velocity, it accelerates in a direction perpendicular to the magnetic field.
(B) While deflection in magnetic field its energy gradually increases.
(C) Only the component of magnetic field perpendicular to the direction of motion of the charged
particle is effective in deflecting it.
(D) Direction of deflecting force on the moving charged particle is perpendicular to its velocity.
8. A parallel plate capacitor has a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K between its plates that covers 1/3 of the
area of its plates, as shown in the figure. The total capacitance of the capacitor is C while that of the portion
with dielectric in between is C1. When the capacitor is charged, the plate area covered by the dielectric gets
charge Q1 and the rest of the area gets charge Q2. Choose the correct options, ignoring edge effects.

E1 E1 1 Q1 3 C 2+K
(A) =1 (B) = (C) = (D) =
E2 E2 K Q2 K C1 K

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9. A parallel plate air-core capacitor is connected across a source of constant potential difference.
When a dielectric plate is introduced between the two plates then :
(A) some charge from the capacitor will flow back into the source.
(B) some extra charge from the source will flow back into the capacitor.
(C) the electric field intensity between the two plate does not change.
(D) the electric field intensity between the two plates will decrease.
10. The figure shows a graph of the current in a discharging circuit of a capacitor through a resistor of resistance 10 Ω .

(A) The initial potential difference across the capacitor is 100 volt.
1
(B) The capacitance of the capacitor is F.
10 ℓ n2
500
(C) The total heat produced in the circuit will be Joules.
ℓ n2
1
(D) The thermal power in the resistor will decrease with a time constant second.
2 ℓ n2
11. A particle of mass m and charge q, moving with velocity v enters region II normal to the boundary as shown in
the figure. Region II has a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of the paper. The length of the
Region II is ℓ . Choose the correct choice (s).

qℓB
(A) The particle enters Region III only if its velocity v >
m
qℓB
(B) The particle enters Region III only if its velocity v <
m

(C) Time spent by particle in Region II is π m when v < q ℓ B

qB m

(D) Time spent in Region II is same for any velocity v as long as the particle returns to Region I

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12. A particle of charge +q and mass m moving under the influence of a uniform electric field E^i and uniform
magnetic field Bk^ follows a trajectory from P to Q as shown in figure. The velocities at P and Q are vi^ and −2j^,
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

3 mv2
(A) E = [ ]
4 qa
3 mv3
(B) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is [ ]
4 a

(C) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is zero

(D) Rate of work done by both the fields at Q is zero

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SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the answer. If
the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two decimal places; e.g.
6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct)

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Negative Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. A 4C charge is moving in a crossed electromagnetic field on a straight line perpendicular to both fields. If B = 5T
and E = 50 N/C then find speed of the charge in m/sec.
2. Current i = 2.5 A flows along the circular loop whose equation is given by x2 + y2 = 9 cm2 (here x & y are in cm).
If magnetic field is given by π a × 10 –9 T at point (0, 0, 4 cm), state value of a.
3. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm lies in a vertical plane between the pole pieces of
permanent magnet producing a horizontal magnetic field 20 mT. The torque acting on the coil when a current
of 0.2 A is passed through it and its plane becomes parallel to the magnetic field will be √x × 10−5 Nm. The
value of x is____.
4. A straight wire current element is carrying current 100 A, as shown in figure. The magnitude of magnetic field at
point P which is at perpendicular distance ( √3 – 1)m from the current element if end A and end B of the element
subtend angle 30° and 60° at point P, as shown, is N × 10 –7 T, where N is a integer, then find the value of N.

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5. The charge (in µC) on capacitor of capacitance 20 µF in the figure given below is ____.

6. Four identical plate each of area A, separation d. Are placed as shown in figure. Energy stored between plate 1
2 ε 0 AV02
and 2 is find B.
βd

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I(i) : (Maximum Marks: 18)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. What is wrong about the compound K [Pt ( η 2-C2H4) Cl3 ]?
(A) It is called Zeise's salt
(B) It is π bonded complex
(C) Oxidation number of Pt is +4
(D) Four ligands surround the platinum atom
2. Which of the following complex has geometry different from others?
(A) [NiCl4] –2
(B) [Ni(CO)4]
(C) [Ni(CN)4] –2
(D) [Zn(NH3)4]+2
3. Which of the following complex will show geometrical isomerism?
(A) Potassium amminetrichloroplatinate(II)
(B) Aquachlorobis (ethylenediamine) cobalt(II) chloride
(C) Potassium tris(oxalato) chromate(III)
(D) Pentaaquachlorochromium(III) chloride
4. Choose incorrect statement :
(A) Most abundant transition metal in the earth's crust is Fe.
(B) Biggest lanthanoid is Ce. (having largest radius)
(C) Vanadium has highest melting point in 3d – series.
(D) Cu has highest density in 3d series.

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5. Which of the following is most reactive towards SN2 mechanism?
(A) CH3 – Cl
(B) CH2=CH – CH2 – Cl
(C)

(D)

6. The best combination of reagents for synthesis of Ph – O – CH2 – CH3 by williamson synthesis.
(A) PhBr + CH3CH2O – Na+
(B) EtBr + PhO – Na+
(C) EtBr + EtO – Na+
(D) PhBr + PhO – Na+

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SECTION-I(ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second option being
an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the
three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this
case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect
option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

7. Select type of isomerism in :

(A) Linkage isomerism

(B) Optical isomerism
(C) Geometrical isomerism
(D) Co-ordination position isomer
8. The correct statement(s) regarding the binary transition metal carbonyl compounds is (are) (Atomic numbers :
Fe = 26, Ni = 28)
(A) Total number of valence shell electrons at metal centre in Fe(CO)5 or Ni(CO)4 is 16
(B) These are predominantly low spin in nature
(C) Metal - carbon bond strengthens when the oxidation state of the metal is lowered
(D) The carbonyl C – O bond weakens when the oxidation state of the metal is increased

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9. Fusion of MnO2 with KOH in presence of O2 produces a salt W. Alkaline solution of W upon electrolytic
oxidation yields another salt X. The manganese containing ions present in W and X, respectively, are Y and Z.
Correct statement(s) is/are :
(A) Y is diamagnetic in nature while Z is paramagnetic
(B) Both Y and Z are coloured and have tetrahedral shape
(C) In both Y and Z, hybridization of central metal atom is d3s
(D) In aqueous acidic solution, Y undergoes disproportionation reaction to give Z and MnO2.
10. The correct statement(s) about transition elements is/are :
(A) In d-block elements, the stability of higher oxidation state increases if we move down a group.
(B) transition elements of 3d-series have almost same atomic sizes from Cr to Cu
(C) the stability of +2 oxidation state increases across the period
(D) some transition elements like Ni, Fe, Cr may show zero oxidation state in some of their compounds
11. Which of the following statements is/are correct for a nucleophile?
(A) Nucleophiles attack at electron deficient sites
(B) Nucleophiles are not electron seeking
(C) Nucleophile is a Lewis acid
(D) Ammonia is a nucleophile
12. Incorrect statement among the following is/are :
(A) R—OH with NaI in the presence of phosphoric acid gives R—I, but not in the absence of
phosphoric acid
(B) 2-methyl propane on chlorination (Cl2, h ν ) gives 1-chloro-2-methyl propane as major
product while bromination (Br2, hv) gives 2-bromo-2-methyl propane as major product.
(C) Usually higher temperature prefers substitution over elimination
(D) Triphenyl chloromethane cannot be hydrolysed

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SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the answer. If
the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two decimal places; e.g.
6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct)

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Negative Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. How many total possible Grignard reagents (including stereoisomers) can give 3 – methylpentane on treatment
with CH3COOH?
2. Number of compounds which can show faster rate of nucleophilic substitution reaction with NaOCH3 than

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3. How many moles of Grignard reagent will be consumed during the following reaction?

(1) CH3 −MgBr (excess)

−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−→
(2) H3 O ⊕

4. Consider the given reaction sequence

(Where a, b is achiral monodentate ligand and (AA) is achiral symmetrical bidentate ligand.)
Number of Geometrical isomers of Complex - P, Complex- Q, and Complex-R are X, Y and Z respectively. X,
Y & Z are the 1st, 2nd and 3rd digits of your answer (X Y Z).
[For example : X = 1, Y = 2, Z = 3 then you have to fill 123 as your answer in OMR sheet]
5. For the t62g e2g system, the value of spin only magnetic moment (µ-spin) is ___. (Nearest Integer)
6. Which of the following ions are diamagnetic?
Tb2+, Ce4+, Yb2+, Lu3+,Pr2+, Nd2+, Pm2+, Sm2+, Gd3+

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I(i) : (Maximum Marks: 18)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

1. Let x ∈ R, then f is :

(A) Differentiable both at x = 0 and at x = 2.

(B) Differentiable at x = 0 but not differentiable at x = 2.
(C) Not differentiable at x = 0 but differentiable at x = 2.
(D) Differentiable neither at x = 0 nor at x = 2.
x2 + x + 1
2. If lim ( − ax − b) = 4, then :
x→ ∞ x+1
(A) a = 1, b = 4
(B) a = 1, b = – 4
(C) a = 2, b = – 3
(D) a = 2, b = 3
α x − (e3x − 1)
3. Let β = lim for some α ∈ R. Then the value of α + β is :
x→0 α x (e3x − 1)
14 3
(A) (B)
5 2
7 5
(C) (D)
2 2

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4. Let f : R → R be defined as

where [x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to x. If f is continuous at x = 2, then λ + μ is equal to :
(A) e( – e + 1) (B) e(e – 1)
(C) 1 (D) 2e – 1
1/2
If 0 < x < 1, then √1 + x2 [{x cos(cot−1 x) + sin(cot−1 x)}
2
5. − 1] is :
x
(A) (B) x
√1 + x2
(C) x√1 + x 2 (D) √ 1 + x2

⎛ 2sin−1 ( 4x12 −1 ) ⎞
6. The domain of the function cos−1 ⎜
⎜ ⎟
⎟ is :
⎝ π ⎠

1 1
(A) R − {− , } (B) (− ∞ , −1] ∪ [1, ∞ ) ∪ {0}
2 2

(− ∞ , − ]∪[ , ∞ ) ∪ {0}
1 1 1 1
(C) (− ∞ , − ) ∪ ( , ∞ ) ∪ {0} (D)
2 2 √2 √2

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SECTION-I(ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second option being
an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the
three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this
case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect
option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

7. Let f(x) be a polynomial satisfying f(9x) = f '(3x).f "(3x), then which of the following is correct?
(A) f(x) is polynomial of degree 3.
(B) f(x) is increasing for all real values of x.
(C) Number of solutions of f(x) = √4 − x2 is 2.
1 − cos(f ′ ′ (2)) 1 − cos(f ′ ′ (2))
(D) Value of tan−1 √ is π – 9.tan−1 √
1 + cos(f ′ ′ (2)) 1 + cos(f ′ ′ (2))
8. Let f : R → R and g : R → R be functions satisfying f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + f(x) f(y) and f(x) = xg(x) for all
x, y ∈ R. If lim g(x) = 1, then which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
x→0

(A) f is differentiable at every x ∈ R.

(B) If g(0) = 1, then g is differentiable at every x ∈ R.
(C) The derivative f '(1) is equal to 1.
(D) The derivative f '(0) is equal to 1.

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a2 a3 π
9. If sin−1 (a − + −. . .) + cos−1 (1 + b + b2 +. . .) = (|a| < 3 and |b| < 1) , then which of the following
3 9 2
is/are incorrect?
3a − 2
(A) b=
2a
2a − 3
(B) b=
3a
2
(C) a=
3 − 2b
3
(D) a=
2 − 3b
10. Which of the following is true?
x sin x
(A) lim sec−1 ( ) exists but lim sec−1 ( ) does not exist.
x→0 sin x x→0 x
100x 99 sin x
(B) lim ([ ]+[ ]) = 198 where [.] denotes the greatest integer function.
x→0 sin x x
x2
(C) lim [ ] = 1, where [.] denotes the greatest integer function.
x→0 sin x tan x
1 1
cos x 3 + cos x
(D) lim
x→0 1
does not exist but x→0
lim 1
exists.
cos x 3 + cos x

11. If siny = xsin(a + y), dy/dx is equal to :

sin a
(A)
x2 − 2x cos a + 1
sin a
(B) 2
x + 2x cos a + 1
sin y
(C)
x2 − 2x cos a + 1
sin2 (a + y)
(D)
sin a

12. Let then :

(A) H(x) is continuous and derivable in [0, 3].

(B) H(x) is continuous but not derivable at x = π /2.
(C) H(x) is neither continuous nor derivable at x = π /2
(D) Maximum value of H(x) in [0, 3] is 1.

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SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the answer.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two decimal places;
e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be
correct)

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Negative Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1 − 22x
1. If f(x) = sin(cos −1
( )) and its first derivative with respect to x is − b loge 2, when x = 1, where a
2x a
1+2
and b are integers, then the minimum value of |a2 – b2| is ____.
x6000 − (sin x)6000 k
530
2. If x→0
lim = k, then ∑ [ ] is equal to ____. (Note: [k] denotes the G.I.F less than equal to k)
x2 (sin x)6000 r=499
r

3. Let Find the number of points of non-differentiability of the function

g(x) = |f(|x|)| + |f(x)|.
61
4. If f(x) = cot –1(4x2 + 6x + 3) + cot –1(4x2 + 10x + 7) + cot –1(4x2 + 14x + 13) + ....10 terms, then − f ′ (0) is
60
equal to ___.
d 2 y/dx2
5. If x = 2 + t3, y = 3t2 and if n is constant. Then the value of n is ___.
( dx )
dy

6. Let [t] denote the greatest integer ≤ t. The number of points where the function
π
f(x) = [x]|x2 − 1| + sin( ) − [x + 1], x ∈ (−2, 2) is not continuous is ____.
[x] + 3

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