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com/bQQ2EkH1bpb

NABARD Memory Based Paper

Grade A 16 Oct, 2023 Shift 1
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200 Questions

Que. 1 Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:
A is 9m to the north of B. C is 4 to the north of D. E is 8m to the west of D. C is 6m to the east of B. H
is to the east of A and north of D. E is 7m to the south of F. G is 4m to the east of F.
Find the odd one out.

1. EG
2. BH
3. FA
4. AC
5. EB

Correct Option - 4

Que. 2 Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
There are seven members in the family of three generations. There are two couples in the family. Tarun
is the grandson of Shreya who is married to Raghav. Kavita is the only daughter of Raghav. Umesh is the brother
of Tarun who is the son of Lokesh. Raghav is the father of Parth. Shreya is the mother-in-law of Lokesh who is
married to Kavita.

How many female members are there in the family?

1. Five
2. Four
3. Three
4. Two
5. Six

Correct Option - 4

Que. 3 How is Lokesh related to Raghav?

1. Son
2. Brother
3. Father
4. Son-in-law
5. Cannot be determined

Correct Option - 4

Que. 4 Direction: In the following question, assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the
conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/are definitely true, and then give your answers
accordingly.

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Statement:
T < Y = W > M, Q > S > U = N < T, M > O = Z
Conclusions:
I. M > N
II. W > U
III. M ≤ U

1. Only II follows
2. Either I or III follows
3. Either II or III follows
4. Either I or III and II follow
5. None follows

Correct Option - 4

Que. 5 Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order
from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that “D < I” definitely
holds True?
D __ R __ P __ I

1. =, >, <
2. <, <, >
3. ≤, ≤, ≤
4. <, =, ≤
5. >, =, >

Correct Option - 4

Que. 6 Directions: Question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it.
You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Six people – Megha, Suhas, Rakesh, Akshay, Safia and Nidhi are standing in a line according to their height. But
not necessarily in the same order. Who is the second tallest person?
Statement I: Megha is taller than just two person. Rakesh is taller than Nidhi and Safia but he is not the tallest.
Suhas is the shorter than just two person.
Statement II: Nidhi is the second shortest person. Megha is shorter than three persons. Suhas is shorter than
Akshay and Rakesh. Safia is the shortest.

1. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is
not sufficient to answer the question
2. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is
not sufficient to answer the question
3. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
4. The data in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question
5. The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question

Correct Option - 1

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Que. 7 Five persons Harsh, Ankita, Manya, Khush and Ramya are sitting on the circle and facing inside the
circle. How many persons are sitting between Khush and Ankita (counted from left of Khush)?
I. Manya is sitting immediate right of Harsh. Ankita is not a neighbor of Harsh.
II. Khush is sitting second to the right of Harsh.

1. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is
not sufficient to answer the question.
2. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is
not sufficient to answer the question.
3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
4. If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Correct Option - 5

Que. 8 Direction: Study the information given carefully and answer the question given below.
I) In a certain code language, “Some Pool Car” is coded as “Bik Fiu Skj” and “Water Push Pool” is
coded as “Skj Gdr Lhg” and “Some More Tool” is coded as “Bik Fkd Wyg”.
II) In a certain code language, “Pet Push Palm” is coded as “Tiu Gdr Poi” and “Push Put Pole” is coded as “Gdr
Dgh Wkj”.
What is the code for “Car”?

1. Statement I is alone sufficient

2. Both statements are together needed to answer the question
3. Either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
4. Statement II is alone sufficient
5. Both statements are not sufficient to answer the question

Correct Option - 1

Que. 9 Direction: Study the information given carefully and answer the question given below.
What is the code for “Moon”?
I) In a certain code language, “Sun is bright” is coded as “tar sar par” and “Earth has a moon” is coded as “zar tor
lor per”.
II) In a certain code language, “Earth is round” is coded as “zar sar mer” and “Moon is a satellite” is coded as
“tor per xer sar”.

1. Only I is sufficient
2. Only II is sufficient
3. Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient
4. Both Statement I and II together is sufficient
5. Both Statement I and II together are not sufficient

Correct Option - 5

Que. 10 Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

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Ten people P, Q, R, S, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z sit in two parallel rows containing six seats. Row 1 faces north, and
Row 2 faces south. There is one vacant seat in each row, not facing each other. Z faces north and sits at the right
end. Four seats are between V and Z. V faces the immediate neighbor of R. R doesn't sit near the vacant seat. W
sits immediately right to the vacant seat which is not at the end. At most one person sits between R and W. Y sits
at one end but not facing Z. Q does not sit at any end. W faces P. R faces a vacant seat in Row 1. Q sits opposite
S and sits immediately left of the vacant seat. X does not face south.

Who among the following person faces the one who sits immediate right of U?

1. The one who sits second to the left of R

2. V
3. The one who sits second to the right of P
4. X
5. The one who sits immediately right of Z

Correct Option - 3

Que. 11 How many persons are sitting between V and S?

1. Two
2. Three
3. One
4. Four
5. Either Two or Three

Correct Option - 1

Que. 12 What is the position of W with respect to Y?

1. Second to the right

2. Third to the right
3. Immediate right
4. Second to the left
5. Immediate left

Correct Option - 4

Que. 13 Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement:
Every Coin is a Banknote.
Every Banknote is a Cheque.
Some Cheques are not Policy
Conclusion:
I. All Policies are Cheques.

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II. All Banknotes being Policy is a possibility.

1. Both I and II
2. Only II
3. Only I
4. Neither I nor II
5. Either I or II

Correct Option - 2

Que. 14 Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement:
Some glasses are cups.
Only a few Cup is Tray.
Some trays are not spoons.
Conclusion:
I. Some Spoons are Tray.
II. All Tray are Cup is a possibility.

1. Only I follows
2. Either I or II follows
3. Both I and II follows
4. Neither I nor II follows
5. Only II follows

Correct Option - 5

Que. 15 Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
No Camera is Mobile Phone
No Mobile Phone is a TV
All TV is Remote
Conclusion:
I. Some mobile phones being Remote is a possibility.
II. All TV being Camera is a possibility.

1. Both I and II follow

2. Neither I nor II follows
3. Only I follows
4. Either I or II follows

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5. Only II follows

Correct Option - 1

Que. 16 Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some Erasers are not pencils.
Only a few Pencil is Cutter.
No Cutter is Sharpner.
Conclusion:
I. Some erasers are sharpeners.
II. No Sharpener is an Eraser.

1. Only II follows
2. Either I or II follows
3. Neither I nor II follows
4. Only I follows
5. Both I and II follows

Correct Option - 2

Que. 17 Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Six persons Zoe, Kanan, Gem, Hari, Max, and Abi go on a trip on three different dates 7, 11, and 22 in
November and December. They all carry different food items with them viz. Chaat, Dosa, Idli, Kachori, Halwa,
and Panipuri but not necessarily in the same order. Hari carries Idli. Two persons go between one who carries
Dosa and Idli. Max goes on an even date of an even number of days a month and doesn't carry Kachori. As many
persons go before Kanan as after the one who carries Kachori. Zoe goes on a prime date of odd number of days a
month and doesn't carry Dosa. The person carrying the Halwa goes before the person carrying the Chaat but not
immediately before. Kanan doesn't carry Halwa. Hari goes just before Kanan. Gem does not go near to Abi who
does not carry Chaat.

How many persons go on the trip after the one who carry Kachori?

1. Two
2. Five
3. Three
4. Four
5. One

Correct Option - 5

Que. 18 Which of the following number shows that the sum of trip date of Abi and Hari?

1. 18

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2. 29
3. 14
4. 22
5. 33

Correct Option - 3

Que. 19 Who among the following person go on a trip on 22nd November?

1. The one who carries Dosa

2. Hari
3. The one who carries Kachori
4. Zoe
5. The one who carries Halwa

Correct Option - 5

Que. 20 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Zoe goes on a trip on an even date.
II. Hari goes on a trip in December.
III. One person goes on a trip between Gem and the one who likes Dosa.

1. Only I
2. Both I and II
3. Only II
4. Only III
5. Both II and III

Correct Option - 4

Que. 21 Directions: The sentence given below has 2 blanks, each blank indicating that something has been
omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit the appropriately.
More than a 100 Mexican _________ and officials have been murdered due making these the _________ mid-
term elections in their history.

1. voters, most serene

2. politicians, bloodiest
3. prisoner, gruesome
4. engineers, pleasant
5. guards, smoothest

Correct Option - 2

Que. 22 Direction: The sentence given below has 2 blanks, each blank indicating that something has been
omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit the blanks appropriately.

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Several hundred protesters ________ on Saturday in Barcelona against a Spanish government crackdown
following a ________ outcry over the imprisonment of Pablo Hasl.

1. surrendered, feared
2. followed, awaited
3. marched, violent
4. chatter, dangerous
5. walked, pleasant

Correct Option - 3

Que. 23 Directions: The sentence given below has 2 blanks, each blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit the blanks appropriately.
The school _________ International Women's Day by taking the girls _________ in the forest.

1. settled, trekking
2. manage, plowing
3. mutilate, ski
4. celebrated, camping
5. manipulated, snowing

Correct Option - 4

Que. 24 Directions: The sentence given below has 2 blanks, each blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit the blanks appropriately.
The chances of an __________ on the origins of the coronavirus pandemic and holding Beijing accountable will
depend a great deal on the Joe Biden __________.

1. assignment, ideology
2. report, software
3. statement, governance
4. philosophy, navigation
5. investigation, administration

Correct Option - 5

Que. 25 Directions: The sentence given below has 2 blanks, each blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit the blanks appropriately.
Orbital Assembly Corporation recently ________ new details about its ________ project of building a hotel
above Earth’s atmosphere.

1. unveiled, ambitious
2. interrogated, morbid
3. resilient, galloped
4. prohibit, vague
5. magnificent, suffering

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Correct Option - 1

Que. 26 Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question
will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.
The Aral Sea, once one of the largest inland bodies of water in the world, was a vast expanse straddling
Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan. This unique ecosystem was not only an ecological marvel but also a key source of
livelihood for local populations. Covering about 68,000 square kilometres, its waters were teeming with fish,
supporting a robust fishing industry that provided economic stability and sustenance. Additionally, the sea
attracted researchers and nature enthusiasts globally, intrigued by its biodiversity and natural beauty. The plight
of the Aral Sea began in the mid-20th century, when Soviet planners embarked on ambitious irrigation schemes
to boost the Soviet Union's cotton production, often referred to as "white gold." The Amu Darya and Syr Darya
rivers, which fed the Aral Sea, were diverted to irrigate vast cotton fields across Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, and
Turkmenistan. This transformation turned the arid plains into one of the world's largest cotton-producing regions.
However, this agricultural success came at a significant environmental cost. As the rivers were redirected to
support agriculture, the Aral Sea began to lose its lifeblood. By the 1980s, the once-thriving aquatic ecosystem
was shrinking rapidly. The shoreline receded and water levels plummeted dramatically, leading to a profound
ecological disaster that had far-reaching consequences, not only for the environment but also for the people and
local economies. The rising salinity levels of the diminishing Aral Sea decimated fish populations, collapsing the
fishing industry that many communities depended on. The once lush and biologically rich deltas transformed into
arid, salty plains. Additionally, the natural climate buffer provided by the sea was disrupted, leading to hotter
summers and colder winters in the region. These climatic changes exacerbated the living conditions for local
residents, who were already grappling with economic hardships due to the collapse of the fishing industry. The
health problems that followed were severe and widespread. The exposed seabed, now laden with toxic residues
from agricultural runoff, generated dust storms that carried pollutants far and wide. These dust storms led to
significant respiratory issues, along with an increased incidence of diseases such as cancers and tuberculosis
among the population. The spread of pollutants also contaminated the remaining water sources, further
exacerbating the public health crisis and making clean water a precious and scarce commodity.
Recognizing the severity of the crisis too late, Soviet authorities proposed several grandiose yet impractical
schemes. Among the more ambitious ideas was the plan to divert rivers from Siberia to refill the Aral Sea.
However, such solutions proved technically unfeasible and economically impractical, leading to their eventual
abandonment. No significant remediation was undertaken during the Soviet era, and the environmental
degradation continued unabated. It was only after the dissolution of the Soviet Union in the early 1990s that a
concerted effort to address the Aral Sea disaster was initiated. The newly independent Central Asian republics of
Turkmenistan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Kazakhstan, and Uzbekistan faced the urgent need to tackle the crisis
collectively, as the environmental degradation had far-reaching, transboundary impacts. This realization
culminated in a historic meeting in September 1995, where the presidents of these five nations convened to forge
a united front against the disaster. The leaders at the summit underscored the critical need for regional
cooperation and international assistance. They acknowledged that the Aral Sea’s decline threatened not only the
local economy and public health but also the broader ecological balance of the region. During this summit,
strategies were formulated to manage water resources more sustainably, restore parts of the ecosystem, and
solicit financial and technical support from the global community. This marked a turning point, bringing global
attention to the Aral Sea crisis and fostering a new level of collaboration among the Central Asian
nations. Historically, water management in Central Asia has always been a nuanced and vital endeavour, given
the region's predominantly arid climate. Ancient civilizations in this area developed sophisticated irrigation
systems that ensured sustained agricultural practices and thriving settlements. However, the Soviet-era policies
drastically deviated from these time-honoured, locally adapted water management practices. The imposition of
top-down solutions, driven by industrial and agricultural demands, significantly exacerbated the ecological
damage. This historical context underscores the importance of integrating traditional knowledge with modern
practices in environmental stewardship to achieve sustainable outcomes.
Efforts to revive the Aral Sea continue today, driven by both local initiatives and international collaborations.
One noteworthy project is the construction of the Kok-Aral Dam by Kazakhstan, aimed at retaining water in the
smaller Northern Aral Sea. This endeavour has shown promising results, with rising water levels and the gradual

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return of fish populations, offering a glimmer of hope for an otherwise dire situation. While the full restoration of
the Aral Sea remains a distant goal, these efforts symbolize a commitment to environmental restoration and
resilience. They demonstrate that, even in the face of significant ecological degradation, concerted human effort
and international cooperation can create positive change. The tragedy of the Aral Sea is a powerful reminder of
the devastating consequences of unsustainable environmental practices. It emphasizes the critical importance of
sustainable development, thoughtful environmental stewardship, and robust international collaboration in
addressing and preventing such ecological disasters in the future. The story of the Aral Sea stands as a poignant
example of how human actions can drastically alter natural ecosystems, leading to extensive and often
irreversible impacts on both the environment and human populations. However, it also serves as a call to action,
urging us to adopt sustainable practices and work collaboratively across borders to protect our planet for future
generations. In summary, the Aral Sea's saga highlights the interconnectedness of human actions and
environmental health. It's a stark illustration of how questing for economic gain without regard for ecological
consequences can lead to widespread environmental degradation and human suffering. Yet, the ongoing efforts to
rehabilitate the region provide a beacon of hope, showcasing the resilience of both nature and human
communities. The lessons learned from the Aral Sea disaster underscore the urgency of integrating sustainable
practices into development agendas globally, and the need for international collaboration to tackle environmental
challenges effectively. By preserving our natural ecosystems, we safeguard not only the environment but also the
well-being and future of humanity.

According to the passage, which factor directly contributed to the shrinking of the Aral Sea?

1. The construction of urban settlements around the sea.

2. Diversion of the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers for irrigation purposes.
3. Overfishing by the local population.
4. Industrial pollution from local factories.
5. Natural climate changes over centuries.

Correct Option - 2

Que. 27 The passage states that the Kok-Aral Dam project was initiated by which nation?

1. Uzbekistan
2. Turkmenistan
3. Kazakhstan
4. Kyrgyzstan
5. Tajikistan

Correct Option - 3

Que. 28 Which of the following is true according to the passage about the impact on the local climate due to the
shrinking of the Aral Sea?

1. Milder winters and cooler summers were experienced.

2. More even precipitation throughout the year was noted.
3. Hotter summers and colder winters occurred.
4. Increased humidity was observed.
5. Extended growing seasons were documented.

Correct Option - 3

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Que. 29 According to the passage, what were some of the health problems caused by the exposed seabed of the
Aral Sea?

1. Hepatitis and malaria

2. Respiratory issues and increased incidence of cancers
3. Cholera and typhoid fever
4. Diabetes and hypertension
5. Obesity and cardiovascular diseases

Correct Option - 2

Que. 30 Which of the following was not cited as a reason for the demise of the Aral Sea fishing industry?

1. Rising salinity levels

2. Excessive fishing activities
3. Depletion of fish populations
4. Receding shoreline
5. Collapse of local economies

Correct Option - 2

Que. 31 Which of the following statements is accurately expressing the objectives of the 1995 summit of
Central Asian republics regarding the Aral Sea disaster?

1. The summit aimed to distribute fishing rights more equitably among nations.
2. The summit was focused on re-instating Soviet-era irrigation policies.
3. The summit sought to manage water resources more sustainably and restore parts of the ecosystem.
4. The summit aimed to increase cotton production in the region.
5. The summit was organized to discuss industrial pollution control.

Correct Option - 3

Que. 32 Which of the following statements best describes the primary objective of the Kok-Aral Dam project?

1. To increase tourist attractions in Kazakhstan.

2. To establish a new industrial zone on the riverbanks.
3. To retain water in the smaller Northern Aral Sea and revive fish populations.
4. To divert water exclusively for agricultural use.
5. To facilitate international shipping routes.

Correct Option - 3

Que. 33 According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) The Kok-Aral Dam project has shown signs of progress in reviving the Northern Aral Sea.

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B) Dust storms from the exposed seabed of the Aral Sea have spread pollutants, contributing to respiratory
issues.
C) Soviet authorities successfully implemented schemes to replenish the Aral Sea during the Soviet era.

1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Only C
4. A and B
5. B and C

Correct Option - 3

Que. 34 Fill in the blank based on the passage: By the 1980s, the ________________ and water levels
plummeted dramatically, leading to a profound ecological disaster.

1. shoreline extended
2. natural habitat flourished
3. shoreline receded
4. biological diversity increased
5. fishing activities intensified

Correct Option - 3

Que. 35 Which of the following words is similar in meaning to "exacerbated" as used in the passage?

1. Improved
2. Intensified
3. Mitigated
4. Simplified
5. Relieved

Correct Option - 2

Que. 36 Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to "robust" as used in the passage?

1. Vigorous
2. Fragile
3. Sturdy
4. Resilient
5. Hearty

Correct Option - 2

Que. 37 In the following sentence, four words are given in bold out of which one word is misspelled. Find
the misspelled word.

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A part of the Afghan force was encamped (A) on the west bank (B) of the Kushk, and on the 29th of March
General Komarov sent an ultimatam (C) demanding their withdrawal. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Correct Option - 3

Que. 38 In the following sentence, four words are given in bold out of which one word is misspelled. Find
the misspelled word.
The city's manufactures (A) include glass, brick, tile, carriages (B) and wagons, agricultural (C) implements,
pianos (D) and organs and cigars.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Correct Option - 5

Que. 39 In the following sentence, four words are given in bold out of which one word is misspelled. Find
the misspelled word.
As you practise (A) the exercise, (B) your mind and body relaxs, (C) which can help you focus and think more
clearly. (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Correct Option - 3

Que. 40 In the following sentence, four words are given in bold out of which one word is misspelled. Find
the misspelled word.
This explanation (A) is unsatisfactory (B) from many points of view, but till quite recently (C) no aceptable
(D) alternative has been advanced.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

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5. No error

Correct Option - 4

Que. 41 In the following sentence, four words are given in bold out of which one word is misspelled. Find
the misspelled word.
Detectives(A) carried out a thorogh(B) search of the building(C) at the border of our campus(D).

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error

Correct Option - 2

Que. 42 Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C)
and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with
different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement
as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.
The Merchant(A) loaded sell(B) with the goods, which he was going to wagons(C) as he traveled through the
country(D).

1. A-B
2. C-D
3. B-C
4. A-C
5. No rearrangement

Correct Option - 3

Que. 43 Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C)
and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with
different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement
as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.
Half-way(A) between the island(B) of the river(C) and the bank(D), a large rock rose out of the water.

1. B-C
2. A-B
3. A-C
4. B-D
5. No rearrangement

Correct Option - 4

Que. 44 Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C)
and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with

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different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement
as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.
A troop(A) Wolf saw this tricky(B) of Rats, and began to plan(C) how he could catch(D) them

1. B-C
2. B-D
3. C-D
4. A-B
5. No rearrangement

Correct Option - 4

Que. 45 Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C)
and (D). These words may or may not be placed in their correct order. Four options with
different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement
as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.
I have a vegetables(A) garden and every summer(B) I enjoy eating(C) my own vegetable(D).

1. B-C
2. A-C
3. C-D
4. A-D
5. No rearrangements

Correct Option - 4

Que. 46 In the following question, the first and the last parts of the sentence or passage are numbered 1
and 6. The rest of the sentence or passage is split onto 4 parts and named P, Q, R and S. the four
parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences(s) and fond put which of the following four
combinations is correct.
1. The Holocaust was and still is one of the most horrendous acts carried out by humans against humans.
P. where they had the life snuffed out of them by poisonous gas. The worst part of this atrocity was
Q. and felt that they were entitled to more than another set of beings belonging to the same species as them.
R. In a world where all Jews were targeted for being what they are – Jewish – Adolf Hitler brought together
lakhs of Jewish people only to pile them up in concentration camps
S. that there were thousands of people that blindly followed Hitler in his madness
6. While Hitler did ultimately get what was coming, it was nowhere near enough pain as compared to what
he meted out.

1. RPSQ
2. RQSP
3. QRPS
4. QRSP
5. QSPR

Correct Option - 1

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Que. 47 In the following question, the first and the last parts of the sentence or passage are numbered 1
and 6. The rest of the sentence or passage is split onto 4 parts and named P, Q, R and S. the four
parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences(s) and fond put which of the following four
combinations is correct.
1. As dawn broke through the horizon, Dana looked up from her book, realizing for the first time
P. She hadn’t eaten for so long, but she hadn’t felt it until just then when her stomach grumbled. She got up
for a late night snack,
Q. or more like an early morning snack when she realized that there was no food in the fridge,
R. she was supposed to go grocery shopping yesterday. This is exactly what happened
S. that she had been reading for the past 8 hours and had lost all track of time.
6. when she lost herself in a book every time, she went into a trance like state until she completed the book.

1. SRQP
2. SPRQ
3. SPQR
4. SQRP
5. SRPQ

Correct Option - 3

Que. 48 In the following question, the first and the last parts of the sentence or passage are numbered 1
and 6. The rest of the sentence or passage is split into 4 parts and named P, Q, R and S. the four
parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences(s) and find out which of the following four
combinations is correct.
1. The detective was following the murder accused woman to her home,
P. and just as he realized that his hunch about the woman having an accomplice was true,
Q. only by a small bulb, which too was flickering.
R. when he felt a tap on his back. He turned around,
S. he blacked out. He woke up tied to a chair in a dim room light
6. All of a sudden he felt a presence behind him, before that person could hit him again he yelled out loud.

1. PQRS
2. RSPQ
3. RQSP
4. RPSQ
5. PQSR

Correct Option - 4

Que. 49 1. In the following question, the first and the last parts of the sentence or passage are numbered 1
and 6. The rest of the sentence or passage is split into 4 parts and named P, Q, R and S. the four
parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences(s) and find out which of the following four
combinations is correct.
1. Weight loss is a very sensitive topic for some people.
P. and thus are not ashamed of their body or weight.
Q. While there are many people that are conscious about their weight,

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R. These are people that boldly stand up to body-shamers

S. due to portrayal of unnatural bodies in the media, some people own up to what they are
6. and people that make fat-phobic statements.

1. PQRS
2. QSPR
3. RPQS
4. SPRQ
5. PQSR

Correct Option - 2

Que. 50 In the following question, the first and the last parts of the sentence or passage are numbered 1
and 6. The rest of the sentence or passage is split into 4 parts and named P, Q, R and S. the four
parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences(s) and find out which of the following four
combinations is correct.
1. Moving away from home can be a strenuous activity for many people.
P. While some people may look forward to it,
Q. and thus can never adjust to
R. an environment where they don’t get their way.
S. there are some people who are complete homebodies
6. These are people that develop stress-related problems due to the non-conducive living condition.

1. PSQR
2. PQRS
3. PSRQ
4. PRSQ
5. RPQS

Correct Option - 1

Que. 51 What type of connector is used to connect a mouse and keyboard to the CPU?

1. Mini-USB
2. USB-C
3. USB-B
4. USB-A
5. Micro-USB

Correct Option - 4

Que. 52 Third generation computers used _______________.

1. VLSI technique
2. Transistors
3. Vacuum tubes

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4. Integrated circuits
5. Bio-chips

Correct Option - 4

Que. 53 Which part of the CPU fetches and decodes instructions from memory?

1. ALU
2. Control Unit
3. Cache memory
4. Registers
5. RAM

Correct Option - 2

Que. 54 What is the main benefit of using a stylus with a touchscreen device?

1. Higher screen resolution

2. Extended battery life of the device
3. Enhanced precision for drawing and writing
4. Improved sound quality
5. Faster internet connection

Correct Option - 3

Que. 55 What is the main function of POST (Power-On-Self Test)?

1. It performs diagnostic tests before booting the operating system.

2. It serves as a temporary storage area where information can be accessed and manipulated quickly in
order to carry out complex tasks.
3. It provides battery backup when the electrical power fails or drops to an unacceptable voltage level.
4. It is the backbone that ties the computer’s components together at one spot and allows them to
communicate.
5. It converts mains AC to low-voltage regulated DC power for the internal components of a computer.

Correct Option - 1

Que. 56 Which Control Panel category enables you to optimize the visual display on your desktop?

1. Hardware and Sound

2. System and Security
3. Network and Sharing Center
4. Ease of Access
5. Appearance and Personalization

Correct Option - 5

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Que. 57 Where is the BCC option typically found in an email?

1. Subject
2. To
3. From
4. Attachments
5. CC

Correct Option - 2

Que. 58 Which of the following best defines "real-time protection" in antivirus software?

1. Running system optimization tools

2. Cleaning up your internet browser history
3. Providing automatic, continuous monitoring for threats
4. Defragmenting your hard drive
5. Scanning your computer only during system startup

Correct Option - 3

Que. 59 Which of these is system software?

1. Microsoft Word
2. Windows operating system
3. Microsoft Excel
4. Google Chrome
5. Adobe Photoshop

Correct Option - 2

Que. 60 What does ‘R’ stand for in CD - R?

1. Recordable
2. Repository
3. Removable
4. Resource
5. Rewritable

Correct Option - 1

Que. 61 Which of the following search engine is launched by Microsoft?

1. Yandex
2. Bing
3. Baidu
4. Google

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5. Safari

Correct Option - 2

Que. 62 Which computer, created by Steve Jobs and Steve Wozniak in 1976, is listed among the following
options?

1. Apple I
2. Macintosh SE
3. iMac
4. Macintosh 512k
5. Fat Mac

Correct Option - 1

Que. 63 Which one of the following is the basic unit of information in quantum computing?

1. OCTABYTE
2. QUBIT
3. QUBYTE
4. GIGABIT
5. BIT

Correct Option - 2

Que. 64 Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used in a Windows 10 system to switch between open
apps?

1. Ctrl + N
2. Alt + Tab
3. Ctrl + Tab
4. Alt + N
5. Shift + Tab

Correct Option - 2

Que. 65 How do you perform a right-click using a laptop trackpad?

1. Tap with 3 fngers

2. Scroll with 3 fngers
3. Scroll with 2 fngers
4. Double tap with 1 fnger
5. Tap with 2 fngers

Correct Option - 5

Which of the following is an open source operating system?

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Que. 66
1. MS-DOS
2. iOS
3. Linux
4. Windows
5. None of the above

Correct Option - 3

Que. 67 What is the full form of VPN?

1. Virtual Public Network

2. Virtual Partner Network
3. Virtual Private Network
4. Virtual Packet Network
5. Virtual Planet Network

Correct Option - 3

Que. 68 Arrange the following in ascending order of the speed:

A. RAM
B. Hard disk
C. Cache
D. Floppy

1. ABDC
2. BDAC
3. DBAC
4. BADC
5. BDCA

Correct Option - 3

Que. 69 ______ replaced vacuum tubes.

1. Resistor networks
2. Transistors
3. Microchips
4. Electromagnetic coils
5. Diodes

Correct Option - 2

Que. 70 What type of touchscreen technology is typically employed in ATMs and Point-of-sale (POS)
machines?

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1. Optical
2. Infrared
3. Resistive
4. Surface Acoustic Wave
5. Capacitive

Correct Option - 4

Que. 71 A mixture contains 250 liters of alcohol and water in a ratio of 4: 1. 20% of the mixture is taken out
and replaced by the same quantity of alcohol and again 30% of the mixture is taken out and replaced
by the same quantity of water. Find the quantity of alcohol is how much more or less than that of water in the
final mixture.

1. 40 litres
2. 44 litres
3. 54 litres
4. 48 litres
5. 46 litres

Correct Option - 2

Que. 72 P, Q and R together can complete a work in 10 days. P and Q together can complete the work in 20
days. Q and R together can complete the work in 15 days. Find the time taken by P and R together to
complete the work.

1. 8 days
2. 10 days
3. 14 days
4. 12 days
5. 6 days

Correct Option - 4

Que. 73 A boat covers (x + 30) km downstream in 5 hours, and (y + 40) km upstream distance in 15 hours. Find
the time taken by the boat to travel (4x + 2y) km downstream, if the speed of the boat in still water is
thrice that of the stream (2 km/h).

1. 6 hours
2. 8 hours
3. 10 hours
4. 12 hours
5. 9 hours

Correct Option - 3

Que. 74

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What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not expected to
calculate the exact value).
(60867.89 - 7986.90 - 3284.8 - 12828.90) x √100 = ?

1. 382780
2. 374680
3. 367670
4. 377670
5. 387980

Correct Option - 3

Que. 75 What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not
expected to calculate the exact value).
[√(1764.28) ÷ 14.019] x 18.032 = ? – 516.997

1. 598
2. 531
3. 571
4. 481
5. 578

Correct Option - 3

Que. 76 What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not
expected to calculate the exact value).
√(1088.89)/10.89 × 40.09 = ? - 399.89

1. 520
2. 580
3. 540
4. 560
5. 590

Correct Option - 1

Que. 77 What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not
expected to calculate the exact value).
? % of 599.80 + 60.07% of 349.78 = 449.89% of 79.98

1. 30
2. 35

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3. 20
4. 40
5. 25

Correct Option - 5

Que. 78 What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not
expected to calculate the exact value)
√(? + 54.68) x 3.04 = 19.78% of 149.68

1. 50
2. 60
3. 55
4. 45
5. 40

Correct Option - 4

Que. 79 The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the number of peoples (Males +
Females) living in the five different cities A, B, C, D and E.
Total number of peoples (Males + Females) = 120000

The table given below provides data about the percentage of males in these five cities.

Name of the city Percentage of males

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A 30%

B 35%

C 40%

D 20%

E 25%

Find the average number of males working in all the colleges.

1. 6432
2. 6428
3. 6984
4. 6864
5. 6442

Correct Option - 3

Que. 80 If the number of males in the city F is 20% more than the number of males in city E and the number of
females in the city F is 10% more than the number of females in city D. Find the total number of
people in city F.

1. 24600
2. 33600
3. 24700
4. 34600
5. 31800

Correct Option - 2

Que. 81 Find the angle formed by the number of people in city A and city E together.

1. 126.4°
2. 180.9°
3. 123.6°
4. 126.6°
5. 136.8°

Correct Option - 5

Que. 82 Find the ratio between the number of males in city D to the number of females in city E.

1. 4: 5
2. 1: 3

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3. 2: 3
4. 4: 1
5. 3: 2

Correct Option - 2

Que. 83 Find the sum of the number of males in City A and number of females in City C?

1. 18970
2. 17280
3. 16780
4. 12780
5. 19870

Correct Option - 2

Que. 84 A shopkeeper sold two varieties of wheat P and wheat Q to a customer. He sold variety P at a loss loss
of 20% and variety Q at the profit of 20% If the selling price of the both wheat are same. If the Variety of wheat
Q is Rs. 40 less than the variety P. Find the price of the variety Q wheat.

1. Rs.90
2. Rs. 80
3. Rs. 70
4. Rs. 60
5. Rs. 40

Correct Option - 2

Que. 85 The amount spent on gardening the circle is Rs. 9240 at the rate of 15/m2. Find the area of the square
whose side is 100% more than the radius of the circle.

1. 900 m2
2. 784 m2
3. 772 m2
4. 676 m2
5. 841 m2

Correct Option - 2

Que. 86 In the below number series, a number is wrongly placed that does not follow the number series. Find
the wrong number.
10, 14, 22, 33, 59, 75

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1. 14
2. 75
3. 33
4. 59
5. 10

Correct Option - 3

Que. 87 In the below number series, a number is wrongly placed that does not follow the number series. Find
the wrong number.
21, 10, 9, 12, 24, 52.5

1. 52.5
2. 9
3. 21
4. 10
5. 24

Correct Option - 5

Que. 88 In the below number series, a number is wrongly placed that does not follow the number series. Find
the wrong number.
7, 5, 7, 27, 63, 309

1. 63
2. 27
3. 5
4. 309
5. None of these

Correct Option - 2

Que. 89 The present ages of A and B is in the ratio 8: 7 respectively. Five years hence the present age of A and
B are in the ratio 9: 8. What is the age of C 5 years hence. If he is 3 years elder than A.

1. 46
2. 42
3. 48
4. 52
5. 54

Correct Option - 3

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Que. 90 A certain sum is invested in two different schemes A and B. 5/12th of the total sum is invested in
scheme A at 15% p.a. on SI and the remaining sum is invested in scheme B at 10% p.a. on CI. The total
interest received from both the schemes at the end of the 2 years is Rs. 2079. Find the difference between the
sum invested in scheme A and scheme B

1. Rs.2000
2. Rs. 1400
3. Rs. 1800
4. Rs. 1600
5. Rs. 1200

Correct Option - 2

Que. 91 How do individuals usually assess choices involving risk and uncertainty according to prospect theory?

1. By considering absolute outcomes

2. Based on current wealth
3. By focusing on minimizing potential losses
4. By evaluating expected utility against a standard
5. By aiming to maximize potential benefits

Correct Option - 3

Que. 92 Which statement accurately defines "escalation of commitment" in decision-making?

1. Focusing only on a specific desired result

2. Avoiding decisions due to uncertainty
3. Investing additional resources in a failing endeavor due to previous investments
4. Generating ideas in brainstorming sessions
5. Depending on a single piece of information for making decisions

Correct Option - 3

Que. 93 What type of decision-making is characterized by routine and repetitive actions, often resolved through
habitual responses or standard procedures?

1. Random Decision Making

2. Mechanistic Decision Making
3. Analytical Decision Making
4. Intuitive Decision Making
5. Sequential Decision Making

Correct Option - 2

Que. 94 What does Gestalt decision-making imply about the influence of unconscious mental processes in
making decisions?

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1. They do not affect decision-making.

2. They are important only for very complex decisions
3. They are not trustworthy sources of information.
4. They can significantly influence decision-making.
5. None of the Above

Correct Option - 4

Que. 95 Identify the problem-solving method that emphasizes fostering creative thinking, typically within
small, diverse groups.

1. Logical Approach
2. Traditional Approach
3. Analytical
4. Synectic
5. Rational Approach

Correct Option - 4

Que. 96 How does the Nominal Group Technique (NGT) tackle group decision-making challenges like
groupthink?

1. By promoting quiet involvement

2. By removing discussions and clarifications
3. By reducing individual engagement
4. By ensuring comprehensive involvement and preventing groupthink
5. By emphasizing the preferences of group leaders

Correct Option - 4

Que. 97 Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence. Pareto analysis is a decision-making tool that
identifies the few key factors responsible for the majority of effects. It focuses on addressing the top
_______ of causes to resolve ________ of the issues.

1. 25%, 75%
2. 70%, 30%
3. 60%, 40%
4. 10%, 90%
5. 20%, 80%

Correct Option - 5

Que. 98 What impact does confirmation bias have on decision-making and critical thinking?

1. It promotes open-minded and inclusive decision-making.

2. It restricts decision-making by reducing exposure to different perspectives.
3. It aids in objectively assessing various viewpoints.

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4. It does not influence decision-making or critical thinking.

5. It causes people to select the most widely accepted option.

Correct Option - 2

Que. 99 In the bounded rationality model, what does the concept of "satisficing" imply?

1. Selecting the most optimal solution

2. Choosing the first option that meets the minimum requirements
3. Using instinct and intuition
4. Exhaustively evaluating all alternatives
5. Assigning decision-making to another party

Correct Option - 2

Que. 100 Which statement accurately describes the main feature of the intuitive decision-making model?

1. It requires detailed analysis and logical thought.

2. It depends on randomness and luck.
3. It involves carefully considered options.
4. It makes decisions without deliberate reasoning
5. It necessitates professional training and education

Correct Option - 4

Que. 101 Recently, which railway station achieved the top-rated Platinum certification from the Indian Green
Building Council - Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and has been recognized as a “Green
Railway Station”?

1. Surat Railway Station

2. Jaipur Railway Station
3. Bhubaneswar Railway Station
4. Vijayawada Railway Station
5. Varanasi Railway Station

Correct Option - 4

Que. 102 mRNA is a type of single-stranded RNA that plays a key role in protein synthesis. It is synthesized
from a DNA template through the process of transcription. What does the 'm' in 'mRNA' stand for?
The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded to Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman for their
discoveries about nucleoside base modifications that led to the development of effective mRNA vaccines against
COVID-19.

1. Micro
2. Monitor
3. Messenger
4. Modify

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5. Microbial

Correct Option - 3

Que. 103 In a groundbreaking move, Central Railway's New Amravati station has become the first station in
Bhusaval Division and the third station of Central Railway (CR) to be fully managed by women staff,
also known as a Pink Station. Where is the headquarters of the Central Railway Zone of India located?

1. Hyderabad
2. Pune
3. Mumbai
4. Chennai
5. Nagpur

Correct Option - 3

Que. 104 In 2002, _____ company was founded by entrepreneur Elon Musk with the goal of revolutionizing
the aerospace industry and making space travel more affordable.

1. Galactic Space
2. Rocketry Inc
3. SpaceX
4. Stellar Labs
5. Blue Galaxy

Correct Option - 3

Que. 105 Nirmala Sitharaman is a key political figure in India, known for her roles in promoting fiscal
responsibility and economic development, as well as her active participation in shaping national
economic policies. Which of the following institutions is currently headed by Nirmala Sitharaman?

1. RBI
2. Ministry of Finance
3. Financial Stability and Development Council
4. GST Council
5. Finance Commission

Correct Option - 2

Que. 106 The UNESCO World Heritage List identifies and protects cultural and natural sites of exceptional
global significance, preserving them for future generations. This designation encourages international
collaboration in safeguarding our shared heritage. Which of the following sites from India is not included in the
UNESCO World Heritage List?

1. Sunderbans National Park

2. Western Ghats
3. Ajanta Caves
4. Khajuraho Temples

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5. Rani ki Vav

Correct Option - 2

Que. 107 The Women's Reservation Bill reserves 33% of seats in the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies
for women. Passed by the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in 2023, it became law after receiving the
assent of President Droupadi Murmu. The initial reservation for women in politics began in 1992 with
reservations in Panchayati Raj Institutions of India. Which constitutional amendment act provided reservation for
SC/ST women in the Panchayati Raj Institutions of India?

1. 73rd
2. 78th
3. 83rd
4. 71st
5. 72nd

Correct Option - 1

Que. 108 Identify the incorrect pairs from the options given below.

1. Frank Walter – President of Germany

2. Srettha Thavisin – Prime Minister of Thailand
3. Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva - President of Brazil
4. Ebrahim Raisi – Prime Minister of Iran
5. Cyril Ramaphosa - President of South Africa

Correct Option - 4

Que. 109 The top 3 cities (rank-wise) in the “National Smart Cities Awards” category of the India Smart Cities
Award Contest (ISAC) 2022 are from which of the following states?
Choose the states in the order of the cities’ ranks.
1) Madhya Pradesh
2) Karnataka
3) Gujarat
4) Chhattisgarh
5) Uttar Pradesh

1. Only 2, 3, and 4
2. Only 1, 3, and 2
3. Only 4, 1, and 3
4. Only 2, 4, and 1
5. Only 1, 2, and 3

Correct Option - 3

Que. 110

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Sounding rockets play a crucial role in collecting essential data on Earth's atmosphere, auroras, and ionosphere,
enhancing our understanding of weather, climate, and communication systems. In what year was the first
sounding rocket launched from the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS),
Thiruvananthapuram?

1. 1962
2. 1960
3. 1963
4. 1965
5. 1972

Correct Option - 3

Que. 111 NATO, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization, is a military alliance dedicated to collective defence
and promoting security in the North Atlantic region. Established in 1949, it continues to be a vital
component of global security cooperation. How many countries are currently part of NATO? (As of October
2023)

1. 29
2. 34
3. 30
4. 33
5. 28

Correct Option - 3

Que. 112 India co-hosted the ICC World Cup with other Asian countries in which of the following years?

1. 1997
2. 2011
3. 2003
4. 2006
5. 2000

Correct Option - 2

Que. 113 Renowned for his multiple Grand Slam victories, Leander Paes has become the first Asian man to be
nominated for the International Tennis Hall of Fame in the player category. Throughout his career
spanning three decades, how many grand slam titles has Leander Paes won in doubles and mixed doubles?

1. 22
2. 20
3. 18
4. 19
5. 17

Correct Option - 3

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Que. 114 Antony Blinken is recognized for his diplomatic skills and dedication to strengthening international
relations, addressing global challenges, and supporting American foreign policy objectives. What
position does Antony Blinken currently hold in the US Cabinet?

1. Secretary of Energy
2. Secretary of Commerce
3. Secretary of Defense
4. Secretary of Education
5. Secretary of State

Correct Option - 5

Que. 115 Which of the following international organizations includes India as a member?

1. United Nations Security Council

2. North Atlantic Treaty Organization
3. G- 7
4. ASEAN
5. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue

Correct Option - 5

Que. 116 The National Green Hydrogen Mission in India aims to promote the production of clean hydrogen
from renewable sources to reduce carbon emissions and drive sustainable energy solutions.
Considering this, which of the following statements correctly describes a benefit of the National Green Hydrogen
Mission?

1. Reduction in greenhouse gases

2. Increase in fossil fuel usage
3. Decrease in renewable energy production
4. Enhancement of carbon emissions
5. Reduction in dependence of imported fuels

Correct Option - 5

Que. 117 The Prime Minister has renamed the old Parliament building "Samvidhan Sadan" (Constitution
House). The new Parliament building is now the official Indian parliament. What was the old
Parliament building previously known as?

1. Council of India
2. Imperial Assembly of India
3. Legislative Assembly of India
4. Executive Council of India
5. Imperial Legislative Council of India

Correct Option - 5

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Que. 118 Which initiative of the Government of India received the prestigious National Award for e-
Governance 2023 (Gold) for Application of Emerging Technologies for Providing Citizen-Centric
Services?

1. E-Sanjeevani
2. UMANG
3. DigiLocker
4. MyGov
5. SVAMITVA

Correct Option - 5

Que. 119 With which organization has the NCERT partnered to introduce the comic book titled “Let’s Move
Forward,” aimed at instilling crucial life skills to promote responsible and health-conscious behavior
among adolescents?

1. WHO
2. UNICEF
3. World Economic Forum
4. UNIDO
5. UNESCO

Correct Option - 5

Que. 120 From August 1, Russia has introduced an e-visa facility for Indians, allowing them to bypass the usual
process of obtaining a regular visa. This e-visa, also available to travelers from 54 other countries,
eliminates the need to visit consulates or embassies. How many days can travelers stay in Russia with this e-visa?

1. 25
2. 28
3. 35
4. 40
5. 16

Correct Option - 5

Que. 121 Who is eligible for the Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana aimed at promoting and developing village
industries through facilities, technology upgrades, and training?

1. 21-60 years
2. 16-30 years
3. 20-35 years
4. 18-55 years
5. 15-25 years

Correct Option - 4

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Que. 122 Which central sector sub-schemes fall under SHREYAS, an umbrella scheme by the Ministry of
Social Justice and Empowerment for higher education scholarships for young achievers?

1. Free Coaching Scheme for SCs and OBCs

2. National Overseas Scheme for SCs
3. National Fellowship for SCs
4. Top Class Education for SCs
5. Post Matric Scholarship for Scheduled Tribe Students

1. 1, 3, 4, and 5
2. 1, 2, 3, and 4
3. 1, 2, 3, and 5
4. 2, 3, 4, and 5
5. 2, 3 and 4

Correct Option - 2

Que. 123 What is the maximum insured amount provided under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, which
is the world's largest health assurance scheme for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization for poor
and vulnerable families?

1. Rs. 4,00,000
2. Rs. 7,00,000
3. Rs. 5,00,000
4. Rs. 6,00,000
5. Rs. 8,00,000

Correct Option - 3

Que. 124 Which statement is incorrect about the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) that provides
financial inclusion through basic savings bank accounts, insurance, and overdraft facilities for eligible
adults?

1. Launched in 2014
2. Provides accounts with minimal paperwork and zero charges
3. Provides accident cover up to Rs. 1,00,000 and life cover of Rs. 30,000
4. Overdraft facility of Rs. 20,000/- to every eligible adult
5. None of the above

Correct Option - 4

Que. 125 Which of the following sectors is not included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), which
tracks growth rates in different industry groups within the economy over a specific period?

1. Mining
2. Gas and Water connection
3. Manufacturing
4. Electricity

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5. 1 and 3

Correct Option - 2

Que. 126 Under the PM Vishwakarma scheme, what amount is provided as collateral-free ‘Enterprise
Development Loans’ to eligible artisans and craftsmen in the first tranche?

1. Rs. 1 lakh
2. Rs. 2 lakhs
3. Rs. 3 lakhs
4. Rs. 4 lakhs
5. Rs. 10 lakhs

Correct Option - 1

Que. 127 What is the duration of the Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM SHRI) scheme, which aims
to develop schools across India with upgraded infrastructure and resources, starting from 2022-23?

1. 2025-26
2. 2026-27
3. 2027-28
4. 2028-29
5. 2029-30

Correct Option - 2

Que. 128 Which bank is collaborating with the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship for the
'Skills on Wheels' initiative, and what is the duration of this collaboration aimed at promoting
skilling?

1. Bank of Baroda, 2 years

2. Union Bank of India, 3 years
3. IndusInd Bank, 5 years
4. State Bank of India, 10 years
5. IndusInd Bank, 2 years

Correct Option - 2

Que. 129 Until which date has the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare approved the continuation of
the Integrated Scheme for Agricultural Marketing (ISAM), aimed at improving agricultural marketing
infrastructure?

1. 31st January 2026

2. 31st March 2025
3. 31st April 2025
4. 31st March 2026
5. 31st March 2028

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Correct Option - 4

Que. 130 What is the tenure of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana, which provides free food grains
to Antodaya Ann Yojna (AAY) and Primary Household (PHH) beneficiaries?

1. 1 year
2. 2 years
3. 3 years
4. 4 years
5. 5 years

Correct Option - 1

Que. 131 Which of the following is not a key feature of the Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics (UPAg)
launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare?

1. Data Standardization Data Analysis

2. Granular Production Estimates
3. Commodity Profile Estimates
4. Data Circulation
5. Data Analytics

Correct Option - 4

Que. 132 Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India Dr. Michael Debabrata Patra mentioned a trinity in his
speech. Which components are included in this trinity?

1. Jan Dhan
2. Aadhaar
3. Mobile Connections
4. PAN

1. 2 and 3 Only
2. 1 and 4 Only
3. 1, 2, and 3 Only
4. 1 and 2 Only
5. Only 2

Correct Option - 3

Que. 133 What is the pan-India electronic trading portal that networks existing APMC mandis to create a
unified national market for agricultural commodities?

1. e NAM
2. e NAMO
3. e APMC

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4. e CONNECT
5. e PAN

Correct Option - 1

Que. 134 What is the primary aim of the Jan Shikshan Sansthan Scheme, which targets non-literates within a
specific age range to impart vocational skills?

1. It covers children studying at the secondary stage in Government, local body, and Government-aided
schools with one or more disabilities
2. It provides additional components for the education of girls at the elementary level
3. It offers students a platform to solve daily life problems
4. It targets non-literates between the ages of 15-45 years for vocational skills
5. It provides additional financial support for the education of girls.

Correct Option - 4

Que. 135 RBI recently introduced a four-tiered regulatory framework for which type of banks to facilitate
regulation?

1. Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs)

2. Rural Cooperative Banks (RCBs)
3. Commercial Banks
4. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
5. None of the above

Correct Option - 1

Que. 136 According to the RTI Act 2005, what is the standard timeframe within which information must be
provided to an applicant by a public authority?

1. 15 days
2. 30 days
3. 60 days
4. 48 hours
5. 52 days

Correct Option - 2

Que. 137 Khadi Gramodyog Vikas Yojana targets beneficiaries in a specific age group for promoting and
developing village industries. What is the targeted age range for these beneficiaries?

1. 21-60 years
2. 16-30 years
3. 20-35 years
4. 18-55 years
5. None of the above

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Correct Option - 4

Que. 138 To avail benefit under small loan schemes for individuals offered by the National Backward Classes
Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC), the annual family income of small farmers should
not exceed:

1. Rs. 2.5 Lakhs

2. Rs. 3 Lakhs
3. Rs. 4 Lakhs
4. Rs. 5 Lakhs
5. Rs. 6 Lakh

Correct Option - 4

Que. 139 Under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, eligible beneficiaries are provided with a specific
insured amount for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. What is the insured amount?

1. Rs. 4,00,000
2. Rs. 7,00,000
3. Rs. 5,00,000
4. Rs. 6,00,000
5. Rs. 8,00,000

Correct Option - 3

Que. 140 Which statement about the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is incorrect, considering it
aims to provide financial inclusion through basic savings bank accounts, insurance, and overdraft
facilities?

1. Launched in 2014
2. Provides accounts with minimal paperwork
3. Provides accident cover up to Rs. 1,00,000 and life cover of Rs. 30,000
4. Overdraft facility of Rs. 20,000/- to every eligible adult
5. 2 and 3

Correct Option - 4

Que. 141 Which sector is not included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), which tracks growth rates in
different industry groups within the economy over a specific period?

1. Mining
2. Gas and Water connection
3. Manufacturing
4. Electricity
5. All of the above

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Correct Option - 2

Que. 142 What amount is provided as collateral-free ‘Enterprise Development Loans’ to eligible artisans and
craftsmen under the PM Vishwakarma scheme in the first tranche?

1. Rs. 1 lakh
2. Rs. 2 lakhs
3. Rs. 3 lakhs
4. Rs. 4 lakhs
5. Rs. 5 lakhs

Correct Option - 1

Que. 143 From which year to which year does the Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India (PM SHRI)
scheme, which aims to develop schools across India with upgraded infrastructure and resources,
operate?

1. 2025-26
2. 2026-27
3. 2027-28
4. 2028-29
5. 2029-30

Correct Option - 2

Que. 144 Which bank has collaborated with the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship for the
'Skills on Wheels' initiative, and what is the duration of this collaboration?

1. Bank of Baroda, 2 years

2. Union Bank of India, 3 years
3. IndusInd Bank, 5 years
4. State Bank of India, 10 years
5. State Bank of India, 5 years

Correct Option - 2

Que. 145 Until which date has the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare approved the continuation of
the Integrated Scheme for Agricultural Marketing (ISAM) to improve agricultural marketing
infrastructure?

1. 31st January 2026

2. 31st March 2025
3. 31st April 2025
4. 31st March 2026
5. 31st April 2022

Correct Option - 4

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Que. 146 What is the tenure of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana, which provides free food grains
to beneficiaries of the Antodaya Ann Yojna (AAY) and Primary Household (PHH)?

1. 1 year
2. 2 years
3. 3 years
4. 4 years
5. 5 years

Correct Option - 1

Que. 147 According to the Technical Gap on Population projection report of July 2020, out of the projected
31.1 crore increase in India's population from 2011 to 2036, 17 crore are expected to be concentrated
in five states. Which of the following is not among these top five states?

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Bihar
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. West Bengal
5. Maharashtra

Correct Option - 3

Que. 148 The National Pension Scheme (NPS) is a voluntary savings scheme designed to help individuals plan
for their retirement by making regular contributions. Which of the following groups is not eligible to
participate in the NPS?

1. Any individual citizen of India

2. Non-resident Indian (NRI)
3. OCI (Overseas Citizen of India)
4. PIO (Person of Indian Origin)
5. Both c and d

Correct Option - 5

Que. 149 According to the PLFS conducted during July 2022 – June 2023, the total number of households and
individuals surveyed, respectively, across rural and urban areas were ______ households and ______
individuals respectively.

1. 1,00,000; 4,20,000
2. 1,01,000; 4,19,500
3. 1,01,500; 4,19,000
4. 1,01,655; 4,19,512
5. 1,02,000; 4,20,512

Correct Option - 4

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Que. 150 What is another name for the Digital Life Certificate promoted by the Department of Pension &
Pensioners’ Welfare to enhance 'Ease of Living' for central government pensioners?

1. Jeevan Certificate
2. Jeevan Umeed
3. Jeevan Suraksha
4. Jeevan Bima
5. Jeevan Pramaan

Correct Option - 5

Que. 151 The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA), an initiative by India as the G20 Chair, aims to accelerate the
uptake of biofuels. Which existing biofuel programs in India will GBA help to enhance?

1. GOBARdhan Scheme
2. PM-JIVAN Yojana
3. SATAT Yojana
4. KUSUM Scheme

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 2 and 4
5. 4 only

Correct Option - 3

Que. 152 Which scheme by the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises supports setting up technology
and incubation centres to foster startups for innovation in the agro-industry?

1. NISHTHA
2. SUGAM
3. SAKSHAM
4. PRAGATI
5. ASPIRE

Correct Option - 5

Que. 153 Which body vets the final list for the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods
Mission (DAY-NRLM) after the Participatory Identification of Poor (PIP) Process?

1. Block Office
2. Nagar Panchayat
3. Gram Parishad
4. Nagar Nigam
5. Gram Sabha

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Correct Option - 5

Que. 154 Which institution serves as the last-mile financier under the Aajeevika Microfinance Yojana
(Livelihood Microfinance Scheme)?

1. Commercial Banks
2. Company-Micro Finance Institution (NBFC-MFI)
3. Rural Cooperative Banks
4. Urban Cooperative Banks
5. Non-Banking Financial

Correct Option - 2

Que. 155 The Stand-Up India scheme, launched in 2016, provides loans to SC/ST and/or women entrepreneurs
for Greenfield enterprises. What is the maximum loan amount available under this scheme?

1. Rs. 50 Lakh
2. Rs. 25 Lakh
3. Rs. 2 Crore
4. Rs. 1 Crore
5. Rs. 1.5 Crore

Correct Option - 3

Que. 156 The Digital Life Certificate promoted by the Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare is also
known by another name to enhance 'Ease of Living' for central government pensioners. Identify it.

1. Jeevan Bima
2. Jeevan Umeed
3. Jeevan Suraksha
4. Jeevan Pramaan
5. Jeevan Certificate

Correct Option - 4

Que. 157 Which of the following statements accurately describe the National Curriculum Framework for
School Education (NCFSE)?

1. All Board exams should transition to being 'easier' while ensuring genuine learning is assessed.
2. Within ten years, Boards of Examination should be equipped to offer certification via modular exams.
3. Students will have the opportunity to take Board exams at least three times during any school year, with
the highest score being retained.

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3

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4. Only 1
5. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Option - 3

Que. 158 Gender indicators provide critical data to track performance, evaluate success, and ensure
accountability. According to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, which of the
following metrics are included under Gender Relevant Indicators?

1. Adolescent fertility rate

2. Percentage of employees who are self-employed by gender
3. Percentage of households using clean cooking fuel

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. Only 2
4. only 1
5. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Option - 2

Que. 159 According to the Economic Survey 2022-23, ________ percent of the population resides in rural
areas, and out of this population, 47% are engaged in ________. Fill in the blanks.

1. 55%, Agriculture
2. 45%, Manufacture
3. 35%, Service
4. 65%, Agriculture
5. 75%, Agriculture

Correct Option - 1

Que. 160 The G20 New Delhi Declaration 2023 emphasizes which areas in relation to gender equality, women's
empowerment, and women-led development?

1. Enhancing economic and social empowerment

2. Bridging the gender digital divide
3. Increasing women's participation in political leadership across the globe
4. All of the above
5. None of the above

Correct Option - 4

Que. 161 Which of the following is a straight fertilizer?

1. Urea
2. DAP

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3. NPK
4. SSP
5. Cow dung

Correct Option - 1

Que. 162 What is the cause of bitterness in the bitter ground?

1. Caricaxanthin
2. Carotene
3. Isocyanate
4. Memordicocite
5. Capsaicin

Correct Option - 4

Que. 163 What is the main objective of the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana- Gramin (PMAY-G)?

1. Housing for All in rural areas

2. Water for All in rural areas
3. Security for All in rural areas
4. Internet for All in rural areas
5. Employment for All in rural areas

Correct Option - 1

Que. 164 Kisan Credit Card aims to provide timely and adequate credit to farmers to meet their credit needs.
Which of the following is the nodal agency of KCC?

1. Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare

2. NABARD
3. PFRDA
4. LIC
5. SBI

Correct Option - 2

Que. 165 Union Minister for Rural Development has launched Ombudsperson App for smooth reporting and
categorization of grievances by Ombudsperson based on complaints received from various sources.
This application has been launched for _________.

1. Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan

2. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
3. MGNREGA
4. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Rurban Mission
5. None of the Above

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Correct Option - 3

Que. 166 In Cage Aquaculture, Floating type of cages are used if the water bodies are deeper than?

1. 3m
2. 5m
3. 10m
4. 15m
5. 7m

Correct Option - 2

Que. 167 Who among the following is known as the “Father of Agronomy”?

1. Stephen Hales
2. Gregor Johann Mendel
3. Aristotle
4. D N Walia
5. Peter Decrescenzi

Correct Option - 5

Que. 168 Which one of the following agencies/ministries is planning to formulate Farmer Distress Index?

1. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare

2. APEDA
3. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
4. Ministry of Rural Development
5. NABARD

Correct Option - 5

Que. 169 The number of Eggs laid by a hen on consecutive days without a break is called as

1. Capon
2. Clutch
3. Pullet
4. Hatchability
5. Fertility

Correct Option - 2

Que. 170 Colour of the tag used on certified seed bags is

1. blue
2. purple

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3. white
4. golden yellow
5. red

Correct Option - 1

Que. 171 Black Revolution is related to

1. Milk products
2. Petroleum and Crude oil
3. Foreign Direct Investment
4. National Solar Mission
5. Drugs & Pharmaceuticals

Correct Option - 2

Que. 172 Which is the name of the tallest breed of Goat?

1. Saanen
2. Alpine
3. Sirohi
4. Beetal
5. None of the above

Correct Option - 1

Que. 173 Area covered under mini watershed ranges between

1. 1 - 100 hectares
2. 40 - 100 hectares
3. 100 - 200 hectares
4. 250 - 300 hectares
5. Above 1000 hectares

Correct Option - 1

Que. 174 Which of the following is a metal iron storage structure?

1. CAP
2. PUSA Bin
3. PAU Bin
4. Hapur Tekka
5. Hagevu

Correct Option - 3

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Que. 175 The Muga Silk is largely produced in which of the following states in India?

1. Maharashtra
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Meghalaya
4. Assam
5. Madhya Pradesh

Correct Option - 4

Que. 176 Under which of the following initiatives, Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods
Mission (DAY-NRLM) has initiated a process of engaging 50,000 women Self Help Group members
as Business Correspondents for providing basic banking services in the rural areas of the country?

1. “One Gram Panchayat one Business Correspondents (BC) Sakhi” Mission

2. “One Gram Panchayat one SHG” Mission
3. “One Gram Panchayat one Banking Mitra” Mission
4. “One Village One Sakhi” Mission
5. None of the Above

Correct Option - 1

Que. 177 In which of the following crops, solid row plant spacing method is practiced?

1. Rice
2. Coconut tree
3. Wheat
4. Maize
5. Palm tree

Correct Option - 3

Que. 178 Which of the following soils has the highest available water capacity?

1. Loamy Soil
2. Silt Soil
3. Sandy soil
4. Clay-Loam soil
5. Clay Soil

Correct Option - 4

Que. 179 Moisture content is the most important factor during harvesting, what is the moisture content at the
harvesting stage in the pulses?

1. 10-12%
2. 12-14%

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3. 18-20%
4. 20-25%
5. 25-30%

Correct Option - 3

Que. 180 Black soils are also known as

1. Entisols
2. Alfisols
3. Ultisols
4. Vertisols
5. None of the above

Correct Option - 4

Que. 181 The Minimum Support Prices are notified based on the recommendations of which among the
following Commissions of the Ministry of Agriculture?

1. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

2. Commission for Farmers' Benefits and Costs
3. Commission for Subsidy Costs and Prices
4. Commission for Subsidy Benefits and Costs
5. Commission for Farmers' Welfare and Subsidy

Correct Option - 1

Que. 182 Which of the following is viral disease of cattle?

1. Foot and mouth disease

2. Anthrax
3. Aspergillosis
4. Tuberculosis
5. None of the above

Correct Option - 1

Que. 183 'Neeranchal' is a _______.

1. Rainfed Area Development Authority

2. Fertilizer subsidy Scheme
3. Micro Irrigation System
4. National Watershed Management Project
5. Rural Welfare Scheme

Correct Option - 4

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Que. 184 Quincunx system of planting used for

1. Fruits
2. Vegetables
3. Cereals
4. Pulses
5. Oilseeds

Correct Option - 1

Que. 185 As Per the Agricultural census, the share of operational holding for small farmers is:

1. 0 - 1 ha
2. 1 - 2 ha
3. 2 - 3 ha
4. 3 - 4 ha
5. 4 - 5 ha

Correct Option - 2

Que. 186 In e-NAM, more trading is done in which commodity?

1. Fruits
2. Vegetables
3. Cereals
4. Pulses
5. All of the above

Correct Option - 1

Que. 187 The term ‘Black Gold’ is used for:

1. Coal
2. Graphite
3. Petroleum
4. Carbon
5. Mustard

Correct Option - 3

Que. 188 Wheel hoe tool is used for

1. Winnowing
2. Ploughing
3. Weeding

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4. Leveling
5. Irrigation

Correct Option - 3

Que. 189 Which of the following crops is grown in India in a different agronomic season than the other four?

1. Cotton
2. Jute
3. Maize
4. Mustard
5. Rice

Correct Option - 4

Que. 190 Crop grown to protect the main crop from vagaries of nature and also to render support to the crop is
called as

1. Trap crop
2. Cover crop
3. Nurse crop
4. Inter crop
5. Alley crop

Correct Option - 3

Que. 191 National Rural Livelihood Mission(NRLM) earlier known as

1. Sampoorna Grameen Rojgar Yojana

2. Swarnajayanti Grameen Swarozagar Yojana
3. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
4. Rashtriya Gram Vikas Yojana
5. Pradhan Mantri Livelihood Mission

Correct Option - 2

Que. 192 What is the average percentage of water component is found in Cow's milk?

1. 80%
2. 78%
3. 90%
4. 87%
5. 70%

Correct Option - 4

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Que. 193 The government of India announced the first-ever National Agricultural Policy in the year ________.

1. 1989
2. 1991
3. 2015
4. 2000
5. 2007

Correct Option - 4

Que. 194 Portion of soil covered with Air and Moisture is called as

1. Topsoil
2. Soil Particle
3. Soil Aggregate
4. Pore Space
5. Organic matter

Correct Option - 4

Que. 195 Potamodromous fish lived their entire lifestyle in Freshwater systems. Which of the following is
Potamodromous fish?

1. Cod
2. Tuna
3. Herring
4. Catfish
5. Rohu

Correct Option - 4

Que. 196 Which state of India is the largest producer of chilli and turmeric?

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. West Bengal
4. Maharashtra
5. Kerala

Correct Option - 2

Que. 197 Genetic Purity of Foundation Seed is _____ %

1. 100
2. 99.9
3. 99.5

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4. 95.9
5. 95.5

Correct Option - 3

Que. 198 The soil in which Irrigation is dependent on rainfall is known as_____

1. Barani
2. Nahari
3. Chari
4. Sailable
5. None of these

Correct Option - 1

Que. 199 Chevon is a meat obtained from?

1. Goat
2. Sheep
3. Camel
4. Cow
5. Pig

Correct Option - 1

Que. 200 Methylene Blue Reduction Test (MBRT) is conducted to know the efficiency of?

1. Toned milk
2. Skimmed milk
3. Double toned milk
4. Sterilized milk
5. Pasteurized milk

Correct Option - 5

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