DARPAN TEST SERIES

DARPAN TEST - 05
DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 09/04/2025 M.MARKS: 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Full Syllabus
Chemistry : Full Syllabus
Botany : Full Syllabus
Zoology : Full Syllabus

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 180 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 45
questions in each subjects.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The
maximum marks are 720.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty
in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 Section-I (PHYSICS)
 2  3 –1
α (2) θ0 = cos –1   and v0 = 5 ms
1. Given: Force = . What are the  5
density +β
 1  5 –1
dimensions of α and β? (3) θ0 = cos –1   and v0 = 3 ms
(1) ML–2T–2,ML–1/3  5
(2) M2L4T–2,M–1/3L–1  2  3 –1
(3) M2L–2T–2,M1/3L–1
(4) θ0 = sin –1   and v0 = 5 ms
 5
(4) M2L–2T–2,ML–3
5. A football player is moving southward and
2. Taking into account of the significant figures, what suddenly turns eastward with the same speed to
is the value of avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the player
9.99 m-0.0099 m? while turning is:
(1) 9.98 m (2) 9.980 m (1) along south-west
(3) 9.9 m (4) 9.9801 m (2) along eastward
(3) along northward
3. An object is moving in negative direction with a (4) along north-east
negative acceleration. The velocity-time graph with
constant acceleration which represents the above
6. Radius of the curved road on a national highway is
situation is:
R. Width of the road is b. The outer edge of the road
is raised by h with respect to inner edge so that a car
with velocity v can pass safely over it. The value of
(1) h is :
v2 b v
(1) (2)
Rg Rgb
v2 R v2 b
(3) (4)
bg R
(2)
7. The elastic potential energy of a stretched spring is
given by E = 50x2 where x is the displacement in
meter and E is in joule, then the force constant of
the spring is
(1) 50 Nm (2) 100 Nm–1
(3) (3) 100 N/m2 (4) 100 Nm

8. A 150 gm mass has a velocity (2i+6j) m/s at a

certain instant. Its kinetic energy is
(1) 6 J (2) 2 J
(3) 3 J (4) 8 J

(4)
9. Centre of mass of the given system of particles will
be on

4. The trajectory of a projectile near the surface of the

earth is given as
y = 2x –9x2 . If it were lauched at an angle θ0 with
speed v0, then (take, g = 10 ms–2)
 1  5 –1
(1) θ0 = sin –1   and v0 = 3 ms (1) OD (2) OC
 5 (3) OB (4) AO

[2]
10. Assertion: The spokes near the top of a rolling
bicycle wheel look more blurred than those near the 16. The quantities of heat required to raise the
bottom of the wheel.. temperature of two solid copper sphere fo radii r1
Reason: The spokes near the top of wheel move and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the ratio:
faster than those near the bottom of the wheel. 9 3
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the (1) (2)
4 2
Reason is correct explanation of the
5 27
Assertion. (3) (4)
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but 3 8
Reason is not correct explanation of the
Assertion. 17. The first law of thermodynamics is concerned with
the conservation of
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) number of molecules
(4) Assertion is False but Reason is True.
(2) energy
(3) number of moles
11. If satelite rotating in the orbit around the earth with
velocity v0. If it is suddenly stopped Then with what (4) temperature
velocity it reaches. The earth surface
[ve – escape velocity on earth surface] 18. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is
found to be proportional to the cube of its
(1) ve2 – v02 (2) ve2 – 2v02 temperature. The ratio of γ for the gas is
ve 43
(3) (4) v0 (1) (2) 2
2 3
5 3
(3) (4)
12. The earth moves around the Sun in an elliptical 3 2
OA
orbit. The ratio = x . The ratio of speeds at B
OB 19. The temperature of a gas is –500C. To what
and of Earth is: temperature the gas should be heated so that the rms
speed is increased by 3 times?
(1) 223 K (2) 6690C
0
B (3) 3295 C (4) 3097 K

20. Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended together, by

a massless spring of force constant k, as shown in
(1) x (2) x figure. When the masses are in equilibrium, mass,
(3) x 2
(4) x x m1 is removed without disturbing the system. The
angular frequency of oscillation of mass m2 is

13. At what approximate speed, the velocity head of the

water is twice that of pressure head fo 75 cm of Hg?
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s

1
14. A material has Poisson's ratio . If a uniform rod
2
of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 3 × 10–2, then
the percentage change in volume is k k
(1) (2)
(1) 1% (2) 0% m2 m1
(3) 5% (4) 7%
km1 km2
(3) (4)
1 m22 m12
15. A log of wood floats in water with of its volume
5
above the surface. What is the density of wodd?
(1) 600 kg/m3 (2) 800 kg/m3
3
(3) 1200 kg/m (4) 500 kg/m3

[3]
21. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass becomes zero
density 0.04 kgm–1 is given by
  t x 
y = 0.02 ( m ) sin 2π  –  .
  0.04 ( s ) 0.50 ( m ) 
The tension in the string is
(1) 4.0 N (2) 12.5 N
(3) 0.25 N (4) 6.25 N

r1
22. In an oscillating circuit the maximum charge on (1) r1 + r 2 (2) + r2
capacitor is Q. The charge on capacitor when 2
energy is shared equally between the electric and r1
magnetic field is (3) – r2 (4) r1 – r 2
2
(1) Q/ 2 (2) Q/2
(3) Q/ 3 (4) Q/4 26. The electric field in a region is given by
2E0 3E0
E= i+ j with E0 = 4 × 103N/C. The flux
23. Uniform magnetic field exists in a region given by 5 5
of the field through a rectangular surface area 0.4m2
B = 3i + 4j+5kT . A rod of length 5m is placed in YZ plane is
along the y - axis and it is moved along the x-axis (1) 640Nm2/C (2) 320Nm2/C
with constant speed 1 ms–1. Then induced e.m.f in 2
(3) 160Nm /C (4) 80Nm2/C
the rod will be
(1) zero (2) 25V
27. An electron of mass m and a photon have same
(3) 20V (4) 15V
energy E. The ratio of wavelength of electron to that
of photon is (C– being the velocity of light)
24. For charging the capacitance of a given parallel 1/2 1/2
plate capacitor, a dielectric material of constant K 1  2m  1 E 
C  E  C  2m 
(1) (2)
is used. Which hs same area as the plates of the
3d 1/2
capacitor. The thickness of dielectric slab is  E 
4 (3)  2m  (4) C(2m)1/2
where d is the separation between the plates of  
parallel plate capacitor. The new capacitance C
interms of original capacitance C0 is given by the 28. Which of the following statements are correct?
following relation (A) Electric monopoles do not exist whereas
 3+ K  megnetic monopoles exist
(1) C1 =   C0
 4K  (B) Magnetic field lines due to a finite solenoid

(2) C1 =
( 4 + K ) C0 and a bar magnet are different as bar magnet
is a dipole
3
(C) A very thin coin magnet acts as dipole
4KC0
(3) C= (D) χ = –1 is the condition for a perfectly
K +3
diamagnetic substance, where χ is its
4 C0
(4) C= magnetic susceptibility.
3+ K (1) C and D only
(2) B and D only
25. Two cells of emf 2E and E and internal resistances
(3) A an B only
r1 and r2 respectively are connected in series to an
external resistance R. The value of R. at which (4) B and C only
Potential difference across the terminals of first cell
29. In YDSE set up, the distance slits varies as
d = d0 + A sinωt. What is the difference between
maximum and minimum fringe width? (D distance
between slits and screen λ wavelength of light
used)

[4]
 2λAD 2λAD cosθ1 cosθ2 cosθ1 cosθ2
(1) (2) (3) = (4) =
d02 d02 – A2 c2 c1 c1 c2
2λAD 2λd0 D
(3) (4)
d02 + A2 d02 – A2 36. A conducting sphere has a radius 30 cm. If the
dielectric strength of surrounding air is 3 × 106 V/m.
The maximum amount of charge the sphere can
30. The phase difference between the electric field hold in micro coulombs is
vector and magnetic field Vector in an (1) 0.03 (2) 0.3
electromagnectic wave is
(3) 3 (4) 30
(1) 900 (2) zero
0
(3) 180 (4) 2700
37. A light ray enters through a right angled prism at
point P with the angle of incidence 300 as shown in
31. In the case fo thorium (A = 232 and Z = 90), we figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its
obtain an isotope of lead (A = 208 and Z = 82) after base BC and emerges along the face AC. The
some radioactive disintengrations. The number of α refractive index of the prism is:
and β particles emitted are respectively
(1) 6,3 (2) 6,4
(3) 5,5 (4) 4,6

32. Two NAND gates are connected together as shown,

For the inputs at A and B, the output is taken at Y.
The combination acts as

3 3
(1) (2)
4 2
5 5
(3) (4)
(1) NOT gate (2) OR gate 4 2
(3) AND gate (4) NOR gate
38. Two radiations of photon energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV
33. The network shown various currents indicated in successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic
the diagram. The reading of the ammeter is surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the
maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 5

(1) 6A (2) 4A 39. Statements (A) : Photo diodes measure the light
(3) zero (4) 5A intensity when operated in reverse bias.
Statements (B) : When a P - N junction diode is
34. Total energy of the electron in the first Boht orbit is reverse biased, the flow of current across the juction
-E. Then the energy of the photon emitted when the is mainly due to diffusion of charges,
electron transits between n = 3 level to n = 2 levle (1) Both A and B are false
is (2) Both A and B are true
(1) E/6 (2) 2E/3 (3) A is true and B is false
(3) 5E/36 (4) 7E/36 (4) A is false and B is true

35. A ray of monochromatic light is incident on an 40. An elevator was designed, such that the force
interface separating two media, making an angle θ1 exerted on passenger by the floor of the elevator is
with the interface and the refracted ray makes an not to exceed 1.60 times the passenger's weight. The
angle of θ2 with the interface. If c1 and c2 are the elevator starts from rest, accelerate for a distance of
speeds of light in the two media respectively, which 3m and then starts to slow down. What is the
of the following is corrctly law of refraction? maximum speed of elevator (in m/s) (g = 10m/sec2)
sinθ1 sinθ2 sinθ1 sinθ2 (1) 0.6 (2) 6
(1) = (2) = (3) 0.3 (4) 3
c2 c1 c1 c2

[5]
41. The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is thrice 44. A body of mass 0.5 kg travel on straight line path
the excess pressure inside a second soap bubble.
The ratio between the volume of the first and the
( )
with velocity v = 3x 2 + 4 m/s .The net work
second bubble is done by the force during its displacement from
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 1 : 81 x = 0 to x = 2 m is
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 27 (1) 64 J (2) 60 J
(3) 120 J (4) 128 J
42. A steel rail of length 5m and area of cross-section
40cm2 is prevented from expanding along its 45. A linear charge having linear charge density λ;
length while the temperature rises by 10oC. If
penetrates a cube diagonally and then it penetrate a
coefficient of linear expansion an Young's
sphere diametrically as shown. What will be the
modulus of steel are 1.25 × 10–5 K–1 and 2 × 1011
ratio of flux coming cut of cube and sphere
Nm–2 respectively, then the forced developed in
the rail is equals to
(1) 2×109N (2) 3×10–5N
(3) 2×10–7N (4) 1×105N

43. A dancer spins about himself with an angular speed

ω. With his arms extended. When he draws his
hands in, his moment of inertia reduces by 40%. 1 2
(1) (2)
The change in angular velocity would be 2 3
(1) 3ω/5 (2) 2ω/3
3 1
(3) 5ω/4 (4) 5ω/3 (3) (4)
2 1

Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
46. Molarity of pure liquid benzene (C6H6) if its  2h  1 1 
1/2

density d = 2 gram/ml is (4)   − 

(1) 25.64 M (2) 0.78 M  m  0  
(3) 12.8 M (4) 50 M
49. In H-atom energy of electron is determined by
47. In the following set of reactions, (1) only n
(2) n, l

CaCO3 ⎯⎯ →CaO + CO2 ( 75% yield ) (3) n, l, m

CO2 + C ⎯⎯ → 2CO (50% yield ) (4) All the four quantum number.

CO formed at STP from 10 g of CaCO3 is

50. The element with atomic number Z = 115 will be
(1) 2.24 L (2) 11.2 L placed in :
(3) 1.12 L (4) 1.68 L (1) 7th period, 1 group
(2) 8th period, 14 group
48. If 0 is the threshold wavelength for photoelectric (3) 7th period, 15 group
emission from a metal surface,  is the wavelength (4) 6th period, 5 group
of light falling on the surface of metal and m is the
mass of electron, then the maximum speed of 51. Correct order of first ionization energy is
ejected electrons is given by (1) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In
1/2
 2h  (2) B > Al > Ga > Tl > In
(1)  m (0 − ) 
  (3) Al > Ga > Tl > In > B
1/2 (4) B > Ga > Al > In > Tl
 2hc 
(2)  m (0 − ) 
 
52. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent
1/2
 2hc  0 −   bond character follows the order –
(3)   
 m  0  (1) LiCl < BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4
(2) LiCl > BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4

[6]
 (3) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
(4) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4 57. For the reaction
C3H8(g) + 502(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) at constant
X temperature H – U
(1) + RT (2) – RT
(3) + 3RT (4) – 3RT
53. Dipole moment of in 1.5D. The dipole

58. Find correct graph regarding equilibrium state:

(1) conc.
moment of is:
time

(1) 1.5 D (2) 2.25 D

(3) 1D (4) 3D (2) conc.

54. Which of the following is correct order of -bond time

strength?
(I) 2s – 2s (II) 2s – 2p (3) conc.
(III) 2p – 2p (IV) 3s – 3s
(1) I > II > III > IV time
(2) III > II > I > IV (4) All of the above
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) III > I > II > IV 59. % hydrolysis of 0.1 M CH3COONH4, when
Ka(CH3COOH) = Kb (NH4OH) = 1.8 × 10–5 is:
55. Statement 1: The B-F bond length in BF3 is not (1) 0.55 (2) 7.63
identical with that in BF4− because
–2
(3) 0.55 × 10 (4) 7.63 × 10–3

Statement 2: Back bonding is involved in BF4−

but not in BF3. 60. pH of a strong diprotic acid (H2A) at
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and concentrations:
statement-2 is correct explanation for (i) 10–4 M (ii) 10–4 N
statement-1. are respectively:
(2) Statement- 1 is true, statement- 2 is true and (1) 3.7 and 4.0 (2) 4 and 3.7
statement- 2 is NOT the correct explanation (3) 4 and 4 (4 3.7 and 3.7
for statement-1.
(3) Statement- 1 is true, statement- 2 is false. 61. Equivalent mass of FeS2 in the half reaction,
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true. FeS2 → Fe2O3 + SO2 is:
(1) M/10 (2) M/11
56. A system absorbs 100 kJ heat in the process (3) M/6 (4) M
shown in the figure. What is U for the system?
62. Which of the following is strongest oxidizing
agent?
(1) BrO3– /Br+2 ; E° =1.5 V
(2) Fe+3/Fe+2 ; E° = 0.76 V
(3) MnO4– /Mn+2 ; E° =1.52 V
(4) Cr2O7–2 /Cr+3; E° =1.33 V

63. Acidic strength of boron trihalides is in order of

(1) –50 kJ (2) +50 kJ (1) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3
(3) +150 kJ (4) –150 kJ (2) BI3 < BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3
[7]
 (3) BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3 < BI3
CH3
(4) BF3 < BI3 < BCl3 < BBr3 |
CH3 – C — CH = CH 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(i) Hg(OAc)2 ,H2O
→
(ii) NaBH4
64. The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb |
CH3
increases steadily in the sequence
(1) PbX2 << XnX2 << GeX2 << SiX2
(2) GeX2 << SiX2 << SnX2 << PbX2 CH3
|
(3) SiX2 << GeX2 << PbX2 << SnX2 (1) CH3 – C — CH − CH3
(4) SiX2 << GeX2 << SnX2 << PbX2 | |
CH3 OH
65. IUPAC name of the compound is CH3
NO2 |
(2) CH3 – C — CH2 − CH2OH
F |
CH3
CH3
(1) 1-fluoro-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene OH CH3
(2) 4-fluoro-1-methyl-3-nitrobenzene | |
(3) CH3 – C — CH − CH3
(3) 4-methyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene |
(4) 2-fluoro-5-metyl-1-nitrobenzene CH3

66. A Fischer projection of (2R, 3S)-2,3-butanediol is CH3

CH3 CH3 |
(4) HOCH2 – C — CH2 − CH3
HO H HO H |
(1) (2) CH3
HO H H OH

CH3 CH3
70. Identify the product D in the following series of
CH3 CH3
reaction
H OH H OH +
LiAlH4 H
(3)
HO H
(4)
H H CH3COOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯ →A ⎯⎯⎯
443 K
→B
Br2 alc.
CH3 CH3 ⎯⎯⎯ →C ⎯⎯⎯
KOH
→D
(1) Methane
67. Number of hyperconjugation structures in (2) Alcohol
isopropyl carbocation is __________ (3) Acetylene
(1) 3 (2) 7 (4) Benzaldehyde
(3) 9 (4) 12
71. Among the following compounds (I-III), the
68. The order of relative basic strengths of following correct order in reaction with electrophile is–
compounds is:

I. II.

(1) II > III > I (2) III < I < II

(3) I > II > III (4) I = II > III
III. IV.
72. The value of Henry’s law constant for some gases
at 293 K is given below. Arrange the gases in the
increasing order of their solubility.
(1) IV > I > II > III (2) I > II > III > IV He : 144.97 kbar, H2 : 69.16 kbar,
(3) II > I > IV > III (4) II > I > III > IV N2 : 76.48 kbar, O2 : 34.86 kbar
(1) He < N2 < H2 < O2
69. The product of the following reaction is (2) O2 < H2 < N2 < He
[8]
 (3) H2 < N2 < O2 < He iii. They show variable oxidation state.
(4) He < O2 < N2 < H2 iv. They have two electrons in their outermost
shells.
(1) i and iv (2) ii and iii
73. In electrochemical cell, Zn | Zn+2 || Cu+2 | Cu
(3) i and iii (4) ii and iv
The species undergoing oxidation is
(1) Zn (2) Zn+2
80. In the dichromate dianion,
(3) Cu+2 (4) Cu (1) Four Cr–O bonds are equivalent
(2) Six Cr–O bonds are equivalent
74. Cu (s) Cu (2aq+ ) (1M ) Zn(+aq2 ) (1M ) Zn (s) . (3) All Cr–O bonds are equivalent
(4) All Cr–O bonds are non-equivalent
A cell represented above should have emf.
(Given: EZn2+ /Zn = −0.76V, ECu2+ /Cu = 0.34 81. Geometry, hybridisation and magnetic moment of
volt) the ions [Ni(CN)4]2–, [MnBr4]2– and [FeF6]3–
(1) Positive (2) Negative respectively are :
(3) Zero (4) Cannot be predicted (1) Tetrahedral, square planar, octahedral : sp3,
dsp2, sp3d2 : 5.9, 0, 4.9
75. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data (2) Tetrahedral, square planar, octahedral :
shown for the following reaction: A + B → C dsp2, sp3, sp3d2 : 0, 5.9, 4.9
(3) Square planar, tetrahedral, octahedral :
Expt. No. [A]0 [B]0 Initial
dsp2, sp3, d2sp3 : 5.9, 4.9, 0
rate
(4) Square planar, tetrahedral, octahedral :
1. 0.012 0.035 0.10
dsp2, sp3, sp3d2 : 0, 5.9, 5.9
2. 0.024 0.070 0.80
3. 0.024 0.035 0.10
82. The CFSE for octahedral [CoCl6]4– is 18000 cm–1.
4. 0.012 0.070 0.80
The CFSE for tetrahedral [CoCl4]2– will be
(1) rate = k[B]3 (2) rate = k[B]4
(1) 18,000 cm–1 (2) 16,000 cm–1
(3) rate = k[A][B]3 (4) rate = k[A]2[B]2
(3) 8,000 cm–1 (4) 20,000 cm–1

1 83. The correct order of energies of d-orbitals of metal

76. If we plot a graph between log k and by
T ion in a square planar complex is:
Arrhenius equation, the slope is (1) dxy = dyz = dzx  dx2 −y2 = dx2
(1) –Ea/ R (2) + Ea/ R
(2) dx2 −y2 = dz2  d xy = dyz = dzx
Ea Ea
(3) − (4) +
2.303R 2.303R (3) dx2 −y2  dz2  dxy = dyz = dzx
(4) dx2 −y2  dxy  dz2  dzx = dyz
77. Thermal stability order of hydrides of nitrogen
family
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 84. Which cation is detected by the flame test?
(2) PH3 > NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 (1) NH+4
(3) SbH3 > NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 (2) K+
(4) NH3 > PH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 (3) Mg2+
(4) Al3+
78. In solid state PBr5 exist as
(1) [PBr4]+ [PBr6]– 85. No. of Resonating structure in Tropylinium Ion
(2) [PBr5]+ [PBr5]– (1) 5 (2) 7
(3) [PBr4]+ [Br–] (3) 6 (4) 10
(4) PBr5
86. Consider the following tests.
79. Transition elements have greater tendency to form (I) Iodoform test
complexes because (II) Victor Meyer test
i. They have vacant d-orbitals. (III) Lucas test
ii. They have large size. CH3OH and CH3CH2OH can be

[9]
 distinguished by 89. Which of the following is an incorrect match?
(1) Both I and II
(2) Both I and III
(3) Only I (1) ⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯
NaNO2 /HCl
→ Product
(4) Only III
(Diazotization reaction)
87. Which one/ones of the following reactions will
yield 2-propanol?
+
H
(i) CH3CH = CH2 + H2O ⎯⎯ ⎯
→
(2) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
CHCl3 /KOH
⎯→ Product
(i) CH3MgI
(ii) CH3CHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(ii) H2O
→
(i) C H MgI (Carbylamine reaction)
(iii) HCHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯2 5
(ii) H O
→
2
Neutral KMnO
(iv) CH3CH = CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 4→

Choose the right answer. (3) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

CuCN/HCN
Product
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (i) (Gatterman reaction)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

(4) ⎯⎯⎯
(i) HBF4
(ii) Δ
⎯
→ Product
88. ⎯⎯⎯
Zn-Hg
HCl
→ Product
(Balz Schiemann reaction)

90. The number of acylic structural isomer possible

(1) (2) from the moleculer formula C3H6O is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6

(3) (4)

Section-III (BOTANY)
91. The product formed from the condensation of (2) trichomes.
acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid (OAA) in the (3) root hairs.
Krebs’ cycle is; (4) mesophyll.
(1) α-ketoglutaric acid.
(2) citric acid. 94. In the given diagram of strawberry, ‘A’ is the label
(3) malic acid. for;
(4) succinic acid.

92. One of the first gibberellins to be discovered and

most intensively studied form is;
(1) GA1
(2) GA2
(3) GA3
(4) GA4

93. All of the following are components of epidermal

(1) seed (2) achene
tissue system, except;
(3) thalamus (4) endocarp
(1) stomata.
[10]
 statement(s).
95. Amensalism is the population interaction in which; (1) One
(1) both interacting species are benefitted (2) Two
(2) both interacting species lose (3) Three
(3) one species is harmed and other is (4) Four
unaffected
(4) one species is benefitted and other is 100. In a DNA molecule adenine forms _____ hydrogen
harmed bonds with thymine from opposite strand.
(1) four
96. A microbial biocontrol agent that can be introduced (2) three
in order to control butterfly caterpillars is; (3) two
(1) Rhizobium (4) five
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis 101. In DNA fingerprinting, the detection of hybridised
(4) Azotobacter DNA fragments is done by;
(1) electrophoresis
97. Number of plant species that have been recorded (2) autoradiography
from India is nearly; (3) blotting
(1) 15,000 (4) restriction endonucleases
(2) 45,000
(3) 70,000 102. The type of phyllotaxy shown in the below image
(4) 90,000 occurs in;

98. Match List-I with List-II w.r.t bryophytes.

List-I List-II
(A) Archegonium (I) Female sex organ
(B) Antheridium (II) Male sex organ
(C) Gemmae (III) Green,
multicellular
asexual buds
(D) Rhizoids (IV) Attaches
bryophytes to the
substratum (1) Alstonia
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) china rose
below: (3) guava
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) Calotropis
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 103. Down’s syndrome results in the gain of extra copy
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III of chromosome;
(1) 14 (2) 16
99. Read the following statements. (3) 21 (4) 11
A. RER is frequently observed in the cells
actively involved in protein synthesis and 104. Pollen mother cell is also referred to as the;
secretion. (1) male gamete.
B. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the (2) microspore mother cell.
major site for synthesis of lipid. (3) megaspore mother cell.
C. Lysosomes are non-membrane bound (4) microspore.
organelles present in eukaryotic cells.
D. The endomembrane system include 105. Match List-I with List-II.
endoplasmic reticulum (ER), golgi complex, List-I List-II
lysosomes and vacuoles. (Taxonomic category) (Example)
E. Microbodies are present only in plants cells. (A) Kingdom (I) Hominidae
Identify the number of incorrect (B) Class (II) Arthropoda
[11]
 (C) Family (III) Plantae
(D) Phylum (IV) Dicotyledonae 111. In Hatch and Slack pathway, the number of carbon
Choose the correct answer from the options given atoms present in the primary CO2 acceptor is;
below: (1) two
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) four
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) three
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) five
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
112. The human population in the given age pyramid is
106. The ______ determines the shape of the cell and said to be:
provides a strong structural support to prevent the
bacterium from bursting or collapsing.
(1) slime layer
(2) capsule
(3) cell wall
(4) plasma membrane
(1) increasing (2) stable
107. Zygomorphic flowers are seen in; (3) declining (4) expanding
(1) mustard
(2) canna 113. Read the following w.r.t members of
rhodophyceae.
(3) bean
A. They usually reproduce vegetatively by
(4) chilli
fragmentation
B. They reproduce asexually by non-motile
108. Tricarboxylic acid cycle was first elucidated by;
spores and sexually by non-motile gametes
(1) J. Parnas
C. Sexual reproduction is oogamous and
(2) Otto Meyerhof
accompanied by complex post fertilisation
(3) Gustav Embden
developments
(4) Hans Krebs
D. The food is stored in the form of laminarin
or mannitol
109. Identify the PGR that promotes female flowers in
cucumbers thereby increasing the yield. E. The red thalli of most of the red algae are
(1) Auxin Unicellular
(2) Gibberellin In the light of above statements, choose the correct
(3) Cytokinin answer from the options given below:
(4) Ethylene (1) A and C are incorrect
(2) A, B and C are correct
110. Read the following statements. (3) B and C are incorrect
A. DNA is a long polymer of (4) D and E are correct
deoxyribonucleotides.
B. DNA as an acidic substance present in 114. Zoospores in algae are a type of;
nucleus was first identified by Maurice (1) motile sexual spores
Wilkins. (2) non-motile sexual spores
C. The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is (3) motile asexual spores
formed due to sugar and phosphates. (4) non-motile asexual spores
D. Adenine and Guanine are pyrimidines.
E. In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an 115. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
additional –OH group present at 2' -position
Reason (R).
in the ribose.
Assertion (A): TMV is a virus which causes
The correct statements are; mosaic disease.
(1) A, C and E Reason (R): TMV has RNA as genetic material.
(2) B, C and D In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) A, B and E most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) B, C and E below.
[12]
 (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) Integral proteins are found on the
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct intracellular surface of cell membrane.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (4) Head of lipid is hydrophilic.
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not 121. Match List -I with List – II
the correct explanation of (A)

116. Given below are two statements:

Statement – I: Ginger has a horizontally growing
Choose the correct answer from the options given
rhizome.
below:
Statement – II: The growth of ginger rhizome is
(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
not influenced by gravity.
(2) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: (3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 122. Mesosomes are the infoldings of cell membrane,
which
correct
(I) help in cell wall formation, DNA replication
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
and respiration
correct
(II) increase the surface area of plasma
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
membrane.
Incorrect
(III) are present in both prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells.
117. Read the given statement and select the correct
option: Which of the following option is most appropriate?
(i) One maize root cell can give rise to more (1) II and III are correct
than 17500 new cells per hour. (2) I and II are correct
(ii) A cell in water melon can increase in size (3) I and III are correct
upto 350000 times. (4) I, II and III are correct
(iii) The growth of pollen tube is measured in
terms of length. 123. RQ in anaerobic respiration is
(iv) The growth of the leaf is measured in term (1) 0.7 (2) 0.9
of surface area. (3) zero (4) infinity
(1) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
(2) Statements (iii) and (iv) are correct 124. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plant
to:
(3) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct
(1) Kill dicot weeds in field
(4) Statements (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(2) Speed up malting process
(3) Promote root growth & root hair formation
118. Protonema is the stage in the life cycle of
to increase the absorption surface
(1) Funaria (2) Cycas
(4) Help in overcome apical dominance
(3) Selaginella (4) Mucor

125. Poales and Sapindales represent

119. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are
produced exogenously in (1) Genus (2) Class
(1) Neurospora (2) Alternaria (3) Order (4) Species
(3) Agaricus (4) Saccharomyces
126. Why endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body,
lysosome and vacuoles are components of
120. Which of the following statements is incorrect
endomembranous
about the plasma membrane?
system?
(1) The ratio of proteins and lipid varies
(1) Their structures are distinct
considerably in different cell types.
(2) Their functions are distinct
(2) 52% protein and 40% lipids are in the
(3) Their functions are coordinated
membrane of human RBCs.
(4) All of the above
[13]
 131. Number of maternal meiotic spindle apparatuses
127. Which of the following statement(s) is /are correct involved to form a fruit with 23 seeds is
about meiosis? (1) 66 (2) 84
(I) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous (3) 87 (4) 69
chromosomes and recombination between
them. 132. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to
(II) Two diploid cells are formed at the end of (1) gynoecium (2) androecium
meiosis-II (3) corolla (4) calyx
(III) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of
nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I 133. Match List -I with List – II
and meiosis-II, but only a single cycle of List-I List-II
DNA replication (I) Endodermis (A) Outer most layer
(IV) Meiosis-II is initiated after the parental of stele
chromosome replication, which produces (II) Pericycle (B) Outer most layer
identical sister chromatids at the S-phase. of cortex
Choose the correct answer from the option given (III) Hypodermis (C) Inner most layer
below: of cortex
(1) I and III (2) Only II (IV) Secondary phloem (D) Inner most layer
(3) II and III (4) I, II, III and IV of Bark
Choose the correct answer from the options given
128. Recombination nodules which mediate for below :
chromosome recombination appear during (1) I-A II-C III-B IV-D
(1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene (2) I-C II-A III-D IV-B
(3) Diakinesis (4) Pachytene (3) I-A II-B III-C IV-D
(4) I-C II-A III-B IV-D
129. ‘Bakanae’ (foolish seedling) disease of rice
seedlings, was caused by Gibberella fujikuroi, 134. Which one of the following statements about
which is a mycoplasma is wrong?
(1) fungus (2) protozoan (1) They are pleomorphic
(3) bacteria (4) virus (2) They are sensitive to penicillin
(3) They cause diseases in plants
130. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (4) They are also called PPLO
(1) Viroids lack a protein coat.
(2) Viruses are obligate parasites. 135. In bacteria this structure confers resistance to
(3) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein antibiotics
coat. (1) Circular DNA (2) Genomic DNA
(4) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins. (3) Plasmid DNA (4) Linear DNA

Section-IV (ZOOLOGY)

136. Which of the following statement about Lipid is (2) B and D only
true? (3) B only
(A) Molecular weight of lipid exceeds 800 Da, (4) A and C only
come under acid insoluble fraction so known
as Biomolecules. 137. Statement-I: Enzymes are biologically active
(B) Lipid is main composition of cell membrane, molecules that are typically composed of proteins.
when we grind a tissue it break into pieces Statement-II: Enzymes exhibit optimal activity
and form acid insoluble vesicles. within a specific temperature and pH range, is a
(C) It is made by N number of different unit of direct consequence of the unique globular
conformation inherent to protein.
valine glycine, Fatty acid etc.
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(D) Lipids with more complex structures mainly
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
found in the muscular tissue.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(1) A, B and D
[14]
 (4) Both statement I and statement II are false (1) Large output of water like dilute urine
(2) Excretion of glucose in urine
138. Which of the following part of neural system relay (3) Development of male characters in a female
impulses from CNS to voluntary muscles- (4) Short body stature and abnormal skin
(1) Autonomic Neural System
(2) Sympathetic Neural System 146. In ....a..., a fish caught in ...b..., happened to be
(3) Somatic Neural System a...c..., which was thought to be extinct. These
(4) Parasympathetic Neural System animals are called ...d... evolved into first ...e...
(1) a-1891, b-South America, c-Ichthyosaurs, d-
139. The longest phase in cardiac cycle is- Lobefins, e-Amphibians
(1) Atrial systole (2) a-1938, b-South America, c-Icthyophis, d-
(2) Atrial diastole Coelocanth, e-Reptiles
(3) Ventricular systole (3) a-1891, b-North America, c-Coelocanth, d-
(4) Ventricular diastole Lobefins, e-Amphibians
(4) a-1938, b-Sourth Africa, c-Coelocanth, d-
140. Which is correct statement for heart failure? Lobefins, e-Amphibians
(1) Heart muscle is suddenly damage.
(2) Chest pain 147. How many DNA molecules will be obtained from
(3) Heart stops beating one DNA molecule after 3 PCR cycles?
(4) Heart does not pump blood effectively (1) 8 (2) 16
enough to meet the needs of the body (3) 64 (4) 32

141. Part of the brain which is concerned with olfaction 148. The embryo that is transferred into uterus can be
& regulation of sexual behaviour? formed by _________ type of fertilisation.
(1) Thalamus (1) Invitro
(2) Medulla oblongata (2) Invivo
(3) Limbic system (3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Reticular formation (4) None of these

142. Excretion of Na+ in urine is elevated by : 149. Cellular barriers of innate immunity do not include
(1) ANF (2) ADH (1) Neutrophils
(3) ACTH (4) Aldosterone (2) Natural killer cells
(3) B-lymphocytes
143. What causes the liquid part of the blood to filter out (4) Macrophages
from the glomerulus into the renal tubule?
(1) Osmosis 150. Which of the following statements are true for
(2) High (hydrostatic) pressure natural selection?
(3) Diapedesis (A) It is a process which enables better survival
(4) Dialysis and reproductive fitness.
(B) Pre-existing advantageous mutations when
144. Assertion (A): Parturition is induced by a simple selected by nature will result in new
‘neuroendocrine’ mechanism. phenotypes and new species over few
Reason (R): The neural signals from the generations
contracting uterus send signals to foetal pituitary to (C) It operates at population level and affects the
release oxytocin hormone. genetic equilibrium.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (D) The adaptive ability is acquired due to
explanation of A changes in nature and driven by use and
(2) A is correct but R is incorrect disuse.
(3) A is incorrect & R is incorrect (E) It can lead to stabilisation when more
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is incorrect individuals acquire peripheral character
explanation of A value
(1) A, B, C only
145. Hyposecretion of a hormone of posterior pituitary (2) A, B, D only
may cause -
 (3) B, C, E only (E) Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to
(4) All except E right
(1) A, B (2) A, C
151. The amount of air that can be exhaled normally (3) C, D (4) D, E
after forceful inhalation is ___________.
(1) T.V. 156. Match the following List-I contents with List-II
(2) I.C. and choose correct option.
(3) ERV List – I List – II
(4) TLC (A) Progestasert (I) Blocks estrogen
receptors of uterus
152. Match List-I with List-II and choose correct option (B) Saheli (II) Cervix hostile to
with reference to cockroach. sperms
List – I List – II (C) Progestogens (III) Copper ions
(A) Gizzard (I) Sensory structures suppress sperm
(B) Malpighian (II) Grinding of food motility
tubules (D) Multiload 375 (IV) Block sperm entry
(C) Analcerci (III) Synthesis of uric into cervix
acid (E) Diaphragms (V) Inhibit ovulation
(D) Phallomeres (IV) Chitinous (1) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I, E – V
asymmetrical (2) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV, E – V
structures (3) A – II, B – I, C – V, D – III, E – IV
(E) Tracheoles (V) Gaseous exchange (4) A – II, B – V, C – IV, D – III, E – I
(1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV, E –V
(2) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV, E – V 157. Statement-1: Increased yield in Field products was
(3) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – V, E – IV mainly due to improved crop varieties & use of
better management practice.
(4) A – II, B – IV, C – V, D – III, E – I
Statement-2: Tissue culture technique was learnt
by scienitist in 1950 where they generate whole
153. Peptide hormone which plays a significant role in plant from explaent.
calcium balance of body is
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(1) Thymosin
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(2) Calcitonin
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Parathyroid hormone
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false
(4) Both (2) & (3)
158. Which of the following is commonly used to
154. Secretions of how many of the following structure visualize DNA fragments after gel electrophoresis?
help in maturation & motility of sperms
(1) Ethidium bromide under UV light
Epididymis, Vasdeferens, Seminal vesicle,
Prostate (2) Alcohol and UV light
(3) Methylene blue without UV light
(1) 2
(4) Only UV light
(2) 3
(3) 4
159. The activated Bt toxin will bind to _________ of
(4) 1
epithelium of an insect.
(1) Foregat
155. Which of the following statements are true for (2) Midgut
pulmonary gaseous exchange in human? (3) Hindgut
(A) High pO2 at alveoli causes dissociation of
(4) All of these
CO2 from carbaminohaemoglobin
(B) HCO3− diffuses into RBC from plasma 160. Which structure is subjected to gel electrophoresis
(C) Carbonic anhydrase catalyses formation of (1) Gene of Interest
H2CO3 from CO2 and H2O (2) Vector DNA
(D) Binding of O2 with haemoglobin causes (3) Both (1) & (2)
release of HCO3− bound to it (4) Restriction enzyme
 (1) 20 million
161. Match List-I with List-II. (2) 25 million
List-I List-II (3) 15 million
A. Ornithorhynchus I. Flying mammal (4) 10 million
B. Macropus II. Marine mammal
C. Pteropus III. Marsupial 167. Match the colum I with column II
mammal Column – I Column - II
D. Balaenoptera IV. Oviparous A) Gills I) Jellyfish
mammal B) Moist cuticle II) Rabbit
Choose the correct answer from the options C) Lung III) Earthworm
given below D) Body surface IV) Prawn
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III A B C D
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (1) IV IV II I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) IV III II I
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (3) II III IV I
(4) I III II IV
162. Select the correct statement with reference to Aves.
A. The wings are modified into forelimbs 168. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms
B. Presence of four chambered heart in male frogs.
C. Presence of crop and gizzard in the digestive (1) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney →
tract Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct →
D. Fully ossified endoskeleton Cloaca
E. Flightless birds are viviparous (2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Urinigenital
(1) A, B and C only duct → Bidder’s canal→ Cloaca
(2) B, C and D only (3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney →
(3) C, D and E only Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct →
(4) A, D and E only Cloaca
(4) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney →
163. Which of the following is not an example of Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct
analogous organs ? →Cloaca
(1) Eye of the octopus and mammals
(2) Sweet potato and potato 169. How many of the following statements are correct
(3) Hearts of vertebrates for resting state of a neuron?
(4) Flippers of the penguins and dolphins i. The axoplasm inside the axon contains high
concentration of K+ and negatively charged
164. The first human-like being was called proteins and low concentration of Na+
(1) Homo erectus ii. In contrast, the fluid outside the axon
(2) Homo habilis contains a low concentration of K+ and high
(3) Homo sapiens concentration of Na+ and thus form a
(4) Dryopithecus concentration gradient.
iii. The outer surface of the axonal membrane
165. In a species, the color of skin for of an animal ‘x’ possesses a positive charge while its inner
ranges from white to black. 97% of the animals surface becomes negatively charged.
with skin for of grey color survive where as 99% of iv. The electrical potential difference across the
the animals with white color skin fur or black color resting plasma membrane is called the
skin fur die. Which type of selection process is
resting potential
reflected in the above scenario ?
v. Resting stage is depolarised state
(1) Directional selection
vi. Resting potential is positive potential
(2) Disruptive selection
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Stabilising selection
(3) Five (4) One
(4) Progressive selection

166. AIDS have killed number of people till now.

170. If the dominant individuals in a population are iodine.
60%, find out the percentage of heterozygous
individuals in that population 0.40 = 0.63 177. Animal in which fertilisation occurs inside the
(1) 46.5% (2) 50.5% body of the organism and they lay fertilised eggs
(3) 47.5% (4) 45.5% covered by a hard shell?
(1) Felis (2) Rana
171. Which one of the following pair is correctly match? (3) Corvus (4) Catla
(1) Marijuana ‐ Analgesic 178. Observe the following pictures.
(2) Cocaine ‐ Opiate narcotics Organism (a) differs from (b) in having
(3) Morphine ‐ Hallucinogen
(4) Barbiturate ‐ Sedatives

172. Stool with excess mucous & blood clots are

observed in ____________
(1) Typhoid
(2) Amebiasis
(3) Ascarisis
(1) Presence of one auricle and one ventricle
(4) All of these
(2) Internal fertilisation
(3) Separate sexes
173. Identify the correct set of exclusively viviparous (4) Lack of capacity to regulate body
animals? temperature
(1) Columba, Chelone, macaca, Rana
(2) Delphinus, Aptenodytes, crocodile, 179. Identify the INCORRECTLY labeled part in the
scoliodon corresponding diagram
(3) Canis, camelus, Baleonoptera, pteropus
(4) Macropus, ornithorhynchus, corvus,
Exocoetus.

174. Which of the following statement is not correct

regarding malarial infection?
(1) Its infective stage is sporozoite for humans
(2) Sporozoites multiplies asexually in hepatic
cells and ruptures it. (1) Frontal bone (2) Temporal bone
(3) Sexual stages (gametocytes) formation (3) Zygomatic bone (4) Ocipital bone
occurs in stomach (gut) of mosquito.
(4) Haemozoin causes recurrent high fever. 180. The body which is cylindrical and composed of
anterior proboscis and a collar and a long trunk is
175. During human embryonic development, by the end found in which of the following organisms?
of which week, most of the major organ systems (1) Ascidia (2) Salpa
are formed? (3) Doliolum (4) Saccoglossus
(1) 2nd week
(2) 4th week
(3) 8th week
(4) 12th week

176. Which of the following statements about

polysaccharides is correct?
(1) Inulin is a polymer of glucose.
(2) Glycogen is a storage polysaccharide
found in plants.
(3) Starch can hold iodine in its helical
structure, giving a blue color.
(4) Cellulose forms helices and can hold