11th NEET

KPM + ROI Milestone Test-04 Phase-2

DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 17/08/2025 M.MARKS: 720

Topics Covered

Physics: Motion in a Plane

Chemistry: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure (Part)
Botany: The Living World
Zoology: Breathing and Exchange of Gases (Part)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 180 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 45 questions in
each subjects.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks
are 720.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 Motion in a Plane

1. A river is flowing from west to east with a speed 7. Rain is falling vertically downwards with a
5 ms–1. A swimmer can swim in still water at speed of velocity of 3 km/hr. A man walks in the rain with
10 ms–1. If he wants to start from point A on south a horizontal velocity of 4 km/hr. The magnitude of
bank and reach opposite point B on north bank, in velocity of raindrops w.r.t. man is;
what direction should he swim? (1) 1 km/hr (2) 3 km/hr
(1) 30o east of north (3) 4 km/hr (4) 5 km/hr
(2) 60o east of north
(3) 30o west of north 8. The angle between the direction of iˆ and iˆ + ˆj ( )
(4) 60o west of north
is:
(1) 90° (2) 0°
2. A unit vector in the direction of resultant vector of
(3) 45° (4) 180°
A = −2i + 3j + kˆ and B = i + 2 j − 4kˆ is:
−i + 5j − 3kˆ 9. A boat is moving with velocity (w.r.t ground)
(1)
35 ( )
3iˆ + 4 ˆj m/s in river and water is moving with a

(2)
−3iˆ + j + 5kˆ ( )
velocity of −3iˆ − 4 ˆj m/s with respect to ground.
35
Relative velocity of boat with respect to water is:
−2i + 3j + kˆ
(3) ( ) (
(1) −6iˆ − 8 ˆj m/s (2) 6iˆ + 8 ˆj m/s )
35
(3) 8 ˆj m/s (4) 6iˆ m/s
i + 2j − 4kˆ
(4)
35
10. In the vector triangle shown in figure, the angle

3. In ground to ground projectile motion, a projectile is between vectors A and − B is:

given an initial velocity of (i + 2 j)m/s. If g = 10 m/s2.

Find the equation of trajectory.
(1) y = x − 5x2 (2) y = 2 x − 5x2
(3) 4 y = 2 x − 5 x 2 (4) 4 y = 2 x − 25 x 2
(1) 30° (2) 120°
4. The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an (3) 150° (4) 60°
angle of 15° is 50 m. If it is fired with the same
speed at an angle of 45°, its range will be; 11. A body ‘A’ is dropped vertically from the top of a
(1) 60 m (2) 71 m tower. If another identical body ‘B’ is projected
(3) 100 m (4) 141 m horizontally from the same point at the same
instant, then;
5. For ground-to-ground projectile motion, in x-y (1) ‘A’ will reach the ground earlier than ‘B’
plane, path followed by a projectile is given by (2) ‘B’ will reach the ground earlier than ‘A’
(3) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ will reach the ground
1
y = 3x −   x 2 . The initial velocity of projectile simultaneously
2 (4) Either (1) or (2)
is: (g = 10 m/s2, x and y are in m);
(1) 3 10 m/s (2) 2 10 m/s 12. In ground to ground projectile motion, a ball is
(3) 10 3 m/s (4) 10 2 m/s projected with a velocity 10 ms–1 at an angle of
60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at the
highest point of its trajectory will be;
6. A ball is thrown from the ground at an angle of
(1) 5 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1
30° with the horizontal. It falls on the ground at a
horizontal distance of 90 m. If the ball is thrown (3) zero (4) 5 3 ms–1
with the same initial speed at an angle of 60° to
the horizontal, it will fall on the ground at a 13. If 0.5iˆ + 0.6 ˆj + ckˆ is unit vector then c =
distance of; (1) 0.61 (2) 0.69
(1) 120 m (2) 27 m
(3) 90 m (4) 30 m (3) 0.49 (4) 0.39
14. Which of the following is perpendicular to 20. In ground to ground projectile motion, a ball is
cos  iˆ + sin  ˆj ? thrown from a point with a speed vo at an angle of
(1) cos  iˆ + sin  ˆj (2) − cos  iˆ + sin  ˆj projection  with horizontal. From the same point
(3) − cos  iˆ − sin  ˆj (4) −[sin  iˆ − cos  ˆj ] and at the same instant a person starts running
with a constant speed vo/2 to catch the ball. If the
15. In ground to ground to projectile motion, the person is able to catch the ball, what should be the
gx 2 angle of projection?
equation of a projectile is y = x − . The angle o o
2 (1) 60 (2) 30
of projection is: (3) 37
o
(4) 45
o

(1) 30° (2) 60°

(3) 45° (4) 0°
21. The width of a river is 1 km. The velocity of a
16. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is boat in still water is 5 km/h. The minimum time
( )
2iˆ + 3 ˆj m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is: for the boat to cross river is:
(1) 12 min (2) 10 min
(3) 15 min (4) 30 min

22. In ground to ground projectile motion, a projectile

is thrown with speed of 5 m/s. The horizontal
(1) −2iˆ + 3 ˆj (2) 2iˆ − 3 ˆj component of velocity is 3 m/s. Given that g = 10
(3) 2iˆ + 3 ˆj (4) −2iˆ − 3 ˆj m/s2, what is the range of the projectile?
(1) 1.2 m (2) 2.4 m
17. A stone is projected from the ground with velocity (3) 3.6 m (4) 4.8 m
50 m/s at an angle of 30° from horizontal. It crosses
a wall after 3 s. How far beyond the wall the stone 23. The position of a particle moving in the x-y plane
will strike the ground? (g = 10 m/s2).
(1) 100 m (2) 25 3 m (
at any time t is given by; x = 3t 2 − 6t ) metres;

(3) 50 3 m (4)
50
3
m ( )
y = t 2 − 2t metres, then

(1) velocity is zero at t = 0

18. A ball rolls off top of a staircase with a horizontal 1
(2) velocity is zero at t = second
velocity u m/s. If the each step is h metre high and 2
b metre wide, the ball will just hit the edge of nth (3) velocity is zero at t = 1 second
step if n is equal to:
(4) velocity of the particle is never zero.
hu 2 u28
(1) (2)
gb 2 gb 2 24. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity of
2 2 10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road the
2hu 2u g
(3) (4)
gb 2
hb 2 raindrops appear to be coming with a velocity of
20 m/s. The magnitude of velocity of cyclist is:
19. A ball projected from a point O as shown in figure (1) 10 m/s (2) 10 3 m/s
will strike the ground after time t equal to:
(3) 20 m/s (4) 20 3 m/s
(g = 10 m/s2, neglect air resistance)

25. When a projectile is fired at an angle  with

horizontal with velocity u, then its vertical
component (till the time projectile reaches
topmost point):
(1) remains same.
(2) goes on increasing with height.
(1) 4 s (2) 3 s (3) goes on decreasing with height.
(3) 2 s (4) 5 s (4) first increases, then decreases with height.
26. In ground to ground projectile motion, the trajectory 30. In ground to ground projectile motion, the velocity
of a projectile in a vertical plane is y = ax – bx2, of projection of a body is increased by 2%.
Keeping other factors as constant, what will be the
where a and b are constants and x and y are
percentage change in the time of flight?
respectively horizontal and vertical distances of the (1) 1% (2) 2%
projectile from the point of projection. The (3) 4% (4) 8%
maximum height attained by the particle is:
31. A ball is projected upwards from the top of tower
b2 a2 with a velocity 50 ms–1 making an angle 30º with
(1) (2)
2a b the horizontal. The height of tower is 70 m. After
how many seconds from the instant of throwing,
a2 2a 2
(3) (4) will the ball reach the ground? (g = 10 m/s2)
4b b (1) 2 s
(2) 5 s
27. Which of the following option contains correct (3) 7 s
statements? (4) 9 s
A. Vector addition is commutative.
32. In ground-to-ground projectile motion, an object
B. Vector subtraction is not commutative.
is thrown at 30° with the horizontal. The
C. Dot product of two vectors is not maximum height (H) and horizontal range (R) of
commutative. the object are related as;
D. Cross product of two vectors is not (1) R = 4H (2) R = 4 3H
commutative.
(3) R = 2 2 H (4) R = 2H
(1) A, B, C and D (2) A, B and C only
(3) A, B and D only (4) B, C and D only 33. In ground to ground projectile motion, a stone is
projected at some angle from the ground with
28. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as velocity 25 m/s. Two seconds later, it just clears a
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: wall 5 m high. The angle of projection of the
Assertion A: In ground to ground projectile stone is: (g = 10 m/sec2).
motion, time of flight of a projectile is equal to (1) 30º (2) 45º
(3) 53º (4) 60º
twice the time taken to attain the maximum
height. (Air resistance neglected) 34. The greatest height to which a man can throw a
Reason R: In ground to ground projectile motion, stone is h. The greatest horizontal distance to
at the highest point of the trajectory, the projectile which he can throw it, will be;
comes to rest and then begins to fall vertically h
(1) h (2)
downward under the effect of gravity. 2
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) 2h (4) 3h
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false. 35. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
(2) A is false but R is true. Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Assertion A: In ground to ground projectile
motion, when the velocity of projection of a body
explanation of A.
is made n times (keeping other parameters same),
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the its time of flight becomes n times.
correct explanation of A. Reason R: In ground to ground projectile motion,
range of projectile does not depend on the initial
29. In ground to ground projectile motion, a projectile velocity of a body.
can have the same range R for two different angles In the light of the above statements, choose the
of projection. If t1 and t2 be the times of flight in correct answer from the options given below:
the two cases, then what is the product of two (1) A is true but R is false.
times of flight? (2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) t1t2  R 2 (2) t1t2  R explanation of A.
1 1 (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(3) t1t2  (4) t1t2 
R R2 correct explanation of A.
36. A stone is thrown at an angle  to the horizontal 41. In ground to ground projectile motion, the angle of
and reaches a maximum height H. Then the time projection () at which the horizontal range and
of flight of stone will be; maximum height of projectile are equal is;
2H (1) tan–1 (1)
(1) (2) tan −1 (1 / 4)
g
(3) tan −1 (4)
2H
(2) 2
g (4) tan –1 (1 / 3)

2 2 H sin 
(3) 42. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm at two
g revolutions per second. The centripetal acceleration
2 H sin  of the particle in m/s2 is;
(4)
g (1)  2
(2) 82
37. In ground to ground projectile motion, if the range (3) 42
of a shell fired with a speed v is R, then the angle
of projection of the shell with horizontal is; (4) 22
 v2 
(1) cos −1 
 Rg  43. A ball is thrown with speed u at an angle θ with
  the vertical. The horizontal and vertical
 gR  component of velocity (Vx) and (Vy) respectively
(2) cos −1  2 
v  after time t are; (g is the acceleration due to
gravity and ignore air resistance)
1  v2  (1) Vx = u cos θ and Vy = u sin θ − gt
(3)  
2  Rg  (2) Vx = u sin θ and Vy = u cos θ − gt
(3) Vx = u cos θ − gt and Vy = u sin θ
1 −1  gR  (4) Vx = u cos θ − gt and Vy = u sin θ – gt
(4) sin  2 
2 v 
44. Two balls are thrown with same speed u from a
38. In ground to ground projectile motion, at the top of common point on ground at an angle θ1 and θ2
the trajectory of a projectile, the directions of its with horizontal such that they have same range.
The correct relation between θ1 and θ2 is:
velocity and acceleration are;
(1) θ1 + θ2 = 45°
(1) Perpendicular to each other (2) θ1 + θ2 = 60°
(2) Parallel to each other (3) θ1 + θ2 = 90°
(3) Inclined to each other at an angle of 45º (4) θ1 + θ2 = 120°
(4) Antiparallel to each other
45. A vector (−3iˆ + 4 ˆj ) can be represented as:
39. The speed of a boat is 5 km/hr in still water. If it
crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest
possible path in 15 min, then velocity of the river is; (1)

V
BR

(2)
(1) 4 km/hr (2) 3 km/hr
(3) 2 km/hr (4) 1 km/hr

40. Two vectors A and B lie in a plane. Another

(3)
vector C lies outside this plane. The resultant
A + B + C of these three vectors.
(1) can be zero
(2) cannot be zero
(3) lies in the plane of A & B (4)

(4) lies in the plane of A & A + B

 Chemical bonding and Molecular Structure (Part)

46. Maximum number of lone pairs present in Lewis 52. N2O has a linear, unsymmetrical structure that
dot structure of: may be thought of as a hybrid of two resonance
(1) BF4− forms. If a resonance from must have a
satisfactory Lewis structure, which of the
(2) BH−4
following structure is correct?
(3) CN− (1)
(4) COCl2
(2)
(3)
47. Which of the following Lewis representation of
the molecules NF3; O3 and HNO3 is correct? (4)

53. According to Lewis structure the number of lone

pair & bond pair of electrons in ion SO24− .
(1) 12,6 (2) 12,4
(1) Only I
(3) 10,8 (4) 8,8
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
54. Which of the following species has four lone pairs
(4) I, II and III
of electrons in its outer shell?
(1) I
48. The Lewis symbol for the element oxygen is:
(1) O with 2 dots (2) O with 4 dots (2) O −
(3) O with 6 dots (4) O with 8 dots (3) Cl−
(4) He
49. The combination of atoms occur because they
want: 55. Correct Lewis dot structure of SO2 molecule is:
(1) to decrease number of electrons in the
outermost orbit.
(2) to attain an inert gas configuration. (1) (2)
(3) to increase number of electrons in the
outermost orbit.
(4) to attain 18 electrons in the outermost orbit. (3) (4)

50. In a triple bond there is sharing of: 56. Lewis approach helps in writing the structure of
(1) 3 electrons. molecules but it fails to explain:
(2) 4 electrons. (1) the formation of covalent bond
(3) 2 electrons. (2) the reason for the difference in bond
(4) 6 electrons. dissociation enthalpies and bond lengths in
molecule H2, F2 like etc
51. Which of the following does not represent the (3) the idea about the shapes of polyatomic
correct Lewis dot structure? molecules
(4) All of the above

57. Which of the following does not represent correct

lewis symbol?

(1) I, IV and V only

(2) II, III and IV only
(1) A only (2) B only (3) II only
(3) C only (4) A and C only (4) II and III only
58. Consider the following molecules: 61. Which of the following statements is incorrect for
writing the Lewis dot structure?.
(1) The total number of electrons required for
writing the structure are obtained by adding
the valence electrons of the combining atoms.
What is the formal charge on C in CS2 and in (2) Knowing the chemical symbols of the
CO32− ? combining atoms and having knowledge of
(1) 0, –2 (2) 0, 0 the total skeletal structure of the compound,
it is easy to distribute the number of electrons
(3) +2, –2 (4) +1, –1
as bonding shared pairs between the atoms in
proportions to the total bonds.
59. Which of the following statements are correct
(3) In general the least electropositive atom
based on given Lewis dot structures?
occupies the central position in the
(i) molecule/ion.
(4) After accounting for the shared pairs of
electrons for single bonds, the remaining
(ii)
electron pairs are either utilised for multiple
bonding or remain as the lone pairs.

(iii)
62. Which of the following represents the Lewis
structure of N2 molecule?
(1)
(iv) (2)
(3)

(1) (i) and (iv) represents formation of triple (4)

bond.
(2) Only (iv) represents formation of double 63. What is the formal charge on N in the given
bond. structure?
(3) Only (ii) represents formation of single bond.
(4) (ii) and (iii) both represents formation of
single bond.
(1) +1 (2) –1
(3) 0 (4) +2
60. Identify the correct Lewis dot structure for
carbonate ion.
64. Average formal charge on O-atom in carbonate
ion is:
(1) (1) –2 (2) 3
−2
(3) –1 (4)
3

(2) 65. Which of the following statements is/are

incorrect?
(1) The lowest energy structure is the one which
has the smallest formal charges on the atoms.
(3) (2) Formal charges do not indicate the real
charge separation within the molecule.
(3) Lewis dot structures represent the actual
shapes of the molecules.
(4)
(4) In case of polyatomic ions, the net charge is
possessed by the ion as a whole and not by a
particular atom.
66. According to Lewis dot structure the number of 73. Which of the following is correct for the process
bond pairs around central atom is greater than four of formation of a chemical bond?
for which of the following anion? (1) Electron-electron repulsion becomes more
than the nucleus-electron attraction.
(1) CO32− (2) NO3−
(2) Energy of the system does not change.
(3) PO34− (4) None of these (3) Energy increases.
(4) Energy decreases.
67. Which of the following does not represent the
correct Lewis structure for the compounds given? 74. The bond formed as a result of the electrostatic
(1) attraction between the positive and negative ions
is termed as
(2) CN− − : C::: N : (1) Chemical bond
(3) BrF3(Br in centre) (2) Electrovalent bond
(3) Co-ordinate bond
(4) Covalent bond
(4) All of these
75. Which of the following statement is correct for
68. The Lewis structure of the nitrite ion, NO−2 is: NO3− ion?
(1) Sum of all formal charges = +1
(1) (2) (2) Formal charge on one of the oxygen atom = –2
(3) Formal charge on nitrogen atom = +1
(3) (4) Both (1) and (3) 1
(4) Average formal charge on oxygen atom = −
3
69. Number of b.p. and l.p. on nitrogen in NO3− is:
(1) 3 b.p. + 1 l .p. (2) 4 b.p. + 0 l.p. 76. The low solubility of LiF in water is due to its:
(1) High lattice enthalpy
(3) 2 b.p. + 2 l.p. (4) 1 b.p. + 1 l.p.
(2) High covalent character
(3) Small lattice enthalpy
70. It is believed that atoms combine with each other
(4) Formal change on lithium is zero
such that outermost shell acquires stable
configuration of 8 electrons. If stability were 77. Number of bonded electrons in ethane molecule
attained with 6 electrons rather than 8, what would are
be the formula of the stable fluoride ion? (1) 7 (2) 12
(1) F– (2) F+ (3) 10 (4) 14
(3) F2+ (4) F3+
78. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
71. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
upon: Assertion (A): Sodium chloride formed by the
(1) Charge on the ions only action of chlorine gas on sodium metal is a stable
(2) Size of the ions only compound.
(3) Packing of the ions only Reason(R): This is because sodium and chloride
ions acquire octet in sodium chloride formation.
(4) Charge and size of the ions
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
72. The bond between two identical non-metal atoms
(1) A is true but R is false.
has a pair of electrons
(2) A is false but R is true.
(1) Unequally shared between the two
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) Transferred fully from one atom to another
explanation of A.
(3) With identical spins
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) Equally shared between them
correct explanation of A.
79. The group valence of the element is generally 84. Lattice energy (LE) affects which of the following
equal to the factors ?
(1) number of dots in Lewis symbol (1) Stability of ionic compound
(2) eight minus the number of dots (2) Melting point of ionic compound
(3) valence electrons (3) Boiling point of ionic compound
(4) All of these (4) All of the above

80. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as 85. Which condition favours the bond formation:
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (1) Maximum attraction and maximum potential
Assertion (A): Ionic compounds tend to be non- energy
volatile. (2) Minimum attraction and minimum potential
Reason(R): Intermolecular forces in these energy
compounds are weak. (3) Minimum potential energy and maximum
In the light of the above statements, choose the attraction
correct answer from the options given below: (4) Maximum potential energy and minimum
(1) A is true but R is false. attraction
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 86. The electrovalency of the element is equal to the
explanation of A. (1) number of electrons lost
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (2) number of electrons gained
correct explanation of A. (3) number of electrons transferred
(4) number of electrons lost or gained by the
atom of the element during the formation of
81. The number of electrons involved in the bond
ions of ionic compound
formation of N2 molecule:
(1) 2 (2) 4
87. Ionic bond formation involves
(3) 6 (4) 8
(1) Elimination of protons
(2) Sharing of electrons
82. Match List I with List II
(3) Overlapping of orbitals
List I List II
(4) Completion of octets
(A) Lithium (I) Group valence: 3
(B) Neon (II) One valence electron
(C) Carbon (III) Eight electrons in the valence 88. An ionic compound A+ B– is most likely to be
shell formed when
(D) Nitrogen (IV) Group valence: 4 (1) Ionization energy of A is low
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) Electron affinity of B is high
below: (3) Electron affinity of B is low
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 89. Among the following which compounds will
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV show the highest lattice energy?
(1) KF
83. Which of the following Lewis diagram is (2) NaF
incorrect? (3) CsF
(4) RbF
(1) (2)
90. The correct order of lattice energy is given by
(1) NaF > NaCl > NaBr > NaI
(2) NaCl > NaF > NaBr > NaI
(3) NaBr > NaCl > NaF > NaI
(3) (4) (4) NaI > NaBr > NaCl > NaF
 The Living World
91. Mango belongs to the family; 101. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) Muscidae. (2) Poaceae. (1) The scientific names ensure that each
(3) Solanaceae. (4) Anacardiaceae. organism has only one name.
(2) ICBN stands for International Code for
92. The ‘family’ of humans is; Botanical Nomenclature.
(3) The naming system given by Carolus
(1) hominidae. (2) muscidae.
Linnaeus is being practised by biologists in
(3) anacardiaceae. (4) solanaceae.
only a few parts of the world.
(4) The local names of animals and plants would
93. The number of broad taxonomical categories is; vary from place to place, even within a
(1) six. (2) two. country.
(3) four. (4) seven.
102. From the following, identify the set of taxonomic
94. The number of species that are known and categories that is included in the biological
described range between; classification of same organism.
(1) 1.7-1.8 million. (2) 1.7-1.8 billion. (1) Hominidae; Primata; Insecta
(3) 17-18 million. (4) 17-18 billion. (2) Musca; Insecta; Sapindales
(3) Anacardiaceae; Monocotyledonae; Angiospermae
(4) Triticum; Poaceae; Monocotyledonae
95. The process by which anything is grouped into
convenient categories based on some easily 103. Family Convolvulaceae is included in the order;
observable characters is called; (1) Poales. (2) Sapindales.
(1) nomenclature. (3) Polymoniales. (4) Primata.
(2) identification.
(3) classification. 104. Three pairs of jointed legs are present in;
(4) taxonomy. (1) animals of phylum Chordata.
(2) insects.
96. Panthera pardus is the scientific name of; (3) animals of order Carnivora.
(1) lion. (2) dog. (4) Planaria.
(3) leopard. (4) cat.
105. Nigrum and melongena belong to the genus;
(1) Panthera. (2) Triticum.
97. Match List-I with List-II. (3) Solanum. (4) Mangifera.
List-I List-II
(A) Solanum tuberosum (I) Lion 106. Read the following statements.
(B) Panthera leo (II) Human A. Insecta is a class.
(C) Musca domestica (III) Potato B. Angiospermae is a class.
(D) Homo sapiens (IV) Housefly C. Sapindales is an order.
D. Poaceae is a division.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
The number of correct statement(s) is;
below:
(1) one (2) two
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (3) three (4) four
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 107. All organisms, including those in the plant and
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV animal kingdoms have _____ as the lowest
taxonomic category.
98. The taxonomical category ‘Class’ includes related; (1) species. (2) genus.
(1) orders. (2) phyla. (3) class. (4) order.
(3) divisions. (4) kingdoms.
108. Match List-I with List-II.
99. The scientific term for biological classification List-I List-II
(A) Self-consciousness (I) Mountains
categories is the;
(B) External growth (II) Humans
(1) species. (2) taxon.
(C) Sterile organism (III) Mule
(3) phylum. (4) kingdom.
(D) Budding (IV) Yeast
Choose the correct answer from the option given
100. True regeneration is observed in; below:
(1) protonema of mosses. (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) Planaria. (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) bacteria. (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) filamentous algae. (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
109. The taxonomic category ‘Family’; 116. ICZN stands for;
(1) is placed in between class and order. (1) International Code for Zoological Naming.
(2) is a group of related divisions. (2) Indian Code for Zoological Nomenclature.
(3) is placed in between phylum and order. (3) International Code of Zoological
(4) is a group of related genera. Nomenclature.
(4) Indian Code for Zoological Naming.
110. Reproduction is synonymous with growth in;
(1) unicellular algae. 117. In case of plants, classes with a few similar
(2) hydra.
characters are assigned to a higher category
(3) worker bees.
called;
(4) infertile human couples.
(1) Class.
111. Given below are two statements: (2) Division.
Statement I: Felidae is the family of cats. (3) Order.
Statement II: Canidae is the family of dogs. (4) Family
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given 118. All animals belonging to various phyla are
below: assigned to the same highest taxonomical
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is category;
incorrect. (1) kingdom.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (2) class.
correct. (3) species.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) genus.
correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are 119. Given below are two statements:
incorrect. Statement I: The process to standardize the
naming of living organisms so that a particular
112. The organism belonging to class
organism is known by the same name all over the
monocotyledonae is;
world is called nomenclature.
(1) man. (2) housefly.
Statement II: Nomenclature or naming is only
(3) mango. (4) wheat.
possible when the organism is described
113. The animal order ___, includes taxonomic correctly.
categories like Felidae and Canidae. In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Primata most appropriate answer from the options given
(2) Polymoniales below:
(3) Carnivora (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(4) Chordata incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
114. Given below are two statements: correct.
Statement I: The first word in a biological name (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
represents the genus while the second component correct.
denotes the specific epithet. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Statement II: The scientific name of mango is incorrect.
Mangifera indica.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 120. The taxon ‘Phylum’ of animal classification is
most appropriate answer from the options given
equivalent to ______ of plant classification.
below:
(1) Class
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Division
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (3) Order
correct. (4) Family
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are 121. Among the following which one is common for
incorrect. both mango and wheat?
(1) Division
115. Pardus is the specific epithet of; (2) Class
(1) dog. (2) leopard. (3) Order
(3) tiger. (4) gorilla. (4) Family
122. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 129. Which of the following is a phylum to which man
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: belongs?
Assertion A: All organisms, from the prokaryotes (1) Chordata
to the most complex eukaryotes can sense and (2) Arthropoda
respond to environmental cues. (3) Angiospermae
Reason R: We sense our environment through
(4) Monocotyledonae
our sense organs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 130. Growth;
(1) A is true but R is false. (1) is a defining feature of all living organisms.
(2) A is false but R is true. (2) is not shown by non-living objects.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) occurs only upto a certain age in plants.
explanation of A. (4) is shown by mountains and sand mounds.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A. 131. Primata belongs to which of the given taxonomic
groups?
123. Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed in the
(1) Mammalia
family;
(2) Insecta
(1) Anacardiaceae.
(2) Poaceae. (3) Dicotyledonae
(3) Dicotyledonae. (4) Monocotyledonae
(4) Solanaceae.
132. _____ is the story of life on earth.
124. Organisms that show the presence of notochord (1) Taxonomy
and dorsal hollow neural system are included in (2) Biology
phylum; (3) Ecological information
(1) Chordata. (2) Carnivora. (4) Biodiversity
(3) Arthropoda. (4) Primata.
133. All of the following are correct for systematics,
125. The correctly written scientific name of tiger is;
(1) Panthera Tigris except;
(2) Panthera tigris (1) word is derived from the Latin word
(3) panthera tigris ‘systema’.
(4) panthera Tigris (2) ‘systema’ means systematic arrangement of
organisms.
126. The sum total of chemical reactions occurring in (3) systematics takes into account evolutionary
our body is called; relationships between organisms.
(1) catabolism. (2) anabolism. (4) scope of systematics was later reduced to
(3) metabolism. (4) growth. include identification only.
127. Carolus Linnaeus gave a system of naming
organisms using a _____ word format. 134. Monkey, gorilla and gibbon are placed in;
(1) three (2) four (1) Carnivora. (2) Felidae.
(3) five (4) two (3) Mammalia. (4) Canidae.

128. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 135. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: The earliest classifications were Assertion A: All living organisms - present, past
based on the ‘uses’ of various organisms. and future are linked to one another.
Reason R: In early days, human beings needed to Reason R: All organisms share common genetic
find sources for their basic needs of food, clothing
material, but to varying degrees.
and shelter.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false. (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true. (2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
 Breathing and Exchange of Gases (Part)

136. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 143. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: alveoli of lungs?
Assertion A: An increase in pulmonary volume (1) Thin walls
decreases the intrapulmonary pressure. (2) Surrounded by capillaries
Reason R: Expiration takes place when intra (3) Contains cartilage
pulmonary pressure is lesser than the atmospheric (4) Increase the surface area for gaseous exchange
pressure.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 144. At which level of thoracic vertebra, trachea divides
correct answer from the options given below: into left and right primary bronchi?
(1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct (1) 2nd thoracic vertebra
explanation of A. (2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct (3) 4th thoracic vertebra
explanation of A. (4) 3rd thoracic vertebra
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true. 145. Match the List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
137. Which of the following statements is/are correct (Organisms) (Respiratory organ)
about breathing? (A) Molluscs (I) Lungs
(1) The first step in respiration is breathing. (B) Insects (II) Moist skin
(2) Atmospheric air is taken in during exhalation. (C) Mammals (III) A network of tracheal
(3) The alveolar air is released out during exhalation. tubes
(4) Both (1) and (3) (D) Earthworm (IV) Gills
Choose the correct answer from the options given
138. All of the following structures are lined by below:
incomplete cartilaginous rings except;
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(1) Trachea
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) Primary bronchi
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) Terminal bronchioles
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) Tertiary bronchi
146. The mechanism of inspiration occurs due to;
139. Mammalian lungs are situated in;
(1) contraction of diaphragm and external
(1) abdominal cavity.
intercostal muscles.
(2) thoracic cavity.
(2) relaxation of diaphragm and external
(3) pelvic cavity.
intercostal muscles.
(4) cranial cavity.
(3) contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of
external intercostal muscles.
140. Inspiration occurs when intra-pulmonary pressure is;
(4) relaxation of diaphragm and contraction of
(1) higher than atmospheric pressure.
external intercostal muscles.
(2) lower than atmospheric pressure.
(3) equal to atmospheric pressure.
147. Given below are two statements.
(4) zero compared to atmospheric pressure.
Statement I: Oxygen (O2) is utilised by the
organisms to indirectly break down complex
141. Ventrally and laterally, the thoracic chamber is
molecules like glucose and amino acids. to derive
formed by;
energy.
(1) diaphragm and sternum respectively.
Statement II: Flatworms and coelenterates are
(2) ribs and sternum respectively.
lower invertebrates.
(3) sternum and ribs respectively.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(4) vertebral column and diaphragm respectively.
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
142. In sponges and coelenterates, gaseous exchange
incorrect.
takes place through:
(1) gills (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) tracheal tubes correct.
(3) plasma membrane or body surfaces (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) lungs (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
148. Refer to the diagram given below. Identify the 154. Match List-I with List-II.
structure which helps in generation of pressure List-I List-II
gradient during breathing. (A) Epiglottis (I) Air sacs
(B) Alveoli (II) Wind-pipe
(C) Larynx (III) Lid of larynx
(D) Trachea (IV) Voice box
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(1) D (2) A (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) B (4) C
155. In which of the following animals branchial
149. Which of the following structures is not included in
respiration occurs?
the conducting part of the human respiratory
system? A. Frog
(1) Tertiary bronchi B. Fish
(2) Duct of alveoli C. Aquatic arthropods
(3) Initial bronchioles D. Earthworm
(4) Trachea (1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) A and D
150. Which of the following factor/s primarily
determines the mechanism of breathing in different
156. Which of the following is the main site of human
groups of animals?
respiratory system where exchange of gases occurs?
(1) Habitat
(2) Demand of situation (1) Alveoli
(3) Level of organisation (2) Bronchiole
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) Primary bronchi
(4) Trachea
151. Among ___A___, fish use gills whereas reptiles and
birds respire through the ___B___. 157. Given below are two statements.
Select appropriate choice for the blanks A and B to Statement I: The pharynx opens into the trachea
complete the given statement.
through the larynx region.
(1) A-invertebrates, B-lungs
(2) A-vertebrates, B-dry skin Statement II: The branching network of bronchi,
(3) A-invertebrates, B-gills bronchioles and alveoli comprise the lungs.
(4) A-vertebrates, B-lungs In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
152. Any change in the volume of the thoracic cavity is below.
reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity because; (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) the lungs are situated in the abdominal cavity incorrect.
which is anatomically an air-tight chamber.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) the lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber
correct.
which is anatomically not an air-tight chamber.
(3) the lungs are situated in the cranial cavity (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
which is anatomically an air-tight chamber. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) the lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber
which is anatomically an air-tight chamber. 158. The outer pleural membrane is in close contact with
the___A___ whereas the inner pleural membrane is
153. Which of the following functions is performed by in contact with the ____B____.
the exchange part of the human respiratory system? Identify A and B correctly.
(1) Filtration of air
A B
(2) Humidification of the incoming air
(3) Adjustment of the temperature of incoming air (1) lungs thoracic lining
to body temperature (2) thoracic lining lung surface
(4) Diffusion of gases between blood and (3) alveoli thoracic lining
atmospheric air (4) alveoli bronchioles
159. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 164. Which of the following options is incorrect for
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: external and internal intercostal muscles?
Assertion A: Contraction of diaphragm increases (1) These are muscles present in between the ribs
the volume of thoracic chamber. (2) These are the muscles of the diaphragm.
Reason R: The muscles of the diaphragm (3) These muscles help in the generation of
undergoes relaxation during inspiration. pressure gradients.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) The external intercoastal muscles contract
correct answer from the options given below: during the inspiration.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is a correct
explanation of A. 165. Which of the following step is not involved in
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct respiration?
explanation of A. (1) Utilisation of CO2 by the cells for catabolic
(3) A is true but R is false. reactions.
(4) A is false but R is true. (2) Transport of gases by the blood.
(3) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane.
160. A thin-elastic cartilaginous flap which prevents the (4) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
entry of food into the larynx is known as; tissues.
(1) glottis.
(2) wind pipe. 166. Human beings have the ability to increase the
(3) epiglottis. strength of inspiration and expiration due to the
(4) bronchiole. presence of additional muscles in the ___________.
(1) diaphragm (2) abdomen
161. The nasal chamber opens into the______, a portion (3) lungs (4) heart
of which is the common passage for food and air.
Fill in the blank with the correct option. 167. What is the breathing rate in a normal healthy man?
(1) Larynx (1) 8 -18 times/min.
(2) Trachea (2) 6 -12 times/min.
(3) Pharynx (3) 16 - 24 times/min.
(4) Bronchi (4) 12 -16 times/min.

162. Mark the correct statement from the following. 168. Identify the set of correct statements for the
(1) Human beings have two pairs of external exhalation process.
nostrils opening out above the upper lips. A. Relaxation of the diaphragm occurs.
(2) Alveoli are thick walled, vascularised bag like B. Diaphragm and sternum return to their normal
structures. positions.
(3) The pleural fluid increases the friction on the C. The pulmonary volume is increased.
lung surface. D. Air is moved from outside into the lungs.
(4) The pleural fluid reduces the friction on the (1) A and B (2) B and C
lung surface. (3) C and D (4) A and D

163. Read the following statements: 169. Which of the following shows the correct sequence
A. In flatworms, gaseous exchange occurs by of passage of air in the body?
simple diffusion over their entire body surface. (1) External nostrils → nasal chamber → pharynx
B. In cockroach, gaseous transportation occurs → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles
with the help of haemoglobin present in → alveoli
RBCs. (2) Nasal chamber → external nostril → larynx →
C. In most of aquatic arthropods, gaseous pharynx → trachea → bronchioles → bronchi
exchange occurs through tracheal tubes. → alveoli
D. Amphibians can respire through their moist
(3) Nasal chamber → external nostrils → larynx
skin and lungs.
→ pharynx → trachea → bronchi →
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
bronchioles → alveoli
(1) One
(2) Three (4) Nasal chamber → external nostril → larynx →
(3) Two trachea → pharynx → bronchioles → bronchi
(4) Four → alveoli
170. Identify the option that correctly represents the 175. Arrange the following steps of respiration in the
“A”. correct order.
A. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which
atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich
alveolar air is released out.
B. Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across the
alveolar membrane.
C. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
tissues.
D. Transport of gases by the blood.
(1) Diaphragm is relaxed (1) A → B → C → D
(2) Diaphragm is contracted (2) B → C → A → D
(3) Diaphragm is arched upwards
(3) C → A → D → B
(4) Diaphragm is in normal position
(4) A → B → D → C
171. How many of the given structures in the box below
is/are surrounded by incomplete cartilaginous 176. Which of the following structures are involved in
rings? the formation of thoracic chamber?
Larynx, Pharynx, Secondary bronchus, Initial A. Vertebral column
bronchiole, Alveoli B. Sternum
(1) One (2) Four C. Ribs
(3) Three (4) Two
D. Diaphragm
(1) A and C only
172. Which of the following options is/are correct for
spirometer? (2) A, B and C only
(1) It is a device used to measure the volume of air (3) B, C and D only
involved in breathing movements. (4) A, B, C and D
(2) It is a device used to measure the blood
pressure of a person. 177. Given below are two statements:
(3) It helps in clinical assessment of the pulmonary Statement I: The passage starting with the external
functions. nostrils upto the terminal bronchiole constitute the
(4) Both (1) and (3)
respiratory part of the human respiratory system.
Statement II: The respiratory part mainly clears the
173. Contraction of diaphragm results in;
(1) increase in the volume of thoracic chamber in air from the foreign materials and humidifies it.
antero-posterior axis. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(2) increase in the volume of thoracic chamber in appropriate answer from the options given below:
dorso-ventral axis. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct
(3) decrease in the volume of thoracic chamber in (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
antero-posterior axis. incorrect.
(4) decrease in the volume of thoracic chamber in (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
dorso-ventral axis.
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
174. Consider the following statements and answer as
directed.
A. The relaxation of external intercostal muscles 178. In human beings, which of the following conditions
lifts up the ribs and sternum. is responsible for higher intrapulmonary pressure
B. Relaxation of external intercoastal muscles than the atmospheric pressure?
increases the volume of thoracic chamber in (1) Contraction of diaphragm
dorso-ventral axis. (2) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(1) Both A and B are true statements.
(3) Relaxation of additional muscles of abdomen
(2) A is true and B is false.
(4) Relaxation of muscles of diaphragm and
(3) A is false and B is true.
(4) Both A and B are false statements. external intercostal muscles
179. Diaphragm is a dome - shaped muscular structure 180. All of the following structures are involved in the
which separates; generation of pressure gradient between lungs and
(1) coelomic cavity from pelvic cavity. atmospheric air except;
(1) Diaphragm
(2) pleural cavity from thoracic cavity.
(2) Trachea
(3) thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity. (3) ⁠External intercostal muscle
(4) pelvic cavity from abdominal cavity. (4) ⁠Internal intercostal muscle

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