50 MCQs on Fertilization, Cleavage & Bilaminar Germ Disc
1. Fertilization is the fusion of:
a) Two diploid gametes
b) Two haploid gametes
c) Two zygotes
d) Two blastomeres
2. The product of fertilization is:
a) Primary oocyte
b) Spermatid
c) Zygote
d) Blastocyst
3. Fertilization completes the:
a) First meiotic division
b) Second meiotic division
c) Cleavage
d) Implantation
4. The site of fertilization in humans is:
a) Infundibulum
b) Ampulla of uterine tube
c) Isthmus
d) Uterus
5. The male and female pronuclei fuse to restore:
a) Haploid number
b) Diploid number (46 chromosomes)
c) Triploid number
d) Polyploidy
6. The spermatozoon contributes:
a) Mitochondria
b) Pronucleus
c) Yolk
d) Follicular cells
7. The determination of chromosomal sex occurs at:
a) Cleavage
b) Fertilization
c) Implantation
d) Gastrulation
8. Normal semen volume per ejaculation is about:
a) 0.5 ml
b) 1 ml
c) 2–3 ml
d) 10 ml
9. Number of spermatozoa per ml of semen is about:
a) 10,000
b) 1 million
c) 100 million
d) 1 billion
10. The viability of sperm after ejaculation is:
a) 6 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 24–48 hours
d) 5 days
11. The viability of ovum after ovulation is:
a) 6 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 24–48 hours
d) 72 hours
12. The final maturation of sperm in the female tract is called:
a) Fertilization
b) Capacitation
c) Spermiogenesis
d) Cleavage
13. Capacitation requires approximately:
a) 30 minutes
b) 2 hours
c) 7 hours
d) 2 days
14. The acrosome reaction releases enzymes such as:
a) Trypsin, pepsin
b) Hyaluronidase, acrosin, acid phosphatase
c) Amylase, lipase
d) Chymotrypsin
15. First barrier sperm must penetrate is:
a) Zona pellucida
b) Corona radiata
c) Vitelline membrane
d) Chorion
16. Zona pellucida receptors that bind sperm are:
a) ZP1, ZP2
b) LH and FSH
c) Estrogen and progesterone
d) Zona radiata
17. The zona reaction prevents:
a) Cleavage
b) Polyspermy
c) Implantation
d) Capacitation
18. Fusion of sperm and oocyte membranes occurs at:
a) Corona radiata
b) Zona pellucida
c) Vitelline membrane
d) Trophoblast
19. The calcium wave in oocyte cytoplasm prevents:
a) Cleavage
b) Polyspermy
c) Implantation
d) Zona pellucida formation
20. Fertilization results in inheritance of mitochondria from:
a) Both parents
b) Mother only
c) Father only
d) Both sperm tail and egg cytoplasm
21. Cleavage is:
a) Meiotic division
b) Mitotic division of zygote
c) Reduction division
d) Asymmetric division
22. Cleavage occurs within:
a) Uterus
b) Zona pellucida
c) Cervix
d) Endometrium
23. Cleavage lasts until:
a) 2nd day
b) 4th day
c) 6th–7th day
d) 14th day
24. Cleavage produces progressively smaller cells called:
a) Morula
b) Blastomeres
c) Pronuclei
d) Oocytes
25. Compact ball of cells formed at cleavage stage is:
a) Blastocyst
b) Morula
c) Zygote
d) Gastrula
26. Blastocyst formation occurs on:
a) Day 2
b) Day 3
c) Day 4–5
d) Day 10
27. Blastocyst contains:
a) Only epiblast
b) Trophoblast and inner cell mass
c) Only yolk sac
d) Only amnion
28. Hatching of blastocyst involves:
a) Zona pellucida thickening
b) Zona pellucida disappearance
c) Corpus luteum enlargement
d) Follicular fluid secretion
29. Implantation begins on:
a) Day 2
b) Day 4
c) Day 6–7
d) Day 10–12
30. Hydatidiform mole results from:
a) Lack of sperm entry
b) Development of trophoblast without embryo
c) Extra yolk sac
d) Failure of gastrulation
31. Genetic makeup of complete hydatidiform mole is:
a) Maternal only
b) Paternal only
c) Mixed
d) Triploid
32. Zona pellucida prevents:
a) Cleavage
b) Abnormal implantation
c) Morula formation
d) Blastocyst hatching
33. The bilaminar germ disc consists of:
a) Epiblast and hypoblast
b) Epiblast and trophoblast
c) Hypoblast and mesoderm
d) Epiblast and mesoderm
34. Epiblast cells are:
a) Flattened
b) Columnar
c) Cuboidal
d) Squamous
35. Hypoblast cells are:
a) Flattened initially, later cuboidal
b) Columnar
c) Multinucleated
d) Syncytial
36. The amniotic cavity roof is formed by:
a) Epiblast
b) Amniogenic cells from trophoblast
c) Hypoblast
d) Mesoderm
37. The floor of amniotic cavity is formed by:
a) Hypoblast
b) Epiblast
c) Trophoblast
d) Chorion
38. The primary yolk sac is lined by:
a) Epiblast cells
b) Heuser’s membrane (endoderm)
c) Trophoblast only
d) Extraembryonic mesoderm
39. Extraembryonic mesoderm arises from:
a) Trophoblast
b) Hypoblast
c) Epiblast
d) Yolk sac
40. Extraembryonic coelom is also called:
a) Amniotic cavity
b) Chorionic cavity
c) Yolk sac
d) Blastocoel
41. Extraembryonic somatopleuric mesoderm lines:
a) Yolk sac
b) Trophoblast and amnion
c) Epiblast
d) Hypoblast
42. Extraembryonic splanchnopleuric mesoderm covers:
a) Amnion
b) Yolk sac
c) Chorion
d) Epiblast
43. Connecting stalk later forms the:
a) Umbilical cord
b) Placenta
c) Chorion
d) Amnion
44. The chorion is composed of:
a) Trophoblast + extraembryonic mesoderm
b) Hypoblast + epiblast
c) Amnion + yolk sac
d) Primitive streak
45. The secondary yolk sac appears when:
a) Heuser’s membrane is replaced
b) Zona pellucida thins
c) Primitive streak forms
d) Chorion fuses with amnion
46. The embryonic disc is circular and bilaminar at:
a) Day 3
b) Day 6
c) End of 2nd week
d) End of 3rd week
47. Prochordal plate determines:
a) Head–tail axis
b) Left–right asymmetry only
c) Gastrulation
d) Neural induction
48. Primitive streak appears on:
a) Day 7
b) Day 10
c) Day 15
d) Day 20
49. Formation of primitive streak marks the start of:
a) Cleavage
b) Gastrulation
c) Neurulation
d) Implantation
50. The buccopharyngeal membrane forms in the region of:
a) Primitive streak
b) Prochordal plate
c) Chorion
d) Secondary yolk sac
