Nursing Research Unit wise MCQS

Unit I: Introduction to Nursing Research.

1. What is the primary focus of nursing d) Research

research? Answer: a) Tradition
a) Administrative processes 7. Accepting knowledge from an expert
b) Improving patient outcomes source is known as:
c) Medical diagnosis a) Intuition
d) Pharmacological studies b) Borrowing
Answer: b) Improving patient outcomes c) Authority
2. Nursing research is best defined as: d) Empiricism
a) Study of historical events in nursing Answer: c) Authority
b) Investigation to develop knowledge 8. Borrowing knowledge in nursing refers
about issues important to nurses to:
c) Research on drugs for nurses a) Stealing research
d) Research conducted only in hospitals b) Using knowledge from other
Answer: b) Investigation to develop disciplines
knowledge about issues important to c) Ignoring nursing theories
nurses d) Copying procedures
3. Which of the following is a Answer: b) Using knowledge from
characteristic of nursing research? other disciplines
a) Subjective and anecdotal 9. Which method involves repeated
b) Based on intuition attempts and learning from failure?
c) Systematic and evidence-based a) Intuition
d) Unstructured and casual b) Trial and error
Answer: c) Systematic and evidence- c) Authority
based d) Tradition
4. The ultimate goal of nursing research is Answer: b) Trial and error
to: 10. Intuition in nursing practice is best
a) Promote nurse education described as:
b) Enhance professional image a) Guessing a diagnosis
c) Improve quality of patient care b) Immediate understanding without
d) Reduce nurse workload conscious reasoning
Answer: c) Improve quality of patient c) Relying on medical books
care d) Following routine blindly
5. Which type of research seeks to Answer: b) Immediate understanding
understand phenomena through without conscious reasoning
observation and interpretation? 11. Which way of knowing is considered
a) Quantitative the most reliable and objective?
b) Experimental a) Intuition
c) Qualitative b) Tradition
d) Correlational c) Authority
Answer: c) Qualitative d) Research
Answer: d) Research
6. Which way of knowing is based on 12. Trial and error is limited in nursing
customs and long-standing practices? because:
a) Tradition a) It is time-efficient
b) Authority b) It poses risk to patient safety
c) Intuition c) It is evidence-based
 d) It follows protocols 19. Nurses with a PhD in nursing are
Answer: b) It poses risk to patient primarily involved in:
safety a) Direct patient care
13. Knowledge from tradition may be: b) Generating new nursing knowledge
a) Always current c) Administrative roles only
b) Rigid and outdated d) Community health projects only
c) Highly scientific Answer: b) Generating new nursing
d) Based on trials knowledge
Answer: b) Rigid and outdated 20. The primary focus of a DNP-prepared
14. Why is research preferred over other nurse in research is to:
ways of knowing in nursing? a) Conduct laboratory experiments
a) It's subjective b) Translate research into clinical
b) It uses spiritual insight practice
c) It provides objective, tested c) Create new theories
knowledge d) Develop software
d) It relies on senior nurses Answer: b) Translate research into
Answer: c) It provides objective, tested clinical practice
knowledge 21. Which nurse is most likely to lead an
15. The reliance on research promotes interprofessional research team?
nursing as a: a) ADN
a) Technical profession b) BSN
b) Sub-field of medicine c) MS
c) Scientific discipline d) PhD
d) Support service Answer: d) PhD
Answer: c) Scientific discipline 22. Which degree prepares nurses to
implement evidence-based practices at
16. The primary research role of an the clinical level?
Associate Degree Nurse (ADN) is to: a) ADN
a) Lead clinical trials b) BSN
b) Critique and apply research findings c) DNP
c) Publish nursing journals d) PhD
d) Develop theories Answer: c) DNP
Answer: b) Critique and apply research 23. Which of the following is NOT a
findings research-related responsibility of a BSN
17. A nurse with a Bachelor of Science in nurse?
Nursing (BSN) is expected to: a) Reading research articles
a) Lead national research studies b) Applying findings to practice
b) Design experimental research c) Designing randomized control trials
c) Use and participate in research d) Identifying clinical problems
d) Approve grants Answer: c) Designing randomized
Answer: c) Use and participate in control trials
research 24. Nurses with MS degrees are often
18. A Master’s level nurse is responsible involved in:
for: a) Directing research funding bodies
a) Participating in bedside care only b) Writing patient prescriptions
b) Designing and implementing research c) Conducting small-scale research
projects studies
c) Teaching high school students d) Developing laws
d) Writing hospital policies only Answer: c) Conducting small-scale
Answer: b) Designing and research studies
implementing research projects
25. Which degree-holder primarily engages 32. EBP emphasizes decisions based on:
in theoretical research in nursing? a) Consensus only
a) DNP b) Patient preferences only
b) BSN c) Systematic research evidence
c) PhD d) Individual beliefs
d) ADN Answer: c) Systematic research
Answer: c) PhD evidence
33. Implementing EBP requires:
26. Evidence-Based Practice (EBP) a) Team collaboration
integrates best research evidence with: b) Ignoring patient feedback
a) Doctor’s prescriptions c) Following hospital tradition
b) Nursing intuition d) Focusing only on intuition
c) Clinical expertise and patient values Answer: a) Team collaboration
d) Medical textbooks 34. One barrier to EBP in clinical settings
Answer: c) Clinical expertise and is:
patient values a) Access to current research
27. EBP ensures: b) Willing staff
a) Increased nurse autonomy only c) Training programs
b) Decisions based on opinion d) Adequate time and resources
c) High-quality and safe patient care Answer: a) Access to current research
d) Routine traditional care 35. The integration of EBP in nursing
Answer: c) High-quality and safe enhances:
patient care a) Nurse licensing procedures
28. The first step in EBP is to: b) Bedside documentation
a) Review outcomes c) Patient safety and satisfaction
b) Appraise evidence d) Hospital construction
c) Ask a clinical question Answer: c) Patient safety and
d) Conduct a literature review satisfaction
Answer: c) Ask a clinical question
29. The “gold standard” for research 36. Which of the following best describes a
evidence in EBP is: characteristic of Evidence-Based
a) Case studies Practice?
b) Expert opinion a) Focuses on traditional procedures
c) Randomized controlled trials b) Relies on outdated textbooks
d) Editorial articles c) Integrates patient values with best
Answer: c) Randomized controlled evidence
trials d) Ignores clinical judgment
30. Which model helps guide nurses in Answer: c) Integrates patient values
applying EBP? with best evidence
a) Lewin’s model 37. Which of the following sources provides
b) PICO model the highest level of evidence for EBP?
c) Henderson’s theory a) Expert opinion
d) Nightingale model b) Cohort studies
Answer: b) PICO model c) Systematic reviews and meta-
31. In the PICO format, “O” stands for: analyses
a) Objectives d) Case reports
b) Organization Answer: c) Systematic reviews and
c) Outcome meta-analyses
d) Operations 38. What is the primary benefit of using
Answer: c) Outcome EBP in nursing?
a) Saves documentation time
 b) Improves patient outcomes 45. Which of the following is a critical skill
c) Avoids collaboration for all nurses in relation to research?
d) Simplifies research a) Writing textbooks
Answer: b) Improves patient outcomes b) Evaluating and applying evidence
39. What role does a BSN nurse play in c) Performing surgery
research utilization? d) Developing pharmaceuticals
a) Developing theories Answer: b) Evaluating and applying
b) Conducting PhD-level research evidence
c) Applying research findings to practice 46. In the research process, a hypothesis is:
d) Reviewing laws a) A proven fact
Answer: c) Applying research findings b) A vague assumption
to practice c) A testable prediction
40. An ADN nurse contributes to research d) A summary of results
primarily by: Answer: c) A testable prediction
a) Writing research proposals 47. Quantitative research is most useful for:
b) Participating in data collection a) Understanding emotions
c) Conducting randomized controlled b) Exploring patient narratives
trials c) Measuring variables numerically
d) Publishing meta-analyses d) Interpreting artwork
Answer: b) Participating in data Answer: c) Measuring variables
collection numerically
41. The term “nursing research” specifically 48. An example of a qualitative data
refers to studies focused on: collection method is:
a) Economic growth a) Randomized control trial
b) Disease pathology b) Laboratory experiment
c) Nursing care and practice c) In-depth interview
d) Hospital architecture d) Survey with rating scales
Answer: c) Nursing care and practice Answer: c) In-depth interview
42. Which type of research helps generate 49. A systematic, step-by-step process for
new theories in nursing? discovering knowledge is known as:
a) Correlational a) Authority
b) Qualitative b) Trial and error
c) Quantitative c) Scientific method
d) Descriptive d) Intuition
Answer: b) Qualitative Answer: c) Scientific method
43. The best way to reduce clinical errors 50. Which of the following best summarizes
and variability in care is through: the nurse’s role in research?
a) Personal experience a) Avoid research due to complexity
b) Trial and error b) Depend solely on intuition
c) Evidence-based practice c) Engage in and apply research
d) Following senior nurses blindly
findings to improve practice
Answer: c) Evidence-based practice
44. What is the role of a DNP-prepared d) Only perform bedside care
nurse in research? Answer: c) Engage in and apply
a) Translating evidence into clinical research findings to improve practice
practice
b) Teaching undergraduate students
c) Formulating laboratory methods
d) Supervising construction
Answer: a) Translating evidence into
clinical practice
Unit II: Introduction to Quantitative and Qualitative Research.

1. Which of the following best defines 7. Qualitative research typically uses:

quantitative research? A. Numerical scales
A. Research focusing on numerical data B. Experiments
and statistical analysis C. Interviews and observations
B. Research exploring lived experiences D. Pre-tests and post-tests
C. Research focusing on cultural Answer: C
contexts 8. Which of the following is a key
D. Research examining historical trends difference between qualitative and
Answer: A quantitative research?
2. Which of the following best defines A. Qualitative uses numbers;
qualitative research? quantitative uses words
A. Research using surveys and large B. Qualitative uses structured tools;
samples quantitative uses open-ended tools
B. Research involving hypothesis testing C. Qualitative focuses on exploring;
C. Research aiming to understand quantitative focuses on measuring
human behavior and experiences D. Quantitative is subjective; qualitative
D. Research that uses randomized is objective
controlled trials Answer: C
Answer: C 9. Which type of research is better
3. A key characteristic of quantitative suited for testing a hypothesis?
research is: A. Qualitative
A. Subjectivity B. Quantitative
B. Open-ended interviews C. Historical
C. Use of numerical data D. Ethnographic
D. Field notes Answer: B
Answer: C 10. Which type of research would be
4. A key characteristic of qualitative more appropriate for understanding
research is: patients’ feelings about a chronic
A. Statistical analysis illness?
B. Large sample sizes A. Descriptive research
C. Structured questionnaires B. Experimental research
D. Exploration of meaning and context C. Qualitative research
Answer: D D. Correlational research
5. What is the main aim of qualitative Answer: C
research? 11. Data collection in quantitative
A. To generalize results to a population research is generally:
B. To explore meaning, experience, and A. Flexible
understanding B. Structured
C. To test interventions C. Evolving
D. To establish causation D. Open-ended
Answer: B Answer: B
6. Quantitative research typically uses: 12. The primary outcome of qualitative
A. Focus groups research is:
B. Thematic analysis A. Theory development
C. Structured instruments like surveys B. Numeric data
D. Observational field notes C. Cause-and-effect relationships
Answer: C D. Statistical models
Answer: A
13. Which research approach emphasizes D. Exploring cultural beliefs
objectivity and control? Answer: B
A. Qualitative 20. Correlational studies measure:
B. Ethnographic A. Cause and effect
C. Quantitative B. Time series
D. Phenomenological C. Associations between variables
Answer: C D. Patient satisfaction
14. Which research type provides deeper Answer: C
understanding of social phenomena? 21. Which is the hallmark of
A. Quantitative experimental research?
B. Statistical A. No control group
C. Qualitative B. Randomization and manipulation
D. Experimental C. Narrative description
Answer: C D. Historical data
Answer: B
15. Which of the following is a type of 22. Quasi-experimental studies often
quantitative research? lack:
A. Phenomenology A. A treatment group
B. Ethnography B. An outcome measure
C. Descriptive C. Statistical analysis
D. Grounded theory D. True randomization
Answer: C Answer: D
16. Descriptive research primarily aims 23. Which type of quantitative research
to: involves manipulation but not
A. Establish cause-effect relationships random assignment?
B. Measure variables without A. Descriptive
manipulating them B. Correlational
C. Test new treatments C. Experimental
D. Explore cultural norms D. Quasi-experimental
Answer: B Answer: D
17. Correlational research is used to: 24. Which design is best for testing cause-
A. Discover lived experiences and-effect relationships?
B. Explore cause-effect relationships A. Historical
C. Examine relationships between B. Phenomenological
variables C. Experimental
D. Manipulate independent variables D. Correlational
Answer: C Answer: C
18. Quasi-experimental research differs 25. A cross-sectional descriptive study
from experimental research by collects data at:
lacking: A. Multiple time points
A. A dependent variable B. Random intervals
B. A hypothesis C. A single point in time
C. Random assignment D. The end of the intervention
D. Any form of control Answer: C
Answer: C 26. Quantitative research often uses
19. An example of a descriptive study is: which of the following tools?
A. Studying the effects of a new drug A. Diaries
B. Describing patient demographics in a B. Audio recordings
hospital C. Questionnaires
C. Testing a new intervention D. Thematic analysis
Answer: C
27. Control groups are most common in: B. Cultural understanding
A. Phenomenological studies C. Biographical details
B. Correlational studies D. Correlation of variables
C. Experimental research Answer: B
D. Ethnographic research 35. Historical research involves:
Answer: C A. Interventions
28. Descriptive statistics include all B. Predictive modeling
EXCEPT: C. Examining past events
A. Mean D. Clinical trials
B. Median Answer: C
C. Thematic codes 36. Which of the following collects rich
D. Standard deviation narrative data?
Answer: C A. Experimental
29. Which study design best fits testing a B. Quantitative
new teaching method with pre-test C. Qualitative
and post-test data? D. Correlational
A. Historical Answer: C
B. Quasi-experimental 37. Which method is most suitable to
C. Ethnographic understand patient experience of
D. Descriptive childbirth?
Answer: B A. Ethnography
30. Quantitative research is most B. Grounded theory
concerned with: C. Phenomenology
A. Meaning D. Experimental
B. Statistical significance Answer: C
C. Personal beliefs 38. Fieldwork is essential in which
D. Cultural practices qualitative approach?
Answer: B A. Historical
B. Descriptive
31. Which of the following is a qualitative C. Ethnography
research design? D. Quasi-experimental
A. Experimental Answer: C
B. Historical 39. Grounded theory research develops:
C. Descriptive A. Policies
D. Correlational B. Historical analysis
Answer: B C. Theories based on participant data
32. Phenomenological research seeks to D. Surveys
understand: Answer: C
A. Biological functions 40. A researcher studying the evolution of
B. Lived experiences nursing education through archives is
C. Correlations conducting:
D. Historical patterns A. Phenomenological research
Answer: B B. Historical research
33. Grounded theory research aims to: C. Experimental research
A. Test existing theory D. Correlational research
B. Develop theory from data Answer: B
C. Describe populations
D. Analyze statistics 41. Qualitative research data is
Answer: B primarily:
34. Ethnographic research focuses on: A. Numerical
A. Group comparisons B. Measured
 C. Narrative D. Correlational research
D. Structured Answer: C
Answer: C 49. Which data analysis method is
42. Quantitative research is usually common in qualitative research?
analyzed using: A. Thematic analysis
A. Coding B. Regression analysis
B. Statistics C. ANOVA
C. Observation D. T-test
D. Themes Answer: A
Answer: B 50. Data triangulation enhances:
43. Which type of research is best for A. Validity in qualitative research
generalizability? B. Hypothesis testing
A. Qualitative C. Statistical power
B. Phenomenological D. Data coding
C. Quantitative Answer: A
D. Historical 51. Which is a key criterion of rigor in
Answer: C qualitative research?
44. A sample size in qualitative research A. Reliability
is typically: B. Transferability
A. Large C. Randomization
B. Randomized D. Standard deviation
C. Small and purposeful Answer: B
D. Determined statistically 52. Validity in qualitative research is
Answer: C equivalent to:
45. Which of the following uses inductive A. Rigor
reasoning? B. Generalizability
A. Quantitative C. Precision
B. Experimental D. Objectivity
C. Qualitative Answer: A
D. Correlational 53. Which method involves observing
Answer: C participants in their natural settings?
46. Which of the following uses deductive A. Experimental
reasoning? B. Ethnographic
A. Grounded theory C. Historical
B. Ethnography D. Quasi-experimental
C. Quantitative research Answer: B
D. Phenomenology 54. Which approach is least likely to use
Answer: C interviews?
47. Which research type often involves A. Phenomenological
hypothesis testing? B. Ethnographic
A. Historical C. Descriptive quantitative
B. Quantitative D. Grounded theory
C. Ethnographic Answer: C
D. Phenomenological 55. Which of the following contributes to
Answer: B the trustworthiness of qualitative
48. Member checking is a technique used research?
in: A. Statistical significance
A. Quantitative research B. Random assignment
B. Experimental research C. Credibility
C. Qualitative research D. Blinding
Answer: C
56. In grounded theory, data collection 63. Which of the following is NOT a key
and analysis occur: feature of quantitative research?
A. Sequentially A. Random sampling
B. After the hypothesis B. Hypothesis testing
C. Simultaneously C. Structured data collection
D. Independently D. Narrative analysis
Answer: C Answer: D
57. Which of the following is not a type of 64. Which of the following is an outcome
qualitative research? of phenomenological research?
A. Grounded theory A. Historical timelines
B. Experimental B. Correlations
C. Historical C. Themes of lived experience
D. Ethnographic D. Experimental treatments
Answer: B Answer: C
58. Which research type is appropriate 65. Which research type is often used
for identifying predictors of patient when little is known about a topic?
outcomes? A. Descriptive
A. Descriptive B. Correlational
B. Correlational C. Qualitative
C. Ethnographic D. Quasi-experimental
D. Historical Answer: C
Answer: B 66. In which type of research is
59. Quantitative research is often hypothesis least important?
concerned with: A. Experimental
A. Depth B. Quasi-experimental
B. Context C. Qualitative
C. Generalization D. Correlational
D. Culture Answer: C
Answer: C 67. Which is an example of a qualitative
60. Which is not a characteristic of research question?
qualitative research? A. What is the average age of patients
A. Context-bound with diabetes?
B. Seeks generalizability B. What are the lived experiences of
C. Emphasizes meaning cancer survivors?
D. Uses rich descriptions C. Does medication A reduce blood
Answer: B pressure?
61. The term “emic perspective” in D. What is the correlation between BMI
qualitative research refers to: and hypertension?
A. Researcher’s view Answer: B
B. Participant’s perspective 68. Which data analysis strategy is
C. Statistical results common in grounded theory?
D. Historical facts A. Factor analysis
Answer: B B. Open and axial coding
62. A core belief of qualitative research is C. Regression
that reality is: D. Meta-analysis
A. Objective Answer: B
B. Fixed 69. A literature review is essential in both
C. Multiple and subjective qualitative and quantitative research
D. Controlled because it:
Answer: C A. Provides statistical tools
B. Helps in coding themes
 C. Informs the research gap and design
D. Ensures sampling randomness
Answer: C
70. Which of the following best
summarizes the main difference
between qualitative and quantitative
methodologies?
A. One is better than the other
B. Qualitative explains, quantitative
explores
C. Qualitative explores meaning;
quantitative measures variables
D. Quantitative collects opinions;
qualitative collects data
Answer: C
Unit III: Introduction to Outcome Research.

What is the primary focus of outcome d) Structural assessment

research in healthcare? Correct Answer: c) Staff evaluation
a) Cost-effectiveness 6. The term 'clinical effectiveness' in
b) Patient outcomes outcome research implies:
c) Staff satisfaction a) Cost of therapy
d) Disease prevention b) Administrative efficiency
Correct Answer: b) Patient outcomes c) Real-world benefits of interventions
d) Patient education programs
1. Outcome research aims to assess the Correct Answer: c) Real-world
results of: benefits of interventions
a) Financial investments 7. Which term refers to an individual’s
b) Medical and nursing interventions ability to function in daily life as a
c) Administrative policies result of healthcare?
d) Ethical decision-making a) Patient safety
Correct Answer: b) Medical and b) Functional status
nursing interventions c) Risk adjustment
2. Which of the following best defines d) Efficacy
“health outcomes”? Correct Answer: b) Functional status
a) Theoretical patient goals 8. Which of the following is an example
b) Results of clinical interventions on of an outcome indicator?
patients' health a) Hospital bed size
c) Medical costs b) Number of nurses per shift
d) Health promotion strategies c) Rate of hospital-acquired infections
Correct Answer: b) Results of clinical d) Type of electronic health record
interventions on patients' health Correct Answer: c) Rate of hospital-
3. Which term refers to the measurable acquired infections
effect of healthcare services? 9. What does HRQoL stand for in
a) Input outcome research?
b) Process a) Hospital Risk Quality of Life
c) Output b) Health-Related Quality of Life
d) Outcome c) Human Resource Quality of Labor
Correct Answer: d) Outcome d) High Risk Quality of Life
4. Patient-reported outcome measures Correct Answer: b) Health-Related
(PROMs) are important because they Quality of Life
reflect:
a) Clinical statistics 11. Donabedian’s model includes which
b) Patient satisfaction only three components?
c) The patient's perspective on health a) Cost, efficiency, structure
status b) Structure, process, outcome
d) Insurance claims c) Input, output, satisfaction
Correct Answer: c) The patient's d) Planning, evaluation, feedback
perspective on health status Correct Answer: b) Structure,
5. Which of the following is NOT a process, outcome
component of outcome research? 12. In Donabedian's model, 'structure'
a) Patient outcomes refers to:
b) Process evaluation a) Treatment plan design
c) Staff evaluation b) Facility and staff characteristics
c) Patient decision-making
 d) Long-term outcomes 19. Which element involves evaluation of
Correct Answer: b) Facility and staff treatment protocols?
characteristics a) Structure
13. Which element of Donabedian’s b) Process
model examines how care is c) Outcome
delivered? d) Environment
a) Structure Correct Answer: b) Process
b) Process 20. Donabedian’s theory links quality
c) Outcome assessment to:
d) Input a) Employee turnover
Correct Answer: b) Process b) Budget control
14. According to Donabedian, the c) Organizational goals
'outcome' refers to: d) Measurable patient outcomes
a) Number of treatments Correct Answer: d) Measurable
b) Results of healthcare on patient patient outcomes
health
c) Cost-benefit analysis 21. Which of the following is a type of
d) Technology used outcome research?
Correct Answer: b) Results of a) Randomized controlled trials (RCTs)
healthcare on patient health b) Cross-sectional studies
15. Donabedian's model helps in c) Qualitative interviews
evaluating: d) All of the above
a) Financial growth Correct Answer: d) All of the above
b) Hospital architecture 22. Comparative effectiveness research is
c) Quality of care a form of:
d) Disease pathology a) Ethical analysis
Correct Answer: c) Quality of care b) Process evaluation
16. Which of the following best describes c) Outcome research
Donabedian’s theory? d) Budget planning
a) Financial theory of healthcare Correct Answer: c) Outcome research
b) Linear model of medical intervention 23. Retrospective studies in outcome
c) Framework for evaluating healthcare research:
quality a) Are done before treatment begins
d) Psychological model of care behavior b) Review past data to assess outcomes
Correct Answer: c) Framework for c) Involve real-time observation
evaluating healthcare quality d) Focus on theoretical concepts
17. What is the ultimate goal of Correct Answer: b) Review past data
Donabedian’s outcome component? to assess outcomes
a) Reduce workload 24. Prospective studies:
b) Improve documentation a) Use historical data
c) Enhance patient health b) Are unethical
d) Control expenses c) Follow patients over time
Correct Answer: c) Enhance patient d) Do not collect data
health Correct Answer: c) Follow patients
18. Which aspect of Donabedian’s theory over time
might include nurse-patient ratio? 25. An example of experimental design in
a) Process outcome research is:
b) Outcome a) Cross-sectional survey
c) Structure b) Case study
d) Impact c) Randomized controlled trial
Correct Answer: c) Structure d) Literature review
 Correct Answer: c) Randomized 32. Which methodology is best for
controlled trial establishing cause-effect in outcome
26. Which method helps explore patient research?
experiences as an outcome? a) Qualitative study
a) Meta-analysis b) Retrospective design
b) Quantitative survey c) Experimental study
c) Qualitative research d) Cross-sectional survey
d) Regression analysis Correct Answer: c) Experimental
Correct Answer: c) Qualitative study
research 33. Risk adjustment in outcome research
27. Longitudinal outcome studies focus is used to:
on: a) Lower study cost
a) Daily documentation b) Equalize patient differences
b) Short-term care c) Increase subjectivity
c) Long-term impact of interventions d) Limit population
d) Staff rotation Correct Answer: b) Equalize patient
Correct Answer: c) Long-term impact differences
of interventions 34. Which of the following is a key
28. Patient registries are useful for: element in the outcome research
a) Inventory management methodology?
b) Outcome data collection a) Outcome indicators
c) Nurse shift planning b) Learning styles
d) Ethical approval c) Budget analysis
Correct Answer: b) Outcome data d) Structural design
collection Correct Answer: a) Outcome
29. A study comparing two treatment indicators
modalities to determine which yields 35. Outcome research primarily uses
better outcomes is: which type of data?
a) Budget analysis a) Theoretical
b) Comparative effectiveness research b) Operational
c) Stakeholder mapping c) Empirical
d) Sensitivity analysis d) Hypothetical
Correct Answer: b) Comparative Correct Answer: c) Empirical
effectiveness research 36. Which statistical test is commonly
30. Which of the following provides high- used in analyzing outcome research?
level evidence in outcome research? a) T-test
a) Randomized controlled trials b) Pie chart
b) Anecdotal evidence c) Fishbone diagram
c) Cross-sectional surveys d) Histogram
d) Case reports Correct Answer: a) T-test
Correct Answer: a) Randomized 37. Sampling method in outcome
controlled trials research must ensure:
a) Expense control
31. What is the first step in conducting b) Randomization and
outcome research? representativeness
a) Data analysis c) Time-saving
b) Selecting a population d) Staff satisfaction
c) Defining a measurable outcome Correct Answer: b) Randomization
d) Writing a conclusion and representativeness
Correct Answer: c) Defining a 38. A key challenge in outcome research
measurable outcome methodology is:
 a) Data availability 45. Outcome research differs from
b) Staff training clinical trials in its focus on:
c) Documentation style a) Pharmacokinetics
d) Facility design b) Individual treatment effects in real
Correct Answer: a) Data availability settings
39. To increase reliability, outcome c) Purely laboratory data
research often uses: d) Controlled environments
a) Case studies Correct Answer: b) Individual
b) Triangulation treatment effects in real settings
c) Observations only 46. Which area benefits most from
d) Cost projection outcome research?
Correct Answer: b) Triangulation a) Evidence-based nursing practice
40. Which element is essential in b) Human resource policies
validating outcome tools? c) Marketing strategy
a) Popularity d) Construction planning
b) Reliability and validity Correct Answer: a) Evidence-based
c) Branding nursing practice
d) Usability alone 47. Which term is commonly used to
Correct Answer: b) Reliability and evaluate patient-centered outcomes?
validity a) Clinical trial endpoint
b) PROMs
41. Outcome research contributes to: c) Compliance rate
a) Healthcare cost increase d) Insurance score
b) Evidence-based practice Correct Answer: b) PROMs
c) Nurse absenteeism 48. The strength of outcome research lies
d) Staff scheduling in its:
Correct Answer: b) Evidence-based a) Flexibility in ethics
practice b) Generalizability to real-world settings
42. Outcome research helps identify: c) Control over all variables
a) Ineffective treatments d) Emphasis on billing
b) Staff weaknesses Correct Answer: b) Generalizability
c) Community resources to real-world settings
d) Public health laws 49. Outcome research often guides:
Correct Answer: a) Ineffective a) Academic content development
treatments b) Policy and clinical decision-making
43. Data sources for outcome research c) Interior design in hospitals
may include: d) Social media strategy
a) Social media Correct Answer: b) Policy and
b) Insurance claims clinical decision-making
c) News articles 50. A nurse involved in outcome
d) Marketing materials research is expected to:
Correct Answer: b) Insurance claims
a) Train staff on billing
44. Outcome research improves quality
by linking:
b) Collect and analyze patient data
a) Staffing to output c) Manage hospital accounts
b) Process to payment d) Approve public health ads
c) Structure, process, and outcomes Correct Answer: b) Collect and
d) Budget to satisfaction analyze patient data
Correct Answer: c) Structure,
process, and outcomes
Unit IV: Research Problem, Purpose, Objectives, Significance and
Scope.

1. What is the first step in the research  C. The conclusion of the research
process?  D. A recommendation to policymakers

 A. Writing the hypothesis 7. Which of the following is a

 B. Identifying data sources characteristic of a good research
 C. Selecting research tools problem?
 ✅ D. Identifying the area of interest
 A. Vague and open-ended
2. Which of the following best defines the  ✅ B. Clearly defined and researchable
research interest area?  C. Unrelated to existing literature
 D. Too broad to be handled
 A. An assumption to be tested
 ✅ B. A broad subject that the researcher 8. The purpose statement of a study
is curious about describes:
 C. A detailed hypothesis
 D. A specific conclusion  A. The sampling strategy
 ✅ B. The intent or goal of the study
3. A research interest should primarily be:  C. The data analysis methods
 D. The literature review
 A. Easily measurable
 B. Broad enough to avoid constraints 9. What links the research problem with
 ✅ C. Relevant to the researcher’s field the research objectives?
and curiosity
 D. Chosen by someone else  A. Literature review
 ✅ B. Purpose statement
4. A research area should ideally lead to:  C. Methodology
 D. Conceptual framework
 A. Data saturation
 ✅ B. A focused research problem 10. Which of the following is not a
 C. Biased interpretation component of a good problem
 D. Random sampling statement?

5. In selecting an area of interest, which  A. Background context

factor is least important?  ✅ B. Budget details
 C. Identified gap
 A. Research feasibility  D. Justification for research
 ✅ B. Popularity of the topic
 C. Researcher’s expertise 11. The difference between a problem
 D. Availability of resources statement and purpose statement is that:

6. A research problem is best described as:  ✅ A. The problem identifies the issue;
the purpose outlines the goal
 ✅ A. A specific issue to be addressed in  B. The problem is always longer than
the study the purpose
 B. The solution to a clinical practice  C. Both are the same
 D. The purpose describes limitations  D. Abstract

12. Which is most likely to appear in a 18. Research objectives can be broadly
research purpose statement? classified into:

 A. Definition of variables  A. Primary and secondary

 ✅ B. Overall goal of the research  ✅ B. General and specific
 C. Detailed methodology  C. Theoretical and practical
 D. Ethical considerations  D. Qualitative and quantitative

13. A research problem should arise from: 19. Which of the following is an example of
a specific objective?
 A. Popular media
 B. Random observation  A. To understand patient care
 ✅ C. Identified gaps in literature or  ✅ B. To evaluate the impact of patient
practice education on diabetes control
 D. Personal opinion  C. To review literature on patient
outcomes
14. Research objectives help to:  D. To determine nursing roles

 ✅ A. Define the steps to achieve the 20. In formulating objectives, which format
research purpose is often recommended?
 B. Prove the hypothesis directly
 C. Avoid limitations  A. PICO
 D. Generalize results  ✅ B. SMART
 C. SWOT
15. A specific, measurable statement that  D. TQM
indicates what the researcher aims to
accomplish is: 21. The significance of research refers to:

 A. Hypothesis  A. Sample size

 ✅ B. Objective  ✅ B. The value or importance of the
 C. Concept study
 D. Scope  C. Scope of work
 D. Research tools
16. Which of the following is a
characteristic of a good research 22. Why is it important to state the
objective? significance of a study?

 A. Vague and flexible  A. To define limitations

 ✅ B. Specific and measurable  B. To describe hypotheses
 C. Hypothetical in nature  ✅ C. To justify why the study is worth
 D. Theoretical conducting
 D. To list references
17. Objectives are derived from:
23. Which of the following is an example of
 A. Review of literature research significance?
 ✅ B. Research purpose
 C. Data collection
 ✅ A. This study will help improve 29. The key difference between significance
patient safety protocols and scope is:
 B. This study will use SPSS software
 C. The study will take 6 months  ✅ A. Significance explains value; scope
 D. The researcher has 10 years of defines boundaries
experience  B. Scope is about tools; significance is
about ethics
24. The scope of a study defines:  C. Scope and significance are the same
 D. Significance outlines procedures
 ✅ A. The boundaries or extent of the
research 30. Which of the following best represents
 B. Ethical implications scope but not significance?
 C. Research tools
 D. Variables only  A. Helps improve healthcare policies
 ✅ B. Includes patients aged 20–40 in
25. Scope usually includes: Mumbai
 C. Informs future research
 A. Significance and conclusion  D. Improves clinical practice
 ✅ B. Population, setting, and time
period 31. The significance of a study is best
 C. Literature review described as:
 D. Ethical approval
 A. The tools used
26. Which of the following is least likely to  ✅ B. The contribution of the study to
be found under the scope section? knowledge or practice
 C. The number of participants
 A. Study duration  D. The method of analysis
 ✅ B. Limitations of the tools used
 C. Study location 32. In which section of a research report
 D. Target population would you describe the value of the
study to practice?
27. Significance of a study should align
with:  A. Methodology
 ✅ B. Significance of the study
 ✅ A. Current knowledge gaps and  C. Scope of the study
needs  D. Data analysis
 B. Length of study
 C. Number of pages 33. Which of the following is an appropriate
 D. Funding opportunities way to state a general objective?

28. Which best explains the importance of  A. To study

defining scope early?  ✅ B. To assess the effectiveness of...
 C. To randomize data
 A. Ensures ethical approval  D. To approve protocols
 ✅ B. Prevents deviation and ensures
focus 34. Which helps in narrowing down a broad
 C. Secures funding interest area into a specific researchable
 D. Increases sample size topic?
 A. Funding availability  A. Hypothesis
 ✅ B. Review of literature  B. Scope
 C. Ethical approval  ✅ C. Significance
 D. Pilot study  D. Objective

35. A purpose statement can be refined into: 41. The best research problem is one that is:

 ✅ A. Objectives and research questions  ✅ A. Clearly defined and feasible

 B. Abstract  B. Complex and broad
 C. Literature review  C. Based on the researcher's opinion
 D. Questionnaire only
 D. Already solved
36. A study on “nurses' stress levels in
ICUs” would likely include which scope 42. A narrowly defined research scope helps
element? in:

 A. Definition of stress  A. Generalizing the results widely

 ✅ B. ICU nurses in three public  ✅ B. Ensuring focused data collection
hospitals  C. Making conclusions before data
 C. Literature on stress analysis
 D. Review of mental health laws  D. Avoiding ethical review

37. The significance of a study on hand 43. One benefit of stating objectives clearly
hygiene might include: is:

 A. Sample size details  A. Helps complete research faster

 ✅ B. Reduced infection rates due to  ✅ B. Guides data collection and
improved hygiene analysis
 C. Type of sanitizer used  C. Avoids use of statistics
 D. Duration of study  D. Replaces need for literature review

38. Which part of a research report supports 44. The significance of a research study
the feasibility of the study? should ideally address:

 ✅ A. Scope  A. How much the researcher learned

 B. Significance  ✅ B. How the study will impact the
 C. Conclusion community, practice, or science
 D. Literature review  C. Sample design
 D. Tool validity
39. Objectives are useful for:
45. What is usually not part of the research
 A. Budget planning significance section?
 B. Reviewing policy
 ✅ C. Designing methodology  A. Contribution to practice
 D. Writing a hypothesis  ✅ B. Research methodology
 C. Contribution to policy
40. Which term matches this definition:  D. Contribution to education
“explains the expected contribution to a
field of study”?
46. A well-written problem statement leads
to:

 A. Increased funding
 ✅ B. Focused research design
 C. More participants
 D. Better sampling

47. Objectives are assessed through:

 A. Budget utilization
 ✅ B. Data collected during the study
 C. Abstract reading
 D. Literature sources

48. Which of the following best links

research questions with research
objectives?

 ✅ A. Both guide the investigation and

data collection
 B. Questions are assumptions;
objectives are conclusions
 C. Objectives replace questions
 D. Questions are for ethics; objectives
are for writing

49. What does the acronym SMART stand

for in research objectives?

 ✅ A. Specific, Measurable, Achievable,

Relevant, Time-bound
 B. Simple, Meaningful, Accessible,
Realistic, Tactile
 C. Subjective, Manageable, Active,
Reliable, Timely
 D. Strategic, Motivating, Accurate,
Resourceful, Transparent

50. Which is the most critical aspect when

defining the research scope?

 A. Software used for data entry

 ✅ B. Defining population, setting, and
duration
 C. Researcher’s qualifications
 D. Ethical board members
Unit V: Research Questions and Research Hypothesis, based on the specified
learning outcomes.

1. What is a variable in research? A. How do nurses feel about night

A. A fixed factor shifts?
B. A measurement tool B. What is the effect of music therapy
C. A characteristic or condition that can on anxiety levels in preoperative
change patients?
D. A research method C. What is the meaning of illness for
Answer: C patients with chronic disease?
2. Which of the following is a dependent D. Why do patients prefer home-based
variable? care?
A. Intervention applied Answer: B
B. Outcome measured after the 8. The PICO format is typically used in
intervention which type of research?
C. Sample population A. Qualitative
D. Control group B. Historical
Answer: B C. Quantitative
3. The variable manipulated by the D. Ethnographic
researcher is called: Answer: C
A. Dependent variable 9. In the PICO format, “I” stands for:
B. Independent variable A. Investigation
C. Extraneous variable B. Intervention
D. Controlled variable C. Interpretation
Answer: B D. Institution
4. Which type of variable affects the Answer: B
relationship between independent and 10. Which component is NOT included in
dependent variables but is not a well-constructed quantitative
measured? research question?
A. Confounding variable A. Population
B. Categorical variable B. Outcome
C. Independent variable C. Hypothesis
D. Null variable D. Comparison
Answer: A Answer: C
5. A variable that is held constant
during a study is known as: 11. A hypothesis is defined as:
A. Dependent variable A. A proven fact
B. Independent variable B. A statistical technique
C. Control variable C. A tentative prediction or explanation
D. Intervening variable D. An untested theory
Answer: C Answer: C
12. A testable research hypothesis must
6. A good research question should be: be:
A. Vague and exploratory A. Vague and general
B. Broad and theoretical B. Specific and measurable
C. Clear, focused, and researchable C. Non-directional
D. Philosophical and abstract D. Based on opinion
Answer: C Answer: B
7. Which of the following best represents 13. The hypothesis that assumes no
a quantitative research question? difference or relationship is known as:
 A. Research hypothesis D. Chi-square
B. Null hypothesis Answer: C
C. Statistical hypothesis 20. When data are not normally
D. Theoretical hypothesis distributed, which test is preferred?
Answer: B A. Independent t-test
14. Which type of hypothesis suggests a B. ANOVA
relationship between variables? C. Mann-Whitney U test
A. Null hypothesis D. Pearson correlation
B. Directional hypothesis Answer: C
C. Independent hypothesis
D. Control hypothesis 21. Which of the following is most
Answer: B important when selecting a statistical
15. What does a non-directional test?
hypothesis state? A. Researcher’s preference
A. The direction of the effect B. Funding availability
B. No relationship exists C. Type of data and level of
C. A relationship exists but without measurement
specifying direction D. Length of the study
D. The null value is accepted Answer: C
Answer: C 22. A paired t-test is appropriate when:
A. Comparing two independent samples
16. Which statistical test is appropriate B. Comparing two related groups
for comparing means between two C. Testing more than two means
independent groups? D. Examining associations in categorical
A. ANOVA data
B. Pearson correlation Answer: B
C. Chi-square 23. Chi-square test is best justified when:
D. Independent t-test A. Data is interval scale
Answer: D B. Comparing means
17. For testing association between two C. Data is categorical
categorical variables, the most D. Sample size is very small
appropriate test is: Answer: C
A. Paired t-test 24. When should a non-parametric test be
B. Chi-square test used?
C. Pearson correlation A. When data is normally distributed
D. ANOVA B. When dealing with ordinal or non-
Answer: B normal data
18. Pearson’s correlation is used to: C. When sample size is very large
A. Compare proportions D. When parametric assumptions are
B. Find the relationship between two satisfied
continuous variables Answer: B
C. Compare three groups 25. Justification for using Pearson
D. Predict outcomes correlation includes:
Answer: B A. Nominal data
19. Which statistical test is used to B. One variable
compare means of more than two C. Linear relationship between two
groups? continuous variables
A. T-test D. Binary outcome
B. Regression Answer: C
C. ANOVA
26. What does a p-value < 0.05 indicate? 33. The process of statistical inference
A. Results are not significant begins with:
B. Null hypothesis is accepted A. Literature review
C. There is a statistically significant B. Hypothesis formulation
difference C. Data analysis
D. The study must be repeated D. Random sampling
Answer: C Answer: D
27. A p-value greater than 0.05 means: 34. An incorrect rejection of a true null
A. Reject the null hypothesis hypothesis is called:
B. Accept the research hypothesis A. Type I error
C. Fail to reject the null hypothesis B. Type II error
D. The test is invalid C. Valid conclusion
Answer: C D. Statistical power
28. Which of the following reflects a Answer: A
strong correlation? 35. Failing to reject a false null
A. r = 0.90 hypothesis results in:
B. r = 0.30 A. Type I error
C. r = -0.20 B. Type II error
D. r = 0.05 C. Strong evidence
Answer: A D. Accurate results
29. If the test statistic exceeds the critical Answer: B
value, the researcher should:
A. Accept the null hypothesis 36. A nurse wants to test if there is a
B. Reject the null hypothesis difference in blood pressure before
C. Report no change and after administering a drug. The
D. Recalculate the mean best test is:
Answer: B A. Chi-square
30. A confidence interval that includes B. Paired t-test
zero suggests that: C. Independent t-test
A. The null hypothesis is false D. ANOVA
B. There is a significant effect Answer: B
C. There is no significant effect 37. Which hypothesis is testable?
D. The sample is too large A. Patients may or may not improve
Answer: C B. Music reduces stress in post-op
patients
31. Inference in statistics means: C. Health is subjective
A. Making assumptions without data D. Pain is a personal experience
B. Drawing conclusions about Answer: B
populations from samples 38. The statement “There is no difference
C. Describing sample data only in recovery time between treatment A
D. Guessing future trends and B” is an example of:
Answer: B A. Directional hypothesis
32. Statistical inference allows B. Null hypothesis
researchers to: C. Complex hypothesis
A. Control confounding variables D. Research question
B. Make predictions about the future Answer: B
C. Generalize findings from a sample to 39. Which is NOT a component of
a population hypothesis testing?
D. Collect more data A. Stating null and alternative
Answer: C hypotheses
B. Choosing a significance level
 C. Making a literature review B. Complex hypothesis
D. Interpreting results C. Null hypothesis
Answer: C D. Descriptive hypothesis
40. A research question should be: Answer: B
A. General 47. Which test should be used for
B. Open-ended association between two ordinal
C. Specific and measurable variables?
D. Random A. Chi-square
Answer: C B. Spearman's rank correlation
C. Pearson correlation
41. A hypothesis that predicts the D. Regression
direction of the expected outcome is Answer: B
called: 48. Regression analysis is used when the
A. Null hypothesis aim is to:
B. Directional hypothesis A. Compare group means
C. Non-directional hypothesis B. Assess associations
D. Experimental hypothesis C. Predict outcomes
Answer: B D. Rank variables
42. If a researcher expects treatment A to Answer: C
be better than treatment B, they 49. Which of the following is NOT a type
should use: of research hypothesis?
A. Non-directional hypothesis A. Directional
B. Null hypothesis B. Non-directional
C. Directional hypothesis C. Null
D. Alternative test D. Hypothetical
Answer: C Answer: D
43. Which of the following is a continuous 50. A hypothesis stating “There is a
variable? relationship between nurse staffing
A. Gender and patient outcomes” is:
B. Pain level on a 0–10 scale A. Null
C. Blood group B. Directional
D. Religion C. Non-directional
Answer: B D. Complex
44. In hypothesis testing, the level of Answer: C
significance (alpha) is typically set at:
A. 0.01 51. Which of the following is most
B. 0.05 appropriate for a qualitative study?
C. 0.10 A. Null hypothesis
D. 1.00 B. Research question
Answer: B C. Statistical test
45. If the p-value is less than 0.05, the D. Control variable
researcher should: Answer: B
A. Reject the null hypothesis 52. Which step comes after formulating a
B. Accept the null hypothesis research question?
C. Increase sample size A. Conducting the literature review
D. Conduct a qualitative study B. Formulating a hypothesis
Answer: A C. Collecting data
D. Publishing findings
46. Which type of hypothesis involves Answer: B
multiple variables? 53. In hypothesis testing, a Type I error
A. Simple hypothesis occurs when:
 A. The null hypothesis is correctly D. Classifying diseases
accepted Answer: C
B. The null hypothesis is wrongly 60. Which of the following ensures
rejected objectivity in hypothesis testing?
C. The research hypothesis is wrongly A. Anecdotal evidence
rejected B. Systematic sampling
D. The test is not performed C. Use of statistical tests
Answer: B D. Expert opinion
54. Which measure is used to express the Answer: C
strength and direction of a linear
relationship? 61. What is the first step in hypothesis
A. t-value testing?
B. r-value (correlation coefficient) A. Choose a test
C. p-value B. Set alpha
D. F-ratio C. Formulate hypotheses
Answer: B D. Calculate mean
55. Power of a statistical test is defined Answer: C
as: 62. The hypothesis that there is no effect
A. Probability of Type I error is called:
B. Probability of correctly rejecting a A. Test hypothesis
false null hypothesis B. Alternative hypothesis
C. Level of significance C. Research hypothesis
D. Margin of error D. Null hypothesis
Answer: B Answer: D
63. A two-tailed test checks for:
56. The alternative hypothesis is denoted A. Directional effect
as: B. No change
A. H0 C. Difference in either direction
B. Ha D. Only negative effect
C. Hp Answer: C
D. Hn 64. Which test is best for evaluating
Answer: B repeated measures in same subjects?
57. Which is more likely to detect a small A. Independent t-test
effect size? B. Repeated-measures ANOVA
A. Small sample size C. Chi-square
B. Low statistical power D. One-way ANOVA
C. High statistical power Answer: B
D. High p-value 65. Which of the following best evaluates
Answer: C association in nominal data?
58. Which of the following is used to A. ANOVA
determine if the observed differences B. Regression
are due to chance? C. Chi-square
A. Median D. Z-test
B. Mode Answer: C
C. p-value 66. The logic behind hypothesis testing is
D. Mean to:
Answer: C A. Accept research bias
59. Hypothesis testing primarily helps in: B. Test theories with evidence
A. Creating theories C. Maximize costs
B. Proving facts D. Avoid generalizations
C. Making evidence-based decisions Answer: B
67. Which statement best reflects a population
hypothesis? C. List all variables
A. Patients have individual preferences D. Organize data
B. If nurses get adequate rest, their Answer: B
performance improves 70. When a hypothesis is not
C. Health is holistic supported, the researcher should:
D. Care varies by location A. Alter the results
Answer: B B. Accept findings and reconsider
68. Which test is best when comparing the hypothesis
two matched groups? C. Repeat with same data
A. Independent t-test D. Avoid publication
B. Mann-Whitney U Answer: B
C. Paired t-test
D. Chi-square
Answer: C
69. What is the key goal of inferential
statistics?
A. Describe population parameters
B. Infer findings from sample to
Unit VI: Literature Review and Synthesis.

1. What is the primary purpose of a findings collectively ✅

literature review in research? B. They are the same
A. To write a summary of articles C. Annotated bibliography includes
B. To provide historical background synthesis
C. To identify gaps and justify the need D. Literature review gives citations only
for the study ✅ 8. Which term describes the critical
D. To prove a hypothesis analysis of the literature reviewed?
2. Which of the following best defines a A. Summary
literature review? B. Evaluation ✅
A. Listing references used in a research C. Review
paper D. Discussion
B. A systematic summary and analysis 9. Which term refers to combining
of existing research ✅ results from different studies
C. Rewriting published data statistically?
D. A personal opinion on published A. Meta-synthesis
research B. Meta-analysis ✅
3. The term ‘literature’ in literature C. Literature mapping
review refers to: D. Systematic narrative
A. Fictional books 10. Which review method focuses more
B. Only journal articles on qualitative studies and patterns?
C. All scholarly sources including A. Meta-analysis
articles, books, and reports ✅ B. Meta-synthesis ✅
D. Magazines and newspapers C. Systematic review
4. Which of the following is NOT a D. Traditional review
function of a literature review?
A. Describing the study population ✅ 11. Which of the following is an example
B. Identifying research gaps of theoretical literature?
C. Synthesizing findings A. A published study with results
D. Providing context B. A framework description like Orem’s
5. The process of grouping related Self-Care Theory ✅
studies together is known as: C. A lab report
A. Archiving D. A case study
B. Synthesizing ✅ 12. Empirical literature primarily
C. Annotating includes:
D. Referencing A. Theoretical models
6. Which type of review provides an B. Philosophical discussions
overview of a topic without a C. Original research studies with data ✅
systematic method? D. Editorials
A. Systematic review 13. Theoretical literature is important
B. Meta-analysis because it:
C. Traditional/narrative review ✅ A. Provides numerical data
D. Scoping review B. Supports policy changes
7. What is the difference between a C. Offers frameworks and concepts ✅
literature review and an annotated D. Validates statistical tools
bibliography? 14. Which source is LEAST likely to
A. A literature review summarizes the provide empirical literature?
 A. Research journals 22. Which database is maintained by the
B. Thesis dissertations National Library of Medicine?
C. Government reports A. EMBASE
D. Fiction books ✅ B. Scopus
15. What distinguishes empirical C. Cochrane
literature from other types? D. PubMed ✅
A. Use of opinion-based content 23. Which of the following is NOT a
B. Evidence collected through scholarly database?
observation or experiment ✅ A. PubMed
C. Non-peer reviewed content B. Google
D. Literature reviews C. CINAHL
16. A source that includes hypotheses, D. MEDLINE ✅
data, results, and conclusions is most 24. Which database is best known for
likely: systematic reviews and evidence-
A. A theoretical article based resources?
B. An empirical research article ✅ A. Cochrane Library ✅
C. A policy brief B. ProQuest
D. An editorial C. PsycINFO
17. Which of the following provides both D. ScienceDirect
theoretical and empirical literature? 25. Which is a reliable database
A. Textbooks specifically for psychology-related
B. Research journals ✅ literature?
C. News articles A. CINAHL
D. Blog posts B. PubMed
18. Which section of an empirical article C. PsycINFO ✅
presents reviewed related theories? D. ERIC
A. Methods 26. Which tool can be used for citation
B. Results tracking and academic profiles?
C. Literature Review ✅ A. Scopus ✅
D. Conclusion B. Wikipedia
19. An article proposing a new nursing C. Blogspot
model is an example of: D. Facebook
A. Empirical literature 27. Which of the following provides full-
B. Theoretical literature ✅ text access to nursing journals?
C. Clinical guideline A. LinkedIn
D. Historical analysis B. CINAHL ✅
20. Which resource typically contains C. Twitter
empirical studies? D. Yahoo
A. Cochrane Library 28. Boolean operators used in literature
B. PubMed ✅ searches include:
C. Dictionary A. AND, OR, NOT ✅
D. Wikipedia B. TO, FROM, NOT
C. IN, ON, OF
21. Which database is widely used for D. WHERE, WHEN, HOW
nursing literature? 29. Which tool helps in narrowing
A. JSTOR literature search?
B. Scopus A. Random search
C. CINAHL ✅ B. Keyword omission
D. ERIC
 C. Boolean operators ✅ A. By reading books only
D. Review articles B. By identifying key terms and
30. To retrieve recent literature, one concepts ✅
should: C. By printing journal issues
A. Use filters like “last 5 years” ✅ D. By visiting a library physically
B. Use broad terms 38. What is the role of filters in a
C. Avoid filters database search?
D. Use generic search engines A. To display ads
B. To narrow down search results ✅
31. Which of the following is the first step C. To block full text
in retrieving literature? D. To delete irrelevant items
A. Reading abstracts 39. Using "truncation" (e.g., nurs) in
B. Identifying keywords ✅ searches helps to:*
C. Printing articles A. Limit results
D. Making citations B. Find spelling errors
32. Which search strategy retrieves the C. Expand search to similar terms ✅
most specific results? D. Block old articles
A. Using general terms 40. Why is it important to assess the
B. Using Boolean AND with keywords quality of retrieved literature?
✅ A. To support personal opinion
C. Searching titles only B. To ensure relevance and reliability ✅
D. Avoiding filters C. To copy citations
33. Which tool displays related studies in D. To shorten writing time
PubMed?
A. Reference manager 41. Which term refers to the level of
B. Related articles link ✅ confidence in research findings?
C. Table of contents A. Strength of schedule
D. MeSH only B. Level of evidence ✅
34. How can literature be organized after C. Empirical rank
retrieval? D. Research volume
A. Ignoring duplicates 42. Which of the following represents the
B. Using folders and reference managers highest level of evidence?
✅ A. Case reports
C. Skipping categorization B. Expert opinion
D. Manual note-taking only C. Randomized Controlled Trials
35. Which of the following enhances the (RCTs) ✅
relevance of search results? D. Cohort studies
A. Broad terms 43. Which framework ranks evidence
B. Random search from strongest to weakest?
C. MeSH terms ✅ A. Thematic hierarchy
D. Excluding all filters B. Evidence pyramid ✅
36. Which feature allows focused search C. Empirical map
in PubMed? D. Analytical scale
A. Search bar only 44. What is the lowest level of evidence?
B. Citation tracker A. Systematic review
C. MeSH database ✅ B. Expert opinion ✅
D. Contact form C. Meta-analysis
37. How should a nurse researcher begin D. RCT
literature search?
45. In the evidence hierarchy, which is C. Use systematic review methods ✅
stronger: cohort study or case D. Random selection
control? 53. What is a literature matrix?
A. Case control A. Graphical analysis
B. Cohort study ✅ B. A table to organize key components
C. Equal of studies ✅
D. Neither C. Textbook summary
46. Which review integrates findings D. Flowchart of methods
from multiple quantitative studies? 54. Which aspect is most important in a
A. Meta-analysis ✅ critical review?
B. Narrative review A. Number of pages
C. Qualitative synthesis B. Peer review status
D. Book review C. Strength and weakness evaluation ✅
47. Which synthesis method is used for D. Publisher
qualitative research? 55. Which is a benefit of synthesizing
A. Meta-analysis literature?
B. Meta-synthesis ✅ A. Avoiding repetition
C. Cohort evaluation B. Enhancing understanding of overall
D. Double-blind evidence ✅
48. Which of the following is part of a C. Plagiarizing safely
traditional evidence hierarchy? D. Reducing study scope
A. Commentaries 56. Why is it important to identify gaps in
B. Expert consensus literature?
C. Systematic review with meta-analysis A. To copy results
✅ B. To find future research areas ✅
D. Lab experiments C. To extend the review
49. An evidence hierarchy is important D. To reduce work
because it helps: 57. What is the final step of a literature
A. Increase search time review process?
B. Grade quality of evidence ✅ A. Conducting experiments
C. Reduce plagiarism B. Writing the synthesis report ✅
D. Improve grammar C. Publishing the article
50. Frameworks used to organize D. Creating citations
literature include all EXCEPT: 58. Which reference management tool is
A. Evidence pyramid widely used?
B. Conceptual framework A. Canva
C. Boolean chart ✅ B. EndNote ✅
D. Matrix table C. Zoom
D. Google Slides
51. What should you do after retrieving 59. Literature synthesis allows for:
relevant literature? A. Listing titles only
A. Discard older articles B. Rewriting summaries
B. Read abstracts only C. Understanding overall trends and
C. Analyze and categorize content ✅ patterns ✅
D. Rewrite articles D. Memorizing data
52. How can you ensure comprehensive 60. Which is a visual method to present
literature synthesis? literature themes?
A. Use only one source A. Spreadsheet
B. Avoid organizing data B. Concept map ✅
 C. Paragraph
D. Quotation list

Unit VII: Theoretical/Conceptual Framework and Models.

1. Which of the following is a type of o a) Ethical frameworks

theoretical model used in nursing o b) Theoretical validity
research? o c) Health care quality ✅
o a) Grounded theory o d) Statistical hypotheses
o b) Orem’s Self-Care Deficit 8. Which of these is a type of conceptual
Theory ✅ model in nursing?
o c) Randomized control trial o a) Pender’s Health Promotion
o d) SPSS Model ✅
2. A conceptual framework is best o b) SPSS
described as: o c) Qualtrics
o a) A fixed set of laws o d) Delphi method
o b) A statistical tool 9. Models help researchers:
o c) A structure that guides o a) Memorize data
research by organizing concepts o b) Develop a hypothesis
✅ o c) Visualize relationships
o d) An ethical guideline between variables ✅
3. The Health Belief Model is an example o d) Conduct interviews
of: 10. The Systems Theory Model in research
o a) Empirical model focuses on:
o b) Theoretical model ✅ o a) Biological interactions
o c) Financial model o b) Component interrelationships
o d) None of the above and feedback loops ✅
4. Which model emphasizes the interaction o c) Genetic analysis
between environment, person, health, o d) Political frameworks
and nursing? 11. Conceptual models are generally:
o a) Orem’s model o a) Rigid structures
o b) Roy’s Adaptation Model ✅ o b) Visual representations of
o c) Health Promotion Model abstract concepts ✅
o d) Donabedian Model o c) Charts for economic theory
5. A logic model is typically used to: o d) Coding systems
o a) Analyze qualitative data 12. Which is an example of a systems-based
o b) Depict program inputs, nursing model?
activities, outputs, and outcomes o a) Watson’s Caring Theory
✅ o b) Roy’s Adaptation Model ✅
o c) Design software programs o c) Maslow’s Hierarchy
o d) Develop budgets o d) Stress-Buffering Hypothesis
6. The PRECEDE-PROCEED model is 13. The purpose of using models in research
used primarily in: includes all EXCEPT:
o a) Pharmacological research o a) Enhancing statistical
o b) Health promotion program accuracy ✅
planning ✅ o b) Organizing variables
o c) Economic forecasting o c) Clarifying relationships
o d) Statistical analysis o d) Providing a visual framework
7. The Donabedian Model evaluates: 14. A theoretical framework is typically:
 o a) Emergent from the data o b) Simplifying complex
o b) Chosen before the research phenomena ✅
begins ✅ o c) Testing unrelated variables
o c) Optional for all research o d) Formulating laboratory
o d) Developed after data analysis results
15. The Ecological Model is primarily used 22. Using a theoretical framework improves
in: research by:
o a) Psychology experiments o a) Reducing participant numbers
o b) Genetic studies o b) Clarifying variables and
o c) Public health research ✅ expected outcomes ✅
o d) Pharmacokinetics o c) Avoiding literature reviews
o d) Allowing bias
16. Why are conceptual frameworks 23. A conceptual framework:
important in research? o a) Replaces the need for theory
o a) They replace hypotheses o b) Is used only in qualitative
o b) They explain data collection studies
methods o c) Provides a visual map of
o c) They guide the direction and relationships ✅
scope of the study ✅ o d) Always includes statistics
o d) They eliminate the need for 24. Theoretical frameworks help in:
data analysis o a) Enhancing internal validity
17. Theoretical frameworks are used to: ✅
o a) Report statistics o b) Avoiding ethical issues
o b) Develop nursing diagnoses o c) Simplifying data entry
o c) Provide rationale for study o d) Eliminating sample bias
design ✅ 25. In qualitative research, frameworks are
o d) Interpret financial data often:
18. One key benefit of a conceptual model o a) Numerical
is: o b) Emergent and interpretive ✅
o a) Providing statistical o c) Fixed before study
significance o d) Statistically based
o b) Limiting the literature review 26. A research model is:
o c) Enhancing understanding of o a) Irrelevant to hypothesis
interrelationships ✅ testing
o d) Replacing data collection o b) A symbolic representation of
19. Conceptual models can be derived from: relationships ✅
o a) Empirical evidence only o c) Always required
o b) The researcher’s opinion o d) Derived only from
o c) Existing theories or literature experiments
✅ 27. Theoretical frameworks are selected to:
o d) Pilot studies only o a) Provide philosophical beliefs
20. The use of a framework helps to: o b) Fit the aims and questions of
o a) Disorganize the study the research ✅
o b) Delay data collection o c) Standardize questionnaires
o c) Focus the research questions o d) Provide study funding
✅ 28. In nursing research, frameworks:
o d) Prove the hypothesis o a) Decrease credibility
21. Models contribute to: o b) Support the nursing process
o a) General confusion in theory ✅
 o c) Remove bias o c) Developed to explain
o d) Increase financial risk relationships among variables
29. One key reason for using models in ✅
research is to: o d) Never revised
o a) Replace human subjects 36. A model is:
o b) Provide objectivity and o a) The same as a hypothesis
organization ✅ o b) A symbolic representation of
o c) Eliminate methods sections a theory ✅
o d) Simplify literature review o c) A fixed law
30. The integration of models in research: o d) Not related to theory
o a) Decreases accuracy 37. Conceptual frameworks allow
o b) Hinders innovation researchers to:
o c) Improves study coherence ✅ o a) Avoid theory
o d) Increases research costs o b) Organize and visualize ideas
and variables ✅
31. A theoretical framework is based on: o c) Replace research questions
o a) Visual diagrams o d) Bypass literature reviews
o b) Established theories ✅ 38. Theories differ from models because
o c) Raw data they:
o d) Financial goals o a) Are visual diagrams
32. A conceptual framework is often: o b) Are more abstract and
o a) An abstract idea grounded in comprehensive ✅
data ✅ o c) Always contain variables
o b) A mathematical formula o d) Are simpler
o c) A statistical table 39. Models are generally:
o d) Derived from experiments o a) Descriptive representations
33. One key difference between a model ✅
and a theory is: o b) Laws of nature
o a) Models are abstract; theories o c) Independent of theories
are specific o d) Used only in math
o b) Theories explain; models 40. Which of the following best describes a
illustrate ✅ theory?
o c) Theories are visual; models o a) A fact
are textual o b) A proven law
o d) Models test hypotheses; o c) A set of interrelated concepts
theories generate them explaining a phenomenon ✅
34. Theoretical frameworks are typically: o d) A research tool
o a) Created from scratch by
researchers 41. Which model would be most appropriate
o b) Based on previous for a study on self-care behaviors in
established theories ✅ patients with chronic illness?
o c) Avoided in nursing research
o d) Only used in qualitative  a) Maslow’s Hierarchy
studies  b) Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Theory ✅
35. Conceptual frameworks are:  c) Roy’s Adaptation Model
o a) Used only in quantitative  d) Health Belief Model
research
o b) Based solely on empirical
evidence
42. For research exploring health behavior  a) Social Learning Theory
change in adolescents, the best-suited  b) Roy’s Adaptation Model
model would be:  c) Lazarus and Folkman’s Stress and
Coping Theory ✅
 a) Donabedian Model  d) Orem’s Self-Care Model
 b) Systems Theory
 c) Pender’s Health Promotion Model ✅ 48. A study examining cultural influences
 d) Neuman’s Systems Model on health decisions would benefit most
from:
43. A study focused on evaluating the
quality of healthcare services would best  a) Biomedical Model
align with:  b) Leininger’s Culture Care Theory ✅
 c) Nightingale’s Environmental Theory
 a) Watson’s Caring Theory  d) Health Belief Model
 b) Health Belief Model
 c) Donabedian’s Structure-Process- 49. The best-suited framework for analyzing
Outcome Model ✅ community-level health promotion
 d) King’s Goal Attainment Theory interventions is:

44. To guide a research study on patient  a) Watson’s Theory of Caring

adaptation post-surgery, the most fitting  b) Ecological Model ✅
theoretical framework is:  c) Donabedian Model
 d) King’s Theory
 a) Orem’s Theory
 b) Roy’s Adaptation Model ✅ 50. Which model is appropriate for
 c) Maslow’s Theory structuring research on organizational
 d) Grounded Theory change in healthcare?

45. A researcher investigating perceived  a) Chaos Theory

susceptibility to disease and preventive  b) Change Theory by Lewin ✅
behavior should choose:  c) Systems Theory
 d) Pender’s Health Promotion Model
 a) Health Belief Model ✅
 b) Pender’s Model 51. When developing a conceptual
 c) Neuman’s Model framework, the first step should be:
 d) Systems Theory
 a) Choose a data analysis method
46. Which model suits a study aiming to  b) Define variables and concepts ✅
analyze nurse-patient goal setting and  c) Create questionnaires
interactions?  d) Recruit participants

 a) King’s Goal Attainment Theory ✅ 52. Which of the following is essential in

 b) Watson’s Theory building a conceptual framework?
 c) Ecological Model
 d) Donabedian Model  a) Formulating financial plans
 b) Understanding existing literature and
47. A study on stress and coping theories ✅
mechanisms in caregivers should be  c) Selecting a research site
guided by:  d) Performing statistical analysis
53. A researcher must ensure that a  c) Bibliography
conceptual framework:  d) Statistical output

 a) Aligns with the research objectives ✅ 59. A conceptual framework should evolve
 b) Replaces the need for methodology based on:
 c) Includes budgetary constraints
 d) Avoids visual representation  a) Peer suggestions
 b) Literature review and research
54. Which element is commonly included in problem ✅
a conceptual framework?  c) Participant availability
 d) Budget allocations
 a) Sample demographics
 b) Research tools 60. Conceptual frameworks are most useful
 c) Defined relationships among when they:
variables ✅
 d) Statistical software  a) Are overly complex
 b) Clearly show how variables relate to
55. Which tool is often used to develop one another ✅
conceptual frameworks?  c) Focus only on outcomes
 d) Are borrowed without modification
 a) Data entry form
 b) Concept mapping ✅
 c) Financial reports
 d) Clinical protocols

56. A well-developed conceptual framework

helps in:

 a) Proving a theory
 b) Identifying relevant variables and
their relationships ✅
 c) Determining salaries
 d) Reducing ethical concerns

57. When creating a conceptual model, the

researcher should focus on:

 a) Prioritizing statistical tools

 b) Clarifying the research hypothesis
 c) Defining and organizing key concepts
✅
 d) Outsourcing tasks

58. One method to visually display a

conceptual framework is:

 a) Table of contents
 b) Flow chart or diagram ✅
Unit VIII: Ethical Consideration in Research:

1. What was the main focus of the Correct answer: C. Tuskegee Syphilis
Nuremberg Code (1947)? Study
A. Environmental safety 7. Which of the following is NOT one of
B. Human rights in research the three ethical principles in the
C. Data confidentiality Belmont Report?
D. Animal welfare A. Respect for persons
Correct answer: B. Human rights in B. Beneficence
research C. Justice
2. Which historical event significantly D. Accountability
influenced the development of the Correct answer: D. Accountability
Nuremberg Code? 8. What was a key ethical issue in the
A. World War I Tuskegee Syphilis Study?
B. The Nazi medical experiments during A. Data falsification
WWII B. Lack of informed consent
C. The Cold War C. Excessive compensation
D. The Ebola outbreak D. Environmental damage
Correct answer: B. The Nazi medical Correct answer: B. Lack of informed
experiments during WWII consent
3. The Declaration of Helsinki was
adopted by which organization? 9. Which of the following is an ethical
A. United Nations guideline developed by the American
B. World Health Organization Psychological Association?
C. World Medical Association A. Nuremberg Code
D. UNESCO B. Helsinki Declaration
Correct answer: C. World Medical C. APA Code of Ethics
Association D. Belmont Report
4. Which document first emphasized Correct answer: C. APA Code of
informed consent in research? Ethics
A. Belmont Report 10. Which organization sets ethical
B. Declaration of Helsinki standards for biomedical research in
C. Nuremberg Code India?
D. Helsinki Protocol A. ICMR
Correct answer: C. Nuremberg Code B. WHO
5. Which U.S. report introduced the C. UNESCO
principles of respect for persons, D. UNDP
beneficence, and justice? Correct answer: A. ICMR
A. Nuremberg Code 11. Which principle emphasizes doing no
B. Belmont Report harm in research?
C. Helsinki Declaration A. Justice
D. APA Code B. Fidelity
Correct answer: B. Belmont Report C. Non-maleficence
6. Which unethical study led to the D. Veracity
Belmont Report in the United States? Correct answer: C. Non-maleficence
A. Stanford Prison Experiment 12. Which ethical principle supports fair
B. Milgram Obedience Study distribution of benefits and burdens
C. Tuskegee Syphilis Study in research?
D. Willowbrook Hepatitis Study A. Justice
B. Autonomy
 C. Confidentiality Correct answer: C. Guarantee of
D. Fidelity results
Correct answer: A. Justice 19. Informed consent should be obtained:
13. Confidentiality in research refers to: A. After the research is complete
A. Verifying participant identity B. Before participation
B. Sharing data with the public C. Only if requested
C. Protecting participants' information D. From family members only
D. Obtaining written consent Correct answer: B. Before
Correct answer: C. Protecting participation
participants' information 20. When is verbal consent acceptable in
research?
14. The main role of an Institutional A. In all types of research
Review Board (IRB) is to: B. In emergency studies
A. Recruit participants C. When written consent is impossible
B. Monitor data collection D. When participant is illiterate
C. Review and approve research Correct answer: C. When written
proposals consent is impossible
D. Write research grants 21. A participant has the right to
Correct answer: C. Review and withdraw from a study:
approve research proposals A. Only in the first 24 hours
15. Which of the following is NOT a B. Only with permission
function of an ethics committee? C. At any time
A. Reviewing ethical concerns D. Only after giving reasons
B. Approving funding Correct answer: C. At any time
C. Ensuring participant protection 22. Who is responsible for ensuring
D. Monitoring ongoing research informed consent is obtained?
Correct answer: B. Approving funding A. Data analyst
16. Ethics committees are responsible for B. Principal investigator
ensuring: C. Hospital administrator
A. Research profitability D. Ethics committee
B. Legal protection of researchers Correct answer: B. Principal
C. Participant welfare and rights investigator
D. Data analysis accuracy 23. Which of the following populations
Correct answer: C. Participant welfare requires special ethical consideration?
and rights A. University students
17. How often should ethics committee B. Working adults
approval be renewed for long-term C. Vulnerable populations
studies? D. Social media users
A. Every 3 months Correct answer: C. Vulnerable
B. Annually populations
C. Only once 24. Informed consent is NOT required
D. Every 6 months when:
Correct answer: B. Annually A. The study is anonymous and poses
no risk
18. Informed consent must include all the B. The research is observational
following EXCEPT: C. It involves minors
A. Risks involved D. It involves sensitive data
B. Purpose of the study Correct answer: A. The study is
C. Guarantee of results anonymous and poses no risk
D. Voluntary participation
25. Which law often governs data A. Fidelity
protection in research? B. Integrity
A. Contract law C. Confidentiality
B. Civil law D. Honesty
C. Data Protection Act Correct answer: C. Confidentiality
D. Consumer Protection Act 32. What should be done if a research
Correct answer: C. Data Protection Act participant experiences harm during
26. Which document ensures research a study?
participants’ legal and ethical rights? A. Continue the study without change
A. Grant application B. Remove the data and replace the
B. Research protocol participant
C. Consent form C. Report the incident and provide
D. Data log sheet support
Correct answer: C. Consent form D. Blame the participant
27. Breaching confidentiality can result Correct answer: C. Report the incident
in: and provide support
A. Increased validity 33. Which ethical principle is violated if a
B. Higher recruitment participant is coerced into joining a
C. Legal consequences study?
D. Better outcomes A. Justice
Correct answer: C. Legal B. Beneficence
consequences C. Autonomy
28. The term “assent” in research refers D. Veracity
to consent from: Correct answer: C. Autonomy
A. Ethics committee 34. If deception is used in a study, what
B. Government must the researcher do after
C. Minors or individuals with limited participation?
capacity A. Ignore the deception
D. Principal investigators B. Debrief the participant
Correct answer: C. Minors or C. Seek new consent
individuals with limited capacity D. Reimburse the participant
29. A research study that involves Correct answer: B. Debrief the
deception must: participant
A. Never be approved 35. What is the best action if a researcher
B. Disclose full information afterward observes unethical practices during a
C. Be kept confidential study?
D. Have government approval A. Ignore them
Correct answer: B. Disclose full B. Stop collecting data
information afterward C. Report to the ethics committee
30. Which of the following ensures ethical D. Ask participants to withdraw
compliance after research starts? Correct answer: C. Report to the ethics
A. Research funding committee
B. Peer review 36. What is the ethical concern with dual-
C. Monitoring by ethics committee role relationships in research (e.g.,
D. Participant feedback nurse and researcher)?
Correct answer: C. Monitoring by A. Cost-effectiveness
ethics committee B. Professional growth
C. Potential for coercion
31. Which of the following terms refers to D. Better data accuracy
the protection of private data in Correct answer: C. Potential for
research? coercion
37. In research ethics, “minimal risk” Correct answer: B. Re-explain and
means: confirm understanding
A. No risk at all 43. Which document should outline all
B. Risk lower than daily life activities ethical considerations before the
C. Risk equal to daily life activities study begins?
D. Risk with no consequences A. Budget report
Correct answer: C. Risk equal to daily B. Ethics clearance letter
life activities C. Research protocol
38. What does “beneficence” require D. Data log
researchers to do? Correct answer: C. Research protocol
A. Follow legal requirements only 44. What is the first step in ethical
B. Maximize benefits and minimize decision-making in research?
harm A. Choose the methodology
C. Ensure equal access to all participants B. Identify the ethical issue
D. Be honest about funding C. Consult funding sources
Correct answer: B. Maximize benefits D. Design the questionnaire
and minimize harm Correct answer: B. Identify the ethical
39. When working with illiterate issue
participants, the researcher should: 45. If a participant becomes distressed
A. Use complex consent forms during data collection, the nurse
B. Skip the consent process should:
C. Use verbal consent with a witness A. Disregard and continue
D. Enroll only literate individuals B. Pause and assess their condition
Correct answer: C. Use verbal consent C. Report only at study end
with a witness D. Offer incentives
40. Which of the following is an example Correct answer: B. Pause and assess
of a vulnerable population in their condition
research?
A. Nurses 46. UNESCO's Universal Declaration on
B. College professors Bioethics and Human Rights
C. Prisoners emphasizes:
D. Accountants A. Trade policies
Correct answer: C. Prisoners B. Industrial safety
C. Respect for human dignity and rights
41. What is a key responsibility of a nurse D. Medical tourism
involved in clinical research? Correct answer: C. Respect for human
A. Increase participant enrollment dignity and rights
B. Minimize research cost 47. Which international guideline
C. Advocate for participant rights addresses the ethics of health-related
D. Avoid interacting with the ethics research involving humans?
committee A. CIOMS Guidelines
Correct answer: C. Advocate for B. ISO Standards
participant rights C. FDA Regulations
42. A nurse researcher finds that a D. GCP Handbook
participant misunderstood the study Correct answer: A. CIOMS Guidelines
purpose. What should be done? 48. Which is a principle of Good Clinical
A. Proceed with data collection Practice (GCP)?
B. Re-explain and confirm A. Marketing research results
understanding B. Ignoring protocol deviations
C. Stop the entire study C. Ensuring subject confidentiality
D. Ignore the misunderstanding D. Delaying adverse event reporting
 Correct answer: C. Ensuring subject
confidentiality
49. Which body governs international
ethical research norms globally?
A. WHO
B. CIOMS
C. UNDP
D. ICH
Correct answer: B. CIOMS
50. Which document provides ethical
guidance for nurses globally?
A. ICN Code of Ethics
B. Helsinki Protocol
C. Belmont Report
D. APA Guidelines
Correct answer: A. ICN Code of Ethics
Unit IX: Samples, Sampling, Measurement Tools, and Instruments:

1. What is a "population" in research? C. Non-random assignment

A. A group of individuals selected for D. Deliberate bias
the study Correct answer: A
B. A subset of the sample 8. Which sampling method is used when
C. The entire group of individuals or the population is divided into strata?
elements relevant to the research A. Cluster sampling
D. Only the individuals responding to B. Stratified sampling
the survey C. Systematic sampling
Correct answer: C D. Convenience sampling
2. What is a sample in research? Correct answer: B
A. The total number of participants 9. Which method uses every nth
B. The entire population under study individual from a list?
C. A subset of the population used for A. Snowball sampling
the study B. Simple random sampling
D. The control group in an experiment C. Systematic sampling
Correct answer: C D. Quota sampling
3. Sampling refers to: Correct answer: C
A. Collecting data from every member 10. Purposive sampling is most commonly
of the population used in:
B. The process of selecting a subset A. Quantitative studies
from a population B. Experimental research
C. Calculating sample size C. Qualitative research
D. Interviewing respondents D. Laboratory research
Correct answer: B Correct answer: C
4. The main purpose of sampling is to:
A. Save time and resources 11. Sample size in quantitative research
B. Bias the results depends on:
C. Avoid generalization A. Time of day
D. Include the entire population B. Population size, confidence level, and
Correct answer: A margin of error
5. Which of the following is a C. Number of researchers
probability sampling method? D. Participants’ willingness
A. Purposive sampling Correct answer: B
B. Snowball sampling 12. Which software is commonly used to
C. Stratified random sampling calculate sample size?
D. Convenience sampling A. Adobe Reader
Correct answer: C B. SPSS
6. In non-probability sampling, selection C. G*Power
is based on: D. PowerPoint
A. Random chance Correct answer: C
B. Scientific criteria 13. A larger sample size typically
C. Researcher’s judgment improves:
D. Lottery method A. Bias
Correct answer: C B. Validity
7. Simple random sampling ensures: C. Generalizability
A. Equal and known chance of selection D. Time efficiency
B. Equal but unknown chance of Correct answer: C
selection
14. Which factor does not influence D. The hypothesis is not tested
sample size calculation? Correct answer: C
A. Effect size
B. Population interest 21. Measurement tools in research are
C. Power of the test used to:
D. Significance level A. Enter data
Correct answer: B B. Collect and quantify data
15. The acceptable level of statistical C. Analyze data
power for most studies is: D. Interpret results
A. 30% Correct answer: B
B. 50% 22. A structured questionnaire is a:
C. 80% A. Tool for qualitative research
D. 100% B. Unsystematic data collection method
Correct answer: C C. Tool with pre-defined questions
16. Significance level (alpha) commonly D. Random interview tool
used in research is: Correct answer: C
A. 0.01 23. Which of the following is a tool for
B. 0.05 qualitative data collection?
C. 0.1 A. Checklist
D. 1.0 B. Questionnaire
Correct answer: B C. Interview guide
17. Software used for sample size D. Rating scale
calculation in epidemiological studies Correct answer: C
includes: 24. An example of an objective
A. NVivo measurement tool is a:
B. Epi Info A. Focus group
C. WordPad B. Likert scale
D. CorelDRAW C. Interview
Correct answer: B D. Narrative analysis
18. What is the purpose of power analysis Correct answer: B
in sample size calculation? 25. Which tool is used to assess patient
A. To reduce validity satisfaction quantitatively?
B. To avoid randomization A. Rating scale
C. To determine the minimum sample B. Case study
size needed to detect an effect C. Observation notes
D. To conduct interviews D. Group discussion
Correct answer: C Correct answer: A
19. Which of the following tools can help 26. Which tool is more suitable for
determine the effect size? collecting data in outcome research?
A. Excel A. Focused group discussion
B. G*Power B. Clinical audit checklist
C. WhatsApp C. Life history
D. Facebook D. Ethnographic notes
Correct answer: B Correct answer: B
20. A Type II error occurs when: 27. In qualitative research, data is
A. The null hypothesis is correctly mostly:
rejected A. Measured
B. The alternative hypothesis is true but B. Descriptive
rejected C. Numeric
C. The null hypothesis is false but not D. Quantified
rejected Correct answer: B
28. Which of the following is not a B. Interview schedule
measurement tool? C. Questionnaire
A. Questionnaire D. Checklist
B. Checklist Correct answer: A
C. Case study
D. Rating scale 36. Reliability refers to:
Correct answer: C A. Accuracy of measurement
29. Which scale is used to measure B. Consistency of results
intensity of feelings? C. Generalizability
A. Nominal D. Validity of content
B. Ordinal Correct answer: B
C. Likert 37. Validity refers to:
D. Interval A. Repeatability
Correct answer: C B. Generalization
30. Which of these tools would be used in C. Accuracy of measurement
ethnographic research? D. Consistency of responses
A. Questionnaire Correct answer: C
B. Participant observation 38. Which type of validity assesses
C. Checklist whether a test covers the entire
D. Inventory content?
Correct answer: B A. Construct validity
B. Content validity
31. An interview guide is used in: C. Criterion validity
A. Structured interviews D. Face validity
B. Unstructured or semi-structured Correct answer: B
interviews 39. Test-retest method checks:
C. Experimental studies A. Content validity
D. Survey research B. Internal consistency
Correct answer: B C. Reliability over time
32. An interview schedule involves: D. External validity
A. Open-ended questions Correct answer: C
B. Flexible questioning 40. Cronbach’s alpha measures:
C. Pre-coded questions A. External validity
D. Observation notes B. Test-retest reliability
Correct answer: C C. Internal consistency
33. Interview guides allow: D. Interrater reliability
A. Fixed responses Correct answer: C
B. No deviations 41. Face validity is based on:
C. Spontaneous exploration A. Objective testing
D. Only yes/no answers B. Expert judgment
Correct answer: C C. Appearance to non-experts
34. Which is true about interview D. Statistical analysis
schedules? Correct answer: C
A. They are more flexible 42. Which is not a type of reliability?
B. Used in qualitative studies A. Interrater
C. Used for standardized data collection B. Test-retest
D. Used in narrative studies C. Predictive
Correct answer: C D. Internal consistency
35. Which one supports probing Correct answer: C
techniques? 43. A tool with high validity will always
A. Interview guide have high reliability. True or False?
 A. True
B. False
Correct answer: B
44. Establishing content validity requires
input from:
A. Laypersons
B. Subject experts
C. Patients
D. Students
Correct answer: B

45. To establish reliability of a

questionnaire, a researcher may use:
A. Interviews
B. Observations
C. Pilot testing
D. Focus groups
Correct answer: C
46. Which technique helps establish
construct validity?
A. Correlation with related variables
B. Random sampling
C. Face-to-face interviews
D. Double-blinding
Correct answer: A
47. Validity is improved by:
A. Using a smaller sample
B. Avoiding pilot testing
C. Careful item construction
D. Eliminating scoring
Correct answer: C
48. Which of the following supports
criterion validity?
A. Consistency over time
B. Comparison with gold standard
C. Agreement among raters
D. Use of checklists
Correct answer: B
49. A reliable instrument may not be
valid. True or False?
A. True
B. False
Correct answer: A
50. Which of the following is a step in
ensuring reliability and validity of
tools?
A. Avoid peer review
B. Skip pre-testing
C. Use validated tools
D. Ignore expert feedback
Correct answer: C
Unit X: Data Collection and Data Analysis,

1. Which of the following is the primary A. Primary data

purpose of data collection in B. Secondary data
research? C. Tertiary data
A. To design the sample size D. Archival data
B. To answer the research question ✔ A. Primary data
C. To publish results 8. Which factor is important when
D. To test the computer software selecting a data collector?
✔ B. To answer the research question A. Age
2. Which is a method of primary data B. Educational background
collection? C. Personal bias
A. Literature review D. Experience and training
B. Census data ✔ D. Experience and training
C. Observation 9. Which method of data collection is
D. Reports from NGOs least subject to interviewer bias?
✔ C. Observation A. Structured questionnaire
3. What is the role of training in data B. Observation
collection? C. In-depth interview
A. Reduces sample size D. Focus group
B. Increases data storage ✔ A. Structured questionnaire
C. Ensures consistency and reliability 10. Which is a common error in data
D. Avoids using statistical tests collection?
✔ C. Ensures consistency and A. Coding
reliability B. Valid consent
4. Which of the following is a C. Observer bias
quantitative data collection method? D. Data cleaning
A. Focus group discussion ✔ C. Observer bias
B. In-depth interview
C. Structured questionnaire 11. Height and weight are examples of
D. Ethnographic study which type of data?
✔ C. Structured questionnaire A. Nominal
5. What is the most suitable data B. Ordinal
collection tool for qualitative C. Interval
research? D. Ratio
A. Checklists ✔ D. Ratio
B. Structured interviews 12. Which type of data is represented by
C. Surveys blood groups (A, B, AB, O)?
D. Unstructured interviews A. Interval
✔ D. Unstructured interviews B. Ratio
6. Which one is NOT a source of C. Nominal
secondary data? D. Ordinal
A. Hospital records ✔ C. Nominal
B. Government reports 13. Ordinal data can be best described as:
C. Interviews A. Categorized without order
D. Online databases B. Ordered categories with unequal
✔ C. Interviews intervals
7. Which term describes data collected C. Numerical with equal intervals
directly from first-hand experience? D. Categorical with no numerical value
 ✔ B. Ordered categories with unequal D. Calculating frequencies
intervals ✔ B. Coding qualitative themes
14. Which of the following is considered 21. Which software is preferred for
qualitative data? managing interviews and narratives?
A. Number of hospital visits A. Excel
B. Blood pressure levels B. SPSS
C. Gender C. NVivo
D. Patient satisfaction description D. R
✔ D. Patient satisfaction description ✔ C. NVivo
15. Which of these is NOT a qualitative 22. Which statistical software is user-
data collection technique? friendly for beginners in quantitative
A. Focus group analysis?
B. Case study A. R
C. Observation B. Python
D. Survey with closed-ended questions C. SPSS
✔ D. Survey with closed-ended D. SAS
questions ✔ C. SPSS
23. Which of the following is not a
16. SPSS is commonly used for: function of SPSS?
A. Thematic coding A. Factor analysis
B. Quantitative data analysis B. Textual coding
C. Transcription C. ANOVA
D. Literature review D. Regression analysis
✔ B. Quantitative data analysis ✔ B. Textual coding
17. NVivo software is primarily used for: 24. NVivo is used mainly in which type of
A. T-tests research?
B. Qualitative data coding A. Experimental
C. Data encryption B. Historical
D. Regression analysis C. Qualitative
✔ B. Qualitative data coding D. Longitudinal
18. Which of the following is a feature of ✔ C. Qualitative
SPSS? 25. The term “case” in SPSS refers to:
A. Audio transcription A. A software feature
B. Graphical model building B. A variable
C. Automatic thematic analysis C. An individual data record
D. Descriptive and inferential statistics D. A statistical test
✔ D. Descriptive and inferential ✔ C. An individual data record
statistics
19. What is the first step in SPSS data 26. Which test is used to compare means
analysis? between two independent groups?
A. Interpret results A. Chi-square test
B. Enter variables B. ANOVA
C. Choose graphs C. T-test
D. Select test D. Correlation
✔ B. Enter variables ✔ C. T-test
20. In NVivo, what is the main function of 27. Which test is used for comparing
“Nodes”? proportions?
A. Statistical testing A. T-test
B. Coding qualitative themes B. Chi-square test
C. Exporting datasets C. ANOVA
 D. Regression C. Non-parametric test
✔ B. Chi-square test D. Linear regression
28. Which test is appropriate for testing ✔ C. Non-parametric test
relationships between two continuous 35. Which of the following tests assesses
variables? association between two categorical
A. ANOVA variables?
B. Pearson correlation A. Pearson correlation
C. Chi-square B. T-test
D. Logistic regression C. Chi-square test
✔ B. Pearson correlation D. ANOVA
29. ANOVA is used when: ✔ C. Chi-square test
A. Comparing two groups
B. Analyzing categorical data 36. Which chart is best for displaying
C. Comparing more than two group frequency distribution?
means A. Pie chart
D. Assessing correlation B. Scatter plot
✔ C. Comparing more than two C. Histogram
group means D. Line graph
30. A p-value less than 0.05 indicates: ✔ C. Histogram
A. Statistical insignificance 37. Which diagram is useful to show
B. Hypothesis acceptance trends over time?
C. Statistical significance A. Pie chart
D. Error in test B. Line graph
✔ C. Statistical significance C. Box plot
31. Which test is best for analyzing D. Bar chart
ordinal data from two groups? ✔ B. Line graph
A. Paired t-test 38. Which measure represents the
B. Wilcoxon rank-sum test average of a dataset?
C. ANOVA A. Mode
D. Pearson correlation B. Median
✔ B. Wilcoxon rank-sum test C. Mean
32. Regression analysis is used to: D. Range
A. Compare group variances ✔ C. Mean
B. Test proportions 39. Which measure is least affected by
C. Predict the value of one variable extreme values?
based on another A. Mean
D. Analyze nominal data B. Range
✔ C. Predict the value of one variable C. Standard deviation
based on another D. Median
33. Which test is used to analyze paired ✔ D. Median
data from the same group? 40. Which is a measure of variability?
A. Independent t-test A. Mean
B. Paired t-test B. Median
C. Chi-square test C. Mode
D. ANOVA D. Standard deviation
✔ B. Paired t-test ✔ D. Standard deviation
34. Which statistical test is used when 41. Which analysis type is most often
data is not normally distributed? used in qualitative research?
A. Pearson correlation A. Descriptive statistics
B. Parametric t-test B. Thematic analysis
 C. Inferential statistics D. Manual entry
D. Regression ✔ C. Pre-testing (pilot study)
✔ B. Thematic analysis 49. Which term refers to the accuracy of
42. Which of the following is a visual measurement?
method of coding in NVivo? A. Reliability
A. Bar chart B. Validity
B. Word cloud C. Saturation
C. Box plot D. Inference
D. Scatter plot ✔ B. Validity
✔ B. Word cloud 50. Which method increases the
43. Which is used to identify patterns in credibility of qualitative research?
qualitative data? A. Hypothesis testing
A. Coding B. Triangulation
B. Hypothesis testing C. ANOVA
C. Standard deviation D. Stratified sampling
D. Regression ✔ B. Triangulation
✔ A. Coding
44. Data saturation in qualitative
research means:
A. Data is too large
B. Data is fully analyzed
C. No new themes emerge
D. Coding is complete
✔ C. No new themes emerge
45. Which of the following enhances
reliability of data collection?
A. Flexible tools
B. Trained data collectors
C. Random sampling
D. Large sample size
✔ B. Trained data collectors
46. Which of the following is the final step
in data analysis?
A. Interpretation
B. Data cleaning
C. Coding
D. Entry
✔ A. Interpretation
47. Which software allows both statistical
analysis and chart creation?
A. SPSS
B. NVivo
C. Word
D. Excel
✔ A. SPSS
48. Which of the following best ensures
validity in data collection tools?
A. Small sample
B. Repetition
C. Pre-testing (pilot study)
Unit XI: Interpreting the Research Findings.

1. Which of the following is best used to D. Footnote

show parts of a whole? Answer: C. Data cells
A. Bar graph 8. Tables are particularly useful for
B. Line graph presenting:
C. Pie chart A. Visual patterns
D. Histogram B. Summary statistics
Answer: C. Pie chart C. Temporal trends
2. Which graph is most appropriate for D. Spatial locations
displaying changes over time? Answer: B. Summary statistics
A. Line graph 9. Which chart is commonly used in
B. Pie chart health studies to display disease
C. Scatter plot incidence?
D. Spot map A. Pie chart
Answer: A. Line graph B. Line chart
3. A histogram is primarily used for C. Spot map
displaying which type of data? D. Area chart
A. Categorical data Answer: C. Spot map
B. Ordinal data 10. Which component should always be
C. Continuous data included in a well-constructed graph?
D. Nominal data A. Table number
Answer: C. Continuous data B. Bar width
4. Bar graphs are best used for C. Title
comparing: D. Legend
A. Frequency distributions Answer: C. Title
B. Trends over time 11. A line graph typically represents data
C. Proportions of a whole with:
D. Categories or groups A. Bars of equal width
Answer: D. Categories or groups B. Slices of a circle
5. Which of the following displays C. Points connected by lines
spatial distribution of data? D. Dots representing individuals
A. Line graph Answer: C. Points connected by lines
B. Spot map 12. Which graph is ideal for examining
C. Histogram the distribution shape of numerical
D. Pie chart data?
Answer: B. Spot map A. Histogram
6. What is the primary difference B. Pie chart
between a bar chart and a histogram? C. Bar graph
A. Color usage D. Spot map
B. Data type represented Answer: A. Histogram
C. Use of percentage 13. Which is a key advantage of using
D. Orientation tables in research reports?
Answer: B. Data type represented A. Enhances aesthetic appeal
7. Which table component shows the B. Reduces need for discussion
specific values being compared? C. Allows detailed numeric comparison
A. Title D. Avoids need for text
B. Header Answer: C. Allows detailed numeric
C. Data cells comparison
14. Which of the following would best Answer: C. Estimated range of true
display the prevalence of symptoms in value
a population? 21. ANOVA is primarily used when
A. Pie chart comparing:
B. Bar graph A. Two variables
C. Line chart B. Frequencies
D. Spot map C. More than two group means
Answer: B. Bar graph D. Non-parametric data
15. Which of these is NOT a standard Answer: C. More than two group means
format for data display in research? 22. Which test is suitable to examine the
A. Graph relationship between two continuous
B. Table variables?
C. Chart A. Chi-square
D. Summary essay B. t-test
Answer: D. Summary essay C. Pearson correlation
D. ANOVA
16. Inferential statistics are primarily Answer: C. Pearson correlation
used to: 23. Which of the following implies a
A. Describe data strong positive correlation?
B. Present tables A. r = 0.9
C. Generalize findings B. r = -0.9
D. Count samples C. r = 0
Answer: C. Generalize findings D. r = -0.1
17. A p-value less than 0.05 typically Answer: A. r = 0.9
indicates: 24. What is the purpose of post hoc tests
A. Non-significance in ANOVA?
B. No relationship A. To adjust mean values
C. Statistical significance B. To validate reliability
D. Negative outcome C. To identify specific group differences
Answer: C. Statistical significance D. To test normality
18. Which test is appropriate for Answer: C. To identify specific group
comparing means between two differences
independent groups? 25. A p-value of 0.07 indicates:
A. ANOVA A. Significant result
B. Chi-square B. Non-significant result
C. Independent t-test C. Strong correlation
D. Pearson correlation D. High reliability
Answer: C. Independent t-test Answer: B. Non-significant result
19. Chi-square test is used for: 26. Which inferential test is suitable for
A. Correlation strength paired data before and after
B. Frequency comparison intervention?
C. Mean difference A. Independent t-test
D. Variance analysis B. Paired t-test
Answer: B. Frequency comparison C. ANOVA
20. What does a confidence interval D. Chi-square
provide? Answer: B. Paired t-test
A. Error bars 27. Which assumption is required for
B. Exact population value parametric tests?
C. Estimated range of true value A. Homogeneity of variance
D. Raw data range B. Ordinal data
C. Unequal groups
 D. No normality
Answer: A. Homogeneity of variance
28. Type I error refers to:
A. Accepting a false null hypothesis
B. Rejecting a true null hypothesis
C. Accepting a true hypothesis
D. Correlation without causation
Answer: B. Rejecting a true null
hypothesis
29. Which of the following is a non-
parametric test?
A. Pearson correlation
B. Independent t-test
C. Chi-square test
D. ANOVA
Answer: C. Chi-square test
30. A result is statistically significant if:
A. The p-value is > 0.05
B. The sample size is large
C. The p-value is < 0.05
D. The mean is above average
Answer: C. The p-value is < 0.05
Unit XII: Limitation and Recommendations.

Which of the following best defines a D. Ethical

theoretical limitation in research? ✅ Correct Answer: C
A. Inability to find participants 6. Why is identifying limitations
B. Constraints related to the research framework important in research?
or model A. To hide study flaws
C. Issues in data collection B. To strengthen the discussion
D. Limited funding C. To weaken study credibility
✅ Correct Answer: B D. To reduce the sample size
✅ Correct Answer: B
1. A procedural limitation is primarily 7. Which of the following is a data
related to: collection limitation?
A. Funding limitations A. Randomized control trial
B. Researcher’s personal bias B. Poorly constructed survey instrument
C. Practical aspects of how the study C. Use of a theoretical framework
was conducted D. Application of statistical software
D. Ethical considerations only ✅ Correct Answer: B
✅ Correct Answer: C 8. An example of a theoretical limitation
2. Which is an example of a includes:
methodological limitation? A. Instrument reliability issues
A. Lack of generalizability due to small B. Inability to generalize findings
sample size C. Restricted scope due to chosen theory
B. Incomplete literature review D. Errors in data transcription
C. Use of an outdated theory ✅ Correct Answer: C
D. Researcher's bias 9. Which of the following would NOT be
✅ Correct Answer: A a limitation in a qualitative study?
3. Which limitation is concerned with A. Subjectivity in interpretation
the concepts and assumptions guiding B. Small, non-random sample
a study? C. Rich, detailed narratives
A. Financial limitation D. Lack of generalizability
B. Procedural limitation ✅ Correct Answer: C
C. Theoretical limitation
D. Operational limitation 11. Recommendations in research are
✅ Correct Answer: C made to:
4. Which of the following is NOT a A. Critique other studies
common methodological limitation? B. Suggest actions based on findings
A. Non-random sampling C. Replace the literature review
B. Low response rate D. Justify study limitations
C. Small sample size ✅ Correct Answer: B
D. Strong theoretical framework 12. Organizational-level
✅ Correct Answer: D recommendations focus on:
5. The term “external validity” is most A. Policy reforms at international level
associated with which type of B. Improving practice within a specific
limitation? institution
A. Procedural C. Global health frameworks
B. Theoretical D. Theoretical contribution only
C. Generalizability ✅ Correct Answer: B
13. Recommendations for future research D. To reduce funding requirements
typically address: ✅ Correct Answer: C
A. Solutions for the studied problem 20. Recommendations in research help
B. Study funding sources in:
C. Gaps identified in the current A. Ignoring the findings
research B. Blaming methodological flaws
D. Ethics approval process C. Guiding future research and action
✅ Correct Answer: C D. Avoiding accountability
14. Which of the following is a national- ✅ Correct Answer: C
level recommendation?
A. Suggesting changes in hospital 21. Which limitation affects the
protocol reproducibility of a study?
B. Proposing changes to countrywide A. Lack of ethical approval
health policies B. Poor methodological transparency
C. Recommending theory development C. Global applicability
D. Redesigning a single research tool D. Rich data collection
✅ Correct Answer: B ✅ Correct Answer: B
15. Recommendations should be based 22. If a study uses a small, homogeneous
on: sample, what type of recommendation
A. The researcher’s assumptions is most appropriate?
B. Study findings and evidence A. Apply findings to all populations
C. Literature review only B. Recommend further studies in
D. Ethical review board’s opinion diverse groups
✅ Correct Answer: B C. Generalize without caution
16. International-level recommendations D. Suggest theoretical changes
often aim to: ✅ Correct Answer: B
A. Influence global policy and practice 23. A study finding that suggests high
B. Resolve internal hospital conflict patient satisfaction in one hospital
C. Address local budget issues should be recommended at which
D. Revise literature review topics level first?
✅ Correct Answer: A A. Global level
17. Which is an appropriate B. National level
recommendation for clinical practice? C. Organizational level
A. Conduct more meta-analyses D. Theoretical level
B. Increase sample size in future studies ✅ Correct Answer: C
C. Adopt evidence-based interventions 24. Recommendations for policy change
D. Develop new theoretical models must be backed by:
✅ Correct Answer: C A. Political interests
18. Which characteristic is important for B. Anecdotal reports
a good recommendation? C. Strong and relevant evidence
A. Ambiguous D. Ethical concerns only
B. Unsupported by findings ✅ Correct Answer: C
C. Feasible and practical 25. Which of the following makes a
D. Based on personal opinion limitation less impactful on study
✅ Correct Answer: C conclusions?
19. Why should researchers align their A. Ignoring it in the discussion
recommendations with limitations? B. Addressing it openly and providing
A. To avoid ethical dilemmas context
B. To increase confusion C. Hiding it from readers
C. To ensure realistic applicability
 D. Removing it from data
✅ Correct Answer: B
26. Which type of recommendation
addresses the global community?
A. Changing hospital SOPs
B. Suggesting WHO policy revisions
C. Conducting local training workshops
D. Improving departmental feedback
✅ Correct Answer: B
27. Which is a valid procedural
recommendation?
A. Use of a more robust sampling
technique in future studies
B. Inclusion of a broader theory
C. More ethical considerations
D. Increase in theoretical assumptions
✅ Correct Answer: A
28. Recommendations based on
statistically significant results are
considered:
A. Weak
B. Anecdotal
C. Evidence-based
D. Invalid
✅ Correct Answer: C
29. What is the best way to present
limitations and recommendations in a
thesis?
A. Ignore limitations and give generic
recommendations
B. Clearly state each limitation and align
recommendations accordingly
C. Combine limitations with abstract
D. Only provide positive outcomes
✅ Correct Answer: B
30. Recommendations for international
policies should consider:
A. Cultural and healthcare diversity
B. Local dialects
C. Institutional budgets
D. Individual case studies
✅ Correct Answer: A
UNIT XIII: SELECTING THE RESEARCH A. No variables
TOPIC B. Clear objectives ✅
C. Broad goals
1. What is the first step in the research D. Multiple unrelated aims
process? 9. One benefit of selecting a topic based
A. Data analysis on nursing experience is:
B. Selecting the research topic ✅ A. Easy publication
C. Literature review B. Greater personal investment ✅
D. Interpretation of findings C. Less time-consuming
2. Which of the following is a D. Avoiding ethical concerns
characteristic of a good research 10. Which of the following topics is best
topic? suited for nursing research?
A. Vague and generalized A. Astrophysics
B. Lacks relevance B. Care strategies for diabetic foot
C. Specific and researchable ✅ ulcers ✅
D. Broad and undefined C. Stock market prediction
3. A research topic should be selected D. Climate modeling
based on:
A. Personal bias 11. A problem statement in nursing
B. Random selection research should be:
C. Interest and feasibility ✅ A. Philosophical
D. Peer pressure B. Based on speculation
4. The feasibility of a research topic C. Focused and contextual ✅
depends on all of the following D. Written after data collection
EXCEPT: 12. Which part of the research outlines
A. Time the reason for the study?
B. Resources A. Hypothesis
C. Researcher's curiosity B. Literature review
D. Accessibility of data ✅ C. Problem statement ✅
5. In nursing research, the topic selected D. Methodology
should primarily aim to: 13. A nursing research problem should
A. Improve hospital profit align with:
B. Add to medical literature A. Medical theory
C. Improve patient care ✅ B. Institutional values
D. Critique medical education C. Nursing practice and patient care ✅
6. Which of the following is NOT a good D. General science
source for identifying research topics? 14. Which of the following is a well-
A. Clinical experience phrased problem statement?
B. Literature review A. “Nurses are tired.”
C. Gossip among staff ✅ B. “Many nurses experience burnout
D. Policy documents due to long shifts, which affects patient
7. A problem that affects a large care.” ✅
number of patients and lacks effective C. “Nursing is hard.”
interventions is considered: D. “Hospitals are stressful places.”
A. Feasible 15. An example of a context-based
B. Significant ✅ nursing problem is:
C. Biased A. Planetary motion in nursing
D. Theoretical B. Staff turnover and its effect on
8. A well-defined research topic should patient safety ✅
have:
 C. Gene mutation rates 23. The methodology section should
D. Highway accidents include:
16. When selecting a topic, the researcher A. Researcher's personal history
should consider: B. Study design, population, and tools
A. Personal interest only used ✅
B. Ethical approval and social relevance C. Only the conclusion
✅ D. Summary of results
C. Irrelevance to clinical care 24. Why must the researcher defend their
D. Topics that are already over- methodology?
researched A. To impress peers
17. A good problem statement should B. To ensure validity and reliability ✅
identify: C. To reduce costs
A. Only the independent variable D. To avoid data collection
B. The research gap and need ✅ 25. Defending the title involves
C. Only population data explaining:
D. The history of nursing A. Its poetic value
18. Why is the nursing context essential B. Its uniqueness and relevance ✅
in a research topic? C. Number of words
A. It increases cost D. How popular it is
B. It ensures relevance to practice ✅ 26. A qualitative methodology is
C. It limits generalizability appropriate when the study aims to:
D. It makes the topic boring A. Measure numerical data
19. Which of the following best expresses B. Understand lived experiences ✅
a nursing problem? C. Estimate mortality rates
A. “The effect of Mars’ gravity on D. Test a drug's efficacy
metabolism” 27. A quantitative methodology is best
B. “The impact of early ambulation on when the study requires:
post-op recovery in elderly patients” ✅ A. In-depth interviews
C. “The rise of AI in marketing” B. Observational data
D. “Quantum physics applications” C. Statistical analysis of variables ✅
20. The relevance of a problem statement D. Poetic interpretations
is ensured through: 28. A future research plan should
A. Vague ideas include:
B. Social media trends A. Past accomplishments
C. Clinical observation and evidence ✅ B. Ethical violations
D. Personal beliefs C. Possible extensions or related future
studies ✅
21. A research title should be: D. Only financial aspects
A. Broad and philosophical 29. Why is it important to defend your
B. Descriptive and concise ✅ study’s future plan?
C. Ambiguous A. To show interest in long-term impact
D. Filled with jargon ✅
22. Which is the most appropriate title B. To criticize other researchers
for a nursing study? C. To request more funding
A. “Health and Things” D. To avoid answering questions
B. “A Study of Patient Satisfaction Post- 30. The future scope of a study typically
Discharge in Urban Hospitals” ✅ explains:
C. “Life is Complicated” A. Why the study was late
D. “Stuff Nurses Do” B. How findings can influence future
 practices ✅ C. Avoiding detailed explanation
C. Why nurses should not research D. Hiding data sources
D. The end of research 38. Scope is usually limited by:
A. Budget, time, and setting ✅
31. Scope in a research study refers to: B. Popular opinion
A. The budget C. Laws of physics
B. What the study intends to cover ✅ D. Superstitions
C. Number of staff 39. Why is it important to defend the
D. Hospital policies significance of the study?
32. Significance of the study addresses: A. To confuse reviewers
A. Author’s opinion B. To justify its contribution to nursing
B. Institutional ranking science ✅
C. Why the study matters ✅ C. To avoid plagiarism
D. Length of the report D. To impress patients
33. Which of the following reflects the 40. Which of the following is a poor way
significance of a nursing research to define a study’s scope?
study? A. “We will study nurse burnout in
A. “It will get me published” XYZ hospital.”
B. “It aims to reduce post-operative B. “We will analyze medication errors
infections in ICUs” ✅ in ICUs.”
C. “My teacher told me to do it” C. “We will cover everything related to
D. “It was trending online” health.” ✅
34. Scope is defined by: D. “We will explore fall prevention
A. Research design and variables ✅ strategies.”
B. Literary references
C. Medical advertisements
D. Website clicks
35. A study’s significance should
highlight:
A. Its entertainment value
B. Contributions to nursing knowledge
and patient outcomes ✅
C. Researcher’s stress
D. Funding availability
36. Which of the following best explains
the scope of a research study?
A. “This study will examine nurse-
patient ratios in pediatric wards in three
hospitals.” ✅
B. “This study will look at health.”
C. “This study will cover everything in
nursing.”
D. “This study may explore dreams.”
37. Defending the significance of a study
involves:
A. Ignoring limitations
B. Emphasizing its impact on clinical
practice ✅
Writing Research Proposal B. Avoiding grammar check
C. Giving rationale
1. Which of the following is a general D. Logical writing
guideline for critiquing a research ✔️ Correct Answer: B
article? 7. What is a major aim of the
A. Only mention strengths critique process in nursing
B. Only highlight weaknesses research?
C. Be as objective as possible A. Memorizing statistics
D. Avoid suggesting alternatives B. Promoting subjectivity
✔️ Correct Answer: C C. Enhancing analytical skills
2. What should students include in a D. Avoiding literature review
critique to strengthen their ✔️ Correct Answer: C
argument?
A. Generalized statements 8. What should a well-written
B. Specific examples of strengths problem statement include?
and weaknesses A. Irrelevant background
C. Only negative points B. Explanation of research variables
D. Personal opinions C. Personal stories
✔️ Correct Answer: B D. Ambiguous goals
3. Why is justification important ✔️ Correct Answer: B
when criticizing a study? 9. Why is it important for the
A. To fill the space problem to be significant?
B. To entertain the reader A. To increase presentation length
C. To offer rationale for alternative B. To ensure public health impact
approaches C. To satisfy the teacher
D. To highlight spelling errors D. To confuse readers
✔️ Correct Answer: C ✔️ Correct Answer: B
4. Which aspect is encouraged in 10. What helps provide clinical
research presentations by applicability of the problem?
students? A. A theoretical article
A. Uniform formatting B. An answer to the problem
B. Use of minimal slides C. Research limitations only
C. Innovation and creativity D. Unrelated data
D. Copying previous presentations ✔️ Correct Answer: B
✔️ Correct Answer: C 11. What must be promptly
5. How early should the article for introduced in a research proposal?
critique be circulated to class and A. Limitations
faculty? B. Background music
A. On the same day of presentation C. Problem statement
B. Two weeks after presentation D. References
C. One week prior ✔️ Correct Answer: C
D. Immediately after semester 12. Which of the following must be
✔️ Correct Answer: C either listed or inferred in a study?
6. Which of the following is NOT a A. Methodology
required component of a critique? B. Assumptions and limitations
A. Suggesting alternatives C. Funding agencies
 D. Bibliography C. Literature review
✔️ Correct Answer: B D. Grammar errors
✔️ Correct Answer: A
13. What should a literature review in 19. What should a study provide to
a proposal demonstrate? ensure ethical oversight?
A. Creative storytelling A. Research grant
B. Logical, critical relevance to the B. Approval from independent ethics
problem board
C. Excessive quotes C. International license
D. Historical storytelling D. Verbal summary
✔️ Correct Answer: B ✔️ Correct Answer: B
14. What strengthens a review of
literature section? 20. What is essential if a framework is
A. Use of outdated sources absent in a study?
B. Exclusion of theories A. Ignoring its relevance
C. Inclusion of recent and relevant B. Explaining why it was not needed
research C. Making assumptions
D. Using random quotes D. Using long quotes
✔️ Correct Answer: C ✔️ Correct Answer: B
15. What does excessive quoting in 21. What is one function of a
literature review indicate? conceptual framework?
A. Strong critique A. Increase writing length
B. Lack of original synthesis B. Structure the research problem
C. Deep understanding C. Replace data collection
D. Good memory D. Determine funding
✔️ Correct Answer: B ✔️ Correct Answer: B
22. How must all concepts in a
16. Which ethical concern must be framework be defined?
minimized in research design? A. Based on tradition
A. Cost B. Consistent with theory
B. Participant risk C. In random order
C. Workload D. As per personal preference
D. Research duration ✔️ Correct Answer: B
✔️ Correct Answer: B
17. What shows participants gave 23. How many variables should a
consent freely? hypothesis include?
A. Anonymous participation A. None
B. Institutional enforcement B. One
C. Voluntary informed consent C. At least two
D. Verbal agreement D. Unlimited
✔️ Correct Answer: C ✔️ Correct Answer: C
18. Which of the following would raise 24. What should a well-constructed
ethical concern? hypothesis contain?
A. Consent during stressful periods A. Personal opinion
B. Double-checking data B. Prediction
 C. Ambiguity D. Avoiding literature review
D. Literature review ✔️ Correct Answer: B
✔️ Correct Answer: B 28. Why is sample size justification
25. From where should hypotheses important?
naturally flow? A. To reduce content
A. Abstract B. For transparency and validity
B. Problem and theoretical C. To confuse reviewers
framework D. For ethical approval
C. References ✔️ Correct Answer: B
D. Data analysis
✔️ Correct Answer: B 29. What is the role of research
design?
26. What ensures proper participant A. Dictates grammar style
selection? B. Controls unwanted variables
A. Random assumptions C. Ensures ethical funding
B. Clearly defined sample selection D. Replaces data analysis
procedures ✔️ Correct Answer: B
C. Ignoring sampling methods 30. Why should enough design details
D. Avoiding bias reporting be included in a proposal?
✔️ Correct Answer: B A. For humor
27. How can sampling bias be B. For replication
addressed? C. For literature review
A. Ignoring it D. For rejection
B. Describing and minimizing it ✔️ Correct Answer: B
C. Hiding sample criteria
XVI:Writing a Research Proposal .

1. What is the first step in writing a 8. Which element ensures ethical

research proposal? integrity in a research proposal?
A. Writing the results section A. Budget
B. Developing data collection tools B. Literature review
C. Identifying the research problem ✅ C. Informed consent process ✅
D. Reviewing references D. Background of the researcher
2. Which of the following best describes 9. Which is NOT included in a typical
a research proposal? research proposal?
A. A clinical protocol A. Introduction
B. A detailed plan for a study ✅ B. Results ✅
C. A summary of published research C. Literature review
D. A hospital policy D. Methodology
3. What is expected in the introduction 10. Who typically reviews a proposal for
of a research proposal? ethical approval?
A. Statistical analysis A. Data analysts
B. Research tools B. Hospital staff
C. Background and significance of the C. Independent ethics board ✅
problem ✅ D. Government officials
D. Results of the study
4. Which component is essential in 11. When critiquing a study, you should:
justifying the need for the study? A. Avoid mentioning weaknesses
A. Abstract B. Focus only on grammar
B. Literature review ✅ C. Identify both strengths and
C. Conclusion weaknesses ✅
D. Appendices D. Discuss only the design
5. What should a well-formulated 12. Offering a rationale for an alternative
problem statement include? approach helps to:
A. The researcher’s CV A. Confuse readers
B. A list of references B. Justify criticisms objectively ✅
C. A clear description of the issue and C. Reject the study
its significance ✅ D. Shorten the critique
D. Budget estimation 13. Being objective in a critique means:
6. The purpose of a hypothesis in a A. Ignoring your opinion
research proposal is to: B. Avoiding personal bias ✅
A. Replace research questions C. Agreeing with the study
B. Define the sampling method D. Rewriting the paper
C. Predict relationships between 14. The critique should be:
variables ✅ A. Humorous and casual
D. Provide a theoretical review B. Vague and indirect
7. Which section outlines how C. Logically written and grammatically
participants are selected and correct ✅
managed? D. Focused only on weaknesses
A. Introduction 15. When suggesting alternatives in a
B. Sampling ✅ critique, they should be:
C. Data analysis A. Vague
D. Abstract B. Impractical
 C. Clearly justified ✅ 24. Participants under stress should:
D. Overly detailed A. Be ignored
B. Be excluded automatically
16. What makes a research problem C. Not be asked for consent
significant? D. Be protected from coercion ✅
A. Complexity 25. A study should avoid identifying
B. Use of jargon individuals to:
C. Relevance to public health ✅ A. Enhance credibility
D. Simplicity B. Avoid plagiarism
17. The purpose of a study should C. Protect confidentiality ✅
explain: D. Increase funding
A. Statistical results
B. Data collection tools 26. A conceptual framework provides:
C. What is to be accomplished ✅ A. Financial support
D. Budget details B. Background information
18. Variables in a research study should C. Theoretical basis for the study ✅
be: D. Ethical approval
A. Hidden 27. A missing framework may:
B. Described clearly ✅ A. Improve clarity
C. Assumed B. Strengthen the study
D. Ignored C. Weaken the study’s significance ✅
19. A well-written literature review is: D. Enhance sampling
A. Descriptive and outdated 28. A good hypothesis should:
B. Comprehensive and relevant ✅ A. Include one variable
C. Focused only on quotes B. Be vague
D. Limited to 3 sources C. Predict an outcome ✅
20. Quotations in a literature review D. Avoid theory
should be: 29. Hypotheses are derived from:
A. Copied extensively A. References
B. Avoided completely B. Results section
C. Balanced with paraphrasing ✅ C. Theoretical framework and research
D. The only source of evidence problem ✅
D. Budget analysis
21. One ethical responsibility in research 30. The sample size should be:
is to: A. Small and convenient
A. Maximize risk B. Justified and appropriate ✅
B. Bypass consent C. Equal to population
C. Minimize harm to participants ✅ D. Unrelated to design
D. Deceive for results
22. Informed consent must be: 31. Research design is selected based on:
A. Assumed A. Cost
B. Oral only B. Supervisor’s interest
C. Voluntary and informed ✅ C. Research question and level of
D. Omitted for minors inquiry ✅
23. Deception in studies should: D. Available forms
A. Be encouraged 32. Which aspect is critical in controlling
B. Be disclosed and justified ✅ unwanted variables?
C. Not be reviewed A. Informed consent
D. Be done secretly B. Sampling
 C. Validity measures ✅ 41. Study conclusions should refer to:
D. Literature review A. Introduction
33. For replication of study, the design B. Literature review
must be: C. Research questions and hypotheses
A. Innovative ✅
B. Confidential D. Budget section
C. Clearly described ✅ 42. Recommendations in the proposal
D. Excluded from the proposal must be:
34. A data collection instrument must be: A. Based on findings ✅
A. Long and complex B. Assumed from theory
B. Aligned with research questions ✅ C. Vague and broad
C. Made by the researcher only D. Future-oriented only
D. Avoided in qualitative studies 43. Which is true of recommendations for
35. Reliability and validity testing nursing practice?
ensures: A. Should be hypothetical
A. Ethical approval B. Should lack data support
B. Participant safety C. Should be data-driven ✅
C. Credibility of instruments ✅ D. Should avoid application
D. Budget efficiency 44. Generalization of findings depends
on:
36. Quantitative analysis methods depend A. Sample bias
on: B. Theory
A. Literature source C. Study limitations
B. Level of measurement ✅ D. Study design and population ✅
C. Sample opinion 45. Future research suggestions should
D. Background of researcher be:
37. Analysis methods should align with: A. Irrelevant
A. Hypotheses only B. Optional
B. Research questions ✅ C. Evidence-based ✅
C. Ethics approval D. Theoretical only
D. Consent forms
38. Which is NOT a component of 46. Which of the following is usually
statistical analysis? found at the end of a research
A. Predictability proposal?
B. Significance A. Problem statement
C. Interpretation B. Literature review
D. Literature review ✅ C. References ✅
39. Graphical displays must be: D. Hypothesis
A. Decorative 47. What is the function of the appendices
B. Complex in a research proposal?
C. Clear and accurate ✅ A. Present the main findings
D. Avoided B. Contain the background of the study
40. Rigor in qualitative analysis ensures: C. Include supporting documents like
A. Simplicity tools and consent forms ✅
B. Methodological trustworthiness ✅ D. Summarize conclusions
C. Use of statistics 48. The abstract of a proposal should:
D. Larger samples A. Be written after the study is
completed
B. Be a long detailed explanation
C. Provide a concise overview of the
 proposal ✅ B. Be irrelevant
D. Include only the literature review C. Reflect realistic costs ✅
49. A logically sequenced research D. Include researcher’s salary only
proposal: 57. A feasibility study includes an
A. Avoids repetition assessment of:
B. Enhances clarity and understanding A. Background theory
✅ B. Study limitations
C. Is not essential C. Availability of resources and
D. Focuses on conclusions only participants ✅
50. The bibliography in a research D. References used
proposal should include: 58. Which factor affects the feasibility of
A. Only books data collection?
B. Only recent references A. Research title
C. All sources cited in the text ✅ B. Statistical method
D. Informal web content only C. Accessibility to research setting ✅
D. Publication journal
51. Which is NOT a criterion for 59. Time management in a proposal is
reviewing a research proposal? reflected in the:
A. Relevance to practice A. Literature review
B. Ethical soundness B. Sampling section
C. Writing style only ✅ C. Timeline or Gantt chart ✅
D. Clarity of objectives D. Ethical considerations
52. A well-structured proposal improves: 60. Funding agencies require proposals to
A. Confusion be:
B. Time constraints A. Creative and philosophical
C. Chances of approval and funding ✅ B. Lengthy
D. Participant recruitment C. Practical and clearly budgeted ✅
53. A proposal reviewer will likely reject D. Rich in quotes
a study if it:
A. Lacks ethical safeguards ✅ 61. A research proposal should
B. Is detailed demonstrate:
C. Has a hypothesis A. Researcher’s opinions
D. Uses appropriate design B. Clinical outcomes and implications
54. Clear research questions help in: ✅
A. Avoiding data collection C. Media impact
B. Reducing sample size D. Historical trends
C. Designing relevant methodology ✅ 62. Practice implications must be:
D. Finalizing the results A. Broad and theoretical
55. The feasibility of a research proposal B. Vague
involves: C. Directly linked to research findings
A. Grammar accuracy ✅
B. Researcher’s attire D. Described in the appendix
C. Time, cost, and access to participants 63. When stating limitations, researchers
✅ should:
D. Statistical formula A. Hide them
B. Explain how they affect the results ✅
56. The budget in a research proposal C. Ignore them
should: D. Exaggerate them
A. Be exaggerated
64. Research proposals help guide:
A. Future funding only
B. The entire research process ✅
C. Marketing
D. Grant writing
65. Which is a key outcome of a well-
planned proposal?
A. Increased participant burden
B. Ethical violations
C. Quality and trustworthy results ✅
D. Reduced reliability

66. Proofreading your research proposal

ensures:
A. Ethical approval
B. Clarity, accuracy, and
professionalism ✅
C. Data reliability
D. Theoretical grounding
67. Before submission, a proposal should
be reviewed for:
A. Results interpretation
B. Typing speed
C. Logical flow and completeness ✅
D. Graphical displays only
68. A strong research proposal aligns
with:
A. Global politics
B. Institutional goals and research
priorities ✅
C. Media trends
D. Student preferences
69. Which of the following can improve
your proposal quality?
A. Using overly technical jargon
B. Reviewing past successful proposals
✅
C. Skipping ethical approval
D. Avoiding critique
70. Submitting a proposal to the ethics
committee is important for:
A. Funding opportunities
B. Approval of methodology only
C. Protecting participants’ rights and
safety ✅
D. Writing a thesis
 IMPORTAN MCQS c. Grounded theory
d. Historical
1. Knowledge developed from Research can be
7. Which of the following is a characteristic of
used for:
qualitative research?
a. Description
a. Deductive process
b. Explanation
b. Control over the context
c. Prediction
c. Fixed research design
d. All of the above
d. Inductive process
2. The appropriation and use of knowledge
8. Which of the following qualitative methods
from other fields or disciplines to guide
focuses on description and interpretation of
nursing practice is:
cultural behavior?
a. Tradition
a. Phenomenology
b. Authority
b. Grounded theory
c. Borrowing
c. Ethnography
d. Trial and error
d. Symbolic interactionism
3. Which method can be applicable for
9. Declaration of Helsinki (1964/1975) is
collecting qualitative data?
related to:
a. Artifacts (Visual)
a. Qualitative research
b. Interviews
b. Genetic research
c. Media products (Textual, Visual and
c. Ethical standards in research
sensory)
d. Research design
d. All of these

10. Three factors are important regarding the

4. Which of the following is a method of
rights of the participants include all except:
qualitative research?
a. Confidentiality
a. Grounded theory research
b. Anonymity
b. Correlational research
c. Voluntary participation
c. Quasi experimental research
d. Jurisprudence
d. Experimental research

11. The principles of ethics in nursing research

5. Deductive reasoning is applied in:
include:
a. Qualitative research
a. Beneficence
b. Quantitative research
b. Respect for human dignity
c. Action research
c. Justice
d. Applied research
d. All of the above
6. Which of the following is a qualitative
12. Informed consent process is strictly
research design where lived experiences of
followed to insure the rights of the
individual are examined in their “life-
prospective subjects in research, elements of
world”?
Informed Consent include except one:
a. Ethnography
a. Essential Information for Consent
b. Phenomenology
 b. Comprehension of Consent Acknowledge, Critical review of the
Information literature.
c. Involuntary consent
d. Competency to give consent 17. While writing a Literature Review, your
literature review should include:
13. A hypothesis which a researcher tries to a. Include an introduction defining
disprove is: your topic and explaining the
a. Research hypothesis purpose of your review of the
b. Null hypothesis literature
c. Null hypothesis b. Be organized by common themes or
d. Alternate hypothesis categories
c. Contain your summary and analysis
14. The systematic, explicit, and reproducible of each work including its
method for identifying, evaluating and importance to the overall topic as
synthesizing the existing body of completed well as its relationship to the other
and recorded work produced by researchers, referenced works
scholars, and practitioners is: d. All of the above
a. Literature review
b. Consent form 18. The research topic Explore the experiences
c. Data collection of nurses related clinical practices is:
d. None of the above a. Qualitative research
b. Quantitative research
15. We can ensure Trustworthiness and Quality c. Both A and B
in qualitative research by: d. None of the above
a. Dependability
b. Transferability 19. A concise, clear statement of the specific
c. Informed Consent goal or aim of the study that is generated
d. Both A and B from the research problem.
a. Research hypothesis
16. Step for literature review are: b. Research problem
a. Acknowledge, Select a topic, Search c. Research purpose
for the sources, Critical review of d. None of the above
the literature, Write the review
b. Select a topic, Search for the 20. The setting is the location in which a study
sources, Critical review of the is conducted. The setting in which the
literature, Write the review, artificial environment is created for doing
Acknowledge research is:
c. Write the review¸ Select a topic, a. Natural setting
Search for the sources, Critical b. Partially controlled setting
review of the literature, c. Highly controlled
Acknowledge d. None of the above
d. Search for the sources; Write the 21. Rigor is the striving for excellence in
review¸ Select a topic, research, which involves all except one:
a. Discipline
 b. Adherence to detail d. Descriptive design
c. Strict accuracy 27. Important characteristics of a true
d. Contradict with detail experimental study are except one:
22. A study was carried out on the association a. Randomization
between smoking and lung cancer. The b. Manipulation
findings are applied to the population who c. Control
has similar characteristics is: d. Natural approach
a. Rigor 28. Case reports (study) are most
b. Generalizeability useful___________.
c. Control a. When you encounter common cases
d. None of the above and need more information
23. A nurse carried out a research study which b. When new symptoms or outcomes
was formal, objective, and systematic. She are unidentified
used numerical data for data collection about c. When developing practice
the independent and dependent variables. guidelines
The statement shows that study design is: d. When the population being studied
a. Quantitative design is very large
b. Qualitative design 29. A longitudinal or prospective study is also
c. Grounded theory referred to as a(n)_________
d. Historical theory a. Ecological study
b. Cross sectional study
24. Which research design has the least
concerned about generalizing its findings? c. Cohort study
d. Observational study
a. Experimental
30. When each member of a population has an
b. Quasi experimental equally likely chance of being selected, this
c. Comparative is called:
d. Descriptive a. A nonrandom sampling method
25. The researcher wants to study the b. A quota sample
association of smoking with cancer. For this c. A snowball sample
purpose, the researcher reviews the medical d. An Equal probability selection
method
records to examine previous history of
smoking in Cancer patients. 31. Which of the following techniques yields a
a. Prospective study simple random sample?
b. Retrospective study a. Choosing volunteers from an
c. Future study introductory psychology class to
d. None of the above participate
26. A researcher used research design to test an b. Listing the individuals by ethnic
group and choosing a proportion
intervention for reducing anxiety and
from within each ethnic group at
increasing post operative activity level in random.
male cardiac patients. The intervention c. Numbering all the elements of a
involved “support group”. Which research sampling frame and then using a
design will be used by the researcher: random number table to pick
a. Experimental design cases from the table.
d. Purposively selecting schools, and
b. Qualitative design
then sampling everyone within the
c. Grounded theory school.
32. In which of the following nonrandom obtained value is lower than the actual
sampling techniques does the researcher ask value.
the research participants to identify other a. Random Error
potential research participants? b. Systematic error
a. Snowball c. Reliability error
b. Convenience d. None of the above
c. Purposive 38. If a scale is used to weigh a subject, the
d. Quota scale should indicate the same weight each
33. ___________ is a set of elements taken time the subject steps on and off the scale.
from a larger population according to certain this statement best indicates in research:
rules. a. Direct measurement
b. Indirect measurement
a. Sample c. Validity
d. Reliability
b. Population 39. Data collection is precise, systematic,
gathering of information relevant to the
c. Statistic research purpose or the specific objective,
questions, or hypotheses of a study. Which
d. Element major types of data collection methods are
used in nursing?
34. The student researcher wants to study a a. Observation
large population in Khyber pukhtun Khwa
b. Physiological measurement
(KPK) and used random sampling
technique. The purpose of sampling in a c. Interview
research study is except one: d. All of the above
a. Minimize cost 40. Focus groups are used to study qualitative
b. Minimize time issues, analyze policy, assess consumer
c. It saves labour satisfaction, quality of care, explore pt care
d. It gives late result problems etc. which statement is not
35. The process of assigning numbers or values applicable to focus group data collection
to individuals’ health status, objects, events,
method?
or situations using a set of rules is:
a. Sampling a. Group dynamics help people to
b. Measurement suppress their views
c. Reliability b. Interviewer anxiety is reduced
d. None of the above c. Usually 6-10 participants in a group
36. The student carried out a research study, d. Sorting people with similar
in which the measurement was focused on
characteristics in one group
abstract ideas and concepts like stress,
caring, coping , anxiety, depression,
compliance etc. this measurement is: 41. Research that is done to examine the
a. Direct measurement findings of someone else using the "same
b. Measurement error variables but different people" is which of
c. Indirect measurement the following?
d. Systemic error a. exploration
37. The student researcher measured the blood b. hypothesis
pressure of a patient with the complain of c. replication
hypertension. In his measurement the d. empiricism
obtained value is higher than the actual
whereas in the other measurement the
42. A condition or characteristic that can take on 48. Which of the following is not a quantitative
different values or which can be modifiable approach to research?
is called_________. a. Statistics
a. A constant b. Quasi-experiment
b. A variable c. Survey
c. A cause-and-effect relationship d. Randomised Control Trial
d. A descriptive relationship

43. In research, something that does not "vary" 49. Each nurse participants was asked to
is called a ___________. identify a problem. After the identification
a. Variable of the research problem, which of the
b. Method following should be done?
c. Constant
a. Methodology
d. Control group
44. The post RN student carried out a case b. Review of related literature
control study , in which the case are those c. Acknowledgement
who:
d. Formulate hypothesis
a. Do not have the diseases 50. You are interested to study the effects of
b. Have the disease medication and tactile stimulation on the
c. Have received intervention in the pain experienced by the cancer patients.
study What type of variable is pain?
d. All of the above a. Dependent
45. _____ results if you fail to reject the null
b. X Variable
hypothesis when the null hypothesis is
actually false. c. Independent
a. Type I error d. Interdependent
b. Type II error
c. Type III error
d. Type IV error
46. When a extraneous variable systematically
varies with the independent variable and
influences the dependent variable, it is
called:
a. Another dependent variable
b. A confounding variable
c. A moderating variable
d. An unreliable variable
47. When might a researcher not carry out a full
review of the literature at the start of a
study?
a. In the case of some qualitative
research designs so that the
researcher is not influenced or
biased by the ideas that already
exist.
b. To save time.
c. To save money.
d. If the literature is new and provide a
firm basis for the study.
 IMPORTANT MCQS

1. Nursing research is best described as: a. The data analysis techniques

to be used in the study
a. Method to select a frame of b. The levels of measurement to
reference be used in the study
b. Set of rules that govern the c. How a variable or concept
selection of subjects will be defined and measured in
c. Series of steps completed in a the study
logical order d. How the outcome of the
d. a scientific process that research objectives for the study
refines or validates existing will be measured
knowledge and generates new
knowledge 6. A statement of the expected
relationship between two or more
2. Which of the following research is variables is known as the:
least concerned about generalization a. Concept definition
of findings: b. Hypothesis
c. Problem statement
a. Quantitative Studies d. Research question
b. Qualitative Studies
c. Experimental studies 7. In a qualitative research study usually
d. All of the above you would not expect to see:
3. The purpose of a literature review is a. Research question
to: b. Research aim
c. Hypothesis
a. Use the literature to identify d. Operational definition
present knowledge and what is
unknown 8. Deductive reasoning is involved
b. Assist in defining the primarily in:
problem and operational
definition
c. Identify strengths and a. Quantitative Research
weaknesses of previous studies b. Experimental research
d. All of the above c. Qualitative research
d. Both qualitative and quantitative
4. The statement 'To identify the
relationship between the time the
patient spends on the operating table 9. An interview which has pre-defined
and the development of pressure set of questions to be asked from each
ulcers' is best described as a research: participant is called as:

a. Objective a. Unstructured Interview

b. Aim b. Semi-structured interview
c. Question
c. Structured interview
d. Hypothesis
d. Telephone interview
5. An operational definition specifies:
10. A sampling design in which the d. All of the above
elements in the population do not have
a known or pre-determined chance of 15. Which of the following is correct if a
being selected as a sample subject is participant wishes to withdraw from a
known as: study?

a. They must continue to

a. Convenience sampling
participate as they have signed
b. Purposive sampling the consent for
c. Non-probability sampling b. Withdrawal from the study has
d. None of the above to occur through the ethics
committee
c. They may be able to withdraw if
11. The researcher needs to clearly
they negotiate with the research
identify the aim of the study; the
team
question to be answered; the
d. Participation is voluntary and
population of interest; information to
they can withdraw any time
be collected, and feasibility in order to
decide on the research:
16. Researchers can ensure confidentiality
by:
a. Design and method
b. Purpose and assumptions
a. Using identification numbers or
c. Design and assumptions
pseudonyms for participants
d. Purpose and data analysis
b. Not discussing participants in
any data gathering with others
12. A variable that changes due to the
c. Keeping any identifying
action of another variable is known as
information separate from the
the:
data
d. All of the above
a. Independent variable
b. Extraneous variable
17. One of the requirements for informed
c. Dependent variable
consent is that the participant/s have
d. Complex variable
been:
13. Researchers have a duty to avoid,
a. Told they have been selected
prevent or minimise risk to study
because they meet the criteria
participants. This is based on the
for inclusion
principle of:
b. Told they need to read the ethics
proposal
a. Human rights
c. Informed of the risks and
b. Non-maleficence
benefits of the study
c. Beneficence
d. Informed the study has approval
d. Justice
from administration
14. “Patients who exercise 30 minutes
every day will have optimal blood
18. The principle underpinning voluntary
pressure as compared to those who do
and informed consent is:
not exercise”. This statement is called:
a. Beneficence
a. Research problem
b. Autonomy
b. Research purpose
c. Non-maleficence
c. Research hypothesis
d. Respect
 22. A researcher plans to interview
19. Researchers must seek approval from parents who have had a stillborn child.
a Human Research Ethics Committee Aware that talking about this event
if they intend to: may cause distress, the researcher has
a plan of action if this occurs during
a. Collect data from people by data collection. The principle
Interview or survey underlying this plan is that of:
b. Collect data by observation of
people a. Maleficence
c. Perform an b. Self-determination
intervention/treatment c. Autonomy
d. All of the above d. Non-maleficence

23. If you collected data from a patient

20. An ethnographer spent one year in a who had not been asked to give
remote village of KPK to observe the consent, which of the following
health seeking behaviour of women in principles would you have broken?
that area. His main purpose of
spending such a long time in the a. Autonomy and human rights
community was to get an “insider b. Beneficence and autonomy
view” also called as: c. Human rights and maleficence
d. Beneficence and dignity
a. An emic perspective
b. Etic perspective 24. You have noted a rare case of
c. Both emic and etic perspective suspected Steven Johnson syndrom in
d. All of the above the Community, other residents in the
community are still not affected. As a
21. You are invited to be a participant in a nurse researcher you want to conduct
research study and have been given an a study on this patient to understand
information sheet about the study.
more about the occurrence of this
Which of the following statements
disease. Which of the following
best includes the information you
would expect to see included in this research design would you use:
sheet?
a. Cross-sectional research design
a. A brief summary of the b. Case report
literature review, focus of the c. Correlational design
research and how the research d. Case Study
will affect you
b. What the research is about, 25. Qualitative Case study is a preferred
benefits and risks of the method of research in all of the
research and how your
following except:
privacy will be respected
c. A brief summary of the
literature review, how findings a. How or why question are asked
will be disseminated and a place b. The researcher has full
to sign your consent control over the surroundings
d. What the research is about, c. There is a contemporary focus
benefits of the study and how within real life context
your privacy will be respected d. A problem that seeks holistic
understanding of the event
26. A researcher is interested to know the 30. All of the following are the different
knowledge of Cardiac nurses methods to conduct a cross sectional
regarding cardiac drugs. The research study except:
instrument being developed by this
research is a questionnaire. Which of a. Door to door visits to fill
the following design would be best to questionnaire
conduct this study: b. Surveys
c. Emails
a. Cross sectional study design d. Head counts
b. Correlational
c. Longitudinal 31. Research for the pursuit of knowledge
d. Experimental which as no direct relevance to
clinical practice is called as:
27. Nurses in your unit are always a. Basic research
complaining about their salaries and b. Applied research
working conditions at the Unit. As a c. Translational research
researcher you want to explore why d. None of the above
nurses are not satisfied with their
salaries and working conditions, to 32. A researcher is interested to assess the
make further recommendations for knowledge of nurses regarding needle
policy makers. Which research design stick injuries at three major tertiary
could help you in depth understanding care hospitals in Peshawar. Total
of participants’ views: number of nurses in these hospitals
are 1200. What would be the best
a. Outcome research approach to conduct this study:
b. Quantitative research
c. Qualitative research a. Case report
d. All of the above b. Case series
c. Descriptive cross sectional
28. Which of the following is not a survey
preferred method of qualitative data d. Quasi experimental study
collection:
33. Which of the following is not a
a. In-depth interviews trustworthy data based source:
b. Focus group discussions
c. Structured questionnaires a. CINHAL
d. Field notes b. Pub Med
c. Scopus
29. Which of the following qualitative d. Wikipedia
approach focuses to explore the basic
social process: 34. Which of the following is strongest
evidence among the available options:
a. Ethnography
b. Phenomenology a. Correlational studies
c. Case Study b. Qualitative studies
d. Grounded Theory
 c. Descriptive studies d. Nursing comfort
d. Grounded Theory
39. A research strategy in which more
35. You are interested to conduct a than one research approaches are
literature review on whether BSc N combined to undertake the
prepared nurses are better than investigation is called as:
diploma holder nurses in clinical
practice. You have narrowly defined a. Multistage Sampling
the scope of your review, included b. Two Stage sampling
studies between year 2000-2015 and c. Triangulation
made explicit inclusion/exclusion d. None of the above
criteria to include only quantitative
studies. What type of review is this: 40. A description or summary by
somebody other than original
a. General literature review researcher eg a review article should
b. Systematic review be classified as:
c. Integrative review
d. Meta-synthesis a. Primary source
b. Secondary source
36. A qualitative researcher is planning to c. Original research
undertake a critical analysis of d. None of the above
primary studies on experiences of
women with breast cancer in such a 41. A research that is concerned with the
way to derive a new theory based on decision making process to
all these studies. Which of the implement, continue or adopt a new
following review should he undertake: program that may be or not in the
public health field is called as:
a. Systematic review
b. Meta-synthesis a. Scientific research
c. Meta-analysis b. Evaluation research
d. Integrative review c. Basic research
d. Applied research
37. Evidence based practice has broader
focus than research use and include: 42. All of the following are features of
qualitative inquiry except:
a. Clinical expertise
b. Scientific evidence a. There are multiple realities
c. Patients’ perspectives b. Reality is socially constructed
d. All of the above c. The knower and the known and
inseparable
38. All of the followings are the benefits d. Reality is independent of
of evidence based nursing practice context
except:
43. A researcher is conducting a study to
a. Better patient outcomes explore the health care delivery
b. Gold Standard plan process at a tertiary care hospital in
c. Magnet status
 Peshawar. He has so far conducted 13 d. Researcher’s personality
interviews, when should he stop
collecting further data: 48. Qualitative researchers usually call
individuals who are included in the
a. After 30 interviews study as:
b. After achieving theoretical
saturation a. Participants
c. By calculating sample size b. Respondents
d. After 40 interviews c. Subjects
d. All of the above
44. A research problem is an area of
concern where there is a gap in the 49. Exploring the symptoms of ovarian
knowledge base needed for nursing cancer is only possible by studying
practice, it will be significant when it patients who are suffering from this
has the potential to: disease. The researcher who want to
study ovarian cancer symptoms
a. Generate or refine knowledge should ideally:
b. Identify research objectives
c. Influence current practice a. Design experimental studies to
d. Both A & C evaluate the effectiveness of
interventions
45. Heidegger challenged the notion that b. Employ statistical formulas to
describing human experience is not see how many patients have
possible without understanding it. He disease
proposed doing: c. Design qualitative studies to
interview participants
a. Descriptive phenomenology experiencing the disease
b. Interpretive phenomenology d. None of the above
c. Classical phenomenology
d. Transcendental phenomenology 50. Operational definitions are included in
the study proposal because these:
46. The sources of research problem
include: a. Provide theoretical meaning to
study variables
a. Clinical practice b. Are often derived from theory
b. Peer/researcher interaction c. are developed to be able to
c. Literature review measure the conceptual
d. All of the above definition in a concrete
manner
47. When examining the feasibility of a d. All of the above
research problem all of the following
should be considered except: 51. You are interested to explore the
developments in nursing profession in
a. Researcher’s expertise KPK since independence of Pakistan
b. Availability of funds till date. This could be a resource
c. Participants availability extensive inquiry and you may have to
include multiple data collection
 approaches. What could be the most d. Interval Scale
suitable qualitative design you would
use: 56. Test performance measurements that
have been carefully developed over
a. Case Study years using large representative
b. Ethnography samples using a standardized test with
c. Grounded Theory extensive reliability and validity are
d. Historical research called:

52. Variables that exist in all studies and a. Norm-referenced testing

can effect the measurement of the b. Criterion referenced testing
study variables and relationships c. Ordinal Scale referenced testing
among these variables are called as: d. None of the above

a. Dependent variables 57. Research studies are conducted to

b. Independent variables generate evidence based practice and
c. Extraneous variables such studies have which of the
d. Demographic variables following function:

53. All of the followings can be described a. Description

as control in quantitative research b. Explanation
except: c. Control
d. All of the above
a. The power to direct or
manipulate factors to achieve 58. Seeking only limitation in a study is
the desired outcome called:
b. Imposing rules to decrease the
possibility of error a. Critique
c. May be used as a method to b. Criticism
decrease bias c. Appraisal
d. the extent to which findings d. All of the above
can be applied to other groups
59. A research hypothesis is neither used
54. Which of the followings can be nor is needed in which of the
classified as types of descriptive study following major designs:
designs:
a. Survey a. Qualitative research design
b. Case Contol b. Quantitative research design
c. Case study c. Outcome research
d. Both A and C d. Epidemiological study designs

55. Which of the following scale of 60. In your unit you were told that
measurements has absolute zero point: massage therapy is effective for lower
back pain, but you are not sure
a. Nominal scale whether this is true or not. As a BScN
b. Ordinal scale
c. Ratio Scale
 graduate what will you do before
adopting such recommendation:

a. Access the exact study

material and assess it
strengths and limitations
b. Accept it true at its face value
c. Conduct an experiment on
message therapy
d. None of the above

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