17/05/2025 Code-B

CoE-XI

Corporate Office: Aakash Educational Services Limited, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus – 2,
Plot No. 13, Sector – 18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015

MM: 720 Fortnightly Test-02 (COE-XI) Time: 180 Min.

(for NEET-2027)

Physics : Motion in a Straight Line

Chemistry : Structure of Atom
Botany : Cell Cycle & Cell Division, The Living World
Zoology : Biomolecules

Instructions:
(i) There are four subjects: Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. Each subject has 45 questions. You have
to attempt all the questions.
(ii) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iv) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(v) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vi) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response, 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

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CoE-XI Fortnightly Test-02

Physics

1. The acceleration of a particle starting from rest, 5. In 2 seconds, a particle goes from A to B,
varies with time according to the relation moving on a circular path of radius 7 m as
a = 2t + c, where c is a positive constant. The shown in figure. The magnitude of the average
velocity of the particle after time t will be speed of particle is

(1) t2 + c (2) t(c + 1)

t2
(3) t2 + ct (4)  ct
2

2. The position x of a particle moving along x-axis

varies with time t as x = 8t – 2t2, where x is in
metre and t is in second. The particle reverses
its direction of motion at position x equal to
(1) 11 m s–1
(1) 4 m (2) 16 m
(2) 22 m s–1
(3) 8 m (4) 6 m
(3) 7 m s–1
3. Consider the following statements and choose
the correct option. (4) 3.5 m s–1

Statement-I: If a particle has zero velocity at 6. A rocket is fired vertically up from the ground
any instant, then its acceleration must be zero with an acceleration of 5 m s–2. The fuel is
at that instant. finished in 30 s and the rocket continues to
move up. The maximum height attained by
Statement-II: For uniform motion, velocity-time rocket from ground is
graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis.
(1) 2250 m (2) 1125 m
Statement-III: The magnitude of displacement
is always greater than or equal to the distance (3) 3375 m (4) 2200 m
traversed by an object.
7. The acceleration-time graph of a particle
Statement-IV: For motion with uniform moving along a straight line is shown in the
acceleration, position(x)-time(t) graph is a figure. What is the velocity of the particle at
parabola. t = 8 s, if initial velocity of particle is 5 m s–1?

(1) Only statements II and IV are correct

(2) Only statements II, III and IV are correct

(3) Only statements I, II and III are correct

(4) All statements I, II, III and IV are correct

4. The position s of a particle moving in a straight

line is given by, s = 4t3 – 2t2 + 2t + 13, where s
is in m and t in s. The initial velocity of the
particle is

(1) 2 m s–1 (2) 13 m s–1 (1) 30 m s–1 (2) 35 m s–1

(3) 25 m s–1 (4) 20 m s–1
(3) 4 m s–1 (4) 12 m s–1

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Fortnightly Test-02 CoE-XI
8. A particle is moving along a straight line such 3
(3) m s –2 (4) 5 m s–2
that square of its velocity varies with time as 5
shown in the figure. The acceleration of the
particle at t = 2 s is 12. A car was moving at 20 m s–1 on a straight
road. A child suddenly appears on road, the car
driver applies brakes but took 0.2 s for
implementation of brakes. If retardation of car
was 5 m s–2. What was stopping distance of
car? (assume uniform retardation)
(1) 40 m (2) 44 m
(3) 36 m (4) 4 m
13. Given are two statements:
Statement I: Area under velocity-time graph
gives the distance travelled.
Statement II: For one-dimensional motion, a
constant speed in an interval must have non-
1 zero acceleration in that interval.
(1) m s –2
2 In the light of above statements, choose the
(2) 1 m s–2 most appropriate answer from the following
(3) 2 m s–2 (1) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) 4 m s–2 (2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
9. A balloon is moving vertically upwards with (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
velocity 10 m s–1. It releases a stone which incorrect
comes down to the ground in 10 s. The height (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
of the balloon from the ground at the moment correct
when the stone was released is 14. The position of an object moving along straight
(1) 200 m (2) 100 m line (x-axis) is given as x = 2t + 3t2, where x in
(3) 400 m (4) 300 m m and t in s. What is average velocity during
first two second of motion?
10. The distance travelled by a particle starting
from rest and moving with an acceleration (1) 16 m s–1 (2) 8 m s–1
4 m s–2 in the 2nd second is (3) 4 m s–1 (4) 14 m s–1
(1) 2 m (2) 6 m 15. Water drops are falling at a regular interval of
(3) 4 m (4) 10 m time from a certain height H above the ground.
At the instant the fifth drop is released, the first
11. A car is moving on a straight road. The velocity one just reaches the ground. The height of the
of the car varies with time as shown in figure. second drop from the ground is
The magnitude of average acceleration of car
from t = 0 to t = 12 s is H 7H
(1) (2)
16 16

9H 9H
(3) (4)
16 7

16. The position-time graph of two particles A and

B are straight lines making angles of 37° and
30° respectively with time axis. If the velocity
of A is vA and that of B is vB, then the value of
vB
is
vA

4 4
(1) (2)
3 3
5 4
(1) Zero (2) m s –2 (3) 1 (4)
3 3 3

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CoE-XI Fortnightly Test-02
17. The variation of position of a particle moving
along a straight line is shown in the figure. The
magnitude of average velocity from t = 0 to
t = 6 s will be
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
21. The velocity(v) of a particle moving along
(1) 1 m s–1 x-axis, varies with its position x as shown in the
(2) 2 m s–1 figure. The acceleration(a) of the particle varies
with position(x) as
(3) 0.5 m s–1
(4) 4.75 m s–1
1
18. A body covers first part of its journey with a
3
1
velocity of 4 m s–1, next part with a velocity
3
of 2 m s–1 and rest of the journey with a velocity
9x 3
3 m s–1. The average velocity of the body will (1) a = –
be 16 4
9x 3
(1) 2 m s–1 (2) 3 m s–1 (2) a  – 
16 4
36 12
(3) m s –1 (4) m s –1 9x 3
13 13 (3) a  
16 4
19. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an
initial speed u from the top of a tower, reaches 9x 2 3
(4) a  
the ground with a speed 4u. The height of the 16 4
tower is
2 2
22. A ball is released from top of a tower of height
(1) u (2) 15u H. It takes T time to reach the ground. What
2g g T
will be the position of the ball at time ?
2 2 6
(3) 15u (4) 16u
2g g
H
20. For the given acceleration (a) versus time (t) (1) m from the ground
36
graph of a body, the body is initially at rest. The
velocity(v) versus time(t) graph is best
H
represented by (2) m from the ground
35

6H
(3) m from the ground
35

35 H
(4) m from the ground
36

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Fortnightly Test-02 CoE-XI
23. The velocity of a particle is given by travelled in the last second from the start is
v  120 – 10x, where x is position in m and v 25 m, the distance travelled in first second is

is velocity in m s–1. Its acceleration at x = 5 m (1) 7.14 m (2) 3.57 m

will be (3) 2.16 m (4) 14.28 m
(1) 15 m s–2 (2) – 5 m s–2 29. Speed of a train is increasing linearly with time.
(3) – 10 m s–2 (4) 10 m s–2 The train passes a station with speed 4 m/s
and acquires a speed of 12 m/s after 10 s. The
24. A lift is moving up with acceleration 5 m s–2. A
speed of the train, 5 s after passing the station
person inside the lift throws the ball upwards
will be
with a velocity 15 m s–1 relative to lift. The
maximum height reached by the ball with (1) 4 m s–1 (2) 8 m s–1
respect to the lift will be (3) 10 m s–1 (4) 12 m s–1
(1) 15 m 30. The velocity-time graph for the vertical
(2) 11.25 m component of the velocity of a body thrown
upwards from the ground and landing on the
(3) 22.5 m
roof of a building is given in the figure. The
(4) 7.5 m height of the building is
25. A ball is thrown downwards with speed of
60 m s–1 from top of a building 180 m high and
simultaneously another ball is thrown vertically
upwards with a speed of 30 m s–1 from the foot
of the building. The time when both the balls
will meet, is
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s
(3) 3 s (4) 4 s
26. Two objects A and B are moving towards each
other with velocities 5 m s–1 and 13 m s–1
respectively as shown. The velocity of A with
respect to B is (1) 240 m (2) 80 m
(3) 320 m (4) 160 m
31. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
(1) 7 m s–1 towards right Assertion(A): A body is thrown vertically
upwards with an initial speed 40 m s–1 from
(2) 8 m s–1 towards left ground. It falls back to ground after some time.
(3) 18 m s–1 towards right During this time duration, change in velocity of
the body is zero.
(4) 18 m s–1 towards left
Reason(R): Average acceleration of the body
27. For a particle moving along x-axis, acceleration during this time is zero.
is given as a = 6v3, where a is in m s–2 and v is
In the light of the above statements, Choose
in m s–1. If the velocity of the particle is 2 m s–1
the correct answer from the options given
at x = 0, the velocity at x = 2 m is
below.
–2 1 (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(1) m s –1 (2) – m s –1
23 23 correct explanation of (A)
(3) 23 m s–1 (4) – 23 m s –1 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
2 correct explanation of (A)
28. A car accelerates with uniform rate from rest on (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
a straight road for four seconds. The distance
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
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CoE-XI Fortnightly Test-02
32. Match the column (I) with column (II) and 36. Acceleration vs time (a–t) graph of a body
choose the correct option. starting from rest moving on a straight line is
given by the following diagram

Column (I) Column (II)

(i) Area under (a) Gives velocity
velocity-time
graph
(ii) Area under (b) Gives
acceleration- acceleration
time graph Corresponding velocity-time(v-t) graph is

(iii) Slope of (c) Gives

velocity-time displacement
graph
(iv) Slope of (d) Gives change in (1) (2)
position-time velocity
graph
(1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(2) (i)-(c),(ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(3) (i)-(b),(ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(4) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d) (3) (4)

33. When Shubham left his home for Gurugram

office by his car, his meter reading was 37. A car travels from A to B with speed v1 and
10250 km. When he returns home after 3 hours returns to A with speed v2, the average velocity
the reading is 10340 km. The average speed of of the car is
the car during this period is v1  v 2
(1) Zero (2)
(1) Zero (2) 5 km h–1 2
2v1v 2 v 1v 2
(3) 30 km h–1 (4) 10 km h–1 (3) (4)
v1  v 2 2 v 1  v 2 
34. An athlete takes 4 s to reach his maximum
speed of 36 km h–1 after starting from rest. The 38. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
magnitude of his average acceleration is Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
(1) 5 m s–2
Assertion(A): A moving body may have zero
(2) 2.5 m s–2
distance covered during a time interval.
(3) 10 m s–2
Reason(R): If a body returns to its original
(4) 9 m s–2 position then displacement covered by the
th body becomes zero.
3
35. A body is fired upwards from ground. At   In the light of the above statements, choose the
 4
correct answer from the options given below.
of maximum height, the velocity of the body is
5 m s–1. The maximum height attained by the (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
body from ground will be (g = 10 m s–2) correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(1) 5 m (2) 5
m
4 2 correct explanation of (A)

(3) 15 m (4) 5m (3) (A) is true but (R) is false

4
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

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Fortnightly Test-02 CoE-XI
39. A stone is released from a balloon going up (3) 15 m s–1
with acceleration g. Acceleration of stone after –1
the release is (g is acceleration due to gravity) (4) 5 10 m s
(1) Zero 43. Velocity versus time graph for a body projected
(2) g downward vertically upwards from the top of a tower will
(3) 2g upward be
(4) 2g downward (1) Parabola
40. A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the (2) Ellipse
ground. It crosses a point at height of 50 m
twice at an interval of 6 seconds. The velocity (3) Hyperbola
with which ball is thrown up is (g = 10 m s–2)
(4) Straight line
(1) 19 m s–1 (2) 10 19 m s–1
44. Two stones are thrown from top of a tower, one
(3) 5 38 m s–1 (4) 38 m s–1 vertically upward and other downward with
41. An object is dropped from the top of a tower. If same speed. Ratio of their speeds when they
it travels a distance x in the first second of its hit the ground will be
motion and a distance 9x in the last second
then height of the tower is (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1
(1) 125 m (2) 625 m (3) 1: 2 (4) 2 :1
(3) 250 m (4) 500 m
42. A particle moving with uniform acceleration 45. A 125 m long train moving to east at a speed of
along x-axis crosses the points x = 20 m and 20 m s–1. A bird flying towards west with a
x = 60 m with velocity 10 m s–1 and 20 m s–1 speed of 5 m s–1 crosses the train. The time
respectively. The velocity with which it crosses taken by the bird to cross the train would be
point x = 40 m is
(1) 2 s (2) 5 s
–1
(1) 2 10 m s
(3) 25 s (4) 8.33 s
–1
(2) 3 10 m s

Chemistry

46. The kinetic energy of an electron in 3rd Bohr 49. Given below are two statements: One is
orbit of He+ ion is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled
as Reason R.
(1) 8.2 eV
Assertion(A): It is possible to determine
(2) 7.1 eV simultaneously, the exact position and exact
(3) 9.3 eV momentum (or velocity) of an electron.

(4) 6.04 eV Reason(R): In case of a moving electron, if

uncertainty in position is reduced, then
47. In Balmer series of hydrogen atom which uncertainty in velocity is also reduced.
electronic transition causes 2nd line?
In the light of above statements, choose the
(1) 5th orbit to 2nd orbit most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
(2) 5th orbit to 1st orbit
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(3) 4th orbit to 2nd orbit
correct explanation of (A)
(4) 4th orbit to 1st orbit
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
48. If the number of angular nodes for 3p orbital is
correct explanation of (A)
x and the number of radial nodes for 5dx2 –y2
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
orbital is y, then the value of x + y is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 1 (4) 3
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CoE-XI Fortnightly Test-02
50. For which of the following orbitals, the 55. The work function for a metal is 2 eV. If
probability of finding electrons along both x and maximum kinetic energy of the ejected
y axes is non zero. photoelectron is 5 eV, then the wavelength of
(1) dxy incident photon nearly will be

(2) dx2 –y2 (1) 1700 Å

(2) 1771.4 Å
(3) pz (3) 1800 Å
(4) dxz (4) 1600 Å
56. Maximum possible number of electrons in a
51. Which of the following sets of quantum
subshell of an atom is
numbers may be correct for an electron in 4f
orbital? (1) l2 (2) 2l + 1
(3) 2l2 (4) 4l + 2
(1) n = 4, l = 3, ml = –2, s = 0 57. Calculate the wave number (m –1) if, the
1 frequency of violet radiation is 7.5 × 1014 Hz
(2) n = 4, l = 3, ml = +4, s = –
2 (1) 2.5 × 106
1 (2) 4 × 10–7
(3) n = 4, l = 3, ml = +1, s = +
2 (3) 1.33 × 10–15
1 (4) 2.5 × 107
(4) n = 4, l = 4, ml = –1, s = +
2 58. Wavelength of limiting line in Paschen series of
52. Choose the incorrect statement about canal Be3+ ion is
rays.
9
(1) They possess positive charge (1) (2) RH
16RH
(2) They travel in a straight line in the absence
of electrical or magnetic field 16RH 4RH
(3) (4)
(3) They emerge from anode and move 9 9
towards the cathode
59. Consider the following electronic configuration
(4) Properties of canal rays depend upon the
nature of the gas present in cathode ray
tube
53. Identify the correct increasing order of energy Choose the rules that have been violated
for the electrons represented by the following
quantum numbers. (a) Hund’s rule
(a) n = 4, l = 1 (b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(b) n = 4, l = 0 (c) Aufbau principle
(c) n = 3, l = 2
Choose the correct option.
(d) n = 3, l = 1
(1) (a) and (b) only
Choose the correct option.
(1) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a) (2) (a) and (c) only
(2) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c) (3) (b) and (c) only
(3) (d) < (b) < (a) < (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (b) < (d) < (c) < (a) 60. If the kinetic energy of a particle is tripled, its
54. The number of lines obtained in UV region of de-Broglie’s wavelength becomes
hydrogen spectrum when electron jumps from
6th excited state to 1st excited state is/are: (1) 2 times
(1) 5 (2) 4 times
(2) Zero (3) 2 times
(3) 4
1
(4) 3 (4) times
3
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Fortnightly Test-02 CoE-XI
61. Which of the following species are x 2x
isoelectronic? (1) (2)
π π
(a) CH3
x x
(b) H3O+ (3) (4)
(c) NH3
π 3π
(d) H2O 66. The orbital with 2 angular nodes and 2 radial
nodes is
Choose the correct option.
(1) (a) and (c) only (1) 5s (2) 4dx2 –y2
(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) 5p (4) 5d xy
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only 67. The Bohr orbit radius of hydrogen atom in the
ground state is 0.53 Å. The radius of Be3+ ion in
62. Which among the following statements is true?
1st excited state is
(1) Orbital angular momentum is given by
(1) 1.06 Å (2) 0.53 Å
h
l (l  1) (3) 1.59 Å (4) 2.12 Å
2
68. The correct order of spin angular momentum of
(2) Bohr’s model could not explain the line
Mn4+; Cr3+ and Fe3+ ions is
spectrum of hydrogen
(1) Fe3+ > Cr3+ = Mn4+
(3) For g subshell, the minimum value of n is 6
(4) For l = 1, possible value of m can be – 2 (2) Fe3+ = Cr3+ > Mn4+

63. Given below are two statements: (3) Cr3+ = Mn4+ > Fe3+

Statement I: In photoelectric effect, the (4) Fe3+ > Mn4+ > Cr3+
number of electrons ejected is proportional to
the intensity of the incident light. 69. Match List I (Theory/Concept) with List II
(expression/formula)
Statement II: In photoelectric effect, the kinetic
energy of ejected electrons depends on the List I List II
frequency of light used.
Choose the correct answer from the options (a) de-Broglie’s wavelength (i) 2l+1
given below.
()
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
correct (b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty (ii) nh
(2) Both statement I and statement II are principle 2
incorrect
(c) Orbit angular momentum (iii) h
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect 2meV
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(d) Total number of orbitals (iv) E X t 
correct
h
64. A species of an element X has a net charge of
– 1 and 18 electrons and 20 neutrons. Then
4
correct statement regarding X is
The correct match is
(1) Atomic number of X is 18
(2) Mass number of X is 38 (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3) Number of protons is 17 (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(4) X is an isotope of phosphorus (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
65. If the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron
revolving in 2nd Bohr orbit of H-atom is x, then (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
radius of that orbit is given by
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CoE-XI Fortnightly Test-02
70. Consider the following statements: (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(a) According to Heisenberg uncertainty 73. A football has a mass of 50g and a speed of
principle, Bohr orbits have no real meaning. 30 m/s. If the speed can be measured within
(b) An atomic orbital is characterised by 4 accuracy of 2%.
quantum numbers.
Calculate uncertainty in the position (in meters)
(c) For hydrogen atom, energies of 2s orbital
and 2p orbital are same (1) 1.63 × 10–33 (2) 1.79 × 10–31
Choose the correct set of statements. (3) 1.72 × 10–32 (4) 1.75 × 10–33
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 74. Match List I with List II and choose the correct
(2) (b) and (c) only option.
(3) (a) and (c) only List I List II
(Metals) (Work
(4) (a) and (b) only function/eV)
71. For the given graph below
(a) Li (i) 2.25
(b) Na (ii) 2.42

(c) K (iii) 3.7

(d) Mg (iv) 2.3

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
Choose the incorrect statement.
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(1) The given graph is drawn for 2s orbital
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(2) Number of radial node = 1
(3) The given graph represents probability 75. Choose the incorrect statement.
density as a function of distance r, of the (1) Electromagnetic waves do not require
electron from nucleus medium and can move in vacuum
(4) Number of angular node = 1 (2) Diffraction and interference can be
72. Match List I with List II and choose the correct explained by the wave nature of electro-
option. magnetic radiation
List I List II (3) Decreasing order of energy-  rays > X rays >
UV > IR
(Energy (Energy in eV)
level) (4) The correct order of penetration power is:
(-rays > -rays > -particles)
(a) 2nd (i) –13.6/4
excited 76. Consider the following statements:
state of Statement I: In a wavelength-intensity curve of
Li2+ ion a black body, as the temperature increases,
(b) 3rd (ii) – 13.6 maxima of the curve shift to shorter
excited wavelength.
of He+ Statement II: According to Planck’s quantum
ion theory, atoms and molecules could emit or
absorb energy only in discrete quantities and
(c) Ground (iii) – 13.6 × 16
not in a continuous manner.
state of
Choose the correct option from the following:
Be3+ ion
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
(d) 3rd (iv) – 13.6/16 correct
excited (2) Both statement I and statement II are
of H incorrect
atom (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
correct
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
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Fortnightly Test-02 CoE-XI
77. Choose the correct statement. (1) 3 h/2
(1) The probability of finding an electron at a
point within an atom is proportional to the (2) 2 h/2
orbital wave function h
(3)
(2) An atomic orbital is the wave function  for 4
an electron in an atom (4) Zero
(3) Schrodinger equation considers only 84. Choose the correct statement.
particle nature of electron in an atom (1) For multi-electron species, energy of 4s
(4) The value of wave function() does not orbital is greater than 3d orbital
depend upon the coordinates of electron in (2) All the isotopes of a given element show
an atom different chemical behaviour
(3) The correct decreasing order of energy for
78. Select the correct increasing order of energy
2s orbital is E2s(H) > E2s(Li) > E2s(Na)
for the following transition of a photon of
(4) Electronic configuration of Cu in ground
hydrogen atom.
state is [Ar] 3d9 4s2
(1) (6 5) < (5  3) < (5  4) < (6  1) 85. The maximum number of electrons in an atom
(2) (6 5) < (5  4) < (5  3) < (6  1) which will have the following quantum numbers
n = 3, l = 1
(3) (5 4) < (6  5) < (5  3) < (6  1)
(1) 2
(4) (6 1) < (5  3) < (5  4) < (6  5) (2) 10
79. The ratio of wavelength 2 to 1 for two (3) 6
radiations is 1:2. The possible value of
(4) 14
energies E1 and E2 respectively can be
86. How many orbitals should be associated with n
(1) 25 and 75
= 4?
(2) 25 and 50
(1) 25 (2) 16
(3) 50 and 25
(3) 50 (4) 10
(4) 50 and 75
87. A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of
80. Rutherford’s experiment, which established the wavelength 300 nm. Calculate the number of
nuclear model of the atom, used a beam of photons emitted per second by the bulb
(1) Helium atoms, which impinged on a metal (1) 1.5 × 1020
foil and got scattered
(2) 2 × 1020
(2) -particles, which impinged on a metal foil
(3) 1.5 × 1019
and got absorbed
(4) 2 × 1019
(3) -rays which impinged on a metal foil and
ejected electrons 88. The wave number (nm –1) of radiation in visible
region with maximum wavelength is
(4) Helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal
foil and got scattered (1) 0.0013 (2) 0.0025
81. For Na atom, how many orbital(s) would have (3) 0.013 (4) 0.025
n + l = 2? 89. What would be the ratio of velocity of electron
(1) 2 (2) 3 in 2nd excited state of H atom to the 2nd excited
state of Li2+ ion?
(3) 1 (4) 4
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
82. According to Rutherford’s nuclear atomic
model, the ratio for the radius of the atom to (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 3
that of the nucleus is about: 90. Which among the following set of species are
(1) 105 (2) 103 not the isotopes of each other?
2
(3) 10–5 (4) 10–3 (1) H and 3 H (2) 13
C and 14
C
83. The orbital angular momentum for the (3) 17O and 18O (4) 20Ne and 23Na
valence electron of K (Z = 19) is

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CoE-XI Fortnightly Test-02

Botany
91. Which of the following statements is incorrect B. At the onset of third phase of mitosis,
regarding mitosis? chromosomes of the future daughter nuclei
begin their migration towards the opposite
(1) The chromosomal material becomes poles.
untangled during the process of chromatin
condensation C. In plant cells, the division of cytoplasm occurs
from the periphery of the cell and continues
(2) Small disc-shaped structures at the surface centripetally.
of centromeres serve as the site of
attachment of spindle fibres D. In some organisms, cytokinesis is not
followed by karyokinesis and this leads to the
(3) Two daughter cells, each having formation of syncytium.
chromosomes with sister chromatids, are
formed from mother cell at the end of mitosis E. In the life cycle of a sexually reproducing
organisms, meiosis ensures the production of
(4) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform in the haploid phase.
the last phase of karyokinesis
The correct ones are
92. The beginning of a particular phase of cell cycle
(1) (B), (C) and (E)
is marked by the complete disintegration of
nuclear membrane. Choose the event which (2) (A), (B) and (E)
occurs during that phase. (3) (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (B) and (D)
(1) Duplication of centrosome takes place which
radiates out microtubules called asters 96. In one of the sub stages of prophase I,
chromosome synapsis is accompanied by the
(2) The chromosomes get aligned on the formation of a complex structure. This event of
equatorial plate meiosis takes place during
(3) Chromosomes cluster at the opposite spindle (1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene
poles and their identity is lost as discrete (3) Leptotene (4) Diplotene
elements 97. By the end of which phase of meiosis, meiotic
(4) The recombination between non-sister spindle is assembled to prepare the homologous
chromatids of homologous chromosomes chromosomes for separation?
gets completed (1) Diplotene (2) Pachytene
93. Which among the following events takes place (3) Anaphase I (4) Diakinesis
during the post mitotic gap phase?
98. Select the correct sequence of the phases of cell
(1) Duplication of semi-autonomous cell cycle from the options given below.
organelles
(1) G1SG2M (2) G1G2SM
(2) Continuous growth of cell size and synthesis
of nucleotides (3) G2MSG1 (4) G1G2MS
(3) DNA replication in the nucleus and centriole 99. Select the stage(s) of cell cycle in which splitting
duplication in the cytoplasm of centromere is observed.
(4) Synthesis of tubulin protein and formation of (i) Telophase I
spindle (ii) Mitotic anaphase
94. How many chromatids and centromeres (iii) Metaphase II
respectively are present in a typical cell having
16 tetrads? (iv) Anaphase II
(1) 32 and 64 (2) 64 and16 The correct one(s) is/are
(3) 32 and 16 (4) 64 and 32 (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
95. Read the following statements: (2) (iii) and (iv) only
A. Interphase represents the phase between (3) (ii) and (iv) only
two successive M phase.
(4) (ii) only
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Fortnightly Test-02 CoE-XI
100. Arrange the following events of mitosis in the Column I Column II
correct chronological order and select the option
accordingly. (A) Diakinesis (i) Four chromatids
of homologous
(a) Nuclear envelope reforms around the
chromosomes
chromosome.
become distinct
(b) Untangling of chromosomal material. and appear as
(c) Duplication of centrosomes. tetrad
(d) Separation of sister chromatids.
(B) Pachytene (ii) Homologous
(e) Formation of mitotic apparatus. chromosomes
(1) (c)(b)(d)(e)(a) start pairing
(2) (c)(e)(b)(a)(d) together
(3) (b)(c)(d)(e)(a) (C) Zygotene (iii) Occurrence of
(4) (c)(b)(e)(d)(a) separation of
101. In the phase, which is just after G1 phase of the homologous
interphase, chromosomes
except at the
(1) Chromosome number increases by two times
site of crossing
(2) Chromosome number reduces to half over
(3) Amount of DNA remains the same
(4) Amount of DNA gets doubled (D) Diplotene (iv) Represents
transition to
102. Read the following statements and select the metaphase
correct option.
Statement A: During a cell cycle, DNA synthesis (A) (B) (C) (D)
can occur more than one time for the formation of (1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
gametes.
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Statement B: The cell cycle is divided into two
basic phases. (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(1) Only statement A is correct (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) Only statement B is correct 106. Choose the option that correctly represents a
(3) Both statements A and B are correct phylum.

(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (1) Primata (2) Dicotyledonae
103. Choose the incorrect one w.r.t. interkinesis
(3) Arthropoda (4) Insecta
(1) It takes place between meiosis I and meiosis
II 107. Metaphase I differs from metaphase II as in the
former
(2) It is a short lived phase
(1) Univalent chromosomes align themselves at
(3) Protein synthesis takes place during this
the equator
phase
(4) DNA duplication occurs during this phase (2) The centromeres of two chromosomes of
each bivalent are arranged in two rows at the
104. In plants, mitosis is seen in equator
(1) Haploid cells only
(3) The microtubules of the spindle fibres from
(2) Haploid, diploid and polyploid cells the opposite poles attach to the centromere
of the chromosome
(3) Diploid cells only
(4) Centromere holding two chromatids splits
(4) Polyploid cells only
and allows the separation and movement of
105. Match the column I with column II and select the the two chromatids
correct option.

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CoE-XI Fortnightly Test-02
108. Given below are two statements. One is labelled (2) (a) and (b) only
as assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(3) (a) and (c) only
reason (R).
(4) All (a), (b) and (c)
Assertion(A): In an organism, equational
division is essential in order to restore the 112. Match the column I with column II and select the
nucleocytoplasmic ratio. correct option.
Reason(R): In an organism, cell growth results in Column I Column II
disturbing the ratio between the nucleus and the
cytoplasm. (A) Synaptonemal (i) Pairing of
complex homologous
In the light of the above statements, choose the chromosomes in
correct answer from the options given below. the second sub
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the stage of prophase I
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (B) Crossing over (ii) The X- shaped
structure that
correct explanation of (A) appears between
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false homologous
chromosomes
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(C) Synapsis (iii) This structure is
109. The stage of cell cycle which is recognized by the
thought to stabilize
dissolution of synaptonemal complex the two homologous
(1) Represents transition to metaphase I chromosomes till
the crossing over is
(2) Can last for months or years in the oocytes of completed
some vertebrates
(3) Is also recognized by the initiation of (D) Chiasmata (iv) Exchange of
separation of sister chromatids of a genetic material
between the non-
chromosome
sister chromatids of
(4) Is the third sub-stage of the prophase I homologous
chromosomes
110. Mitosis is called equational division because
(1) DNA replication and cell division takes place (A) (B) (C) (D)
in coordinated way to ensure progeny with
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
intact genome
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) Four daughter cells produced at the end of (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
this division are haploid
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) Duplicated chromosomes are distributed into 113. Read the following statements and choose the
four daughter cells equally correct option.
(4) The two daughter cells have the same Statement A: Both the centrosomes in a cell
radiate out microfilaments called as asters.
number of chromosomes as present in the
parent cell Statement B: During metaphase, a chromosome
is thickest and shortest and hence it is the best
111. Congression of chromosomes takes place during stage to study the shapes (V, L, J, I) of the
chromosome.
(a) Metaphase I
(1) Only statement A is correct
(b) Metaphase II
(2) Only statement B is correct
(c) Mitotic metaphase (3) Both the statements are correct
The correct one(s) is/are (4) Both the statements are incorrect

(1) (c) only

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Fortnightly Test-02 CoE-XI
114. If there are 20 chromosomes in G1 phase, then 118. Consider the stage of karyokinesis represented in
what will be the number of chromatids and the following figure and select the correct
bivalents that are found in the zygotene stage? statement(s) regarding it
Bivalents Chromatids
(1) 10 20
(2) 20 40
(3) 20 20
(4) 10 40
115. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is
necessary for proper mitosis of animal cell.
Select the correct option for APC from the
following.
a. Movement of sister chromatids towards the
(1) It triggers the transition from the metaphase opposite poles of the cell.
to anaphase
b. Bivalent chromosomes are aligned on the
(2) It helps in the replication of DNA in the S- equatorial plate.
phase c. Microtubules from the opposite poles are
(3) It transits the cell from G2 phase to S phase attached to the telomere of the sister
of the interphase chromatids.
(4) It prevents the segregation of the d. Distribution of the bivalent chromosomes on
chromosomes the equatorial plate is at random.
The correct one(s) is/are
116. The most active stage of the cell cycle
(1) a and c only (2) a, b and d only
a. Lasts for about 85 minutes in a unicellular
(3) c only (4) b and d only
fungus, i.e., yeast.
119. All of the following are the significance of mitosis,
b. Involves both DNA replication and cell growth. except
c. Is also called the resting phase. (1) Cell repair
(2) Regeneration
d. Constitutes less than 5% of the duration of the
cell cycle in a human cell. (3) Recombination
(4) Reproduction
Choose the correct option.
120. In a eukaryotic cell, both the semi-autonomous
(1) Only a and b are correct cell organelles get duplicated during which stage
of cell cycle?
(2) Only c and d are correct
(1) S-phase (2) G2-phase
(3) All are correct except d (3) G0-phase (4) G1-phase
(4) All a, b, c and d are correct 121. Cell-plate mediated cytokinesis occurs in
117. In case, if crossing over occurs, the daughter (1) Plants (2) Animals
cells that are formed after meiosis II would be (3) Protozoans (4) Mycoplasma
genetically
122. In animal cells, how many events among the
(1) Similar to each other but dissimilar to the following occur only once during meiosis?
parent cell a. Histone protein synthesis
(2) Dissimilar to each other as well as to the b. RNA synthesis
parent cell c. Cytokinesis
(3) Similar to the parent cell but dissimilar to d. Centriole duplication
each other e. DNA duplication
(4) Similar to each other as well as to the parent (1) Four (2) Three
cell
(3) Two (4) Five

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CoE-XI Fortnightly Test-02
123. Read the following statements and state them as (2) S and G1
True (T) or False (F) and select the correct (3) G1 and G2
option.
(4) S and G2
A. By the end of prophase of mitosis, diakinesis
and prophase II, the nucleolus disappears 127. Select the correct sequence for scientific naming
and the nuclear envelope breaks down. of an organism.
B. Cytokinesis follows telophase I and results in (1) Specific epithet + Generic name + Author
the formation of tetrad of cells. citation
C. Equational division is the mechanism by (2) Generic name + Specific epithet + Author
which conservation of the specific citation
chromosome number of each species is (3) Specific epithet + Author citation + generic
achieved across generations in sexually name
reproducing organisms. (4) Author citation + Generic name + Specific
D. Interkinesis is followed by the prophase I. epithet
A B C D 128. Select the correct hierarchial arrangement of the
(1) T F T F taxonomic categories in ascending order.
(2) T T T T (1) Class  Family  Species  Genus 
Kingdom  Division
(3) F T F T
(2) Kingdom  Division  Class  Order 
(4) T F F F
Family  Genus  Species
124. Nuclear envelope develops around the
chromosome clusters at each pole forming two (3) Kingdom Class  Division  Family 
daughter nuclei during Order  Genus  Species
(1) Prophase (4) Species  Genus Family  Order
Class  Division  Kingdom
(2) Metaphase
129. Which of the following pairs of taxa does not fall
(3) Telophase
under the same category?
(4) Anaphase
(1) Dicotyledonae and mammalia
125. Given below are two statements. One is labelled (2) Primata and insecta
as assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
reason (R). (3) Poales and diptera
(4) Chordata and arthropoda
Assertion(A): In the second phase of
karyokinesis of mitosis, the chromosomes are 130. Higher the category in the taxonomic hierarchy,
spread through the cytoplasm of the cell. (1) More is the number of common
characteristics among the organisms
Reason(R): There is complete disintegration of (2) Lesser is the complexity in the classification
nuclear envelope by the end of prophase. process
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) Greater is the difficulty in determining the
relationship to other taxa at the same level
correct answer from the options given below.
(4) Lesser is the number of organisms in that
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the taxa
correct explanation of (A) 131. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Statement A: In biological names of organisms,
correct explanation of (A)
both the words, when handwritten, are underlined
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false separately but when printed, they are italicised.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true Statement B: In plants, classes with the few
similar characters are assigned to a higher
126. In the _(A)___ and __(B)____ phases of a cell, category called phylum.
the new DNA molecules formed are not distinct (1) Only statement A is correct
but intertwined.
(2) Only statement B is correct
Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks (A)
and (B) respectively. (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(1) G0 and G1 (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect

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 Fortnightly Test-02 CoE-XI
132. Select the defining properties of the living 134. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. mango.
organisms (1) Family – Anacardiaceae
(a) Reproduction (2) Genus – Mangifera
(b) Cellular organization (3) Class – Sapindales
(c) Metabolism (4) Division – Angiospermae
(d) Consciousness 135. Read the following statements and choose the
(e) Growth correct option.
The correct ones are Statement A: The number of species that are
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only known and described, ranges between 1.7-1.8
billion.
(2) (a), (b), and (e)
Statement B: Nomenclature is the process by
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only which anything is grouped into convenient
(4) (b) , (c) and (d) only categories, based on some easily observable
133. Solanum, Petunia and Datura characters.
(1) Belong to the division Dicotyledonae (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Belong to the family Solanaceae (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Have same specific epithet (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Belong to the same class as that of wheat (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect

Zoology
136. Which among the following is a sulphur containing
amino acid? (1) (2)
(1) Valine (2) Cysteine
(3) Tyrosine (4) Tryptophan
137. Read the following statements w.r.t. lipids. (3) (4)
(a) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
the carboxyl carbon. 140. Which of the following is not a polymer?
(b) Fatty acids could be saturated or unsaturated. (1) ‘X’ fibres that act as intercellular ground
substance which provide strength to the
(c) Many lipids are formed by both glycerol and fatty connective tissue
acids. (2) ‘P’ that are esters of fatty acids with alcohol
(d) Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms excluding the (3) ‘Y’ that is involved in storage and expression of
carboxyl carbon. genomic information
(4) ‘Z’ that catalyses the hydrolysis of proteins
(e) When fatty acids are esterified with glycerol,
they can be transformed into monoglycerides, 141. Match the column I and column II w.r.t. secondary
diglycerides or triglycerides. metabolites.
Choose the option with incorrect statement(s) only. Column-I Column-II

(1) (c) and (e) (2) Only (d) (a) Drug (i) Ricin
(3) (a) and (b) (4) Only (e) (b) Alkaloid (ii) Carotenoid
138. Choose the odd one w.r.t. groups present in serine (c) Toxin (iii) Codeine
that are responsible for its chemical and physical (d) Pigment (iv) Vinblastin
properties.
(1) Amino Choose the correct option.
(2) Carboxyl (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Hydroxy methyl (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) Aldehydic (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
139. Select the correct structure of zwitterionic form of
amino acid from the options given below. (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

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CoE-XI Fortnightly Test-02
142. The effect of a competitive inhibitor in an enzyme 146. A secondary metabolite that is also categorised
catalysed reaction can be overcome by under polysaccharide and whose monomeric unit is
same as that of glycogen, is named as ‘X’. Identify
(1) Adding more enzymes
‘X’ and select the correct option w.r.t. it.
(2) Increasing the temperature of the reaction setup
(1) Produced by plants and is used for building cell
(3) Maintaining the optimum pH conditions walls
(4) Adding more substrate (2) Present as store house of energy in plant
tissues
143. Assertion(A): Some tissues, especially the neural
(3) Forms helical secondary structures and can hold
tissues, have lipids with more complex structures. I2
Reason(R): Some lipids have phosphorous and a (4) Least abundant carbohydrate in the biosphere
phosphorylated organic compound in them and are 147. Choose the correct option which provides the
called phospholipids. suitable names to the amino acids involved in the
In the light of above statements, select the correct formation of the given structure of an oligopeptide
starting from first amino acid
option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (1) Glycine–Alanine–Serine–Tyrosine
144. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct (2) Glycine–Serine–Alanine–Tyrosine
option w.r.t. the total number of glycosidic bond(s) in (3) Alanine-Serine-Tyrosine-Glycine
the given biomolecules. (4) Glycine-Serine-Tyrosine-Alanine
Disaccharide : One : : Pentasaccharide : _____ 148. Competitive inhibition of enzyme succinic
dehydrogenase occurs by malonate. Which of the
(1) One (2) Two following is true for the above case?
(3) Three (4) Four (1) Decrease in Km and Vmax
145. Comprehend the given statements. (2) Decrease in Vmax and increase in Km

Statement A: There is one feature common to all (3) Increase in Vmax and Km
those compounds found in the acid-soluble pool, (4) No change in Vmax but increase in Km
i.e., they have molecular weights ranging from 18 to
149. How many deoxyribose sugar residues are present
around 800 daltons (Da) approximately.
°
Statement B: Chemical compounds found in living in a 306 A long ds B-DNA fragment?
organisms which have molecular weight ranging (1) 160 (2) 180
from 10,000 Da and above are found in (3) 90 (4) 80
acid-insoluble fraction. 150. How many of the biomolecules mentioned in the box
given below are not homopolymers?
Statement C: Molecular weights of lipids do not
exceed 800 Da but they are found in the
acid-insoluble fraction. Chitin, GLUT-4, Collagen, Insulin, Cellulose,
Antibody, Glycogen, Pepsin
Select the correct option.
(1) Statements A and C are correct but B is
incorrect Choose the correct option.
(2) Statements B and C are correct but A is (1) Seven (2) Six
incorrect (3) Five (4) Four
(3) Statements A, B and C are correct
(4) Statements A and B are correct but C is
incorrect
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Fortnightly Test-02 CoE-XI
151. Which of the following statements best explains how
do biocatalyst accelerates the rate of chemical
conversions?
[Note: S = Substrate and P = Product] (3)
(1) They help to increase Vmax of a chemical
reaction
(2) They help to increase the temperature of
reaction hence lower the energy level difference
between S and P
(3) They bring down the difference in average
energy content of ‘S’ from that of transition state, (4)
making the transition of ‘S’ to ‘P’ more easy 155. Which of the following enzymes catalyses the
(4) They increase the activation energy of reaction hydrolysis of ester bonds?
hence, help in speeding up the conversion of ‘S’
into ‘P’ (1) Lyases
152. Two type of enzymes namely restriction (2) Dehydrogenases
endonucleases and DNA ligases are commonly (3) Transferases
used in genetic engineering in which former cuts
both the strands of DNA at specific point whereas (4) Lipases
latter joins two strands of DNA. Latter one is placed 156. Read the following statements w.r.t. proteins.
in which of the following classes of enzymes?
(a) Proteins are ____(i)___ containing strings of
(1) Class I amino acids.
(2) Class II
(b) Physicists conjure up the ___(ii)___ dimensional
(3) Class V views of molecular structures while biologists
(4) Class VI describe the protein structures at ___(iii)___
levels.
153. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. a biomolecule
whose basic unit is a nitrogen containing glucose (c) The sequence of amino acids i.e., the (iv)__
derivative and is present in the exoskeleton of information in a protein is represented by
arthropods. primary structure of a protein.
(1) It is a homopolymer (d) Only some portion of the protein thread are
(2) It is the second most abundant organic arranged in the form of a ___(v)___. In proteins,
substance only _(vi)__ handed helices are observed.
(3) Its monomeric units are held together by (e) ___(vii)___ structure is absolutely necessary for
glycosidic bonds the many biological activities of proteins.
(4) It is considered a complex heteropolypeptide
Choose the option which correctly fill the respective
154. Which of the following represents the structure of a blanks.
monoglyceride?
(1) (i) Homopolymer (ii) Three (iv) Positional

(2) (iii) Four (i) Heteropolymers (v) Helix

(3) (ii) Three (vi) Left (vii) Secondary
(1)
(4) (v) Helix (vi) Right (vii) Linear
157. Which of the following carbohydrates will not yield
glucose as the simple sugar upon its hydrolysis?
(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(2) (3) Lactose
(4) Inulin

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CoE-XI Fortnightly Test-02
158. Per cent weight of different elements present in the (3) Glucose
human body is shown below with the help of a bar
graph. If bar ‘B’ represents per cent weight of (4) Glycine
carbon, then ‘A’ represents the per cent weight of 162. Choose the odd one w.r.t. the components of ‘P’
which forms monomeric unit of a biomolecule that
constitutes 5-7% of the total cellular mass.

(1) A heterocyclic nitrogenous base

(2) A monosaccharide

(3) A substituted methane

(1) Silicon (2) Nitrogen (4) A phosphoric acid

(3) Magnesium (4) Oxygen
163. Cytidine differs from uridylic acid as
159. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Ash – Contains inorganic (1) Former is the monomeric unit of DNA while latter
elements
(2) Biomolecules – All carbon compounds is present in RNA
present in living
organisms (2) Phosphoric acid is a component of former only
(3) Substituted – Examples are glycine,
alanine (3) Former possesses three N-atoms in its
methanes
nitrogenous base
(4) Acid-insoluble – Contains adenine,
fraction glucose
(4) Former possesses two heterocyclic rings in its

160. Read the following statements and select the option structure
which correctly states them as true(T) or false(F).
164. How many of the following is/are correct?
(a) Cholesterol is a lipid that contains fatty acids.
(A) Amino acid named valine has a net zero charge
(b) Upon grinding a tissue, cell membrane and other
membranes are broken into pieces and form at any physiological pH.
vesicles which are not water soluble.
(B) A monosaccharide with chemical formula
(c) The macromolecules from cytoplasm and C6H12O6 is a vital energy source for living
organelles become the acid-insoluble fraction.
organisms and can exist in a cyclic form.
(d) Carbohydrates are the most abundant chemical
in the living organisms. (C) A structure composed of phosphate group, a
pentose sugar (C5H10O4) and the nitrogenous
(a) (b) (c) (d)
base adenine is a basic component of genetic
(1) F T T F
material which can replicate to form its own
(2) T T T T copy.
(3) T F T F
(D) Three different types of fatty acids can be found
(4) F T F T in the structure of a triglyceride.
161. Which of the following is a basic unit of the most
Choose the correct option.
abundant organic compound in the biosphere?
(1) Adenine (1) Four (2) Three

(2) Fructose (3) Two (4) One

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Fortnightly Test-02 CoE-XI
165. Match the following columns and choose the correct (2) Only (b) and (c)
option. (3) Only (c) and (d)
Column I Column II (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(a) Isomerases (i) Catalyse
169. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t.
removal of
cholesterol?
groups from
substrate (1) 27 carbon compound with a hydrocarbon tail
(ii) Cause linking (2) Possess five hydrocarbon rings
together of two (3) It is not a polymer
compounds
(b) Lyases (iii) Cause inter- (4) It is the most abundant steroid in the animal
conversion of tissues
optical isomers 170. Which of the following types of bonds is least likely
(iv) Leave double to be involved in stabilizing the three dimensional
bonds in folding of most proteins in nature?
product (1) Hydrogen bonds
(v) Cause
(2) Ionic bonds
interconversion
of positional (3) Disulphide bonds
isomers (4) Phosphodiester bonds
(vi) Use
mechanism 171. Match column I with column II and choose the
other than correct option.
hydrolysis to Column I Column II
break the (a) Antibody (i) Catalyses
bonds biochemical
(1) (a)(i), (ii),(iii); (b) (iv),(v),(vi) reactions
(b) Trypsin (ii) Fights infectious
(2) (a)(i),(ii) (v); (b)(iii), (iv),(vi)
agents
(3) (a)(iii),(v); (b)(i),(iv),(vi) (c) GLUT-4 (iii) Sensory
(4) (a)(ii),(iv),(v); (b) (i),(iii),(vi) reception
166. Consider the given statements and choose the (d) Receptor (iv) Transporter
correct option. protein present in
cell membrane
Statement (A): In humans, the per cent weight of
calcium is less than the per cent weight of nitrogen. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Statement (B): Chemical analysis of living tissue
can be performed by grinding it in hydrochloric acid (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
using mortar and a pestle. (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(3) Only statement (A) is correct (4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) Only statement (B) is correct 172. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the most
167. Choose the odd one w.r.t. basic amino acids. abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
(1) Arginine (2) Histidine
(3) Glycine (4) Lysine (1) Absent in plants and bacteria
168. Consider the following facts/features (2) Synthesised in liver of humans
(a) Phosphorylated organic compound
(b) Contains two fatty acids (3) Known as Ribulose Bisphosphate Carboxylase–
(c) Amphipathic in nature Oxygenase
(d) Present in cell membranes (4) Main protein of connective tissue
Choose the option including all the correct
facts/features w.r.t. lecithin.
(1) Only (a) and (b)
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CoE-XI Fortnightly Test-02
173. There are ______ types of amino acids which occur (1) (a)  (b)  (e)  (c) (d)
in proteins and ___ types of nucleotides are present
in RNA. (2) (b)  (a)  (e)  (c) (d)

Choose the correct option to fill in the respective

(3) (b)  (a)  (c)  (d) (e)
blanks.

(1) 20, 4 (4) (a)  (e)  (b)  (c) (d)

(2) 20, 8 176. Choose a mismatch from the given options w.r.t. a
chemical reaction.
(3) 10, 5

(4) 10, 4 (1) Transformation When bonds

174. Assertion(A): Haem is the prosthetic group and it is reaction are broken
a part of the active site of the enzyme peroxidase and new
and catalase which catalyse the breakdown of H2
bonds are
and O2.
formed.
Reason(R): Prosthetic groups are organic
compounds which are tightly bound to the
apoenzyme. (2) Rate of t
physical P
In the light of above statements, select the most
appropriate answer from the options given below. process (P = product,
t = time )
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(3) Velocity of a Direction of
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) reaction reaction is
specified
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) General rule of Rate of
175. Select the option which represents the correct thumb reaction
sequence of the catalytic cycle of an enzyme action. doubles or
(a) The binding of the substrate induces the enzyme decreases by
to alter its shape, fitting more tightly around the half for every
substrate.
10°C change
(b) The substrate binds to the active site of the in either
enzyme, fitting into the active site.
direction.
(c) The active site of the enzyme, now in close
proximity of the substrate breaks the chemical 177. How many peptide bonds are present in a
bonds of the substrate and the new enzyme- polypeptide chain of 10 amino acids and
product complex is formed. phosphodiester bonds in a 10 bp long dsDNA
molecule respectively?
(d) The enzyme releases the product of the (1) 9, 18
reaction. (2) 10, 9
(3) 9, 9
(e) The free enzyme is ready to bind with another
molecule of substrate. (4) 10, 18

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Fortnightly Test-02 CoE-XI
178. Assertion(A): Haemoglobin of an adult human can 179. Choose the statement which is not incorrect w.r.t.
be represented as 2 2. glycogen.
Reason(R): Adult human haemoglobin consists of (1) Made up of about 300,000 fructose residues
four subunits. Two of these are identical to each
(2) It has branched structure having 1-4 linkage at
other, i.e., two  types and two  types. branched part
In the light of above statements, select the most
(3) The right end is called the reducing end and the
appropriate option.
left end is called the non-reducing end
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation (A) (4) Forms helical secondary structure and can hold
I2 molecules in the helical portion to give blue
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
colour
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false 180. Select the odd one w.r.t. derived monosaccharides.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (1) Deoxyribose (2) Ribose sugar
(3) Glucosamine (4) Glucuronic acid

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