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CSIR NET
Life Sciences
Question Paper
December 2024 Shift 1

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Roll No LIFE SCIENCES - Registered Photo Exam Day Photo

Registration No 703 01-Mar-2025
Candidate Name 09:00-12:00
Module Name
Exam Date
Exam Batch
1) PART A
Question No. 1 / Question ID 703104 Marks: 2.00

Masses of several objects were measured on the Earth as w ell as on the Moon
using the same two-pan balance. The graph of the measurements obtained on
the two sites would appear as

.;2 10
C: C
Q) 0
E o
~ ~ 5
~ C:
CU 0
,JJ

2 D
0 5 10 0 5 10
Measurements Measurements
on Earth on Earth

10
[Ti f 4.J C
E]I ....C:
V')

II) C:
10
E g 5 E
0
0
~ 2 ~ ~ 5
~ C :,
ro
Q)
o "'
la C
0
~
0 IIJ
~ 0
0 s 10
0 5 10
Measurements Measurements
on Earth on Earth

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Question No. 2 / Question ID 703106 Marks: 2.00

In the fictional country of Petreversia , which of the following provinces is the

odd one out?

1. TANGODIN
2. PATACAHON
3. BACCANEH
4. HORVITHA
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Question No. 3 / Question ID 703111 Marks: 2.00

A boy in a family says "I have twice as many sisters as I have brothers" but one
of his sisters claims that she has the same number of brothers and sisters. The
numbers of girls and boys in that fam ily are, respectively

1. 4 and 2
2. 3 and 2
3. 3 and 4
4. 4 and 3

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Question No. 4 / Question ID 703119 Marks: 2.00

The geometric mean of squares of two positive integers is 10. The small est
possible sum of these two integers is

1. 7
2. 8
3. 11
4. 10

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Question No. 5 / Question ID 703102 Marks: 2.00

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The given figure shows a line fit using least squares method between profit in
chocolate business and mean temperature (T) data for a city. The correlation
coefficient obtained from this data is r. Which one of the following statements is
INCORRECT?

80 ,___- - + - - - + - - - + - - - - + - - - - - + -:@

-
lh,;"
C:
60 > - -- + - - - t - - - - ; f - - - + - - - + - - - ; -

-·-_,
·- 0

-
·-e
E
+ .t
'-
40

20
a.,
Prof! =4T - 6

0 F - - + - - - - + - - - - + - - -- - =-0 3 -t---+---

-2 0 1--------'-------'-----'---------'-----'-----'--------'----'----'------'

20 22 24 26 28 30 32 34 36 38 40
T (°C)

1. The sum of the squared differences between the observed and estimated
values of profit is minimum.
2. About 69% of the variation in profit is explained by the variation in
temperature.
3. At 30°C, estimated profit is 34 million ~-
4. Data point (32 , 80) is anomalous and therefore must be discarded.

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Question No. 6 / Question ID 703108 Marks: 2.00

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A cube is coloured on each face by one of yellow, orange , red , blue, green and
pink colours. Orange is opposite to yellow . Pi nk is between orange and yellow .
Red is alongside of Pink. Green is between red and blue. Orange is at top.
What is opposite to blue?

1. Red
2. Green
3. Pink
4. Yellow

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Question No. 7 / Question ID 703107 Marks: 2.00

How many 4-digit numbers can be generated from the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
such that 123 always appear as a string? No digit appears more than once.

1. 8
2. 4
3. 6
4. 12

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Question No. 8 / Question ID 703120 Marks: 2.00

An item in a shop is priced at ~ 375 exclud ing tax. The shopkeeper offers a
discount of 15%, however there is a tax of 12% before discount on the item.
The selling price of the item is:

1. ~318.75
2. ~ 420
3. ~ 357
4. ~ 382.5

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Question No. 9 / Question ID 703113 Marks: 2.00

Five girls are standing in a line. Out of them, Henna is to the left of Agatha ,
between Agatha and Dipti there are 3 places , and Shabnam has both Lata and
Dipti as neighbours. Then ,

1. Lata is to the right of Agatha

2. Henna is at the extreme Left
3. there are exactly two places between Henna & Dipti
4. there is exactly one place between Shabnam & Agatha

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Question No. 10 / Question ID 703115 Marks: 2.00

A 6-digit security code is made using digits from O to 9. The first and the last
digits are known. If the remaining1four digits are known to be primes, at the
most how many trials are requ ired to determine the code?
1. 100
2. 2560
3. 256
4. 10000
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Question No. 11 / Question ID 703117 Marks: 2.00

A fair coin is tossed two times independently and X denotes the number of
heads. Then a fair 6-faced die is thrown at random (independently of the
tosses) and Y denotes the number on the top of the die. What is the probability
that the value of X +Y is 4?

1
1.
2

1
2.
3

3. -1
4
1
4.
6

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Question No. 12 / Question ID 703110 Marks: 2.00

If the words FAST, SLOW and TONE are written as 3475, 2913 and 1648 but
not necessarily in the same order, then using the same code how the word
NEAT w ould be written?

1. 7513
2. 7953
3. 7593
4. 1537
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Question No. 13 / Question ID 703105 Marks: 2.00

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Let A: export, B: rainfall, C: harvest, D: godown storage

Wh ich one of the fol lowi ng sequences is correct?

1. C A, B, D
2. B, C, D, A
3. C, B. A, D
4. D, C, B, A
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Question No. 14 / Question ID 703112 Marks: 2.00

Fifteen distinct points are randomly placed on the circumference of a circle . At

most how many triangles can be formed using these points?

1. 105
2. 455
3. 2730
4. 30
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Question No. 15 / Question ID 703101 Marks: 2.00

../0.99 x 0.99 x 0.99 is closest to

1. 0.99 x0.33
2. 0.33 x0.33 x0.33
3. 0.99 x0.99 x0.99
4. 0.33

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Question No. 16 / Question ID 703116 Marks: 2.00

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The sum of the digits of a four-digit number 'abed ' is subtracted from the
number. Then the result of this will be always divisible by

1. 9

2. 11

3. 13

4. 14

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Question No. 17 / Question ID 703114 Marks: 2.00

If you add liquid soap in the centre of a bowl of water, which has black pepper
flakes floating in it, the pepper flakes will

1. start dissolving
2. move away from the centre
3. settle down
4. not move

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Question No. 18 / Question ID 703118 Marks: 2.00

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A cyli nder has two concentric identical metal plates placed on each other that
have identical circular holes as shown in the figure (shaded area). The plate A
rotates in clockwise direction at 15° per second . The plate B rotates in anti-
clockwise direction at 5° per second. If the starting positions of the plates as
seen from the top of the cylinder are as shown below, the first instance when
both the shaded regions compl.etely coincide happens at:

A B

1. 11.25 seconds
2. 3.25 seconds
3. 6. 75 seconds
4. 8.35 seconds
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Question No. 19 / Question ID 703109 Marks: 2.00

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A rectangular sheet of 31.4 cm x 10 cm size is rolled across its length to make

a cyl inder without overlap. What will be the approximate volume of the cylinder?

1. 785 cm 3
2. 1570 cm3
3. 3140 cm3

4. 6280 cm3
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Question No. 20 / Question ID 703103 Marks: 2.00

Choose the option to fill in the blank that will make the fo llowing statement
logically correct

COUNTING WITH PRECISION THE NUMBER OF OCCURRENCES OF THE

LETTER "I" IN TH IS SENTENCE YIELDS - - - -

1. SEVEN
2. EIGHT
3. NINE
4. TEN

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2) PART B
Question No. 1 / Question ID 703160 Marks: 2.00
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Which one of the following is the most significant factor that explains the evolution
of iteroparity in animals?

1. Slower developmental rates over their lifespan

2. Predictable environmental conditions
3. Low adult survival! rates
4. Cost per reproductive event is high

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Question No. 2 / Question ID 703149 Marks: 2.00

In a population with the ABO blood group system, if the frequency of the allele /A is
0.3, the frequency of the allele /8 is 0.2 , and the frequency of the allele i is 0.5, what
would be the expected percentage of population with blood group A,. considering
that the population is under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

1. 9%
2. 24%
3. 39%
4. 42%
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Question No. 3 / Question ID 703168 Marks: 2.00

Hormone pregnancy tests work by detecting the presence of the hormone, human
chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) using immunoassay. Which types of cells will develop
to produce hCG in pregnant females?

1. Pluripotent stem cells

2. Trophoblast cells
3. Endometrial cells
4. Granulosa cells
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Question No. 4 / Question ID 703130 Marks: 2.00

Match the columns:

Column X Column Y
E. coli genes involved in repl ication Functional eukaryotic orthologues
A. DnaB I. Pola/ pri mase
B DnaC ii. cdc6
C. ~ clamp iii. PCNA
D. DnaG iv. MCM complex

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Column
X and Column Y?

1. A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)

2. A (iv) B (i) C (ii } D (iii)
3. A (iv) B (ii) C (iii) D (i)
4. A (ii) B (iv) C (iii) D (i)
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Question No. 5 / Question ID 703139 Marks: 2.00

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The regeneration of a severed Axolotl limb is mediated by which one of the

folliowing cellular responses to injury?

1. Blastema formation
2. Transdifferentiation
3. Induced pluripotency
4. Stem cell dedifferentiation
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Question No. 6 / Question ID 703170 Marks: 2.00

A transmembrane receptor protein (X) and a transmembrane protein bound to the

actin cytoskeleton (Y) with fluorescent tags were expressed in a cell. A fluorescence
recovery after photobleaching (FRAP) experiment was performed on these proteins.
Which one of the following options represents the most likely outcome of this
experiment?

1. Fluorescence of both proteins will be recovered at the same rate .

2. Fluorescence of X will be recovered later than Y.
3. Fluorescence of Y will be recovered later than X.
4. Being membrane proteins, no recovery of fluorescence is expected.

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Question No. 7 / Question ID 703128 Marks: 2.00

Dynein is a microtubule-dependent motor protein essential for cellular processes.

Which one of the following statements related to dynein function is INCORRECT?

1.. It helps in cilia and flagella beating .

2. It transports organelles in anterograde direction.
3. It participates in spindle assembly and positioning.
4. It interacts with dynactin for efficient transport.
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Question No. 8 / Question ID 703166 Marks: 2.00

Which of the following molecular marker techniques uses a sing le primer in a PCR
reaction for identifying polymorphisms between genotypes?

1. SSR (Simple sequence repeats)

2. AFLP (Amplified fragment length polymorphism)
3. RAPD (Randomly amplified polymorphic DNA)
4. SCAR (Sequence characterized amplified reg ions)
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Question No. 9 / Question ID 703142 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the following statements with regard to glyoxylate cycle is

INCORRECT?

1. It is absent in humans.
2. It occurs in specialized microsomes called glyoxysomes .
3. This cycle allows for the synthesis of sugars from fatty acids.
4. It involves enzymes of both the glyoxysome and the mitochondrion .

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Question No. 10 / Question ID 703134 Marks: 2.00

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Which one of the following statements regarding cytoskeleton proteins is

INCORRECT?

1. Actin and tubulin proteins appear to have arisen from single-copy genes ,
present before multicellular eukaryotes diverged .
2. Tubulin specifical ly binds ATP, while actin binds preferentially to GTP.
3. FtsZ, a tubulin re lative, forms a filamentous ring needed to affect cell division
in certa in prokaryotic species.
4. MreB , an actin relative, forms filaments required for the cell shape in certain
prokaryotic species.
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Question No. 11 / Question ID 703121 Marks: 2.00

A novel organism synthesizes proteins using ribosomes from the C-terminal end to
the N-terminal end rather than the usual direction (N- to C-terminus). Which main
chain atom will be the nucleophile for the reaction to form peptide bonds?

1. Nitrogen of the amine group

2. Carbon of the carboxyl group
3. Oxygen of the carboxyl group
4. Alpha-carbon (Ca)

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Question No. 12 / Question ID 703164 Marks: 2.00

Many marine mammals communicate over several kilometres in the ocean . Th is is

due to

1. their ability to communicate using ultrasound.

2. the higher density of water compared to air.
3. lower oxygen levels in the open ocean .
4. water filtering out high-frequency sounds .

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Question No. 13 / Question ID 703152 Marks: 2.00

A mutation in a Drosophila gene causes a reduction in eye size , if animals are grown
at 29°C but not at 18°C. This happens even if the animals bear a single copy of this
mutation. Based on this information, this mutation can be described as:

1. Temperature insensitive, dominant

2. Temperature sensitive, recess ive
3. Temperature insensitive, recessive
4. Temperature sens.itive, dominant
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Question No. 14 / Question ID 703126 Marks: 2.00

The majority of modifications on histone molecules happen at their _ __

1. N-terminal ta il.
2. C-terminal tail.
3. Globular core .
4. Spread equally throughout the polypeptide.
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Question No. 15 / Question ID 703157 Marks: 2.00

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With in a broadly distributed taxonomic clade, populations and species of larger

size are generally found in colder environments, while populations and species of
smal ler size are typically found in w armer regions . This observation is commonly
referred to as:

1. Allen's rule
2. Bergman's ru le
3. Gause's rule
4. Gloger's rule

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Question No. 16 / Question ID 703133 Marks: 2.00

The CaM Kinase II acts as a molecular memory device as well as a frequency

decoder of Ca 2+ oscillation. Which one of the followi ng statements regarding CaM
Kinase 11 is INCORRECT?

1. CaM Kinase 11 activity increases as a function of Ca2 + pulse frequency.

2. CaM Kinase II requires Ca 2 + and Calmodulin to remain in an active state.
3. A brain-specific CaM Kinase II knockout mouse will have difficulty in
remembering where things are.
4. The molecular memory function is lost in an autophosphorylation defective
CaM Kinase 11.
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Question No. 17 / Question ID 703148 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the followi ng acetylcholine receptors is located in the nodal tissue of
heart?

1. Ms
2. NM
3. M2
4. M4
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Question No. 18 / Question ID 703163 Marks: 2.00

Cleaner fish remove parasites from larger fish . Which evolutionary mechanism
most likelly maintains this interaction?

1. Kin selection
2. Mutualism
3. Direct competition
4. Character displacement
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Question No. 19 / Question ID 703144 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the following microbes is an obligate biotroph?

1. Botrytis cinerea
2. Phytophthora infestans
3. Puccinia graminis
4. Trichoderma harzianum
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Question No. 20 / Question ID 703155 Marks: 2.00

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Saara hardwickii, a spiny-tailed lizard , is a diurnal, ground-dwelling species

currently known from the Indian subcontinent. It is endemic to which one of the
fol lowing habitats?

1. Rainforests of Eastern Himalayas

2. Dry deciduous forests of central India
3. Moist deciduous forests of Western Ghats
4. Thar desert of India
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Question No. 21 / Question ID 703145 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the followi ng is generated in skeletal muscle cells by the single quanta
of acetylcholine released from the motor nerve terminals?

1. Inhibitory post-synaptic potential

2. Inhibitory junction potential
3. Endplate potential
4. Miniature endplate potential
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Question No. 22 / Question ID 703147 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the following statements about human chori onic gonadotropin is
INCORRECT?

1. It contains galactose and hexosamine .

2. Its a-subunit is identical in TSH .
3. Its !3-subunit is smaller than a-subunit in size.
4. It is primarily luteinizing in nature.

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Question No. 23 / Question ID 703127 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the following is NOT a major phospholipid in mammalian plasma

membrane?

1. Phosphatidylinositol
2. Phosphatidylserine
3. Sphingomyelin
4. Cholesterol
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Question No. 24 / Question ID 703167 Marks: 2.00

Which experiment would best validate the bioremediation potential of a microbial

strain degrading oil spills in seawater?

1. Using seawater without oil contamination to monitor microbial growth.

2. Testing microbial growth in seawater with added nutrients but no oil.
3. Monitoring oill concentration in a system inoculated with microbes versus an
uninoculated system.
4. Comparing microbial growth in aerated versus non-aerated seawater
samples.
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Question No. 25 / Question ID 703150 Marks: 2.00

UV mutagenesis was performed to isolate mutants of the /acZ gene. The mutation
rate of this gene is 1 X 104 per cell division . Assuming that an E. coli culture was
initiated from a cu lture density of 1 X 102 cells and grown to a density of 1 X 106
ce lls, how many /acZ mutants are expected in th is population?

1. ~1
2. ~ 10
3. ~ 100
4. ~ 1000

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Question No. 26 / Question ID 703135 Marks: 2.00

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Fil l in the blanks:

Glioblastomas , oligodendrogliomas, and astrocytomas harbour mutations in

isocitrate dehydrogenase (IDH ). The IDH mutations found in these cancers cause
the enzyme to convert isocitrate into the oncometabolite, _ _ _ _ _ , which
accumu lates in cancer cells. This oncometabolite works by inhibiting several
enzymes that require _ _ _ _ for their function .

1. 2-hydroxyglutarate, succinate
2. 2-hydroxybutyrate, a-ketoglutarate
3. 2-hydroxyglutarate, 2-hydroxybutyrate
4. 2-hydroxyglutarate, a-ketoglutarate
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Question No. 27 / Question ID 703154 Marks: 2.00

The order Psilotales can be identified by which one of the fol lowing
characteristics?

1. Leafless and rootless body with a dichotomously branching stem

2. Very large fronds , some reaching 4.5 m or more in length
3. Scale leaves that are borne in whorls at the node
4. A plant body that consists of microphylls and roots only

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Question No. 28 / Question ID 703169 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the foll owing techniques can identify acetylation on a lysine residue
of a protein?

1. Mass spectrometry
2. SOS-PAGE
3. Li ght scattering
4. CD spectroscopy

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Question No. 29 / Question ID 703146 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the fo llowing blood cell types is formed from megakaryocyte during
development of blood cells from bone marrow?

1. Monocytes
2. Neutrophils
3. Eosinophils
4. Platelets
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Question No. 30 / Question ID 703132 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the following modifications in their native system does NOT lead to
translation inhibition?

1. Nucleotide addition resulting in incorporation of a stem-loop structure in the

mRNA upstream of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence.
2. Nucleotide addition resu lting in the Shine-Dalgarno sequence being a part of
a stem-loop structure in the mRNA.
3. Expression of an elF2 mutant that mimics its phosphorylated state.
4. Mutation that leads to decrease in the processivity of capping enzyme that
leaves numerous mRNAs devoid of CAP structure.
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Question No. 31 / Question ID 703136 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the follow ing statements about peripheral lymph nodes is
INCORRECT?

1. They contain fibroblast reticular cells that form a conduit system to guide cell
movement within the node.
2. They are responsible for immune responses to blood-borne pathogens.
3. T ce lils encounter antigen presented on dendritic cells in the paracortex of
lymph nodes.
4. They contain B cells in special areas called follicles .

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Question No. 32 / Question ID 703153 Marks: 2.00

As per the India State of Forest Report 2021 , the percentage cover of 'very dense
forests' as a component of the country's tota l geographical area is:

1. 3.04
2. 9.33
3. 9.44
4. 21 .71
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Question No. 33 / Question ID 703156 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the following morphological characters can help you differentiate
Leptosporangiate ferns from the Eusporangiate ferns?

1. Presence and absence of sporangium

2. Ploidy of the spores
3. The number of cells from which the sporangium is formed
4. The total number of alternations of generations recorded in a single life cycle

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Question No. 34 / Question ID 703131 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the fo llowing statements about RNA polymerase in eukaryotes is

INCORRECT?

1. RNA polymerase I synthesizes 18S , 5.8S and 28S rRNAs.

2. RNA polymerase II synthesizes messenger RNA (mRNA).
3. RNA polymerase II requires a sigma factor (o) to initiate transcription.
4. RNA polymerase Ill synthesizes 5S rRNA and tRNA .

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Question No. 35 / Question ID 703125 Marks: 2.00

Wh ich one of the following is likely to enter a pure phospholipid biilayer?

1. CO2 and Diethyl urea

2. Water and Glucose
3. Lysine and Ethanol
4. Urea and Chloride ions

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Question No. 36 / Question ID 703122 Marks: 2.00

The Citric acid cycle (TCA) operates only in the presence of molecular oxygen
(02). This is because

1. 02 activates enzymatiic dehydrogenation reactions in the cycle.

2. 02 accepts electrons from electron transport chain, allowing reoxidation of
NADH to NAO+.
3. 02 removes toxic by-products of the TCA cycle.
4. 02 activates ATP synthase.
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Question No. 37 / Question ID 703129 Marks: 2.00

Two types of mutant E. coli were identified: in the hypermethylation mutant (type A),
DNA is methylated at the GATC sequences as soon as daughter DNA is
synthesized; and in the second type, GATC sequences are never methylated (type
B).

Which mutant will have a greater effect on the MMR system , leading to the
accumulation of spontaneous mutations?

1. Type A > Type B

2. Type B > Type A
3. Type A= Type B
4. Type B mutants will not accumulate spontaneous mutations

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Question No. 38 / Question ID 703137 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the following statements regarding mutations in the mitochondria

during aging is INCORRECT?

1. Mutations in mitochondrial genome lead to defects in energy production.

2. The mutation rate in mitochondria is much higher than that in the nucleus.
3. Mutations reduce ROS production since electron transport is faulty.
4. There is an enhanced rate of apoptosis in cells with mutant mitochondria.
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Question No. 39 / Question ID 703165 Marks: 2.00

Live vaccines are generally used to protect against which one of the following
viruses?

1. Hepatitis A
2. Hepatitis B
3. Rabies
4. Smallpox
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Question No. 40 / Question ID 703158 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the following is an example of character displacement?

1. Two sympatric lizards with similar morphologies consume the same insects.
2. Two sympatric birds evolve distinct beak shapes to consume seeds of
different plants.
3. A predator evolves higher visual acu ity to catch camouflaged prey.
4. Two plant species have similar flower shapes to attract the same pollinators.

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Question No. 41 / Question ID 703151 Marks: 2.00

The disease phenylketonuria is caused by the null allele of the gene phenylalanine
hydroxylase (PAH). This is an example of a recessive mutation . Which one of the
following terms is the best description of the willd type allele of PAH?

1. Gain-of-function
2. Haplosufficient
3. Epistatiic
4. Allele with additive effect

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Question No. 42 / Question ID 703140 Marks: 2.00

Which is the correct hierarchy of gene activity in early Drosophila segmentation?

1. Gap, pair-rule, segment polarity, maternal

2. Maternal, gap, pair-rule, segment polarity
3. Maternal, pair-rule, gap, segment polarity
4. Segment polarity, pair-rule, gap, maternal
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Question No. 43 / Question ID 703138 Marks: 2.00

The epigenetic regulators DEMETER (DME) and MEDEA (MEA) act synergistically
to repress endosperm development in the absence of double fertilization during
seed development in Arabidopsis. Which one of the following options is the correct
enzymatic function of DME and MEA?

1. DME is a DNA glycosylase; MEA is a DNA methyl transferase.

2. DME is a DNA methyl transferase; MEA is a histone methyl transferase.
3. DME is a histone methyl transferase; MEA is a DNA methyl transferase.
4. DME is a DNA glycosylase; MEA is a histone methyl transferase.
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View Question Paper...

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Question No. 44 / Question ID 703161 Marks: 2.00

The dominant and recessive alleles of a gene are 'A' and 'a', respectively. In 1000
offspring , if 500 are 'aa' and 500 are of the other genotypes, which one of the
following is the most likely combination of parental genotypes?

1. Aa and Aa
2. AA and Aa
3. Aa and aa
4. AA and aa
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Question No. 45 / Question ID 703162 Marks: 2.00

What type of invertebrate fossils, commonly found in the Spiti Valley of India, are
characteristic of the Cambrian era?

1. Ammon ites
2. Trilobites
3. Mosquitoes
4. Glossopteris
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0
0
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Question No. 46 / Question ID 703124 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the following types of interactions will be predominantly contributing

to the stability of a nucleosome?

1. Hydrogen bonds between DNA base pairs and serine/ threonine residues of
histones.
2. van der Waal's interactions between DNA base pairs and hydrophobic
residues of histones.
3. Hydrogen bonds between DNA phosphate backbone and the main chain
atoms of histones.
4. Electrostatic interactions involving DNA phosphate backbone and lysine
residues of histones.
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0
•
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Question No. 47 / Question ID 703123 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the fol lowing statements is true regarding ~-oxidation of fatty acids?

1. It occurs in the intermembrane space (IMS) region of mitochondria.

2. All the reactions are same for the saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.
3. Fatty acids are oxidized at C-3 position to remove a two-carbon unit.
4. Lipoprotein lipase catalyzes the first step.
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0
View Question Paper...

0
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Question No. 48 / Question ID 703141 Marks: 2.00

Which one of the following events occurs during the light reaction of
photosynthesis and directly contributes to the formation of ATP?

1. Splitting of water molecules into oxygen, protons, and electrons

2. Transfer of electrons from Photosystem I to NADP+ to form NADPH
3. Carbon fixation by the enzyme RuBisCO in the stroma
4. Establishment of a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane

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Question No. 49 / Question ID 703143 Marks: 2.00

Which of the following Vitamin B complex derivatives constitute the chromophore

of the blue light photoreceptor cryptochrome in plants?

1. B3andB12
2. B2 and 89
3. B2 and 8 12
4. B3 and B9
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0
0
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Question No. 50 / Question ID 703159 Marks: 2.00

View Question Paper...

Tectonic uplift can alter the drainage patterns of rivers, thereby isolating
populations of many species. Population isolation of this kind results from w hich
one of the fo llow ing processes?

1. D ispersa I
2. V icariance
3. Range expansion
4. Competitive exclusion

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3) PART C
Question No. 1 / Question ID 703214 Marks: 4.00

The table below shows types of chemical mutagens and names of mutagens.

Column X Column Y

Types of chemical mutagens Names of mutagens

A Base analogs i Nitrous acid

B Intercalating agents ii Ethyl Methane Sulphonate

C Deaminating agents ii i Ethidium Bromide

D Alkylating agents iv 5-Bromouracil

Which one of the fol low ing options show s the correct match between Column X and
Column Y?
1. A: iv B : iii C: i D:
2. A: i B : iv C: iii D:
3. A: ii B : iii C : iv D:
4. A: ii i B : ii C: i D:v

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View Question Paper...

Question No. 2 / Question ID 703173 Marks: 4.00

At what range of substrate concentration will an enzyme with a k cat of 30 s-1 and a
Km of 0.005 M show one-quarter of its maximum rate?

1. 3. 0 x 10-3 M to 3. 1 x 1Q-3 M
2. 0.65 x10-3 M to 0.75 x10-3 M
3. 1.65 X 10-3 M to 1. 75 X 10-3 M
4. 2.7 x1 o-3 M to 2.8 x10-3 M

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Question No. 3 / Question ID 703174 Marks: 4.00

A cytoplasmic monomeric protein containing a single non-surface exposed cysteine

residue precipitates upon mutation of the Cys to 'lie'. However, the mutation of Cys
to 'Ala' leads to a soluble and functional protein equivalent to the native form. Which
one of the following statements explains the above observations?

1. Cys mutated to 'Ile' alters the net charge of the protein, while mutation to 'Ala'
does not.
2. Cys mutated to 'Ala' alters the net charge of the protein , whiile mutation to 'lie'
does not.
3. Cys mutated to 'Ala' causes steric hindrance in the core of the protein , while
mutation to 'lie' does not.
4. Cys mutated to 'lie' causes steric hindrance in the core of the protein, while
mutation to 'Ala ' does not.

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Question No. 4 / Question ID 703182 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Given below are a few statements about intracellular protein transport.

A. Proteins that are destined for the lysosome are tagged with a mannose-6-
phosphate (M 6P ) group in the Golgi apparatus, whi ch is recognized by the
M6P receptor in the trans-Golgi network.
B. Signal recognition particle directly mediates the insertion of proteins into the
mitochondrial membrane.
C. The KDEL receptor in the ER and Golgi apparatus works by retrieving soluble
ER resident proteins that have accidentally moved to the Golgi.
D. Cargo proteins that need to be exported from the ER are packaged into COPII
vesicles based on the presence of an ER export signal in their cytosol ic tai l.
E. Clathrin-coated vesicles are primarily involved in vesicle trafficking between
the Golgi apparatus and the ER.

Choose the option that has all correct statements.

1. A, C and D
2. A , Band E
3. A and D only
4. C and E

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Question No. 5 / Question ID 703191 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The followi ng statements are made regarding the role of cadherins in cell junctions.

A. Cadherins are calcium-dependent adhesion molecules that mediate cell to

ce ll adhesion by forming homophilic interactions.
B. Cadherins function in tight j unctions, sealing the space between adjacent
cells.
C. N-cadherins are primarily found in epithelial cells and mediate adhesion to
the basal lamina.
D. Cadherins are involved in the formation of focal adhesiions linking the cell
cytoskeleton to the ECM.
E. Cadherins interact with the actin cytoskeleton through associated proteins
Iike caten ins.

Which one of the followi ng options represents all correct statements?

1. B, C and E
2. A, Band D
3. A and D only
4. A and E only

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Question No. 6 / Question ID 703181 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Given below are components that facilitate transfer of molecules across

phospholipid bilayers (Column X) and the properties of these components (Column
Y).

Column X Column Y
Membrane component Activity
A ATP powered pumps I Movement of molecules against
concentration gradient coupled to another
molecule moving down the concentration
gradient
B Uniporter II Free diffusion of hydrophilic molecules
C Channels Ill Movement of molecules against a
concentration gradient and/or electric
potential
D Symporter IV Transport of hydrophilic molecules down their
concentration gradients

Choose the option that correctly matches the components with their properties.

1. A (IV) B (II) C (I) D (Ill)

2. A (II) B (Ill) C (IV) D (I)
3. A (Ill) B (IV) C (I) D (II)
4. A (Ill) B (IV) C (II) D (I)

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Question No. 7 / Question ID 703229 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The followi ng table show s forest floor litter pool and aboveground litterfall data for
three forest types.

Forest Type Forest floor litter pool Aboveground litterfall

{gC/m2 ) {gC/m2/yr)
A. 5000 50
B. 1500 300
C. 600 600

Based on the provided information , which one of the following options accurately
identifies the various forest types?

1. A- Tropical forest, B- Temperate deciduous forest, C- Temperate coniferous

forest

2. A- Temperate coniferous forest, B- Temperate deciduous forest, C- Tropical

forest

3. A- Temperate coniferous forest, B- Tropical forest , C- Temperate deciduous

forest

4. A- Tropical forest, B- Temperate coniferous forest, C- Temperate deciduous

forest
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Question No. 8 / Question ID 703217 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Quantitative Trait Loci (QTLs) can be identified using two main approaches: bi-
parental matings (BPM) and Genome-Wide Association Stud ies (GWAS). Below are
some descriptors related to these strategies:
A. Large sample size
B. Small sample size
C. Popu lation derived from controlled crosses
D. Random mating populations
E. Limited to two alleles per locus
F. Multiple alleles per locus
G. Linkage-based mapping
H. Linkage disequi librium-based mapping

The table below presents four incornpl'ete statements regarding 8PM and GWAS.
Each statement can be completed using the above descriptors.

Option The analysis is The number of The analysis Sample size

typically cond ucted alleles that can relies on - - needed to
on possibly be identify loci with
analysed small effect

BPM GWAS · sPM GWAS 8PM GWAS BPM GWAS

i. C D E F G H A A
ii. D C E F H G A B
iii. C D F E H G B A
iv. D C F E G H B B

Which one of the following options correctly completes all statements?

1. i
2. ii
3. iii
4. iv

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Question No. 9 / Question ID 703196 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The table below shows different developmental processes and associated signaling
molecules/pathways.

Developmental Process Signaling molecules/pathw ays

A Dorsal/ventral axis specification in Wnt/~-catenin ; BMP4 ; Activin/N odal
amphibian embryo
B Dorsal/ventral axis specification in Engrailed ; Wnt/~-catenin ; BMP
mammalian limb
C Dorsal/ventral axis specification in FGF; Hh; Opp
Drosophila oocyte
D Anterior/posterior axis specification Shh·, FGF ·' Notch
.

in mammalian limb

Wh ich one of the follow ing options represents the correct association of
developmental processes and signaling molecules?

1. Aand B
2. Band D
3. A and C
4. C and D
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Question No. 10 / Question ID 703187 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The mRNA of the E.coli lac operon contains the open reading frames for lacZ, lacY,
and lacA genes from a single cistron. It is observed that lacZ is translated more
frequently than /acY or lacA. Which one of the following statements best describes
the reason for this observation?

1. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is present upstream of /acZ, but not lacY or

lacA, affecting translation initiation rates.
2. Inhibitory RNA structures are present upstream of the AUG codon of lacYand
lacA, but not lacZ, affecting translation initiation rates.
3. Variations in the Shine-Dalgarno sequence upstream of /acZ, lacY, and lacA
have different affinities for the ribosome, affecting translation initiation rates.
4. Inhibitory RNA structures are present in the lacY and lacA coding sequence
but not /acZ, affecting translation e.longation rates.
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Question No. 11 / Question ID 703220 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Match the animal in Column X with its characteristic in Column Y.

Column X Column Y
A. Snakes I. Lateral Line

B. Spiders IL Heat sensing pits

C. Fishes 111. Echolocation

D. Dolphins IV. Spinnerets

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Column
X and Column Y?

1. A-II B-IV C-1 D-111

2. A-I B-11 C-111 D-IV
3. A-Ill B-1 C-11 D-IV
4. A-II B-111 C-IV D-1
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Question No. 12 / Question ID 703232 Marks: 4.00

Wh ich one of the fo llowing statements is NOT part of the neutral paradigm in
ecology?

1.. All individuals in the community have equal fitness and competitive ability.
2. Loss of competing species to extinction is through a slow, random process .
3. Diversity is maintained by speciation rates counteracting extinction rates .
4. Ecological drift results in stable coexistence of a given set of species.
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Question No. 13 / Question ID 703171 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

An enzyme has been found to efficiently catalyse the fo llowing reaction:

kt
A ~ 8
'kr

Where,
kt : Forward rate of the reaction
kr : Reverse rate of the reaction
Keq : Equilibrium Constant
Which one of the following parameters will be increased over the uncatalyzed
reaction by the enzyme?
1. kr
2. Keq
3. 1/kr
4. 1/Keq

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Question No. 14 / Question ID 703202 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The figure below depicts the feedback regulation in the biosynthesis pathway
of three branched-chain amino acids (BCAA) - Leu , Va l, and lie, acting at three
major steps catalyzed by enzymes AHAS , IPMS, and TD . The activity of AHAS
is feedback regulated by the synergistic combination of Leu and Val. lPMS
activity is regulated exclusively by Leu . lie regulates TD activity whi le Val can
re lax this feedback regulation on TD by lie.

Pyruvate Threonine
JAHAS 1-- TD l
J
-l
2-0xoisovalerate ''l
I IPMS
l
"--lie

l
l --1 Feedback regulation
l
--- Leu-----

Which one of the following possibilities of BCAA pools is likely to occur in the RNAi
knockdown of IPMS?

1. Both Leu and Val will decrease.

2. Leu will decrease, and Val remains unchanged.
3. Leu will decrease and both Val and lie will increase.
4. Only Leu wil l decrease.
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Question No. 15 / Question ID 703193 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The following statements are made regarding apoptosis in the nematode, C.

elegans:

A. The human ortholog of C. efegans, CED-9 is overexpressed in a 8-cell

lymphoma.
B. A ced-9(gain-of-function);ced-3(foss-of-function) double mutant will have
more than 947 non-gonadal cells.
C. If purified EGL-1 is added to a CED-9/CED-4 complex in vitro , the
autocleavage of CED-3 does not occur.
D. CED-8 is a multi-spanning plasma membrane protein that is required for
externalization of phosphatidylserine.

Which one of the following options represents all correct statements?

1. A, B C and D
2. A and B only
3. A, B and D only
4. B, C and D only
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Question No. 16 / Question ID 703231 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The following statements describe change in allele frequencies over time.

A. Fixation of an allele is purely by chance, wh ile other alleles are lost.

B. Genetic drift can lead to the loss of certain alleles over time, reducing genetic
diversity within the population.
C. Changes in allele frequencies are due to positive selection.
D. There is a pronounced effect in small populations, where random events can
drastically alter allele frequencies.

Which one of the followin g options represents the combination of al l correct

statements if allele frequencies change purely due to genetic drift?

1. A, Band C
2. A, Band D
3. B, C and D
4. A, C and D
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Question No. 17 / Question ID 703240 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The figure given below represents the same data in six different ways. "A"
represents the scatter plot of all data points and "B" is its corresponding box and
whisker plot. "C" to "F" represent the same dataset with different measures of central
tendency alongside various measures of variation (S EM - Standard Error of Mean,
SD - Standard Deviation, Cl - 95% confidence interval).

25
A B C D E F

...
C
20
,.••,.
Q1
e
.
-
15
Q1
::::,
••
fl)
(,:i 10 ' ~
Q1
~
••• •
5 •••
0

Which one of the following options is a correct representation of the data?

1. C= Mean ± quartiles; D= Median ± SEM; E = Median ± Cl

2. D= Mean± SD; E= Mean ± Cl ; F = Mean ± SEM
3. C= Median with quartiles; D= Mean ± SEM; E = Mean with Cl
4. D= Mean ± SEM; E = Mean± Cl ; F = Mean ± SD

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Question No. 18 / Question ID 703195 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The followi ng statements w ere made regarding regulation of aging in C. e/egans:

A. In most cells, p53 remains bound to a repressor protein to keep it inactive,

which is activated under oxidative stress when DNA damage separates p53
from its repressor.
B. DAF-2 functions as an insulin-like growth factor receptor to block Forkhead
transcription factor and increases the life span.
C. When DAF-2 is not active, cells reduce the production of DNA repair
enzymes.
D. Dietary restriction increases mTORC1 activity, enhancing functional! stem
ce lls and longevity.

Which one of the following options has the combination of all correct statements?

1. A and B
2. Band C
3. C and D
4. A and D
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Question No. 19 / Question ID 703237 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

In an experiment, FITC-CD4 and PE-CD8 were used to stain thymocytes. The cells
were then run through a flow cytometer and the data were plotted as CD4 vs CD8 .
The results are shown in the figure below and following statements are made:

A. Rearrangement of TGR-13 locus is initiated in cells included in the quadrant

containing 3.58% of the population.
B. TCR-a locus rearrangement occurs in cells included in the quadrant
containing 87 .5% population.
C. FITC-CD4 and PE-CD8 ca nnot stain the same cells.
D. Rearranged TCR-y8 receptor is expressed on 7.06% population of cells.

Wh ich one of the following options represents the combination of all co rrect
statements?

1. A and B on ly
2. A and D
3. A, Band C
4. B only

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Question No. 20 / Question ID 703212 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Men suffering from enlarged prostate disease were prescribed drugs that would
specifical.ly target the androgen receptor (AR). While developing the drug, the
following considerations were deliberated on:

A. Drugs should target the N-terminal domain of the AR.

B. Drugs should not target the NLS domain of the AR.
C. The drug should bind to the ligand-binding domain of the AR.
D. The drug should activate CYP17A1 to facilitate conversion of pregnenolone
to DHEA.

Which one of the following combinations of considerations will develop the best drug
for treatment of enlarged prostate?

1. Aand B
2. Band C
3. C and D
4. A and C

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Question No. 21 / Question ID 703183 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The helicase activity of E. coli DnaB was investigated using the following two
substrates (I and II ) under various conditions, followed by gel electrophoresis and
autoradiography. The results of these experiments are depicted below:

Substrate I Substrate II

SSB +- - +++
0MB + •• + + - Substra.te I
, Radiolabeled ONA .
~p + - - + - + ~~ 1111111111111I 1 1 11 ~
Un labeled DNA
Bo iling - + - - - - + -
Dire ction of
mi11ration
I

- - - - -
l

-
The following statements are made purely from the results shown above:

A. DnaB can unwind on ly a partially unwound DNA.

B. SSB inhibits the unwinding activity of DnaB .
C. DnaB unwinds DNA in the 5' to 3' direction .
D. DnaB requires ATP for DNA unwinding .

Which one of the fol lowing options represents the combination of all correct
statements?

1. A.Band D
2. A, C and D
3. C and D only
4. A and D only

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Question No. 22 / Question ID 703223 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Two closely related sympatric ladybird beetle species in a rainforest have evolved
to specialise on different insect prey. Which one of the following statements does
NOT explain the speciation process in these beetle species?

1. Populations exploited different diets in the rainforests.

2. Over time , natural selection favoured traits that allowed the consumption of
distinct diets.
3. Diverging populations developed differences in diet. However, it did not lead
to reproductive isolation.
4. Temporal differentiation in their forag ing activity led to their distinct diets.

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Question No. 23 / Question ID 703215 Marks: 4.00

Given below are a few statements regarding gene actions observed in plants.

A. In terms of pollination, self-pollinated species often exhibit add itive gene

action.
B. Non-additive gene action is less prevalent in cross-pollinated species.
C. Simply inherited (qualitative, oligogenic) traits predominantly exhibit non-
additive and epistatic gene action.
D. Genetic fixation of superior genes will be more difficult with dominance gene
action.

Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct
statements?

1. A, Band C
2. A, C and D
3. B, C and D
4. A and B only
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Question No. 24 / Question ID 703219 Marks: 4.00

https://narm28csir12ugc54hdb.onlineregistrationform.org/NMCSIRUGC/01Mar2025/09001200/241620079662.html[11-03-2025 20:59:49]
View Question Paper...

The table given below provides a comprehensive list of selected plant diseases
(Column X) and possible causal pathogens (Column Y).

Column X Column Y

Plant Disease Pathogen

A. Apple scab I. Claviceps purpurea

B. Ergot of cereals 11. Erwinia amylovora

C. Fire bliight 111. Meloidogyne spp.

D. Root-Knot IV. Venturia inaequalis

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Column
X and Column Y?

1. A-IV B-11 C-111 D-1

2. A-II B-1 C-IV D-111

3. A-I B-IV C-111 D-11

4. A-IV B-1 C-11 D-111

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Question No. 25 / Question ID 703206 Marks: 4.00

https://narm28csir12ugc54hdb.onlineregistrationform.org/NMCSIRUGC/01Mar2025/09001200/241620079662.html[11-03-2025 20:59:49]
View Question Paper...

A researcher obtained a loss-of-function mutant of plasmodesmata protein

synaptotagmin (SYTA) in Arabidops is and infected the plants with cabbage leaf curl
virus (CaLCuV). The following statements represent possible outcomes of the above
experiment.

A. The CaLCuV infection wi ll be slower in the mutant plants.

B. The mutant plants wil l be completely resistant to the vira l infection.
C. The endocytic recycling pathway in the infected cells willl be compromised in
the mutant plants.
D. The disease symptoms will be more severe in the mutant plants.

Which one of the following options represents all correct statement(s)?

1. A and C
2. Band C
3. B only
4. D
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Question No. 26 / Question ID 703175 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

If a 0.1 M solution of glucose 1-phosphate is incubated with a catalytic amount of

phosphoglucomutase, the glucose 1-phosphate is transformed to glucose 6-
phosphate. At equilibrium , the concentrations of the reaction components are:

Glucose 1-phosphate ~ Glucose 6-phosphate

(4.5 X 10-3 M) (9.6 X 10-2 M)

What would be the calculated values for K'eq and ll.G 0 ' for this reaction at 25°C?

1. (0.0045 to 0.096) and (-0.7 to -0.8) kJ/mol

2. (21 to 22) and (-7 .5 to -7 .7) kJ/mol
3. (0.1 to 0.2) and (-17.6 to -17 .7) kJ/mol
4. (21 to 22 ) and (-27.7 to -27.8) kJ/mol
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Question No. 27 / Question ID 703245 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

A purified 150 kDa prote in species from gel filtration column was run on a 2-
dimensional SOS-PAGE as shown below:

SOS-PAGE
-------+
SDS-PAGE
~ - - - - ~ +DTT

What is the likely form of the 150 kDa protein species from this observation?

1. There are at least two proteins that are linked through non-covalent
interactions.
2. There are at least two proteins in the complex that are linked through
covalent bonds.
3. There are two proteins in the mixture without forming a complex.
4. There is only one protein that has a disulfide bond .

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Question No. 28 / Question ID 703186 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Given below are different types of genetic manipulations of E. coli trp operon
(Column X) and their consequences on its transcription (Column Y) under high
tryptopha n concentration.

trp operon Leader (trpL)

A

trpR p trpE trpD trpC trpB trpA

Sequence 1 2 3 4 attenuator

Column X Column Y
A. Inserting bases between the i. Complete attenuation
leader peptide gene and
sequence 2
B. Inserting bases between ii. Less attenuation
sequences 2 and 3
C. Deleting sequence 4 iii. More attenuation
D. Elimination of ribosome-binding iv. No attenuation
site for the leader peptide

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Column
X and Column Y?

1. A (i) B (ii) C (iii ) D (iv)

2. A (i) B (iii) C (ii) D (iv)
3. A(iv) B (ii) C (iii) D (i)
4. A (ii) B (iiii) C (iv) D (i)

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Question No. 29 / Question ID 703194 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Lethally irradiated mice were split into 4 groups and experiments were conducted
as described below:

Group 1 was not given any cells.

Group 2 was given thymus-derived cells from a syngeneic donor, and two months
later, immunized with a polysaccharide antigen.
Group 3 was given bone marrow cells from a syngeneic donor, and two months later,
immunized with a polysaccharide antigen .
Group 4 was given bone marrow cells from a syngeneic donor, and two months later,
immunized with a T-dependent antigen.

Four possible outcomes, listed below, were suggested.

A. Group 1 mice are unlikely to survive.

B. Group 2 mice are likely to produce antibodies in response to
polysaccharide antigens.
C. Group 3 mice are likely to produce antibodies in response to
polysaccharide antigens.
D. Group 4 mice are likely to produce antibodies in response to T-dependent
antigens.

Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct
statements?

1. A and B only
2. A, Band D
3. A and C only
4. A, C and D
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Question No. 30 / Question ID 703230 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Which statement about studies on successiion is INCORRECT?

1. Succession studies can revea l the effects of non-native species on the

ecological structures and functions of a community.
2. Studies of succession can indicate th reshold conditions for the 'invasion
window'.
3. Non-native invasion can divert succession by out-competing existing species.
4. Succession studies show that coevolved native species always outcompete
invasive species.
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Question No. 31 / Question ID 703241 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Two newly identified proteins, X and Y, are tested for sequence-specific DNA binding
activity. The results of an electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA) with a labeled
DNA fragment and proteins X and Yin various combinations are shown below.

Poly
dl:dC - - - - + +

y - - + + - +
,_
X - + - + +
DNA + + + + + +

--
- - -
Free
DNA
_.,
_,
!- - - I- -
Poly dl:dC is a DNA duplex of polyinosine and polycytosine. Which one of the
following options represents the correct interpretation of the results obtained?

1. Both X and Y are sequence-specific DNA binding proteins.

2. X does not bind to DNA and Y binds to specific sequence.
3. Both proteins bind to DNA but Y binds in a sequence-specific manner.
4. X competes with Y to bind the same sequence .

•
0
0
0

Question No. 32 / Question ID 703235 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The following statements are about parental care and variance in reproductive
success in a bird species.

A. If females provide more parental care than males, the variance in male
reproductive success is significantly greater than that of fema les.
B. Where only males provide parental care , the variance in female reproductive
success is significantly higher than that of males.
C. In the case of biparental ca re, the variance in male reproductive success is
significantly greater than that of females .
D. In the case of biparental care, the variance in female reproductive success is
significantly greater than that of males.

Select the option that identifies the combination of all correct statements.

1. A and B
2. A and C
3. Band D
4. C and D

•
0
0
0

Question No. 33 / Question ID 703242 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

A student used four 20~mer oligos to amplify DNA (using a regular Taq DNA
polymerase) from a wild type (WT}, a homozygous mutant having a deletion of the
gene (del), and from the heterozygous mutant (het), as shown in the figure below.

SOObp 300 bp
r------, .------,
I I
'' '
__..,,
PrimerFW : '
''
___.,
Primer FD
------
15 kb cleletron
~ +--
Pr!marO Primer R

'''
.............
'
500bp

Agarose gel electrophoresis profiles, using all four primers simultaneously, on each
template are shown below. Which one of the options given below represents the
correct profile?

WT het del

1. 1000bpg
?SOop
-
- -
500bp - - -

WT het del

2. ,,,,,.~- - I
760 bp
500bp -
-
,_
-

WT het d el
1000 b p- ==-
760bp - - -
500bp- _ , -

WT het del

4. 100.7S0□ bpbp~
:. - - -
:
SOOb,p - __

0
0
0
0

Question No. 34 / Question ID 703221 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The table below lists selected bird species (Column X) and their possible habitats
(Column Y).

Column X Column Y
A. Bugun liocichla (Uocichla bugunorum) I. High altitude Western Himalayas

B. Grey-headed Bulbul (Pycnonutus 11. Northeast India

priocephalus)
111. Western Ghats
Brooks's leaf-Warbler (Phyl/oscopus
C.
subviridis) IV. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Column
X and Column Y?
1. A-I B-II C-111
2. A-Ill B-I C-IV
3. A-IV B-II C-111
4. A-II B-111 C-I

0
0
0
0

Question No. 35 / Question ID 703204 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Shown in the table below are the enzymes (Column X) involved in the biosynthesis
of listed phytohormones (Column Y).

Column X Column Y
A. Carotenoid cleavage i. Brassiinosteroid
dioxygenase
B ER localized cytochrome ii. Strigolactone
P450 monoxygenase
C. ACC oxidase iii. Abscisic acid
D. 9-cis-epoxycarotenoi d iv. Ethylene
dioxygenase

Which one of the following options represents al l correct matches between Column
X and Column Y?

1. A (ii) B (i) C (i ii) D (iv)

2. A (i) B (ii) C (iv) D (iii)
3. A (iv) B (ii) C (iii) D (i)
4. A (ii) B (i) C {i v) D (iii)

0
0
0
•
Question No. 36 / Question ID 703172 Marks: 4.00
View Question Paper...

Three strands of a beta-sheet of 4 peptides are hydrogen bonded with the

orientation of the strands (parallel or antiparallel denoted by the arrowheads) as
shown in the figure. Each strand consists of identical residues , where N and C
represent termina l residues of the peptide. The three strands of each peptide are
linked by amino acid sequences of the smallest length possible.

N N N C N C

C C
Peptide 1 Peptide 2 Peptide 3 Peptide 4

Wh ich one of the following options is correct regarding the length of the peptides 1
to 4?

1. (Peptide 1 = Peptide 2) < Peptide 3 < Peptide 4

2. Peptide 1 < (Peptide 3 = Peptide 4) < Peptide 2
3. Peptide 1 < Peptide 3 < Peptide 4 < Peptide 2
4. Peptide 1 < Peptide 2 < Peptide 3 < Peptide 4
0
•
0
0

Question No. 37 / Question ID 703244 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The magnetic field generated from an electromagnet is used in the transcranial

magnetic stimulation (TMS) of the brain. The following statements suggest some
features of TMS:

A. The magnetic field generated in TMS induces an electrical field in the

underlying brain area.
B. The electrical field in the brain area alters the membrane potential of the
neurons ln that locality causing them to depolarize synchronously, which in
turn, may change the probabil ity of the firing of neurons.
C. In cognitive neuroscience research , TMS may be used as a tool to iinduce a
'virtual lesion' in a selected region of the cerebral cortex.
D. TMS is safe and non-invasive but the neuronal activity of the stimulated area
is disrupted for a long period of time.

Which one of the following options represents the combination of alll correct
statements?

1.. A, Band C
2. B C and D
3. C and D only
4. Aonly
0
0
0
0

Question No. 38 / Question ID 703227 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The table below gives the avian community composition of three communities (X, Y,
Z), where '1' indicates the presence of the species in the community and O' indicates
its absence.

X y z
Red-vented bulbul 1 0 1
Purple sunbird 0 0 1
Common Babbler 0 1 1
Rufous treepie 1 1 1
Red-naped Ibis 1 1 0
Scarlet minivet 0 0 1
Spotted Owlet 0 1 0

Select the optiion that lists the correct order of similarity betvveen pairs of
communities based on Sorensen's coefficient of similarity.

1. (X, Y) > (Y ,Z) > (X,Z)

2. (X,Y) > (X,Z) > (Y,Z)
3. (Y,Z) > (X,Z) > (X,Y)
4. (X,Y) ={X,Z) =(Y,Z)
0
•
0
0

Question No. 39 / Question ID 703216 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

In Drosophila melanogaster, a cross was performed, and the resu lting progeny are
indicated below.

Females (mutant ) Males (wild type)

p: yellow body color X gray body col or and
and sepia eye color red eye color

Females
1 Males
yellow body color
F1: gray body color and
and red eye color and red eye color

The F1 progeny were sib-mated and the F2 progeny were analysed . The following
statements were made based on the above crosses and analysis of the progeny:

A. The mutation leading to sepia eye color is located on an autosome.

B. Yellow body is a dominant phenotype.
C. One fourth of the F2 progeny will be males with ye llow body color.
D. In this dihybrid cross, as the F2 progeny do not show a 9:3:3:1 typ ical
Mendelian ratio, the two genes can be assumed to be linked.

Wh ich one of the followi ng options correctly identifies each statement as True (T) or
False (F) from A to D, respectively?

1. T, F, T, F
2. F, T, T, F
3. T, T, F, F
4. F, F, T, T
0
0
0
0

Question No. 40 / Question ID 703192 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

A researcher placed plant cells in a hypertonic solution to cause the cells to shrink.
The following statements are made regarding the plasmolysed cells.

A. Microtubules are lost in the plasmolysed ce lls.

B. Protoplasts are retracted in the plasmolysed cells.
C. Hechtian strands are lost during plasmolysis.
D. Patches of plasma membrane remain affixed to the wall.

Wh ich one of the follow ing options represents the combination of all correct
statements?

1. A, Band C
2. B and C only
3. A, C and D
4. Band D
0
0
0
0

Question No. 41 / Question ID 703198 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Gradient formation of Fgf8 is governed by both diffusion from a localized source and
removal of Fgf8 ligand through endocytosis. Both Rab5C and dynamin promote
endocytosis. What would happen to the Fgf8 concentration gradient when Rab5C is
overexpressed or dynamin is inhibited?

A B
- - Normal gradient - Normal gradient
~, -------· Oynam·n inhibition ---- ---· Dynamln Inhibition
"'~.=-- ' , - - - - · Rab5C overexpressjon - - - - • Rab5C over:expression
Fgf8 '•-<.::_:_:.::_____ _
concentration

Distance from source (1,1m)

Dislance from source (µm)

C D
- - Normal gra.dient
- - Normal gradient
-------· Dynamln Inhibition
------· Dynamin inhtbition
- - - - • Rab5C overexprassfon
\,_ - - - - · Rab5Coverexpression
Fgf8 "·--.._______________ Fgf8
concentration concentration

Distance from source (µm) Dfstanoo from source (µm)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
0
0
0
0

Question No. 42 / Question ID 703208 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Given below are some statements regarding growth hormone (GH) secretion in
humans.

A. Fasting increases GH secretion.

B. REM sleep decreases GH secretion.
C. Cortisol increases GH secretion.
D. Hypoglycemia decreases GH secretion .

Wh ich one of the options giiven below represents both correct statements?

1. A and B
2. Band C
3. C and D
4. AandD
0
0
0
0

Question No. 43 / Question ID 703225 Marks: 4.00

A parasitoid infects a host to complete its life cycle. Which of the following life-history
traits typically characterizes this parasitoid, assuming that only one parasitoid infects
one host?

1.. Intrinsic rate of population growth faster than hosts; Eventually fatal for the
host
2. Intrinsic rate of population growth slower than hosts; Immediately fatal for the
host
3. Intrinsic rate of population growth comparable to hosts; Eventually fatal for
the host
4. Intrinsic rate of population growth faster than hosts; Immediately fata l for the
host
0
0
0
0

Question No. 44 / Question ID 703209 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

When blood is forced into aorta from left ventricle during systole, a pressure wave
is set up in aorta which is called pulse. Some features of the pulse are proposed in
the following statements:

A. The rate of travel of the pulse wave is lower than the velocity of blood flow
in arteries.
B. The pulse wave moves slower with advancing age as the arteries become
more rigid.
C. The pulse wave is strong when the stroke volume is large as in exercise.
D. The strength of the pulse depends on the magnitude of pulse pressure and
not on the mean arterial pressure.

Which one of the following options represents the combination of correct

statements?

1. A, B, C and D
2. B, C and D only
3. C and D only
4. Aonly
0
0
0
0

Question No. 45 / Question ID 703189 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The statements below are made about some animal pathogens that may evade
innate and inflammatory responses by the following mechanisms:

A. The flagellin of Proteobacteria has a mutation that prevents it from being

recognized by Toll-like receptors (TLRs) .
B. The lipopolysaccharides of Helicobacter have mutations that prevent it from
being recognized by TLRs.
C. M. tuberculosis escapes from the phagosome to the cytosol , thereby
avoiding degradation by lysosomal enzymes.
D. Influenza virus produces Yop protein that inhibits inflammasome activity.
E. S. typhi encodes a protein that binds Type I IFNs and prevents them from
binding to the IFN receptor.

Which one of the follow ing options represents the combination of all correct
statements?

1. Band C
2. A and C
3. D and E
4. AandB
0
0
0
0

Question No. 46 / Question ID 703184 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

A lac-lambda hybrid system is developed to study the A-repressor protein , in which

the A Cl gene is under the control of E. coli lac promoter and operator, and the facZ
gene is under the control of A-PRMpromoter and OR operator of i\-phage . Both the
plasmids are introduced in E. coli and the concentrations of the proteins are
determined upon the addition of IPTG .

lac P, O

1
}1. Cl locZ

A- repressor _______ _
Lacz _ __

A.

[IPTG] [IPTG]

D.

c
·w
e
Cl.
........

[IPTG] [IPTG]

Which graph correctly represents the expected results?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
0
0
•
0

Question No. 47 / Question ID 703179 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Actin dynamics in cells is dependent on several actin-binding proteins. Given below

are actin-binding proteins in Column X and their typical function in Column Y.

Column X Column Y
A Formin I nucleates assembly to form a branched
network
B Arp2/3 complex II stabilizes filament, modulates binding of
other accessory proteins
C Cofi lin Ill nucleates assembly and remains
associated with the growing plus end
D Tropomyosin IV binds ADP-actin filaments , accelerates
disassembly

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Column
X and Column Y?

1. A-(I) B-(II) C-(IV) D-(II I)

2. A-(III) B-(I) C-(IV) D-(I1)
3. A-(III) B-(II) C-(IV) D-(I)
4. A-(11) B-(I) C-{IV) D-(III)

0
0
0
0

Question No. 48 / Question ID 703243 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

A researcher needs to identify if Protein A is localized in the ER in a human cell

line. The cell has an RFP-tagged protein that marks the ER in this cell. Following
are the proposed experiments.
A. Express Protein A fused to GFP at the N-terminus in the cells , fol lowed by
microscopy to check for colocalization w ith RFP.
B. Express Protein A fused to GFP at the C-terminus in the cells , fol lowed by
microscopy to check for colocalization w ith RFP.
C. lmmunofluorescence staining of A, followed by microscopy to check for
co localization with RFP.
D. Isolating the ER by differential centrifugation and checking for co-purification
of Protein A with RFP.
Which one of the following options represents experiments that would most likely
identify localization of Protein A in the ER?
1. A and D
2. B, C and D
3. A and C
4. B and C only
0
0
0
0

Question No. 49 / Question ID 703211 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Urine volume is increased in osmotic diuresis which may be experimentally

produced by the intravenous administration of mannitol that is filtered in the
glomerulus but not reabsorbed in the renal tubule. The following statements suggest
some of the physiological mechanisms of osmotic diuresis.

A. In the proximal tubule, water reabsorption falls due to presence of mannitol in

tubular fluid and concentration of Na+ is decreased in this fluid.
B. In the descending loop of Henle, reabsorption of water is increased as
medullary hypertonicity is decreased in osmotic diuresis.
C. In the thin ascending loop of Henle, reabsorption of Na+ is increased as the
concentration gradient for Na+ is decreased.
D. In the collecting duct, reabsorption of water is less because of decrease in
osmotic gradient along the medullary pyramid in osmotic diuresis.

Which one of the followi ng options represents the combination of al l correct

statements?

1. A and B
2. Band C
3. C and D
4. A and D
0
0
0
0

Question No. 50 / Question ID 703180 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Given below are different types of bacterial growth curves.

A 8
.!!!
.!:!l
ai w
u
u
0
0
0
z
0 z

Time

C
D
<ll
'8u3
0
0
z

Time Time

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between the
growth curves and the type of culture?

1. A: Continuous; B: Asynchronous; C: Synchronous; D: Diauxic

2. A: Synchronous; B: Continuous; C: Asynchronous; D: DiauXic
3. A: Continuous; B: Asynchronous; C: Diauxic; D: Synchronous
4. A: Synchronous; B: Asynchronous; C: Continuous; D: Diauxic

0
0
0
•
Question No. 51 / Question ID 703177 Marks: 4.00
View Question Paper...

Protein X can be extracted from disrupted erythrocyte plasma membranes with high
salt concentrations. Treatment of intact erythrocytes with protease followed by
extraction led to intact protein X. Treatment of disrupted erythrocyte plasma
membranes with protease followed by extraction led to fragmented protein X.

The following interpretations were made:

A. Protein X is a peripheral membrane protein

B. Protein X is an integral membrane protein
C. Protein Xis on the extracellular matrix face of the plasma membrane
D. Protein X is on the cytosolic face of the plasma membrane

Which one of the following options best represents the combination of all correct
interpretations?

1. A and C
2. A and D
3. Band C
4. Band D

0
0
•
0

Question No. 52 / Question ID 703210 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The muscle spindles are the stretch receptors that initiate stretch reflex in skeletal
muscles. The fol lowing statements are proposed to describe the structural and
functional characteristics of the different components of a muscle spindle.

A. The specialized intrafusal fibers in muscle spindles have non-contractile polar

ends and a contracti le centre.
B. The intrafusal fibers do not contribute to the overall contracti le force of the
muscle.
C. The primary sensory ending in a muscle spindle is formed by group la afferent
fibers.
D. The axons of a-motor neurons having a diameter of 12-20 µm innervate the
muscle spindles as the motor nerve.

Which one of the following options represents the combination of correct

statements?

1. A and B
2. Band C
3. C and D
4. A and D

0
0
0
0

Question No. 53 / Question ID 703197 Marks: 4.00

Pollen tube growth in the transmission tract (TT) of the style and its attraction to the
embryo sac are directed by chemical cues in plants , as discovered in Lily and
Torenia. Which one of the following statements about the proteins/peptides secreted
in the process is correct?

1. TT epidermis secretes cysteine-rich defensin-like peptides, whereas

synergids (SY) secrete cysteine-rich adhesins.
2. TT epidermis secretes cysteine-rich adhesins, whereas SY secrete
cysteine-rich defensin-like peptides.
3. TT epidermis secretes proline- and hydroxyproline-rich glycoproteins,
whereas SY secrete cysteine-rich adhesin and chemocyanin.
4. TT epidermis secretes arabinogalactan proteins and chemocyanin, whereas
the central cell of the embryo sac secretes cysteine-rich LURE peptides.
View Question Paper...

0
0
0
0

Question No. 54 / Question ID 703205 Marks: 4.00

A researcher simultaneously inhibited the activities of Triose-Phosphate

Translocator (TPT) and Xylulose 5-Phosphate Translocator (XPT) in a plant and
made the following assumptions:

A. Triose phosphate will be accumulated more in the chloroplast.

B. Triose phosphate will be accumulated more in the cytosol.
C. Xylulose 5-phosphate will be accumulated more in the ch loroplast.
D. Xylulose 5-phosphate will be accumulated more in the cytosol.

Which one of the following combinations of the above assumptions is correct?

1. A and C
2. AandD
3. Band C
4. Band D
0
•
0
n
View Question Paper...

0
0
0
0

Question No. 55 / Question ID 703203 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Fol lowing statements are made regard ing methyl erythritol phosphate (MEP) and
mevalonate pathw ays for plant terpenoid biosynthesis.

A. The MEP pathway occurs in plastids whereas mevalonate pathway occurs in

cytosol.
B. The mevalonate pathway supplies most of the C5 units of terpenoids for the
biosynthesis of monoterpenes and diterpenes .
C. The MEP pathway supplies most of the Cs units of terpenoids for the
biosynthesis of sesquiterpenes .
D. Certain genes of the plant MEP pathw ay are believed to have been acquiired
from the cyanobacterial symbiont.

Which one of the following options represents a combination of all correct

statements?
1. A , Band C
2. B, C and D
3. C and D only
4. AandD
0
0
0
0

Question No. 56 / Question ID 703226 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

A student studying tree species diversity uses a large number of sampling quadrats
(each of 1-hectare area) to cover >50% of the area of a 200-hectare tropical forest
patch. Consider the statements in the options below:

A. Species numbers increase with sampling area following a power-law

relationship with exponent >0 and <1.
B. The log of species numbers increases linearly with the log of the sampling
area.
C. Species numbers increase with sampling area following a power-law
relationship with exponent >1.
D. Species numbers increase linearly with the log of the sampling area.

Which combination of the statements above describes the expected pattern?

1. A and B
2. Conly
3. Band C
4. A and D

0
0
0
0

Question No. 57 / Question ID 703239 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The followi ng statements describe a few basic features of the interferometric

reflectance imaging sensor used as a biosensing platform :

A. This biosensing platform is capable of high-throughput multiplexing of protein-

protein, protein-DNA and DNA-DNA interactions.
B. The sensing surface is prepared by robotic spotting of biological probes that
are immobiliized on functionalised Si/Si02 substrate .
C. As biomass accumu lates on the substrate surface , a change in the
interferometric signature occurs and the change can be correlated to a
quantifiable mass.
D. Using th is technique , picometer changes in biomass may be detected .

Wh ich one of the followi ng options represents the combination of al l correct

statements?

1. A, Band C
2. B, C and D
3. C and D on ly
4. A only

0
0
0
0

Question No. 58 / Question ID 703236 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

A researcher uses taxon weighting and complementarity as criteria to prioritise

communities for biodiversity conservation. The diagram below shows the
distributions offive taxa (A to E) among four regions (R1 -R4 ). Column W represents
the weightage given to these five taxa based on their taxonomic uniqueness.

w Rl R2 R3 R4

A 1 •
B 1 • • • •
' - - -· C 2 • • •
---- 0 3 • •
'------E 4 • •
Select the option that lists the appropriate order of regions that should be
prioritised (from highest to lowest) for conservation.

1. R1 > R3 > R4 > R2

2. R2 > R1 > R3 > R4
3. R3 > R1 > R4 > R2
4. R4 > R2 > R1 > R3
0
0
0
0

Question No. 59 / Question ID 703185 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The following statements were made regarding the roles of histone modifications
in transcriptional regu lation.
A. Acetylation of histones is generally associated with transcriptional repression
by making the chromatin more compact.
B. Methylation of histones can either activate or repress transcription depending
on the specific residue modified.
C. Phosphorylation of histones occurs in response to DNA damage and can
influence gene expression.
D. Histone modifications influence the recruitment of RNA polymerase complex
but not transcription factors .

Which one of the followi ng options represents the combination of all correct
statements?

1. A and D only
2. B and C only
3. B, C, and D
4. A, B, and D

•
0
0
0

Question No. 60 / Question ID 703224 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The evolution of algal lineages is close ly linked to endosymbiotic events. Which of

the fol liowing statements best explains the origin and diversification of plastids in
different algal groups?
1. Primary plastids originated from a eukaryotic host cell engulfing a red algal
ancestor, followed by secondary endosymbiosis leading to the diversification
of green and brown algal lineages.
2. Primary plastids evolved through the engulfment of a cyanobacterium by a
eukaryotic host, while secondary and tertiary endosymbiosis invollving red
and green aligae gave rise to plastids in diverse algal lineages such as
diatoms and dinoflagellates.
3. All algal lineages acquired plastids through multiple independent primary
endosymbiosis events, with cyanobacteria being engulfed by both red and
green algal ancestors.
4. Secondary endosymbiosis was responsible for the origin of primary plastids
in green algae, while tertiary endosymbiosis involving diatoms led to the
evolution of plastids in red algae.
0
0
0
0

Question No. 61 / Question ID 703176 Marks: 4.00

https://narm28csir12ugc54hdb.onlineregistrationform.org/NMCSIRUGC/01Mar2025/09001200/241620079662.html[11-03-2025 20:59:49]
View Question Paper...

Given below are two columns depicting structural features (Column X) and the
DNA/RNA conformation (Column Y).

Column X Column Y
Structural features DNA/RNA conformation
A. Left-handed i. A form
B Number of base pairs per turn is 1O ii. B form
C. The base pairs are off-centered iii. Z form
D. RNA double helix

Which one of the following options represents all correct matches between Column
X and Column Y?

1. A (iii) B (ii) C (i) D (i)

2. A(i) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
3. A(i i) B (ii) C (i) D (iii )
4. A (iii) B (i) C (i ii) D (ii )

•
0
0
0

Question No. 62 / Question ID 703222 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The statements given below describe an angiosperm flower.

A. A flower develops in the axils of bracts like axillary shoots.

B. The floral pedicel is the elongated node and the axis is condensed , like in a
shoot.
C. Floral parts like calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium are modified
leaves.
D. Floral buds may sometimes get modified into vegetative buds or bulbi ls.

Select the option w ith all correct statements that support the idea that a flower is a
modified shoot.

1. A, Band C
2. A, Band D
3. B, C and D
4. A, C and D

0
0
0
0

Question No. 63 / Question ID 703218 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The pedigree (Fig A) represents the inheritance of a monogenic dlsorder, caused by

a defective enzyme encoded by a mutant allele. The functional and defective
enzymes can be resolved by PAGE . The al lozyme pattern observed in some of the
individuals in the family is represented in Fig B. The frequency of the mutant allele
in the population is 0.04.

A. B. 11. 1 11.2 11.3 11.4 111.1 111.2 111.3

I

-------
II
3 4

Ill

2 3

Based on the above information , the followi ng statements were made:

A. The allele encoding the functional enzyme is haplo-sufficient.
B. The trait shows 100% penetrance .
C. The probability that a child born to individuals 11.3 and 11.4 will be
homozygous for the gene is 1/4.
D. Both individuals 1. 1 and 1.2 are necessarily heterozygous for the gene.

Which one of the following options correctly identifies each statement as True (T) or
False (F) from A to D, respectively?

1. T F, F, F
2. T, F, T, F
3. F, T, T, F
4. FF, F, T

0
0
0
0

Question No. 64 / Question ID 703190 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The insulin receptor is a receptor tyrosine kinase that engages the Pl3 ki nase
pathway to regulate a FOXO transcription factor. A student uses qRT-PCR to
determine the expression of a direct FOXO target gene (GeneX} in a mammalian
cell line under different cond itions and makes the following observations.

A. Treating the cells with a PTEN inhibitor increases GeneX expression.

B. A cell line with an AKT (S308A) mutation has increased GeneX expression.
C. Change in GeneX expression due to a ligand-binding defective insulin
receptor is partly reversed by a PTEN inhibitor.
D. Phosphorylation of FOXO by PDK1 creates a phosphoserine binding site
for 14-3-3 protein , reducing GeneX expression .

Which one of the following options represents all correct statements?

1. A, Band C
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. A, C and D

0
0
0
0

Question No. 65 / Question ID 703238 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Following statements are made with respect to the production of transgenic plants.
A. Auxin can be used as a negative selection marker in plant transgenesis as it
can be lethal to germinating seedlings at higher concentrations.
B. Agrobacterium inserts T-DNA at random locations in the plant genome and
thus, it cannot be targeted to a desired location.
C. The antibiotic kanamycin interferes with the cytoplasmic ribosomal protein
synthesis machinery, thereby acting as a positive selection marker.
D. Gene transfer by biolistic/particle gun bombardment usually results in lower
transgene copy number and less DNA rearrangement than Agrobacterium-
mediated transformation.

Which one of the following options represents all INCORRECT statements?

1. A, C and D
2. C and D only
3. A and B
4. B, C and D
0
0
0
0

Question No. 66 / Question ID 703178 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Spind le assembly in animal cells requires nuclear envelope breakdown (NEBO).

NEBO is a multistep process, which begins when Cdk1 /cyclinB phosphorylates
multiple components of the nuclear envelope. Given below are some components
that are directly phosphorylated by Cdk1 /cyclinB:

A. Nuclear Pore Complexes

B. Nuclear lamina
C. Greatwall ki nase
O. Histone H3

Choose the option with correct Cdk1 /cyclinB substrate/s that are directly associated
with NEBO.

1. B only
2. A, Band 0
3. A and B only
4. B, C and 0
0
0
0
0

Question No. 67 / Question ID 703228 Marks: 4.00

Which one of the fo llowing is INCORRECT regarding Hill numbers (q), a family of
diversity indices?
1. As q increases, the index puts increasing weight on the most common
species in the assemblage , with the contribution of rare species gradually
reducing in the summation.

2. As q increases, the index puts increasing weight on the rare species in the
assemblage, with the contribution of common species gradually reducing in
the summation.

3. As q increases , the diversity index decreases, unless all species are equally
abundant.

4. Once q ~ 5, Hill numbers rapidly converge to the inverse of the relative

abundance of the most common species.
View Question Paper...

0
0
0
0

Question No. 68 / Question ID 703207 Marks: 4.00

The following statements are made about hematopoiesis in humans.

A. Bone marrow stem cells are not the source of osteoclast and mast cells.
B. Normally, three fourths of the cells in the marrow cavities mature to white
blood cells and one fourth to red blood cells.
C. In adults , blood cells are not actively produced in the marrow cavities of alil
the bones.
D. Hematopoietic stem cells are derived from committed cells.

Which one of the following options represents all correct statements?

1. A and B
2. Band C
3. C and D
4. A and D
0
0
n
View Question Paper...

0
0
0
0

Question No. 69 / Question ID 703188 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Cells have both reversible and non-reversible post-translational modifications. The

following statements were made regarding the reversibility of post-translational
modifications.

A. Ubiquitination of proteins is reversible, but AD P-ribosylation of DNA is

irreversible.
B. Ubiquitination of proteins is reversible, but myristoylation of proteins is
irreversible.
C. Ubiq uitin ation of proteins is irreversi bl e, but ADP-ribosylation of DNA is
reversible .
D. Both ADP-ribosylation of DNA and prenylatiion of proteins are reversible.
E. Both prenylation and myristoylation of proteins are irreversible.

Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct
statements?

1. A and B
2. A, D and E
3. C and E
4. Band E
0
0
0
0

Question No. 70 / Question ID 703201 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

RuBisCO enzyme catalyzes carboxylation or oxygenation of RuBP in five steps.

Following are certain statements regarding the catalysis carried out by RuBisCO:

A. The first step of catalysis is enolization of RuBP.

B. The carbon-carbon bond between C3 and C4 of RuBP is cleaved.
C. Carboxylase activity produces only one molecule of 3-phosphog lycerate.
D. Oxygenase activity produces one molecule of 3-phosphog lycerate and one
molecule of 2-phosphoglycolate.

Which one of the following options represents the combination of all correct
statements?

1. A, Band D
2. B, C and D
3. B and C only
4. A and D only
0
•
0
0

Question No. 71 / Question ID 703233 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

The Marginal Value Theorem describes the behaviour of an animal foraging in a

habitat where resources occur in patches. A major prediction of the theorem is how
long an animal must stay in a patch to optimize the energy extracted, depending on
its travel time to reach the patch , which is depicted in the figure below.

Q p

Based on this information, choose the option that correctly describes what both P
and Q represent.

1. P= Optimum cumulative energy extracted; Q= Optimum patch residence time

2. P= Time taken to travel between patches; Q= Optimum cumulative energy
extracted
3. P= Optimum cumulative energy extracted; Q= Time taken to travel between
patches
4. P= Optimum patch residence time; Q= Time taken to travel between patches
0
0
0
0

Question No. 72 / Question ID 703200 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Embryos of a species display conditional specification at 16-cell stage , and

gastrulation begins at a later stage. In the 16-celll embryo, the prospective fate of
vegetal blastomere is endoderm , while that of animal pole blastomere is ectoderm .
In a 16-cell stage, a vegetal pole blastomere was grafted to the animal pole.

Wh ich one of the following outcomes is true for the grafted cell?

1. It organizes the surrounding tissue to generate a secondary body axis.

2. It completely disrupts development.
3. It develops into endoderm .
4. It develops into ectoderm.
0
0
0
0

Question No. 73 / Question ID 703213 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Six mutant yeast haploids (His1 -6) requiring histidine supplementation for viability
were fused in pair-wise combinations to form diploids. Requirement for histidine was
tested for the diploids. The results are shown below where '+' indicates diploid
combinations yielding histidine prototrophs.

His1 Hiis2 His3 His4 His5 His6

Hiis1 - + - + + -
His2 + - + - - +
His3 - + - + + -
His4 + - + - - +
His5 + - + - - +
His6 - + - + + -
How many different histidine biosynthesis genes are represented among the six
mutants?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

0
0
0
0

Question No. 74 / Question ID 703234 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Synonymous mutations (solid black circle) and non-synonymous mutations

(different symbols) are plotted on two hypothetical phylogenies (A and B) given
below.

B
A

The phylogenies above may represent the followi ng types of selection - positive,
negative or neutral. Which one of the options given below gives the correct
combination of the types of selection observed in phylogenies A and B?

1. A shows negative selection , B shows positive selection.

2. A shows positive selection , B shows negative selection.
3. A shows neutral selection, B shows positive selection.
4. A shows positive selection, B shows neutral selection.
0
0
0
0

Question No. 75 / Question ID 703199 Marks: 4.00

View Question Paper...

Given below are the outcomes of transplantation experiments.

Transplantation experiment Outcome

XENOPUS

A.
VENTRAL
I DORSAL
1/EITTRAl
•
DORS/\L

'---------/ a"es ~,.-i:t h .same antll!"-rior•

po,t..,.lor pol~rlty

NEWT Ant~rlor•mo5t p,ortiori of ll,last0<oel

th a rdien ro roof,
B.

IT--'---~. . .,
Intl udi11g hea d me5Q(ler

C.
NEWT

-
order dorsal Ii?

I
\
,
toel

F~rmatiori of a

~,.
reco11da1y tail

Dor.rnl=ost re11ion Formatlo11 of

D. of emDl",'Dnk sh eld hweml>ryo ic

Ventral l=-- _joor..a aic:e-$ w~

oppo$it.e
a11terior-
posterior
J;> olaritv

Which one of the following options correctly depicts the outcome of the
transplantation experiments?

1. A and C
2. Band C
3. C and D
4. 8 and D
0
0
0
0

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 NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY
CSIR-UGC NET December 2024 - Final Answer Keys on which result generated

Subject : Life Science

Exam Date : 01-03-2025 Shift : 1
Question Correct Question Correct Question Correct
ID Key ID Key ID Key
703101 3 703155 4 703209 3
703102 4 703156 3 703210 2
703103 3 703157 2 703211 4
703104 3 703158 2 703212 4
703105 2 703159 2 703213 2
703106 4 703160 2 703214 1
703107 3 703161 3 703215 2
703108 1 703162 2 703216 1
703109 1 703163 2 703217 1
703110 3 703164 2 703218 1
703111 4 703165 4 703219 4
703112 2 703166 3 703220 1
703113 3 703167 3 703221 4
703114 2 703168 2 703222 4
703115 3 703169 1 703223 3
703116 1 703170 3 703224 2
703117 4 703171 1 703225 3
703118 1 703172 2 703226 1
703119 1 703173 3 703227 2
703120 3 703174 4 703228 2
703121 1 703175 2 703229 2
703122 2 703176 1 703230 4
703123 3 703177 2 703231 2
703124 4 703178 3 703232 4
703125 1 703179 2 703233 4
703126 1 703180 4 703234 1
703127 1 703181 4 703235 1
703128 2 703182 1 703236 3
703129 1 703183 4 703237 1
703130 3 703184 3 703238 2
703131 3 703185 2 703239 1
703132 1 703186 4 703240 2
703133 2 703187 3 703241 3
703134 2 703188 4 703242 2
703135 4 703189 4 703243 2
703136 2 703190 3 703244 1
703137 3 703191 4 703245 2 or 4
703138 4 703192 4
703139 1 703193 3
703140 2 703194 4
703141 4 703195 1
703142 2 703196 1
703143 2 703197 2
703144 3 703198 3
703145 4 703199 1
703146 4 703200 4
703147 3 703201 4
703148 3 703202 3
703149 3 703203 4
703150 3 703204 4
703151 2 703205 2
703152 4 703206 1
703153 1 703207 2
703154 1 703208 1

Page 4