01

PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION
TECHNIQUES
1. This refers to the scientific study of fingerprints as a means of identification, and this was
derived from two Greek words, that is, “dactyl,” which means “finger” and “skopien,”
meaning to “study” or “to examine.”

A. dactyloscopy B. dactylography
C. personal identification D. fingerprinting

A. dactyloscopy
2. Prior to the advent of the camera, scientific observations were recorded in line drawings
with minute attention to detail, and this can be seen in his work, whose line drawings of
friction ridge patterns are exceptionally detailed.

A. Johannes Purkinje B. Rashid-al-Din Hamadani

C. Alphonse Bertillon D. Abu Zayd Hasan

A. Johannes Purkinje
3. It is the procedure of taking inked impressions of a person's fingerprints for the purpose
of identification, and it is also the act or an instance of taking an ink impression of
someone's fingerprints for the purpose of identification by analyzing characteristics unique
to individuals.

A. fingerprint classification B. fingerprinting

C. ten-fingerprint system D. single fingerprint system

B. fingerprinting
4. It is defined as “a raised portion of the epidermis on the palmar or plantar skin,
consisting of one or more connected ridge units.”

A. friction skin B. friction ridges

C. pattern area D. type lines

B. friction ridges
5. Its main purpose is to confirm the identity of the criminal history of an arrested suspect,
and the fingerprint materials are prepared by taking these prints, and afterwards the
fingerprint card is kept in custody as the basic materials at the fingerprint center.

A. Single Fingerprints System B. Henry Classification system

C. Finger Print Classification D. Ten-Fingerprint System

D. Ten-Fingerprint System
6. It is the part of a loop or whorl in which appear the cores, deltas, and ridges with which
are the concerns in classifying.

A. pattern area B. line area

C. appendage D. bifurcation

A. pattern area
7. These are the canal-like impressions or a depression found between the ridges, and
which may be compare with the low area in a tire thread, or a valley or depression between
friction ridges of fingerprint marks.

A. ridges B. cores
C. furrows D. deltas

C. furrows
8. These are tine elevation or hill like structures found on the epidermis layer of the skin
containing sweat pores, and they appear as black lines with tiny white dots called pores in
an inked impression.

A. cores B. ridges
C. deltas D. furrows

B. ridges
9. In analyzing the sub-secondary classification, one will know that in the index, middle,
and ring fingers of the right hand, there are counts of over 9, under 11, and over 13; while
in index, middle, and ring fingers of the left hand, there are counts of under:

A. 10, under 11, and over 13 B. over 9, under 11, and over 13
C. 1, 3, 4, 5 & 7 as denominator D. 2, 4, 6, 8 & 10 as numerator

A. 10, under 11, and over 13

10. It is a division of the FBI’s Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS), and is a
national repository of computerized criminal justice information, and it was created in 1965
by the J. Edgar Hoover era, and has since been expanded and upgraded to its current
incarnation.

A. NCIC Fingerprint Classification

B. Henry Classification System
C. ACE-V Classification System
D. Primary Classification System

A. NCIC Fingerprint Classification

11. This refers to the method of identification which includes those for comparing
characteristics, that is, type and position, of friction ridges, of sweat pores, such as, sweat
glands outlets appearing on friction ridges like eyes of needles.

A. fingerprint examination B. fingerprint identification

C. fingerprint classification D. all of these

B. fingerprint identification
12. In this impression, fingerprint impressions are taken individually, that is, thumb, index,
middle, ring, and little fingers of each hand, and they are made to show the entire friction
surface of the finger or thumb, from the tip to one quarter inch below the first joint.

A. plain impressions B. rolled impressions

C. fingerprint impressions D. latent print impressions

B. rolled impressions
13. They are also referred to as inked prints, record prints, or standards, and are recorded
for the following reasons: to serve as an official record of a person’s identity; to search for a
prior arrest record; to compare with evidentiary fingerprints; and to input into the AFIS for
subsequent searches.

A. standard exemplars impressions B. questioned exemplars impressions

C. plain and rolled impressions D. known exemplars impressions

D. known exemplars impressions

14. Fingerprint impressed on an object will naturally change, deteriorate, and finally
disappear with time regardless of the manner by which they are impressed, and this
change is accelerated by abrasion, and others, such as follows, EXCEPT:

A. natural change B. artificial change

C. accelerating conditions D. accidental change

D. accidental change
15. This often results in “brush marks” in the latent print, and it can also cause granules of
fingerprint powder to build up between friction ridges, distorting the appearance of minutiae
and other identifying features.

A. latent print powder development

B. fingerprint powder development
C. crime scene powder development
D. rolled impression development

B. fingerprint powder development

16. These are methods and procedures used to make latent prints visible by using a variety
of optical, chemical, and physical development procedures.

A. latent prints processing B. fingerprints processing

C. crime scene prints processing D. evidence prints processing

A. latent prints processing

17. This is also known as triketohydrindene hydrate, it is both water soluble and alcohol
soluble, and in n solid form, it is a yellowish crystalline structure.

A. ninhydrin B. iodine
C. amino acids D. inorganic ions

A. ninhydrin
18. These are methods and techniques used in taking the living and post-mortem friction
ridge detail of an individual person that are appropriate for the vast majority of conditions
and circumstances.

A. recording exemplars B. recording standards

C. recording specimen D. recording fingerprint

A. recording exemplars
19. Galton published a detailed statistical model of fingerprint analysis and identification
and encouraged its use in forensic science in his book “Finger Prints,” and he has
calculated that the chance of a “false positive,” two different individuals having the same
fingerprints, was about:

A. 1 in 64 billion B. 3 in 64 billion
C. 2 in 64 billion D. none of these

A. 1 in 64 billion
20. He is another significant figure in the history of fingerprint analysis, and he is a medical
missionary to India and Japan who studied fingerprint structures extensively.

A. Nehemiah Grew B. Leonardo da Vinci

C. Dr. Henry Faulds D. Francis Galton

C. Dr. Henry Faulds

21. The fundamental principles of fingerprints as a science of positive personal
identification, are as follows, EXCEPT:

A. principle of individuality
B. principle of permanency
C. principle of infallibility
D. principle of identification

D. principle of identification
22. This means hidden or invisible, in modern usage for forensic science the term latent
prints mean any chance or accidental impression left by friction ridge skin on a surface,
regardless of whether it is visible or invisible at the time of deposition.

A. fingerprints B. palm prints

C. latent prints D. foot prints

C. latent prints
23. Its purpose is to deduce the identity of the criminal by latent fingerprints, and this
system is designed so as to be able to effectively deduce the identity of the criminal even
by one latent fingerprint.

A. Single Fingerprints System

B. NCIC Classification System
C. Henry Classification System
D. Battley-Cherril Classification System

A. Single Fingerprints System

24. This may be defined as the two innermost ridges which start parallel, diverge, and
surround or tend to surround the pattern area.

A. converging ridge B. friction skin

C. type lines ` D. close ridge

C. type lines
25. It is the term used to define common micro features in fingerprints, and these are used
for determining uniqueness of fingerprints.

A. minutiae points
B. ridge count
C. location of delta
D. position of the core

A. minutiae points
26. In fingerprint classification, fingers Nos. 2, 4, 6, 8 & 10 are all whorls, while fingers No.
1 is ulnar loop, No. 3 is plain arch, No. 5 is radial loop, No. 7 is tented arch, and No. 9 is
whorl. What is the primary classification of the fingerprint patterns?

A. 32/2 B. 2/32
C. 23/2 D. 2/23

A. 32/2
27. In the extension used for the large whorl groups, the type of whorl is designated by the
symbols W, C, D & X for the index fingers and these letters for other fingers, and according
to its classification purpose only.

A. a & t B. w, c, d & x
C. r & u D. a, t, r & u

B. w, c, d & x
28. It is a single digit classification system that was designed to make fingerprint
identification system easy and less time-consuming, with the idea of making identification
fast, and it is one of the most sophisticated, fastest, and new fingerprint classification
system called:

A. Single Fingerprint System B. Battley-Cherril Index Card

C. Henry Classification System D. NCIC Fingerprint Classification

A. Single Fingerprint System

29. This ranged between 0 and 1, with larger values indicating a greater proportion of print
area with well-defined ridge orientation; and in addition, the relational predictor was
computed by taking the Euclidean Distance sum of the “ridge reliability,” for the latent and
known fingerprint impressions.

A. ridge readability B. ridge reliability

C. ridge counts D. ridge formation

B. ridge reliability
30. These impressions are used to verify the sequence and accuracy of the rolled
impressions, and its serves two purposes: (a) to provide a double-check that the rolled
fingerprints above were placed in the correct fingerprint block; and (b) to provide a second
impression of every finger.

A. plain impressions B. rolled impressions

C. fingerprint impressions D. latent print impressions

A. plain impressions
31. It is the most popular developing technique, and the principle upon which it works is
simple, and it is ideal on wood, metal, glass, plastics, Formica, and tile, and it is less than
ideal on paper, cardboard, and leather.

A. dusting B. applying
C. rubbing D. brushing

A. dusting
32. These are friction ridge impressions recovered from crime scenes or evidentiary items
that “present and capable of emerging or developing but not now visible, obvious,” or
invisible friction ridge impressions of unknown origin.

A. latent prints B. crime scene prints

C. known prints D. visible prints

A. latent prints
33. It is that part of a loop or whorl in which appear the cores, deltas, and ridges with which
the fingerprint experts are concerned in identifying and classifying, and in loops and whorls
are enclosed by type lines.

A. pattern area B. wavelengths

C. wave distance D. wave ratio

A. pattern area
34. Its objective is to separate ridges from valleys in a given fingerprint image, and its
approaches have used either global or adaptive threshold, determined to be pixels
depicting a ridge in the fingerprint.

A. ridge counting B. ridge detection

C. ridge tracing D. ridge identification

B. ridge detection
35. This will become standard, and leaving each independent examination open to
necessary scrutiny; thus, it is necessary to keep-up with those advancements and
innovations in order to speak intelligently about them in a court of law.

A. ACE-V process B. AFIS process

C. BSCD process D. NCIC process

A. ACE-V process
36. It is the name given to fingerprints deliberately collected from a subject, whether for
purposes of enrollment in a system or when under arrest for a suspected criminal offense,
and is one which is deliberately taken from an individual for record-keeping purposes.

A. exemplar print B. latent print

C. patent print D. electric print

A. exemplar print
37. This variable was defined as the number of pixels in the fingerprint after the fingerprint
was segmented from the background, and in general, it is expected that larger areas,
especially of latent prints, would provide more information for making comparisons.

A. total area B. pattern area

C. finger area D. sum of area

A. total area
38. This relates to the proportion of known print information potentially available in the
latent print, and this ratio was therefore not strictly in the range, and cannot be considered
a true proportion.

A. image ratio B. area ratio

C. print ratio D. pattern ratio

B. area ratio
39. The mean is measured and the standard deviation of pixel intensity taking into
account all of the pixels in each fingerprint image, and the mean intensities scaled in the
range of two.

A. latent prints intensity B. fingerprint intensity

C. image intensity D. total area intensity

C. image intensity
40. It is defined as the mean across the blocks, that is, to illustrate the difference
between overall contrast and block contrast, the Michelson contrast of an entire image
containing all gray pixels except for one white and one black pixel.

A. white contrast B. clear contrast

C. colored contrast D. block contrast

D. block contrast
41. These are replicas that are being left on the objects, more particularly smooth
object touched or handled by anybody serving as evidence connecting the owner of the
prints to the crime scene or the victims, or sometimes it can be rolled or plain impressions
on cards for purposes of identification.

A.fingerprint impressions B.latent print impressions

C.crime scene impressions D.biometric impressions

A.fingerprint impressions
42. This method is quick and easy and results in high-quality major case prints. Unlike
fingerprints recorded in ink, powdered friction ridges often display better detail including
well-defined creases, ridge shapes, and pores.

A.inked exemplars impressions

B.rolled exemplars impressions
C.powdered exemplars impressions
D.plain exemplars impressions

C.powdered exemplars impressions

43. It is obtained by counting the ridges of the first loop appearing on the fingerprint
card, that is, beginning with the right thumb, exclusive of the little fingers which are never
considered for the key as they are reserved for the final.

A.key B.final
C.primary D.secondary

A.key
44. These are impressions of fingerprints left behind at the crime scene by the natural
secretions of sweat from the eccrine glands that are present in friction ridge skin of
individual person or groups of persons involved in the commission of crimes.

A.latent fingerprints
B.crime scene fingerprints
C.fingerprint impressions
D.image impressions

B.crime scene fingerprints

45. It works well on porous surfaces such as paper and unfinished wood, especially if
the prints are fresh or if the purpose is to find out if they are fresh, and this technique also
leaves no trace, so no one can tell that a person has looked for prints.

A.Ninhydrin Spray B.Fluorescent Powder

C.Magnetic Powder D.Iodine Fuming

D.Iodine Fuming
46. This method consists of photographing enlargements of each grid, and a non-
standard grid of equal size squares is superimposed on each enlargement with the squares
of each grid occupying identical position on each print.

A.Osborn Grid Method B.Grid Method

C.Seymour Trace Method D.Demonstrative Model

A.Osborn Grid Method

47. The most common medium for recording friction ridge skin was ink and cardstock.
Inked fingerprints are recorded on ten-print cards, and the finger is rolled from “nail to nail”
to capture the entire friction ridge surface.

A.rolled exemplars impressions B.plastic exemplar impression

C.inked exemplars impressions C.known exemplars impressions.

C.inked exemplars impressions

48. It shall be made by fully rolling the fingers from one side to the other, and the rolling
direction shall be made clockwise for the right hand and counter-clockwise for the left hand,
while for the thumbs it shall be made from the right towards left for right hand, and from the
left towards right for the left hand.

A.plain impressions B.ordinary impression

C.known exemplar impressions D.rolled impressions

B.ordinary impression
49. Are those caused by rigor mortis, that appears into the victim’s body three to six
hours, and it will complete twelve hours after death, respectively, and impressing shall be
made by using an aid such a ginger stretcher and post-mortem finger spoon for taking
fingerprints from a dead body.

A.post-mortem stiff fingers

B.anti-mortem stiff fingers
C.rigidity of fingers
D.stiffening of fingers

A.post-mortem stiff fingers

01
QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS
EXAMIINATION
1. This is also known as script or longhand, and it is any style of writing where some
characters are written in a flowing manner joined together.

A.casual cursive B.cursive

C.cursive handwriting D.all of these

C.cursive handwriting
2. It also known as block letters, print-script, ball and stick, or manuscript, and is a
gothic or sans-serif writing style where letters are individual glyphs and not conjoined.

A.print handwriting style B.cursive type handwriting

C.disguised handwriting D.Insular manuscripts

A.print handwriting style

3. It is the writing done with a writing instrument, such as a pen or pencil, in the
hand, and it includes both printing and cursive styles, and is separate from formal
calligraphy or typeface.

A.cursive handwriting B.Gothic script

C.printed writing D.handwriting

D.handwriting
4. It is a neurological disorder, that resulted to the impairment of his or her writing
ability and fine motor skills.

A.dysgraphia B.arrhythmia
C.graphology D.none of these

A.dysgraphia
5. This is referred to as the handwriting style because in the past, this system of
handwriting was copied from a book of instruction and then repeatedly practiced by the
writers.

A.Roman alphabet B.copybook form

C.Phoenician alphabet D.calligraphy

B.copybook form
6. The study of handwriting is also referred to as pseudoscience at times, it is also
believed to reveal a person’s character, disposition, and attitudes from their handwriting. An
individual person’s handwriting can help to change a personality trait or correct a bad habit.

A.documents examiners
B.forensic experts
C.graphology

C.graphology
7. It is one in which the person has made a deliberate attempt to remove or modify
all or some of his or her normal writing habits. In the majority of cases, all that is achieved
is a change in the pictorial appearance of the writing.

A.traced forgeries
B.forged handwriting
C.simulated handwriting
D.disguised handwriting

D.disguised handwriting
8. It can be made possible, provided that the writing itself contains the writing habits,
individualities, and characteristics of its author, and provided further, that such writing is
subjected to adequate evaluation and comparison with adequate examples of the
handwriting of its author.

A.handwriting examination B.documents examination

C.forensic examination D.handwriting identification

D.handwriting identification
9. Are those common to a number of writers, and may result from such influences as
the writing system studied, family association, trade training, or foreign education, as well
as carelessness and hate in execution.

A.individual characteristics B.general characteristics

C.class characteristics D.peculiar characteristics

C.class characteristics
10. Are those which are highly personal or peculiar and unlikely to occur in
combination in other instances.

A.class characteristics B.individual characteristics

C.general characteristics D.peculiar characteristics

B.individual characteristics
11. It is the way the author of the handwriting crosses their “t’s” and dots their “j’s” and
“i’s,” the examiner has to look where are the crosses on “t’s” and dots on “i’s?” and are the
“t’s” crossed?

A.diacritic placement B.diacritic position

C.diacritic pronunciation D.diacritic location

A.diacritic placement
12. The characteristics of handwriting that make the rhythmic repetition of the
elements.

A.arrhythmia B.dysgraphia
C.graphology D.tachycardia

A.arrhythmia
13. These are very important in identifying the writer, and it becomes a significant
factor, not the single factor, when combined with other significant agreement between
characteristics, an identity can be based.

A.distinctions B.differences
C.variations D.tremors

C.variations
14. It is the examination of documents potentially disputed in a court of law. Its
primary purpose is to provide evidence about a suspicious or questionable documents
using scientific processes and methods.

A.documents examination
B.graphologist
C.evidence examination
D.forensic examinations

A.documents examination
15. It is a group of letters, more specifically, an “abjad,” known in modern times from
the Canaanite and Aramaic inscriptions found across the Mediterranean region.

A.Phoenician alphabet
B.Roman alphabet
C.Charlemagne alphabet
D.copybook form alphabet

A.Phoenician alphabet
16. If someone’s handwriting changes and becomes messy, sloppy, illegible or shaky,
it might be a sign of an essential tremor, writer’s cramp; then he or she is suffering from this
physical illness.

A.ataxia B.arrhythmia
C.dysgraphia D.none of these

A.ataxia
17. It is the examination of documents potentially disputed in a court of law. Its
primary purpose is to provide evidence about a suspicious or questionable documents
using scientific processes and methods.

A.evidence examination B.forensic examination

C.documents examination D.all of these

C.documents examination
18. Are those that the subject is requested to give to facilitate the documents
examination

A.collected standards B.requested standards

C.all of these D.none of these

B.requested standards
19. Are those already in existence that the legal counsel or criminal investigator
collects, and they may be bank records, letters, legal forms, and the like.

A.collected standards B.requested standards

C.all of these D.none of these

A.collected standards
20. This theory of comparison is the act of setting two or more signatures in an
inverted position to weigh their identifying significance, the reason behind it, being those
failed to see under normal comparison may readily be seen through this procedure.

A.fist-off theory B.hand-off theory

C.all of these D.none of these

A.fist-off theory
21. It is from the Greek words “ana,” meaning against and “khronos,” meaning time,
is a chronological inconsistency in some arrangement, especially a juxta position of
persons, events, objects, languages, and customs from varied time periods.

A.ataxia B.arrhythmia
C.dysgraphia D.anachronism

D.anachronism
22. Are public or private experts who records the date, type, source, or catalogue
various types of papers, watermarks, inks, printers, copiers, fax machines, computer
cartridges, and the like, using chemical methods.

A.handwriting specialists B.documents specialist

C.paper and ink specialists D.evidence specialists

C.paper and ink specialists

23. These are experts on the origin, make, and model used in typewritten material.

A.computer analysts B.handwriting analysts

C.typewriting analysts D.documents analysis

C.typewriting analysts
24. These are public or private experts who analyze the altered, obliterated, changed,
or doctored documents and photos using infrared lightings, spectrography equipment, or
digital enhancement techniques.

A.handwriting specialists
B.documents specialists
C.forgery specialists
D.evidence specialist

C.forgery specialists
25. This entails the verification of age and the value of a documents or objects; and it
is sometimes done by an examiner, and can be complicated, such as carbon dating.

A.historical dating B.historical coding

C.historical recording D.historical events

A.historical dating
26. Because of his work he became the father of questioned documents examination.

A.Rachel Danzing B.Albert Osborn

C.Paul Barnett D.Alfred Dreyfus

B.Albert Osborn
27. This refer to any handwriting, typewriting, signature, or mark whose authenticity is
in dispute.

A.forensic documents B.handwriting documents

C.questioned documents D.documents evidence

C.questioned documents
28. These are a written, drawn, presented, or memorialized representation of thought,
often the manifestation of fictional, as well as non-fictional contents.

A.records B.letters
C.wills D.documents

D.documents
29. These are any instruments executed in accordance with the civil code containing
disposition of commercial rights or obligations, or are written records of commercial
transactions describing various aspects of businesses.

A.private documents B.commercial documents

C.business documents D.company documents

B.commercial documents
30. These are any instruments notarized by a notary public or competent public
officials with solemnities required by law.

A.public documents B.secret documents

C.classified documents D.historical documents

A.public documents
31. It is committed by any person who, with intent to defraud, signs the name of
another person, or of a fictitious person, knowing that he or she has no authority to do so,
or falsely alters, forges or counterfeits any check, or counterfeits or forges the seal or
handwriting of another.

A.falsification B.forgery
C.imitation D.disguised signature

B.forgery
32. It is the process of scientifically studying disputed signatures to answer question,
such as, whether a questioned signature was signed by its purported author; and the
second item needed to determine authorship, is the known signatures from the purported
author.

A.forgery examination B.forgery identification

C.forgery detection D.forgery investigation

A.forgery examination
33. It is one of the most common types of forgery, and probably the easiest to detect
for a layperson, and it is blind forgery, where the forger uses his or her own handwriting.

A.disguised forgery B.traced forgery

C.simple forgery D.simulated forgery

C.simple forgery
34. These are unintentional rhythmic muscle movement involving to and from
movements or oscillations of one or more parts of the body; and .it is the unusual departure
of line from its intended course resulting in disturbances in the performance of fine motor
skills.

A.tremors B.pen lifts

C.blunt start D.hesitation

A.tremors
35. It is the simplest of the tracings to produce and the one most often encountered
wherein the paper that is to receive the spurious signature is placed over a document
bearing the genuine signature.

A.natural variations in handwriting

B.transmitted light tracing
C.video spectral comparator
D.electrostatic detection device

B.transmitted light tracing

36. The erasure most likely to be undetected, and can also be detected by conducting
an ultra-violet examination of the questioned documents because it disturbs the surface
coating of the paper, which is revealed as a stain or fluorescence at the point of erasure.

A.chemical erasure B.physical erasure

C.mechanical erasure D.abrasive erasure

A.chemical erasure
37. This is another characteristic relating to placement, and it is in the relation of
letters in the words on line to the “base line,” or an actual or imaginary line on which the
handwriting rests.

A.alignment B.perpendicularity
C.right or left slant D.malalignment

A.alignment
38. During the creation of this non-genuine signature, the writer simply writes someone
else’s name; and there is no attempt made to duplicate or make the forgery look like a
genuine signature.

A.right hand forgery B.left hand forgery

C.normal hand forgery D.disguised forgery

C.normal hand forgery

39. As it is sometime known as “free hand forgery,” it is the usual bill of fare for the
questioned documents examiner; and this forgery is constructed by using a genuine
signature as a model.

A.disguised signature B.simulated signature

C.imitated signature D.manufacture signature

B.simulated signature
40. These “fixes” are usually patent, with no attempt made on the part of the writer to
mask or otherwise hide the corrections, and these are quite different than the patching, and
that is frequently found in non-genuine signature.

A.mending B.repairing
C.stitching D.patching

D.patching
41. This is similar to that of the blunt stops at the end of the signature wherein the
forgers that are uncertain about their craft may not have the smooth motion and immediate
precision requires.

A.flourishes and embellishments B.blunt start and stop

C.pen lifts and hesitation D.shading or pen pressure

C.pen lifts and hesitation

42. These are fraudulent signatures which have been executed by actually following
the outline of a genuine signature with writing instruments.

A.simple forgery B.traced forgery

C.disguised forgery D.simulated forgery

B.traced forgery
43. It is an important aspect relatively with forensic documents examination due to
prevalent and integral role played by handwriting in everyday communication and business
transactions.

A.handwriting examination B.handwriting identification

C.handwriting investigation D.forgery detection

A.handwriting examination
44. This is handwriting sample that is known to be genuine, and compared with
questioned materials to determine the authenticity or spuriousness of what is questioned.

A.standards B.known exemplars

C.exemplars D.unknown exemplars

C.exemplars
45. This is writing prepared in the normal routine course of business or personal
affairs, and are quite simply a group of writing which were indisputably prepared by the
writer when he or she has no reason to think that it would be used for a handwriting
comparison.

A.procured standards. B.collected standards.

C.all of these D.none of these

C.all of these
46. This is writings executed or prepared in the presence of the forensic documents’
examiner at his or her request; and these are used for the expressed purpose of
conducting a handwriting examination and comparison.

A.dictated standards. B.requested standards.

C.all of these D.none of these

C.all of these
47. This word is condensed and compacted set of authentic specimens that, if
adequate and proper, should contain a true-cross section of the materials from a known
source.

A.original signatures B.samples

C.standards D.exemplars

C.standards
48. It is the identification of a typewriter manufacturer, make, and model from
questioned typewritten documents, to find answer to the question, “what make and model
of typewriter was used to type this letter,” can be accomplished

A.typewriting identification B.typewriting comparison

C.typewriting examination D.typewriting evaluation

C.typewriting examination
49. These are any abnormalities or maladjustments in a typewriter which is reflected
in its output, leading to individualization or identification.

A.typewriter deficiency B.typewriter defects

C.typewriter imperfection D.typewriter flaws

B.typewriter defects
50. These are characters that write improperly in the following respects, such as,
twisted letter or “tilted” characters, horizontal malalignment, vertical malalignment, and
character printing “off-its-feet.”

A.malalignment B.typeface defect

C.alignment defects D.alignments deficiency

C.alignment defects
51. These are any peculiarities of typewriting caused by actual damage to the
typeface metal. Such defects may be actual breaks in the outline of the letter where the
metal has been chipped away, sometimes referred to as broken type.

A.typewriter defects B.alignment defects

C.typeface defects D.malalignment

C.typeface defects
01
FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY
1. It is a dark chamber or room with a hole, later a lens, in one wall through which
images of objects outside the room were projected on the opposite wall.

A.35mm camera B.camera obscura

C.miniature camera D.dark chamber

B.camera obscura
2. It is the length of time that the rays of light will reach and affect the sensitized
material or film can be controlled by the shutter speed control of the camera.

A.long bellow extension control B.shutter speed control

C.short focal lens control D.remote release control

B.shutter speed control

3. It is a convex lens, which is characterized by the fact that it is thicker at the middle
than the edge and formed a real image on the opposite side of the lens.

A.negative lens B.positive lens

C.multiple lens D.concave lens

B.positive lens
4. It is the distance measured from the axis of the lens through the film plane when
the lens is focused at a distant object, and actually it determines the size of the image that
will be formed in the negatives.

A.lens focal length B.camera lens-focus

C.long bellows extension D.telephoto lens length

A.lens focal length

5. It is the failure of a lens to produce a point image of an object point, and this
occurs when the lens fails to focus image lines running in different directions in the same
plane, for example, picture of a rail fence.

A.aberration B.imperfection
C.astigmatism D.refractive error

C.astigmatism
6. These are used to improve the color reproduction of film, and it was used in the
blue layer remains colorless to allow all light to pass through, but the coupler used in the
green layer is colored yellow, and the coupler used in the red layer is light pink.

A.black and white dye couplers B.multi-color dye couplers

C.color and black dye couplers D.colored dye couplers

D.colored dye couplers

7. These are related to theories and methodologies of composing or taking
photographs, or to their manipulation during or after processing.

A.techniques in photography
B.skills in photography
C.knowledge in photography
D.ability in photography

A.techniques in photography
8. It is the process of producing a final image on paper for viewing, using chemically
sensitized paper.

A.printing the photograph B.photographic printing

C.all of these D.none of these

C.all of these
9. It is the pleasing arrangement of subject matter elements within the picture area.

A.photographic combination B.photographic constituents

C.photographic proportion D.photographic composition

C.photographic proportion
10. This is the sensitivity of a given film or sensor to light, indicated by a number; the
higher the number, the more sensitive or faster the film or sensor, and this also refers to the
camera sensor’s sensitivity to light.

A.ISO Speed B.ASA Speed

C.ISO Ratio D.ASA F-Stop

A.ISO Speed
11. The combination of the diaphragm opening and exposure time is to obtain film
image that records all the tone gradation of the object, this exposure must be matched to
the brightness or luminance of the subject and the sensitivity or speed of the film.

A.exposure tour B.photographic exposure

C.illuminance exposure D.luminous exposure

B.photographic exposure
12. It is the conversion of unused silver halides to a soluble silver so that the image
remains stable and unalterable when exposed to light, and is commonly achieved by
treating the film or paper with a solution of thiosulfate salt.

A.fixation of the negative B.developing of negative

C.processing of negative D.printing of negative

A.fixation of the negative

13. It is the degree of darkness of the image developed. It can either be too dark or
too light, depending upon the amount of the metallic silver formed.

A.photograph substance B.photograph consistency

C.photograph compactness D.photograph density

D.photograph density
14. It is one or more negatives are placed in intimate contact with a sheet of
sensitized photographic paper and the negative and the photographic paper are then
placed with the negative side down, on the top transparent glass plate of the exposure box.

A.paper printing B.contact printing

C.film printing D.negative printing

B.contact printing
15. This is the quantity of light allowed to act on photographic material; a product of
the intensity, controlled by the lens opening, and the duration, that is, controlled by the
shutter speed of light striking the film or sensor.

A.positive exposure B.exposure

C.underexposure D.negative exposure

B.exposure
16. It is the ratio of width to height in photographic prints; a ratio of 2:3 in 35 mm
pictures produces photographs most commonly measuring 3.5 x 5 inches or 4 x 6 inches;
eessentially, it is described an image’s shape, and are written as a formula of width to
height.

A.aspect percentage B.aspect frequency

C.aspect ratio D.aspect quantity

C.aspect ratio
17. This is the term for lens setting number indicating the size of the aperture that
allows light into the camera, and it is the number that the photographer sees on the camera
or lens as he or she adjusts the size of the aperture.

A.f-ratio B.f-length
C.f-stop D.f-speed

C.f-stop
18. Even after colored film was readily available, this system of photography
continued to dominate for decades, due to its lower cost, chemical stability, and its “classic”
photographic look.

A.black and white photography B.colored photograph

C.black and color photograph D.polaroid photograph

A.black and white photography

19. It may also be defined as a light tight box, meant to forming the image, or lens,
holding sensitized material or film holder, and with a means of controlling the amount of
light that will reach the film.

A.camera B.digital camera

C.instant camera D.35mm camera

A.camera
20. It has a direct-vision viewfinder, often combined with a rangefinder or autofocus
system for accurate distance settings.

A.telephoto lens camera B.digital and polaroid camera

C.35-mm miniature camera D.stereoscopic camera

C.35-mm miniature camera

21. It should be chosen with the same care as lenses because its exact effect will
produce image that must be readily determinable.

A.negatives B.lenses
C.filters D.flash

C.filters
22. It is a concave lens, which is characterized by the fact that it is thinner at the
middle than the edge, then formed a virtual image on the same side of the lens.

A.positive lens B.concave lens

C.negative lens D.telephoto lens

C.negative lens
23. These are also known as photographic lens or photographic objective, is an
optical lens or assembly of lenses used in conjunction with a camera body and mechanism
to make images of objects either on photographic film or on other media capable of storing
an image chemically or electronically.

A.camera lens B.camera flash

C.camera filters D.shutter speed

A.camera lens
24. This is lens with a focal length less than the diagonal of the negative materials,
and this allows the scene to be included in the photograph, which is useful in interior
photography where the photographer may not be able to move farther from the scene to
photograph it.

A.telephoto lens B.wide angle lens

C.long bellow extension D.microscope lens

B.wide angle lens

25. This contain minute grains of silver halide suspended in animal gelatin and coated
on celluloid material, and it is a strip of transparent film base coated on one side with
gelatin emulsion containing microscopically small light-sensitive silver halide crystals.

A.photographic films B.photographic negatives

C.photographic paper D.negative rolls

A.photographic films
26. It is essentially an adhesive that allows the subsequent layers to stick to the film
base which are initially made of highly flammable cellulose nitrate, which was replaced by
cellulose acetate films, often cellulose triacetate film or safety film, which in turn was
replaced in many films.

A.emulsion layer B.subbing layer

C.backing layer D.thin layer

B.subbing layer
27. It is photography with radiation outside the visible range often provides information
which is not accessible within it, and the transformation of the spectral range to be
registered can be carried out by electronic image converters.

A.light emission techniques

B.phosphorescence emission techniques
C.fluorescence emission techniques
D.artificial light emission techniques

A.light emission techniques

28. It is a mix of chemicals used in the final step in the photographic processing of film
or paper, and this stabilizes the image, removing the unexposed silver halide remaining on
the photographic film or photographic paper, leaving behind the reduced metallic silver that
forms the image.

A.photographic developer B.photographic washer

C.photographic fixer D.photographic bleacher

C.photographic fixer
29. It is a natural chemical process that affects photographic materials containing
silver over time, and it results in a metallic sheen over the surface of the photograph,
typically affecting mostly the darker areas of a photograph.

A.silver mirroring B.metallic sheen mirroring

C.ion travel mirroring D.none of these

A.silver mirroring
30. This consists of the images captured by an investigator or forensic photographer
at a crime scene that indicates critical information about the crime.

A.photographic exhibit B.photographic evidence

C.photographic chart D.photographic album

B.photographic evidence
31. In this theory, photographic evidence is admissible if the process used to produce
the photograph is accurate and reputable, and is based on the notion that any witness with
knowledge that a photograph is a fair and accurate representation may testify to the
foundational facts.

A.silent witness evidence B.silent witness testimony

C.silent witness theory D.silent witness principles

C.silent witness theory

32. This refers to the opening of a lens's diaphragm through which light passes on it,
and it is calibrated in f/stops and is generally written in numbers, such as, 1.4, 2, 2.8, 4,
5.6, 8, 11, and 16.

A.lens opening B.lens diaphragm

C.calibrated f/stops D.aperture

D.aperture
33. This refers to the area between the nearest and farthest points from the camera
that are acceptably sharp in the focused image, and it is the distance between the closest
and farthest objects in a photo that appears acceptably sharp.

A.depth of field B.long bellows extension

C.lens focal length D.camera distance

A.depth of field
34. It is from the Greek words, “photos,” meaning “light,” and “graphos,” meaning
“writing,” and it is the recording of visible images by light action on high-sensitive materials.

A.forensic photography B.photography

C.photo-macrography D.photo-micrography

B.photography
35. It is the pleasing arrangement of subject matter elements within the picture area.

A.photographic imaging B.photographic processing

C.photographic composition D.photographic developing

C.photographic composition
36. This depends foremost on the photographer's ability to see as the camera sees
because a photograph does not reproduce a scene quite the way the people see it.

A.digital photography B.black & white photography

C.creative photography D.colored photography

C.creative photography
37. There are three basic types of flash unit, and they are as follows, EXCEPT:

A.flash bulbs B.electronic flash bulbs

B.blue flash bulb D.external flash bulbs

D.external flash bulbs

38. This allows analysis of slow changes of an object; for example, the melting
process by subsequent observation or measurement. This refers to VA as recording
frequency and as projection frequency in frames per second; then VA<VP in this case:

A.time-lapse photography
B.short time lapse photography
C.time-expired photography
D.hour-lapse photography

A.time-lapse photography
39. This technique depends upon small light sources or reflectors capable of moving
with the object being photographed, and with this technique movement sequences show up
very clearly.

A.light ray imaging B.light track imaging

C.photographic light imaging D.developer track imaging

B.light track imaging

40. It is photography with radiation outside the visible range often provides information
which is not accessible within it, and transformation of the spectral range to be registered
can be carried out by electronic image converters. Often a signal amplifier is also used.

A.lens emission techniques B.forensic light emission techniques

C.light emission techniques D.special light emission technique

C.light emission techniques

41. It is commonly listed on the film box or instruction sheet. Previously, an automatic
camera has a fixed focus lens, and it is set by the maker of the camera for normal
photographing at a certain distance, usually from three-feet to infinity.

A.film speed B.ASA rating

C.all of these D.none of these

C.all of these
42. Used for high-speed photography, exposure times may be as short as
nanoseconds or 10−9s, and with such short exposure times, achieved by illumination with
sparks or flashes, a sharp image of a specific phase of very fast running processes can be
recorded.

A.short time lapse photography

B.time-lapse photography
C.time-expired photography
D.hour-lapse photography

A.short time lapse photography

43. The process of development is known chemically as, __________, because the
chief ingredient in any photographic developing solution is always through some chemical
compound.

A.enlargement B.magnification
C.reduction D.subtraction

C.reduction
44. Some of the reducers will develop exposed and unexposed grains alike, but to be
useful as a photographic developer, a reducer must have the power to distinguish between
exposed and unexposed silver salts, and the chemicals that have this power, and these are
called as:

A.developing agents B.developing chemicals

C.developing fluids D.developing reagents

A.developing agents
45. It is added to the developing solutions to develop a film in a practical length of
time, a developing solution must be alkaline, and since it is a mild alkali, a solution
containing a developing agent will develop the film.

A.Potassium Allum B.Potassium Ferricyanide

C.Chromium Intensifier D.Sodium Sulphite

D.Sodium Sulphite
46. An additional alkaline substance such as borax, sodium carbonate, or sodium
hydroxide is placed in the solution to serve this purpose to shorten development time to a
practical interval.

A.accelerator B.developer
C.illuminator D.fixer

A.accelerator
1. This refers to the scientific study of fingerprints as a means of identification, and this was
derived from two Greek words, that is, “dactyl,” which means “finger” and “skopien,”
meaning to “study” or “to examine.”

A. dactyloscopy B. dactylography
C. personal identification D. fingerprinting

A. dactyloscopy
47. Some developing solutions also contain this, and this is typified by potassium
bromide to keep the solution from developing unexposed, as well as exposed silver salt
grains, and to aid in securing greater brilliance or contrast.

A.distortion corrections B.fog preventer

C.developing agents D.restrainer

B.fog preventer
48 Developing solutions that produce very moderate differences in density between
the thinnest and heaviest deposits of silver or a negative and full gradation in between, are
called:

A.hard working developers B.soft working printer

C.soft working developers D.hard working printer

C.soft working developers

49. It is the chief reducing agent in many high contrast developers, but when
hydroquinone is the sole reducing agent in a formula, the solution must be concentrated,
that is, suitable only for use in shallow developing trays.

A.hydroquinone chemical B.hydrochloride chemical

C.developing chemical D.photographic chemical

A.hydroquinone chemical
50. It has the ability to dissolve these unexposed grains out of the emulsion; thus,
making the negative image permanent, and sodium Thiosulfate, hypo or Na2S2O3 is the
dissolver used. In addition to Na2S2O3, the fixing bath usually contains chemicals to
conserve the strength of the bath and chemicals to help harden the emulsion.

A.devloping bath B.fixing bath

C.washing bath D.rinsing bath

B.fixing bath
51. It is the chemical means by which photographic film or paper is treated after the
photographic exposure to produce a negative or positive image.

A.developing the negative

B.processing the negative
C.all of these
D. none of these

C.all of these
01FORENSIC BALLISTICS
1. It its broadest sense, it is defined as the science of the motion of projectile, that is,
“science” refers to the systematized body of knowledge, “motion” refers to movement of
mobility, and “projectiles” refers to metallic or non-metallic objects propelled from a firearm.

A.transitional ballistics B.forensic ballistics

C.ballistics D.firearms identification

B.forensic ballistics
2. He established the principle of compound motion in 1638, using the principle to
derive the parabolic form of the ballistic trajectory.

A.Gaspard Kollner B.Isaac Newton

C.Galileo Galilei D.Galvin Goddard

C.Galileo Galilei
3. It is also known as “intermediate ballistics,” is the study of a projectile’s behavior
from the time it leaves the muzzle until the pressure behind the projectile is equalized; so it
lies between internal ballistics and external ballistics.

A.forensic ballistics B.transitional ballistics

C.science of ballistics D.firearms identification

B.transitional ballistics
4. It is designed to direct the gases upwards at roughly a right angle to the bore, in
essence making it a small rocket that pushes the muzzle downwards, and counters the
“flip,” or rise of the muzzle caused by the high bore line of most firearms.

A.firearm compensator
B.recoil compensator
C.barrel compensator
D.recoilless rifle

B.recoil compensator
5. It is the path that a moving object follows through space as a function of time. It
can be described mathematically either by the geometry of the path, or as the position of
the object over time.

A.direction B.ricochet
C.trajectory D.bullet flights

C.trajectory
6. It is the speed in a given direction, and this speed describes only how fast an
object is moving, and this gives both the speed and direction of the bullet’s motion.

A.trajectory B.bullet speed

C.gravity D.velocity

D.velocity
7. This word comes from the Latin gravis, meaning “heavy;” these are objects that
have mass pull on each other, and the strength of the pull between two objects depends on
two things.

A.pull of gravity B.law of gravity

C.full of gravity D.gravitation

A.pull of gravity
8. This refers to the depth of an entry of the bullet on the target. It is a logarithmic
function of initial velocity, and decrement in velocity is an exponential function of it.

A.perforation B.penetration
C.extravasation D.effusion

B.penetration
9. This includes rifles, muskets, carbines, shotguns, pistols, revolvers, and all other
deadly weapons from which bullets, balls, shots, shells, and this term also includes air rifles
except such being a small caliber and of limited range used as toys.

A.firearms B.guns
C.rifles D.artillery

A.firearms
10. It is actually a form of tool-mark identification where the firearm, because it is
made of a material harder than the ammunition components, acts as a tool to leave
impressed or striated marks on the various ammunition components that come into contact
with the firearm.

A.firearms examination B.firearms identification

C.firearms evaluation D.firearms experimentation

B.firearms identification
11. This is defined as the intentional or design characteristics that would be common
to a particular group or family of items, and this relate to the bullets fired from them
includes the caliber and the rifling pattern contained in the barrel of the firearm.

A.individual characteristics B.sub-characteristics

C.class characteristics D.accidental characteristics

C.class characteristics
12. These are marks produced by the imperfections or irregularities of tool surface to
the firearms, and these random imperfections or irregularities are produced incidental to
manufacture of firearms, or by the use, corrosion, damage, or “wear and tear.”

A.individual characteristics B.personal characteristics

C.group characteristics D.common characteristics

A.individual characteristics
13. This was the first firearms firing mechanisms which was developed by using the
matchlock mechanism, and the gunpowder in the gun barrel was ignited by a piece of
burning cord called a “match,” and its was wedged into one end of an “S-shaped piece of
steel.”

A.match-box B.match-lock
C.match cord D.match wedge

B.match-lock
14. It is the successor to the matchlock, which predated the flintlock, and despite its
many faults, it was a significant improvement over the matchlock in terms of both
convenience and safety, since it eliminated the need to keep a smoldering match in
proximity to loosen gunpowder.

A.wheel-lock B.wheel-key
C.wheel-flint D.wheel-axle

A.wheel-lock
15. This was a major innovation in firearm design, and the spark is used to ignite the
gunpowder in the touch hole was supplied by a sharpened piece of flint clamped in the
jaws of a “cock” which, when released by the trigger.

A.wheel-lock B.match-lock
C.flint-lock D.all of these

C.flint-lock
16. These were a dramatic improvement over flintlocks. With this, a small primer
charge of gunpowder used in all firearms was replaced by a completely self-contained
explosive charge contained in a small brass “cap.”

A.primer caps B.percussion caps

C.cartridge caps D.ammunition caps

B.percussion caps
17. The spark used to ignite the gunpowder in the touch hole was supplied by a
sharpened piece of flint clamped in the jaws of a “cock” which, when released by the
trigger, struck a piece of steel to create the necessary sparks, which is called as:

A.strucker B.frozen
C.frizzen D.cocker

C.frizzen
18. It is a type of action for repeating firearms that uses a manually operated cocking
handle located around the trigger guard area that pivots forward to move the bolt via
internal linkages, which will feed or extract cartridges into or out of the chamber and cock
the firing pin mechanism.

A.trigger action B.lever action

C.ejector action D.firearm action

B.lever action
19. It is called a round, packages the bullet, propellant, and primer into a single unit
within a containing metallic case that is precisely made to fit within the firing chamber of a
firearm.

A.cartridge B.shell
C.bullet D.casing

A.cartridge
20. It is defined as a loaded shell for rifles, muskets, carbines, shotguns, revolvers
and pistols from which a ball, bullet, shot, shell or other missile may be fired by means of
gunpowder or other explosives.

A.cartridge B.ammunition
C.bullet D.all of these

B.ammunition
21. It is the main defining component of the cartridge, which gives the cartridge its
shape and serves as the integrating housing for other functional components, and it acts as
a container for the propellant powders and also serve as a protective shell against the
elements;

A.ammunition B.bullet
C.shell D.case

D.case
22. It is the effector component of the cartridge, and is actually responsible for
reaching, impacting, and exerting damage onto a target, and it is an umbrella term that
describes any type of kinetic objects launched into ballistic flight.

A.projectile B.ammunition
C.cartridge D.bullet

A.projectile
23. It is what actually fuels the main function of any firearm, that is, shooting out the
projectile. When it deflagrates, that is, subsonic combustion, the redox reaction breaks its
molecular bonds and releases the chemical energy stored within.

A.charger B.propellant
C.fuse D.blasting caps

B.propellant
24. The main propellant charge is located deep inside the gun barrel; thus, impractical
to be directly lighted from the outside, an intermediate is needed to relay the ignition, and it
was used to direct a small flame through a touch hole into the barrel, which was slow and
subjected to disturbance from environmental conditions.

A.primer B.low explosive

C.gunpowder D.high explosive

A.primer
25. It is a firearm metallic cartridge whose primer is located at the center of the base
of its casing, that is, “case head.” have supplanted the other variety, in all but the smallest
cartridge sizes.

A.case head-fire cartridge B.center-fire cartridge

C.body-fire cartridge D.core-fire cartridge

B.center-fire cartridge
26. Its centrifugal force pushes a liquid priming compound into the internal recess of
the folded rim as the manufacturer spins the case at a high rate and heats the spinning
case to dry the priming compound mixture in place within the hollow cavity formed at the
rim fold at the perimeter of the cartridge case interior.

A.cannelure-fire cartridge B.wheel-fire cartridge

C.rim-fire cartridge D.semi-rim-fire cartridge

C.rim-fire cartridge
27. These are “scratches” produced when the cartridge case moves laterally against
the tool or inner surface of the firearm, producing a scrape, and these marks are common
to cartridge cases that have passed through the action of an auto loading or repeating
firearm.

A.striated action marks B.percussion mark

C.land and grooves marks D.firearms mark

A.striated action marks

28. These are created on cartridge cases when it impacts the tool, again, the firearm,
with adequate velocity or pressure to leave these marks, with a few exceptions, are
produced when a cartridge case is fired in a firearm.

A.firing pin action marks

B.striated action marks
C.chamber action marks
D.impressed action marks

D.impressed action marks

29. It is by far the most common impressed action marks on cartridge cases, and
most fired cartridge cases are identified as having been fired by a specific firearm through
the identification of breech marks.

A.action marks B.loading marks

C.breech marks D.unloading marks

C.breech marks
30. They are sometimes created when cartridges or cartridge cases are ejected from
the action of a firearm, and can be either striated or impressed but the impressed ejector
marks not only can be used to identify a cartridge case as having passed through an action
but they can also be an indication that the cartridge case was fired in the firearm.

A.pulling marks B.ejector marks

C.pushing marks D.injection marks

B.ejector marks
31. It is indentations created when the firing pin of a firearm strikes the primer of
center-fire cartridge case or the rim of a rim-fire cartridge case.

A.firing pin impression B.firing pin marks

C.firing pin motion D.firing pin

A.firing pin impression

32. It is one of the most common striated action marks, wherein roughness in the
chamber of a firearm can scratch the outer walls of a cartridge case when loaded and
removed from the chamber.

A.barrel marks B.landmarks

C.chamber marks D.magazine marks

C.chamber marks
33. He co-established the first significant institution devoted to firearms examination in
the Bureau of Forensic Ballistics in New York where he perfected the comparison
microscope for ballistics research, and he developed the science of identifying fired bullets
and empty cartridge cases, known as forensic ballistics.

A.Dr. Calvin H. Goddard B.Dr. Joseph S. Whitworth

C.Dr. Charles A. Lancaster D.Dr. Victor Z. Balthazard

A.Dr. Calvin H. Goddard

34. He is a founder of Forensic Ballistics, and was a French physician,
pathology professor, and criminologist who was a native of Cahors, and he has an
outstanding reputation in law enforcement.

A.Benjamin Robins B.Alexandre Lacassagne

C.William Armstrong D.Allessandro Berardelli

B.Alexandre Lacassagne
35. He adapted a comparison microscope for use in the identification of fired bullets
and cartridge cases, and this singular act is considered by many to be a hallmark event in
the science of firearms identification.

A.Niccolo F. Tartaglia B.John C. Ryker

C.Philip O. Gravelle D.Augustus S. Kotter

C.Philip O. Gravelle
36. This refers to a container which is usually metal and cylindrical in shape, and that
is loaded with a primer, powder charge, and bullet.

A.cartridge case B.bullet case

C.ammunition case D.cartridge casing

A.cartridge case
37. It represents the oldest case head design still in widespread use, and it can be
distinguished by a rim that extends outward from the head of the case, to a diameter
noticeably larger than the case body.

A.rimmed less B.rimmed

C.rimed D.semi-rimmed

B.rimmed
38. The modern cartridge case serves several important functions, EXCEPT:

A.contains the other components

Bresists the firing-pin blow during ignition
C.forms a gas seal or obturation
D.magazine fed and automatic fire

D.magazine fed and automatic fire

39. It is an alternative to the semi-rimmed design. The design is an innovation
intended to combine the positive head-spacing of a rimmed case, and the case gives
smooth, reliable feeding from a box magazine.

A.rimmed B.rebated
C.belted D.semi-rimmed

C.belted
40. Most modern center-fire cartridge cases of are this type, since this case form provides
the greatest powder capacity commensurate with the overall case length, and. this is where
a wide-bodied case is, just before the case mouth, reduced in diameter to that of the bullet.

A.bottleneck cartridge case B.rimmed cartridge case

C.semi-rimmed cartridge case D.straight cartridge case

A.bottleneck cartridge case

41. All-rim fire cartridges and most center-fire revolver cartridges that are now
manufactured have this type of case, and the rimmed type, the semi-rimmed type and
rimless type are an example of this case.

A.bottleneck cartridge B.straight cartridge case

C.semi-rimmed cartridge case D.combustible cartridge case

B.straight cartridge case

42. This refers to the serrated grooves that are sometimes found rolled in the necks
and bodies of the cases at the location of the bases of the bullet to prevent it from being
pushed back or loosened.

A.flash holes B.shell cannelures

C.crimp D.extractor

B.shell cannelures
43. This refers to the hole in the web or bottom of the primer pocket through which the
primer “flash” provides ignition to the powder charge, and it is the “opening” or “canal” that
connects the priming mixture with the gunpowder.

A.vents B.flash holes

C.all of these D.none of these

C.all of these
44. It is the circular groove near the base of the case or shell designed for the
automatic withdrawal of the case after such firing, and on a rimless case, the rim is the
same diameter as the base of the case; known as:

A.extracting groove B.ejector groove

C.trigger groove D.firing pin groove

A.extracting groove
45. Ammunition for modern shotguns uses a hybrid cartridge case with the following
features, EXCEPT:

A.magazine fed ammunition

B.the body is made of paper or flexible plastic
C.a plastic or composition base wad around the primer
D.a thin metal base section that provides adequate grip for
the extractor and support for the primer.

A.magazine fed ammunition

46. As in the case of fired bullets, the microscopic comparison and potential
identification of fired cartridge cases and shot-shell cases as having been fired from the
same firearm is at the core of forensic firearms work, and the comparison will involve one
of the following situations, EXCEPT:

A.recovered firearms used as physical evidence

B.recovered firearm without related evidence
C.recovered firearm with related evidence
D.recovered evidence without related firearm

A.recovered firearms used as physical evidence

 47. Reloading tool-marks may result from the following, EXCEPT:

A.cartridge case holding tools, these tools physically grip cartridge cases by the
base while in a reloading press;
B.resizing tools, these tools are used to compress fired cases which were slightly
expanded during obturation back to their precise original dimensions
C.cylindrical projectile propelled from a firearm by means of the expansive force of
gases coming from burning gunpowder
D.crimping tools, these are used to slightly crimp the mouth of cartridge cases to
bullets in some loads

C.cylindrical projectile propelled from a firearm by means of the expansive

force of gases coming from burning gunpowder
48. This should be inter-compared to determine if the firearm in question is reliably
reproducing microscopic detail of value for comparison and identification with a single
firearm.

A.test cartridge case B.shot-shell case

C.all of these D.none of these

C.all of these
49. It is a metallic or non-metallic, cylindrical projectile propelled from a firearm by
means of the expansive force of gases coming from burning gunpowder. Under this
definition, the term may also include projectiles propelled from shotguns, although strictly
speaking, these projectiles designed for shotguns are called “shots,” “slugs,” or “pellets.”

A.bullet B.cartridge
C.projectile D.ammunition

A.bullet
50. These bullets are intended for even higher-velocity applications generally have a
lead core that is jacketed or plated with gilding metal, cupronickel, copper alloys, or steel; a
thin layer of harder metal protects the softer lead core when the bullet is passing through
the barrel and during flight, which allows delivering the bullet intact to the target.

A.monolithic solid B.jacketed lead

C.amor-piercing D.fragmented

B.jacketed lead
51. This is designed to disintegrate into tiny particles upon impact to minimize their
penetration for reasons of range safety, to limit environmental impact, or to limit the shoot-
through danger behind the intended target.

A.frangible B.fragmentable
C.incendiary D.explosive

A.frangible
01
LIE DETECTION TECHNIQUES
1. He worked to devise a polygraph that used inked pens for recording the relative
changes in a subject’s blood pressure, pulse rate and respiratory patterns.

A.Angelo Mosso B.Leonardo Keeler

C.James Mackenzie D.William Marston

B.Leonardo Keeler
2. He developed what he called the “Reid Polygraph.” Besides recording blood
pressure, pulse, respiration, and GSR, this new polygraph instrument recorded muscular
activity in the forearms, thighs, and feet.

A.John Reid B.John Larson

C.Leonardo Keeler D. Scipione Riva Rocci

A.John Reid
 3. There were at least three forms use in the trial by iron, as follows, EXCEPT:

A.the accused would have to hold a red-hot iron bar and carry it at a set distance
B.the accused would have to lick a similarly heated bar of iron and not burn his or her tongue
C.several ploughshares were heated red-hot and placed unevenly on the ground’
D.this was known almost exclusively from the customs and traditions of the people

D.this was known almost exclusively from the

customs and traditions of the people
4.This was known almost exclusively from the customs of the Germanic people.

A.trial by iron B.trial by water

C.trial by combat D.donkeys tail trial

C.trial by combat
5. This is an instrument that measures and records several physiological responses such
as blood pressure, pulse, respiration and skin conductivity while the subject is being asked
to answer a series of questions.

A.polygraph B.lie detector

C.analog polygraph D.computerized polygraph

D.computerized polygraph
6. It is based on the use of a certain machine developed in the late 1960s that
presumably detects "guilt-revealing", laryngeal micro-tremors which exist in the voice and
are associated with stress and lying.

A.physiological stress evaluator

B.physical stress evaluators
C.emotional stress evaluators
D.psychological stress evaluation

D.psychological stress evaluation

7. This records the changes of the blood pressure and pulse rate of the subject. It is
composed of the blood pressure cuff assembly, sphygmomanometer vent, and resonance
control and recording unit.

A.pneumograph B.sphygmomano meter

C.cardiosphymograph D.galvanograph component

C.cardiosphymograph
8. This came into prominence during the early 1950's. Polygraph instruments of that
era were "cardio-pneumo" polygraphs, with a pneumograph and a cardiograph.

A.galvanograph component B.galvanic skin response

C.kymograph component D.hands electrodes

A.galvanograph component
9. It is the use of any instrument to graphically record simultaneously the
physiological changes in human respiration, cardiovascular activity, and any other
physiological changes that can be recorded for the purpose of verifying truth.

A.lie detection B.polygraph examination

C.polygraph testing D.deceit detection

B.polygraph examination
10. This test is the most often performed by independent examiners, and due to this
test. the polygraph examiner will explain the basic theory behind the polygraph test. ‘

A.initial test B.screeding test

C.final test D.pre-test phase

D.pre-test phase
11. In this test, the examiner will administer the polygraph test once all of the sensors
are put into place, and the examiner will ask the examinee the questions that have been
determined by the client before the test.

A.post test phase B.final test phase

C.past test phase D.long range test

A.post test phase

12. As its name implies, this format compares examinee responses into these, and is
one that deals with the real issue of concern to the investigation.

A.non-relevant test B.irrelevant test

C.relevant-irrelevant test D.none of these

C.relevant-irrelevant test
13.. This is also called control question tests, compare examinees’ responses to
relevant questions to their responses to other questions that are believed to elicit
physiological reactions from innocent examinees.

A.duplication question test B.standard question test

C.connection question test D.comparison question tests

D.comparison question tests

14. This test is also known as the modified general question test, and was the earliest
form of comparison question test.

A.Keeler Comparison Question Test

B.Reid Comparison Question Test
C.Mozzo Comparison Question Test
D.Riva Rocci Comparison Question Test

B.Reid Comparison Question Test

15. This test is named for the three “zones” or blocks of time during the test: the
relevant questions, called the red zone; the probable-lie comparison questions, the green
zone; and other questions, the black zone.

A.zone comparison test B.sector comparison test

C.area comparison test D.section comparison test

A.zone comparison test

16. It is a directed-lie test wherein the questions are used to address multiple issues,
such as, espionage, sabotage, unauthorized foreign contacts, and unauthorized release of
information.

A.test of infiltration test B.test of penetration test

C.test of espionage and sabotage D.test of spying and destroy test

C.test of espionage and sabotage

17. This sometimes called the stim test or acquaintance test, is used by examiners in
some test formats either during the pretest or between charts.

A.stimulation test B.reproduction test

C.duplication test D.exercise test

A.stimulation test
18. These are more often called guilty knowledge or concealed knowledge tests,
present examinees with sets of very similar items, much in the manner of stimulation tests.

A.covert information test B.concealed information test

C.secret information test D.clandestine information test

B.concealed information test

19. This test is similar in format to concealed information tests, but is distinct because
questions are asked in an easily recognized order.

A.peak-of-tension test B.increase-of-tension test

C.high-of-tension test D.all of these

A.peak-of-tension test
20. These questions are consisting of series of relevant and irrelevant questions ask
in a plan order, and in general, are so arranged in a checklist or prepared questions as to
make answerable by “Yes” or “No” only.

A.ordinary question test B.special question test

C.general question test D.standard question test

C.general question test

21. According to this theory, two incompatible reaction tendencies aroused at the
same time produce a large physiological reaction that is greater than the reaction to either
alone.

A.antagonist theory B.friction theory

C.culture deviant theory D.conflict theory

D.conflict theory
22. This holds that the relevant questions play the role of conditioned stimuli and
evoke in deceptive individuals an emotional, and concomitant physiological response with
which lying has been associated during acculturation.

A.unconditioned response theory B.constraints response theory

C.conditioned response theory D.situation response theory

C.conditioned response theory

23. This theory holds that when a person being examined fears punishment or
anticipates serious consequences should he or she fail to deceive, such fear or anticipation
produces a measurable physiological reaction.

A.psychological set theory B.physiological set theory

C.emotional set theory D.physical set theory

A.psychological set theory

24. According to this theory, stimuli are represented in terms of one of two categories,
relevant and neutral, which habituate independently.

A.dichotomization theory B.divaricate theory

C.bifurcation theory D.social-disorganization theory

A.dichotomization theory
25. These were picked up from metal bellow under the arms and seat of the polygraph
chair.

A.body movements B.muscular movements

C.eyes movements D.hands and arms movements

B.muscular movements
26. This theory is commonly cited as justifications for the concealed information test
format and related techniques, focus on reactions to the questions. ‘

A,enlivening theory B.animating theory

C.arousal theory D.activating theory

C.arousal theory
27. It is the measure of the activity of the eccrine sweat glands, as it is measured by
electrodes placed on two fingers or the palm of the hand.

A.electrical skin response B.electrical skin properties

C.galvanic skin response D.electrodermal activity

D.electrodermal activity
28. This cause perceivers to feel a sense of uncertainty, discomfort, anxiety, or even
danger during social interactions.

A.shames B.disgraces
C.stigmas D.blemishes

C.stigmas
29. These are included to uncover examinee concerns about an issue outside of the
scope of the red and green zones, such as involvement in another crime or similar
offenses.

A.white zone questions B.black zone questions

C.red zone questions D.blue zone questions

B.black zone questions

30. It is a computerized polygraph chart scoring algorithm that uses statistical
probability to arrive at truthfulness or deception.

A.Poly-Score B.Poly-Count
C.Poly-Frequency D.Poly-Rating

A.Poly-Score
31. It is best described not in the singular but, instead, as a series of tests, and are
designed to assess truthfulness and deception in situations that range from screening job
applicants to investigations of specific criminal incidents.

A.forensic polygraph testing B.scientific polygraph testing

C.laboratory polygraphy testing D.scientific inquiry testing

B.scientific polygraph testing

32. Its purpose is to form a conclusion that may serve as a basis for action, and this
action will often affect the future of an individual in term of rights, liberties or health. ‘

A.pre-screening rests B.post-screening tests

C.diagnostic tests D.analysis tests

C.diagnostic tests
33. These addresses the objective of adding incrementally of smaller goals that may
include both the discriminate ability of the test result, and the capability of the testing
process to develop information.

A.diagnostics polygraph tests B.post-screening polygraph tests

C.pre-screening polygraph tests D.screening polygraph tests

D.screening polygraph tests

34. It is essential to give confidence that a test measures what it is supposed to
measure, and it comes in part from scientifically collected data on the diagnostic accuracy
of a test with certain examiners and examinees.

A.evidence of scientific validity B.proof of scientific validity

C.evidence of scientific reliability D.evidence of scientific accuracy

A.evidence of scientific validity

35. It is not sufficient to give confidence that a test will work well across all examiners,
examinees, and situations, including those in which it has not been applied.

A.evidence of accuracy B.evidence of reliability

C.evidence of validity D.all of these

A.evidence of accuracy
36. This combines the experimental strategies of cognitive psychology with various
techniques to actually examine how brain function supports mental activities.

A.cognitive psycho scienceB.cognitive emotional-science

C.cognitive neuro-science D.cognitive brain-science

C.cognitive neuro-science
37. Its signal’s intensity and is sensitive to the amount of oxygen that is carried by
hemoglobin, hence, this change in blood oxygen content at the site of changes in brain
activity can be detected.

A.CT Scan Resonance Imaging B.Magnetic Resonance Imaging

C.Nuclear Magnetic Resonance D.Positron Emission Tomography

B.Magnetic Resonance Imaging

38. This detects the electrical activity of the human brain when it is placed on the scalp.

A.Electroencephalogram and Event Related Potentials

B.Electroencephalogram and Activities Related Potentials
C.Electroencephalogram and Reaction Related Potentials
D.Electroencephalogram and Situation Related Potentials

A.Electroencephalogram and Event Related Potentials

39. With limited success at best, this can extract information from recorded voice
signals to measure stress in analogue studies and then to use the resulting determination
as an indirect indicator of deception in much the same way as is done in polygraph
research.

A.Words Stress Analysis

B.Action Stress Analysis
C.Voice Stress Analysis
D.Voice Identification Analysis

C.Voice Stress Analysis

40. Though not commonly used to assess deceptiveness, these are widely used by
employers to assess conscientiousness, dependability, and integrity.

A.ordinary tests B.standardized tests

C.specialized test D.forensic tests

B.standardized tests
41. This examination, may be repeated three or four times, lasts no longer than a few
minutes for each question set, that is, limited, in some cases, because the blood pressure
cuff can be inflated for only 10 to 12 minutes without causing the subject undue discomfort.

A.actual questioning B.actual investigation

C.actual interviewing D.actual interrogation

A.actual questioning
42. This is another form of the pretest interview that is advocated by John E. Reid,
that makes use of, and deemphasizes gathering biographical data.

A.concrete series of questions B.unstructured series of questions

C.structured series of questions D.non-structured question series

C.structured series of questions

43. Polygraph examiners typically conduct this test to further convince subjects of the
accuracy of the polygraph examination.

A.dry run test B.stimulation test

C.exercise test D.readiness test

B.stimulation test
44. It is the most common technique used in investigations of a specific issue, and
was developed to deal with some of the inherent problems in the traditional R/I technique. ‘

A.control examination test B.control investigation test

C.control interview test D.control question test

D.control question test

45. It is designed to get subjects either to be deceptive to control questions or at least
to be concerned about the accuracy of their recollections.

A.pretest review B.re-test interview

C.post-test interview D.test-retest interview

A.pretest review
46. This technique makes a diagnosis of deceptive or truthful from a standardized
numerical scoring of the charts.

A.area of comparison B.zone of comparison

C.place of comparison D.location comparison

B.zone of comparison
 47.This resembles with the Reid control question test.

A.modified regular question test B.modified special question test

C.modified general question test D.modified simulation question test

C.modified general question test

48. It is the process by which a series of questions are being created or made by the
polygraph examiners using various scientific technique through utterance, and are being
asked to the subject of lie detection test.

A.formulation of inquiries B.formulation of checklist

C.formulation of instrument D.formulation of questions

D.formulation of questions
49. It is intended for several purposes. The importance among them are: to establish
stability, to facilitate recovery from a reaction or artifact, and to identify certain
countermeasure strategies.

A.irrelevant questions B.relevant questions

C.relevant-irrelevant questions D.insignificant questions

A.irrelevant questions
50. In the most general terms, there are two types of relevant questions: primary
and secondary. While all techniques use primary relevant questions, the inclusion
of secondary relevant questions will depend on the testing technique.

A.special questions B.significant questions

C.relevant questions D.important questions

C.relevant questions
01
FORENSIC CHEMISTRY &
TOXICOLOGY
1. It is the application of chemistry and its subfield, forensic toxicology, in a legal
setting, and the services of forensic expert can assist in the identification of unknown
materials found at a crime scene.

A.Forensic Science B.Forensic Chemistry

C.Forensic Toxicology D.Forensic Biology

B.Forensic Chemistry
2. It is used for impurity profiling of drug seizures from the community or clandestine
labs. Impurity profiling compares a pure standard with the seized drug sample to find
additional chemicals from the manufacturing process.

A.Gas Chromatograph Mass Spectrometer

B.Nucleic Acid Sample Preparation
C.X-Ray Spectrometer
D.Atomic Absorption Spectrometer

A.Gas Chromatograph Mass Spectrometer

3. This is used for processing samples which are thermally unstable, such as
explosives and it is used because the instrument is not heated, processing at room
temperature keeps the chemical compounds from breaking down while processing.

A.Low Performance Liquid Chromatograph

B.High Performance Liquid Chromatograph
C.Aqueous Normal-Phase Chromatograph
D.Thin Layer Chromatograph

B.High Performance Liquid Chromatograph

4. It is used to differentiate between cocaine HCL, commonly known as pure
cocaine, and free base cocaine. commonly known as crack.

A.Dispersive Infrared Spectrometer B.Ultraviolet Spectrometer

C.Fourier Infrared Spectrometer D.Infrared Spectrometer

D.Infrared Spectrometer
5. It is used for viewing synthetic and natural fibers, such as nylon and cross
sections of wood, and can be used to view minerals and soil samples.

A.Polarizing Microscope Geology B.Polarizing Light Microscope

C.Transmitted Light Microscope D.Polarizing Reflection Microscope

B.Polarizing Light Microscope

6. It is a body fluid in humans and other animals that delivers necessary substances
such as nutrients and oxygen to the cells and transports metabolic waste products away
from those same cells.

A.blood B.biological fluids

C.human blood D.animal blood

A.blood
7. It is an opaque red fluid, freely flowing but denser and more viscous than water,
and the color is imparted by hemoglobin, a unique iron-containing protein.

A.human blood B.avian blood

B.amphibian Blood D.piscean blood

A.human blood
8. It is the study and examination of bodily fluids that is used in forensic science as a
means of segregating fluids excreted by assailants in varying criminal acts.

A.chemistry B.urology
C.serology D.complete blood chemistry

C.serology
9. It is used as a detection method for latent blood in forensic science, and the
hemoglobin catalyzes the reaction between LMG and hydrogen peroxide, converting the
colorless elements into malachite green.

A.Leuco-Malachite Green Test B.Precipitin Test

C.Acid Phosphate Test D.RSID Test

A.Leuco-Malachite Green Test

10. This test is of value in the determination whether the blood is of human origin or
not although the blood of the anthropoid ape and other related animal may give the same
result.

A.Luminol Test B.Phenolpthalein Test

C.Precipitin Test D.Takayama Test

C.Precipitin Test
11. It is a fluid that is emitted from the male reproductive tract, and also contains
liquids that combine to form seminal plasma, which helps keep the sperm cells viable, and
it is secreted by the gonads or sexual glands.

A.semen B.sperm
C.embryo D.spermatozoa

A.semen
12. This refer to semen with a low concentration of sperm and is a common finding
in male infertility.

A.oligospermia B.oligozoospermia
C.all of the above D.none of the above

C.all of the above

13. It is a fluid from the prostate and other sex glands that helps transport sperm out
of the man's body during orgasm, and contains sugar as an energy source for sperm.

A.seminal stain B.whitish fluid

C.seminal fluid D.white blood stain

C.seminal fluid
14. It is defined as a moving form of the haploid cell that is the male gamete. It joins
an ovum to form a zygote.

A. semen B.spermatozoon
C. oligospermia D.sperm cell

B.spermatozoon
15. It is the normal sperm densities range, and it is considered that it is a low sperm
count if it has fewer than 15 million sperm per milliliter or less than 39 million sperm total
per ejaculation.

A.15 million to 200 million sperm per milliliter of semen

B.10 million to 200 million sperm per milliliter of semen
C. 5 million to 200 million sperm per milliliter of semen
D.none of these

A.15 million to 200 million sperm per milliliter of semen

16. This commonly referred to as spit, is an extra-cellular fluid produced and secreted
by salivary glands in the mouth, and these enzymes also play a role in breaking down food
particles entrapped within dental crevices, thus protecting teeth from bacterial decay.

A.saliva B.sputum
C.froth D.spittle

A.saliva
17. It is a slippery aqueous secretion produced by, and covering, mucous
membranes. It is typically produced from cells found in mucous glands, although it may
also originate from mixed glands, which contain both serous and mucous cells

A.sweat B.gum juice

C.mucus D.sap

C.mucus
18. It is a liquid by-product of metabolism in humans and in many other animals, and
this flows from the kidneys through the ureters to the urinary bladder.

A.emiction B.urine
C.body fluid D.piss

B.urine
19. These are a clear liquid secreted by the lacrimal glands or tear gland, found in the
eyes, and their functions include lubricating the eyes, or basal tears, removing irritants, and
aiding the immune system.

A.tears B.fuss
C.gash D.biological fluid

A.tears
20.It is the production of fluids secreted by the sweat glands in the skin of mammals.

A.sweating B.perspiration
C.all of these D.none of these

C.all of these
21. It is more continuous in coloring; has even distribution of pigment throughout
cortex; and in imbricate pattern. It is a protein filament that grows from follicles found in the
dermis.

A.human hairs B.synthetic fibers

C.animal hairs D.pubic hairs

A.human hairs
22. There are three main types of hair that the body produces, as follows, EXCEPT:

A.vellus hair B.lanugo hair

C.androgenic hair D.body hair

D.body hair
23. The different parts of hair, are as follows, EXCEPT:

A.shaft B.root.
C.follicle D.cuticle

D.cuticle
24.The opinions concerning hair examinations include, the following, EXCEPT:

A.nothing about hair is comparable to the specificity of fingerprints

B.studies have shown that hairs from two individuals are distinguishable
C.significance of a hair match is a median point between the A & B
D.a protein filament that grows from follicles found in the dermis

D.a protein filament that grows from follicles

found in the dermis
25. It is the smallest unit of a textile material that has a length many times greater
than its diameter, and can occur naturally as plant and animal fibers, but they can also be
man-made.

A.fiber B.hair
C.thread D.strand

A.fiber
26. It is the branch of geology that studies rocks and the conditions under which they
form. It has three subdivisions: igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary petrology.

A.metallurgy B.petrography
C.petrology D.none of these

C.petrology
27. It is a branch of petrology that focuses on detailed descriptions of rocks, which is
based on the information acquired during the petrographic analysis..

A.serology B.petrography
C.biology D.chemistry

B.petrography
28. It is the science or study of soil that involves the application of soil science,
especially studies that involve soil morphology, soil mapping, mineralogy, chemistry,
geophysics, biology, and molecular biology to answer legal or forensic questions, problems
in criminal investigation, or hypotheses testing.

A.forensic soil examination B.forensic soil analysis

C.forensic soil science D.forensic soil chemistry

C.forensic soil science

29, Although soil forensic characterization is primarily performed in the crime
laboratory, it is emphasized that soil analysis typically begins with the sampling and
description of three distinct groups of samples, which are categorize as follows, EXCEPT:

A.questioned soil samples, whose origin is unknown or disputed

B.controlled soil sample, whose origin is known often from the crime scene
C.alibi soil sample, provide a measure of the questioned and control sample
D.pedon soil, as the smallest unit, containing all soil horizons

D.pedon soil, as the smallest unit, containing all

soil horizons
30. It is the study of the formation and description of soil types within various soil
horizons.

A.soil morphology B.soil mapping

C.soil mineralogy. C.soil chemistry

A.soil morphology
31. These are a mixture of a pigment and a suitable liquid to form a closely adherent
coating when spread on a surface in a thin coat.

A.colorants B.thinners
C.paints D.binders

C.paints
32. These are finely ground particles that are dispensed into paint and provide color
and hiding properties.

A.dyestuffs B.pigments
C.tinctures D.primers

B.pigments
33. These are ingredients that provide a binding effect that holds the pigments
together to create a dry film on the surface, and it is the key ingredient that directly relates
to a paint performance.

A.binders B.cinchers
C.dampers D.accelerants

A.binders
34. These are the vehicle for allowing paint to get from the can to the surfaces and these
types of liquids differ depending on the type of paint.

A.aqueous B.fluidics
C.solvents D.extracts

C.solvents
35. These are used in paints to create additional performance properties and the most
commonly used are thickening agents and surfactants or soaps.

A.preservatives B.supplements
C.enhancers D.additives

D.additives
36. It is a hard, brittle substance, typically transparent or translucent, made by fusing
sand with soda, lime, and sometimes other ingredients and cooling rapidly.

A.glass B.reflector
C.mirror D.all of these

A.glass
37. It is the study of the fracture surfaces of materials, and are routinely used to
determine the cause of failure in engineering structures, especially in product failure and
the practice of forensic engineering or failure analysis.

A.fractography B.petrology
C.serology D.metallurgy

A.fractography
38. This consists of the examination of two or more fragments to determine whether
they have a common origin, and this also includes knowing the type of glass based on
glass fragments.

A.forensic study of glass B.chemical study of glass

C.forensic analysis of glass D.scientific study of glass

C.forensic analysis of glass

 39. The 3Ds in forensic glass analysis, are as follows, EXCEPT:

A.determination of glass type. B.determination of force direction

C.determination of force sequence D.determination of raw materials

D.determination of raw materials

40. The forensic analysis of glass can include the following, EXCEPT:

A.the sequence of the fractures, order of events

B.the direction of the force which caused the fracture
C.the identity or type of a small piece of glass
D.the type of glass based on glass fragments

D.the type of glass based on glass fragments

41. It is a branch of science and technology concerned with the properties of metals
and their production and purification, and an art and science of extracting metals from their
ores and modifying the metals for use.

A.Metallurgy B.Science of Metallurgy

C.Metallography D.Metallography

A.Metallurgy
42. It is a branch of metallurgy that involves the study of the microstructures or
physical structures, and components of metals, by using microscopy.

A.Calligraphy B.Physics
C.Metallography D.Chemistry

C.Metallography
43. It is part of the field of forensic engineering which applies engineering science to
issues that relate the investigation of unforeseen failures, crashes, disasters or other
incidents.

A.Scientific Metallurgy B.Forensic Metallurgy

C.Mechanical Metallurgy D.Physical Metallurgy

B.Forensic Metallurgy
44. It is a very popular, low-cost method to perform non-destructive examination or
NDE of ferromagnetic material.

A.Magnetic Particle Examination B.Magnetic Particle Forensics

C.Magnetic Particle Evaluation D.Magnetic

A.Magnetic Particle Examination