1.

Stones are obtained from rocks that are made up of:

a) Ores
b) Minerals
c) Chemical compounds
d) Crystals
View Answer
Answer: b
2. Which one of the following is not a classification of stones?
a) Physical Classification
b) Mineralogical Classification
c) Chemical Classification
d) Practical Classification
Slag is waste material from the smelting of ore. Tuff is a porous rock formed by a consolidation
of volcanic ash.

At what depth and rate is a hypabyssal rock formed?

a) Slow cooling of magma at considerable depth
b) Quick cooling of magma at a shallow depth
c) Rapid cooling of magma at Earth’s surface
d) Rapid cooling of magma at a shallow depth
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Plutonic rocks are formed by slow cooling of magma at considerable depth.
Volcanic rocks are formed near the surface of Earth by rapid cooling of magma. Hypabyssal
rocks are formed at a quick rate of cooling of magma at considerably shallow depths.
What is a sedimentary deposit?
a) Weathered product remains at site
b) Weathered product carried away in solution
c) Weathered product gets carried away agents
d) Insoluble weathered product is carried away in suspension
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Weathered product remains at site is called residual deposit. Weathered product
carried away in solution is chemical deposit and Weathered product gets carried away agents is
organic deposit.
Which of the following is not a metamorphic change?
a) Calcite to schist
b) Limestone to marble
c) Shale to slate
d) Granite to gneisses
Which of the following rocks are hard and durable?
a) Argillaceous rocks
b) Siliceous rocks
c) Calcareous rocks
d) Carbonaceous rocks
Foliated structure is very common in case of:
a) Sedimentary rocks
b) Plutonic rocks
c) Igneous rocks
d) Metamorphic rocks

Granite is a type of:

a) Plutonic rock
b) Metamorphic rock
c) Hypabyssal rock
d) Volcanic rock
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Granite is formed at a slow rate of cooling of magma at considerable depths and so
is a type of plutonic rock
Which of the following is a hand tool used for quarrying?
a) Plier
b) Hammer
c) Quarrying wire
d) XSM

What is the relation between LLR (Line of Least Resistance) and amount of explosives
to be used?
a) Higher the LLR, higher the amount of explosive
b) Higher the LLR, lesser the amount of explosive
c) 10% more explosive for every 1m of LLR
d) 10% less explosive for every 1m of LLR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LLR is the shortest distance travelled by the expelled gasses on blasting through a
path which offers least resistance. Therefore, higher amount of explosives will result in higher
LLR.
Which of the following is not an explosive used for blasting?
a) Gelignite
b) Gunpowder
c) Flash powder
d) Nitrocellulose
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Flash powder is used primarily in fireworks and theatrical pyrotechnics. The other
three are widely used in the quarrying field.
What is used to accelerate the process of rubbing in rubbed finish dressing?
a) Water
b) Water and sand
c) Clay
d) Pebbles
Dressing of stones is carried out to:
a) To provide employment to people
b) To make transport of stones to site easy and economic
c) To reduce water content of stone
d) To avoid further works on the stone

How many types of dressings are there with respect to the place of work?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) None
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two types of dressings based on the place of work. They are quarry
dressing and site dressing. Quarry dressing is carried out right after quarrying whereas site
dressing is done after transporting the quarried rock to the site.
Circular finished stones are generally used for:
a) Pillar
b) Tombstone
c) Landscaping
d) Column
Quarry faced finished stones are also called:
a) Reticulated finish
b) Hammer faced finished
c) Rock faced stones
d) Plain finish
Dynamite is a more effective explosive than gelignite.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gelignite is more convenient to use and can be used underwater also. Hence, it’s
effective than dynamite.
What is sand blasting?
a) Process of making carvings on stone surface
b) Quarrying technique
c) Dressing type
d) Process of using sand to blast stone surface
1. For a good building stone how much is the required crushing strength?
a) Less than 50 N/mm2
b) Greater than 100 N/mm2
c) 155 N/mm2
d) 10 N/mm2
Which of the following is a good fire-resistant stone?
a) Clay
b) Granite
c) Quartz
d) Limestone
What is a freestone?
a) Stone free from impurities
b) Stone that doesn’t require dressing
c) Metamorphic stone
d) Stone free from veins and planes of cleavage
Why are stones with lighter shades of colour preferred?
a) Easy to clean
b) Easily available
c) Don’t spoil the appearance
d) Darker shades are heavier
What is the required specific gravity for a good building stone?
a) Greater than 2.7
b) Less than 3
c) Greater than 3
d) Less than 2.7
What texture should a building stone possess?
a) Loose grains
b) Crystalline structure
c) Cavities
d) Cracks
Seasoning is required for stones.
a) True
b) False
Toughness index of a good stone should be more than:
a) 17
b) 18
c) 13
d) 19

A percentage wear of 3% indicates a good stone.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A percentage wear of less than 3% indicates a non-satisfactory stone. A percentage
wear of 3% indicates a tolerable stone and greater than 3% indicates a good quality stone.

Which test is used to find the rate of wear of stones?

a) Crushing test
b) Abrasion test
c) Attrition test
d) Acid test
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Crushing test is used to find crushing strength of stones. Abrasion test to find
suitability of stone for road work. Acid test is used to find the quality of the stone.
In what solution is the stone sample placed in an Acid test?
a) HCl of strength .5%
b) H2SO4 of strength .5%
c) H2SO4 of strength 1%
d) HCl of strength 1%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As per the test procedure, the sample weighing about .5 – 1 N is placed in a
solution of HCl for 7 days.
Which IS code gives details regarding the tests for weathering on building stones?
a) IS 1121 part 2
b) IS 1125
c) IS 1121 part 4
d) IS 1126

For crushing test what is the size of a specimen to be used?

a) 50 × 50 × 50mm
b) 100 × 100 × 100mm
c) 45 × 45 × 45mm
d) 40 × 40 × 40mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As per the IS codes, 40 × 40 × 40 mm size cube of stone is to be used to perform
the crushing test. The specimen is then placed in compression testing machine (CTM) and loaded
at 14 N/mm2.
In abrasion test, what material is placed in addition to the specimen in the testing apparatus?
a) Metal piece
b) Stone piece smaller than specimen
c) Cast iron ball
d) Stainless steel ball

Which apparatus is used to test the hardness of stones?

a) Los Angeles
b) Deval’s
c) CTM
d) Dorry’s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Los Angeles is used for abrasion test, Deval’s for attrition and CTM for
compression or crushing test.
Which stone has a hardness of 7 in the Mohr’s hardness scale?
a) Quartz
b) Calcite
c) Gypsum
d) Topaz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mohr’s hardness scale ranks stones according to their hardness numbers. Calcite
has a hardness of 3, gypsum 2 and topaz 8.
GCQT

Why CaSO4 is not used in the crystallisation test?

a) Costly compound
b) Low solubility in water
c) Increases time taken for test
d) Releases toxic fumes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Crystallisation of CaSO4 in pores causes decay of stones and the low solubility in
water prevent the use of this compound in the test.
Which of the below given formulas is used to calculate hardness coefficient?
a) (Final hardness / initial hardness) × 100%
b) 20 – (loss in weight / 2)
c) 20 – (loss in weight / 3)
d) ((20 – loss in weight) / 3) × 100%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The coefficient of hardness is expressed as a number and not a percentage.
What are the specifications for tamping rod used in impact test?
a) 16 mm steel rod with rounded end
b) 16 mm steel rod with square face
c) 16 mm copper rod with rounded end
d) 16 mm copper rod with square face
Why is attrition test performed?
a) To find resistance to scratch
b) To find resistance to weathering
c) To find resistance to wear
d) To find resistance to dressing
What parameter is being checked for in freezing and thawing test?
a) Weathering
b) Durability
c) Water absorption
d) Texture

What is sand composed of?

a) Silica
b) Silicon
c) Silicon oxide
d) Quartz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sand is composed of small grains of silica (SiO2). It’s also called silicon dioxide.

Which of the following sand type is excellent for use in mortar and concrete work?
a) Sea sand
b) Clayey sand
c) Pit sand
d) River sand
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pit sand doesn’t contain any salts and has sharp, angular grains. These are the
desired properties for a sand to be used for mortar and concrete.
At what depth should pit sand be excavated from?
a) 1 – 2 m from bed of water body
b) 1 – 2 m from ground surface
c) 1 – 2 cm from bed of water body
d) 1 – 2 cm from ground surface
Which IS code gives the grading of sand?
a) IS 456
b) IS 383
c) IS 2368
d) IS 1542
What type of grains constitutes river sand?
a) Angular
b) Flaky
c) Irregular
d) Rounded
Sand size lies in the range 4.75 mm to 75 microns. A fine grained component of a soil has a size
less than 75 microns.

How many classifications are there for sand based on the grain size distribution?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are three types of sands based on grain size distribution. They are fine
(passes through 1.5875 mm sieve), coarse (passes through 3.175 mm sieve) and gravelly sand
(passes through 7.62 mm sieve).

How is M-sand produced?

a) Crushing bricks
b) Quarrying
c) Reusing the debris of demolished building
d) Crushing granite stones
Which one of the following is not an advantage of using M-sand?
a) Cost effective
b) Available in single size
c) Dust and impurity free
d) Can be obtained from hard rock

How is bulking related to moisture content?

a) Keeps on increasing with moisture content
b) Increases to a certain point and then decreases
c) Keeps on decreasing with moisture content
d) Decreases to a certain point and then increases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The volume i.e. bulking increases as sand absorbs moisture. At about 6- 10%, the
film starts breaking and the volume reduces. If sand absorbs further moisture, no bulking takes
place.
What happens if bulking is not accounted for while preparing concrete?
a) Concrete gets hardened
b) Concrete is not affected
c) Concrete gets softened
d) Concrete becomes watery
By how much percentage does the volume increase when the moisture content is 5-10%?
a) 10-20%
b) 20-40%
c) 30-40%
d) 20-30%
What does ‘h’ represents in the formula used to calculate the bulking factor?
a) Height of jar
b) Height of saturated sample
c) Height of dry sample
d) Height of water
Sand does not show any bulking when:
a) Completely saturated
b) Partially saturated
c) Contains small amount of impurities
d) Voids are partially filled with air
What effect does bulking have on fresh concrete?
a) Strength reduces
b) Shrinkage increases
c) Volume reduces
d) Workability increases
The fineness modulus of sand lies in the range:
a) 1-2
b) 0.5-1
c) 2-3
d) 2.5-3.5

Sand in mortar helps in adjusting the strength requirements:

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The grade and amount of sane used in making mortar help in adjusting the strength
parameter. It also helps in increasing resistance against crushing.
Sands should pass through:
a) BIS 480 sieve
b) BIS 8 sieve
c) BIS 5 sieve
d) BIS 6 sieve
The solution used to test impurities in the sand in field is:
a) Sodium sulphate
b) Sodium hydroxide
c) Sodium nitrate
d) Sodium chloride
Which one of the below cannot to be used as a substitute of sand?
a) Surkhi
b) Quarry dust
c) Glass
d) M-sand
What is the maximum percentage of silt allowed in sand to be used in concrete?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 8%
d) 2%
The density of wet sand is:
a) 1922 kg/m3
b) 1682 kg/m3
c) 1281 kg/m3
d) 1522 kg/m3
1682 kg/m3 is density of rammed sand, 1281 kg/m3 is density of dry sand and 1522 kg/m3 is of
silica sand.
By which of the following ways is lime obtained?
a) Naturally
b) Quarrying
c) Burning limestone
d) Crushing limestone

Which of the following pairs is matched properly?

a) Class A – Concrete work
b) Class B – Mortar
c) Class C – Masonry work
d) Class D – White washing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on percentage of CaCO3 in limestone, lime is classified into 3 – Class A, B
&[Link] A is used for masonry work, Class C is used for white washing and there is no class D.

Which of the following is a property of Fat Lime?

a) Shakes very slowly
b) Contains clay
c) High degree of plasticity
d) Poor binding property
What is the speciality of Hydraulic Lime?
a) Contains impurities
b) Does not set under water
c) Contains clay
d) Perfectly white in colour
Which of the following slakes after few minutes?
a) Moderately Hydraulic Lime
b) Eminently Hydraulic Lime
c) Perfectly Hydraulic Lime
d) Feebly Hydraulic Lime
Which of the following types of Lime does not exist?
a) Dolomitic Lime
b) Roman Lime
c) Semi-Hydraulic Lime
d) Selentic Lime
Which of the following ions causes the cement to set quickly?
a) Sulphate
b) Carbonate
c) Chloride
d) Nitrate
Lime is widely used for:
a) Waste water treatment
b) Manufacturing tiles
c) Jewellery making
d) As an aggregate
Which of the following methods yields quick, small supplies of Quick Lime?
a) Intermittent kiln
b) Continuous kiln
c) Clamp burning
d) Kankar burning
How is the arrangement in a clamp, if the fuel used is coal?
a) Stacked in alternate layers
b) Placed on a platform
c) Mixed and poured into a basin
d) Heaped
How can one understand the completion of the burning of lime?
a) Blue flame at the top disappears
b) Blue flame appears at the top
c) Smoke is released in huge quantity
d) Red flame appears at the top
The term Calcination comes from:
a) Greek word Calcinare
b) Latin word Calcinare
c) Greek word Calcinate
d) Latin word Calcinate
Which of the following is not an example of Calcination process?
a) Decomposition of Calcium Chlorate
b) Decomposition of volatile matter in petroleum coke
c) Removal of ammonium ions in synthesis of zeolites
d) Decomposition of hydrated minerals
The temperature at which standard Gibbs free energy is zero for calcination reaction is called:
a) Absolute temperature
b) Negative temperature
c) Transition temperature
d) Thermal decomposition temperature
In which feed type kiln, limestone does not come in contact with fuel?
a) Single feed
b) Isolated feed
c) Separate feed
d) Mixed feed
Slaking of lime refers to:
a) Mixing NaCl in hydraulic lime
b) Mixing water in quick lime
c) Mixing water in limestone
d) Mixing NaCl in quick lime
How many brick lined tanks are used in tank slaking method?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
In tank slaking, the second tank (60-75cm deep) is filled with:
a) Water
b) Lime-milk
c) Lime
d) Limestone
The lime-milk can be utilized after and for:
a) 2-3 days for putty
b) 2-3 hours for putty
c) 2-3 days for waste water treatment
d) 2-3 hours for waste water treatment
The quantity of water to be added for hydrating 100kg of lime is:
a) 10 litres
b) 1 litre
c) 15 litres
d) 32 litres
Rate of hydration (slaking) does not depend on:
a) Degree of burning of lime
b) Degree of agitation
c) Atmospheric conditions
d) Composition of lime
Why is the middle portion in a continuous kiln widened?
a) To accommodate more fuel
b) To collect lime at bottom
c) To allow the flow of limestone from top
d) To accommodate hot gases of combustion
Why is natural cement used very limitedly?
a) Brown in Colour
b) Standard consistency is not met with
c) Sets too quickly
d) Particle size is too fine
What is the average particle size of cement?
a) 15 microns
b) 45 microns
c) 75 microns
d) 100 microns
What is the meaning of soundness of cement?
a) Ability to flow when mixed
b) Ability to make ringing noise when struck
c) Ability to form strong and sound structure
d) Ability to retain volume after setting.
Use of coarser cement particles leads to:
a) Low durability
b) Higher strength
c) Low consistency
d) Higher soundness
Green cement is:
a) Green coloured cement
b) Cement mixed with plant products
c) Cement mixed with recycled materials
d) Cement mixed with green algae
What is the depth the needle in Vicat apparatus should penetrate into the cement paste in
consistency test?
a) 33-35 cm from bottom of the mould
b) 33-35 mm from top of the mould
c) 33-35 cm from top of the mould
d) 33-35 mm from bottom of the mould
Deficiency of lime in cement leads to:
a) Unsound cement
b) Disintegration of cement
c) Quick setting of cement
d) Expansion of cement
What effect does calcium sulphate have on cement?
a) Retards setting action
b) Acts as flux
c) Imparts colour
d) Reduces strength
Which of the following imparts greenish grey colour to cement?
a) Calcium silicate
b) Calcium aluminate
c) Calcium aluminate ferrite
d) Calcium carbonate
What function does iron oxide perform in cement?
a) Increases strength
b) Makes cement sound
c) Increases setting time
d) Acts as flux
An excess of magnesium oxide after 5% is harmful to cement.
a) True
b) False
How is the argillaceous material used in the manufacture of cement stored?
a) Silos
b) Basins
c) Bags
d) Storage tanks
What is released during the production of clinker?
a) CaCO3
b) CO2
c) Ca(OH)2
d) CO
What is the advantage of using precalciner?
a) Fine grained cement
b) Larger clinker size
c) Fuel efficiency
d) Sound cement
Which stone provides the calcareous component required for the manufacture of cement?
a) Lime
b) Limestone
c) Marble
d) Granite

Shale provides argillaceous components required for cement manufacture process.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quarrying shale stone gives the argillaceous component. These are silica,
aluminium and iron.

Which of the following is not an advantage of rapid hardening cement?

a) Faster construction
b) Short curing period
c) Light in weight
d) Higher final setting time

High alumina cement can be used for massive concrete work.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: High alumina cement is obtained by adding 55% bauxite and 35-45% lime. It
hardens rapidly and it is costlier. It cannot be used for massive concrete work.
How many types of cement are there based on the ability to set in presence of water?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Which of the following types of cement is used in marine structures?
a) Expanding cement
b) High alumina cement
c) Blast furnace slag cement
d) White cement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Blast furnace slag cement is obtained by combining slag and cement clinkers.
These have less heat of hydration and are not affected by sea water. Hence, can be used for
marine structures.

Which pair of the compound and coloured cement mentioned below is wrong?
a) Iron oxide-yellow
b) Cobalt-black
c) Chromium oxide-green
d) Manganese dioxide-brown
Which of the following is not a pozzolanic material?
a) Fly ash
b) Silica fume
c) Cinder
d) Slag
Water proof cement is prepared by mixing ordinary cement with:
a) Resins
b) Water repellent chemicals
c) Sulpho-aminate
d) Metal stearates
Grade 43 OPC is used widely for:
a) High rise buildings
b) Plastering
c) House construction
d) Finishing works
Grade 43 OPC shall be rejected if it remains in bulk storage in the factory for:
a) More than 3 months
b) More than 1 month
c) More than 6 months
d) More than 4 months
The ratio of percentage of alumina to iron oxide in OPC 43 grade is:
a) 3.5
b) 0.66
c) 0.1
d) 0.05
What is the required minimum fineness for grade 53 OPC?
a) 370 m2/kg
b) 370 cm2/g
c) 580 m2/kg
d) 580 cm2/g
Which of the following cannot be added in 33 grade OPC after burning stage?
a) Gypsum
b) Water
c) Colouring Agents
d) Clay
How much maximum percentage by mass of performance improvers can be added in grade 33
OPC?
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 5
d) 0.1
How many constituents are there in the brick earth?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
In what form should lime be present in the brick earth?
a) Paste
b) Lump
c) Clinker
d) Powder
Excess of oxides of iron makes the brick:
a) Red in colour
b) Black in colour
c) Dark blue in colour
d) Yellow in colour
What happens to raw bricks if an excess of alumina is present?
a) Becomes hard
b) Becomes brittle
c) Decay
d) Shrinkage
Why do bricks become brittle when excess silica is present?
a) Pores are created
b) Flaking occurs
c) Thermal stability is lost
d) Cohesion is lost
Which of the following leads to the formation of small pores in brick?
a) Iron pyrites
b) Pebbles
c) Organic matter
d) Alkalis
The presence of which of the below renders clay totally unsuitable for brick manufacture?
a) Kallar
b) Kankar
c) Hay
d) Lime

Carbonaceous material in small amounts is good for the brick earth.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is a harmful ingredient that causes different colours in interior and exterior of
brick. Their presence defaces the plastering by discolouration.
Loamy, mild or sandy clay has __________ percentage of alkali?
a) 5%
b) 1%
c) 4%
d) 0%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It does not contain any alkali contents. It contains 5% of organics matter, 1% of
lime, magnesia and oxides of iron, 66% of silica and 27% of alumina.
Which one of the below is the first step in the preparation of brick earth process?
a) Digging
b) Site selection
c) Cleaning
d) Unsoiling
Why is the process of weathering performed?
a) To remove organic matter
b) To prepare for next process
c) To improve plasticity
d) To dry clay
The process of kneading brick earth is called:
a) Pugging
b) Blending
c) Ramming
d) Tamping
Which one of the following is not a part of pug mill?
a) Vertical shaft
b) Hub
c) Cutting blades
d) Timber base
Which of the following is not a chemical change that takes place in the brick earth during
burning?
a) Dehydration
b) Vitrification
c) Oxidation
d) Reduction
A good brick should not absorb more than what percent of water when soaked?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 10%
Which of the following bricks is not preferred?
a) Sharp-edged
b) Clamp burned
c) Sound-proofed
d) Kiln burned
Which of the below is used to sound proof bricks?
a) Gypsum
b) Terracotta
c) Plastics
d) Ceramic
The compressive strength of the brick should be:
a) Minimum 3.5 kN/m2
b) Maximum 3.5 kN/m2
c) Minimum 3.5 N/mm2
d) Maximum 3.5 N/mm2
A good brick when dropped from the height of 1 metre can:
a) Shatter
b) Not break
c) Break into 2 halves
d) Develop small cracks
Which of the following ranges of dimensions of a good quality brick is correct?
a) Length: 368-392cm
b) Width: 180-210cm
c) Height: 180-210cm
d) Weight: 25-30N
First class bricks are used for:
a) Brick ballast in R.C.C
b) Boundary walls
c) Low height walls
d) Pavements
The minimum crushing strength of third class brick is:
a) 3.5 N/mm2
b) 7 N/mm2
c) 10 N/mm2
d) 20 N/mm2

Pilas are under burnt or half burnt bricks with yellow colour. They can be used as surkhi.
Zhamas are over burnt bricks and are kiln waste. Picked Zhamas can be used in road work.

What is the speciality of FALG bricks?

a) Are composed of agricultural waste
b) Round in shape
c) Economic alternative to clay bricks
d) Widely used in masonry work
Which of the following type of bricks is made for jambs of doors and windows?
a) Cant bricks
b) Arch bricks
c) Lintel bricks
d) Hinged bricks
What is the problem with using flyash bricks?
a) Efflorescence
b) Costly
c) Expand
d) Not sound proof
What is the loading rate used in compressive strength test?
a) 14 N/mm2 per hour) 14 N/mm2 per minute
c) 20 N/mm2 per minute
d) 40 N/mm2 per hour
What is the maximum permissible tolerance for length and width respectively?
a) ± 3mm and ± 6mm
b) ± 6mm and ± 3mm
c) ± 3cm and ± 6cm
d) ± 6cm and ± 3cm
What should be observed ideally when two bricks are struck together?
a) Dull sound
b) Sides shatter
c) Clear ringing sound
d) Brick breaks

End of a brick is placed in a glass dish containing water and it is tested for efflorescence after it
is absorbed or evaporated.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After first evaporation, sample is dried. Then again same procedure is repeated. It is
after second evaporation, brick is tested for efflorescence.

When observed efflorescence is more than 10% but less than 50% of the exposed area, it is:
a) Moderate efflorescence
b) Serious efflorescence
c) Heavy efflorescence
d) Light efflorescence
Creep test is carried out in accordance with:
a) IS 1528
b) IS 5688
c) IS 3495
d) IS 4568
Quarry tile is also called:
a) Granite tile
b) Unglazed ceramic tile
c) Stone tile
d) Workshop tiles
Which tile is the most versatile?
a) Porcelain
b) Shale
c) Slate
d) Granite
_________ is used for skirting around bathtubs and mosaics?
a) Sandstone
b) Travertine
c) Granite
d) Onyx
Which type of tile is suitable for air-conditioned rooms, gymnasiums and skating rinks?
a) Wood tiles
b) Cork tiles
c) Ceramic tiles
d) Concrete tiles
How many layers is the encaustic tile made up of?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1

Pan tiles are semi-circular in section.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pan tiles are curved in section. Pot tiles are semi-circular in section and taper along
the length.
How many operations are involved in the manufacturing of tiles?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 10
d) 8
What type of clay is selected for tile manufacture?
a) Slightly wet
b) Sticky
c) Dry
d) Rich
Secondary crushing of small lumps of clay to particles is carried out in:
a) Jaw crusher
b) Ball mill
c) Muller mill
d) Gyratory crusher
Primary crushing of clay to small lumps is carried out in jaw crusher or gyratory crusher. A third
particle reduction is carried out using ball mill.
Which of the following is matched properly?
a) Ribbon mixer-helical vanes
b) Shell mixer-revolving plows
c) Intensive mixer-two cylinders joined into a V
d) Pack mixer-uses water
What is the meaning of slip?
a) Dry mixture
b) Impurities in mixture
c) Water filled mixture
d) Different sized mixture
How is water content in the slip or slurry removed?
a) Filter pressing
b) Spray drying
c) Sun drying
d) Vacuum pressing
Which method of forming is used for heavily profiled tiles?
a) Dry pressing
b) Ram pressing
c) Pressure glazing
d) Extrusion
Which of the following is not a method of drying?
a) Impulse drying
b) Infrared drying
c) Kiln drying
d) Tunnel driers
Which step removes volatiles from the material during firing?
a) Glost firing
b) Single firing
c) Fly firing
d) Bisque firing
What is the life time of a moderately durable timber?
a) 10-20 years
b) 1-5 years
c) 10-15 years
d) 5-10 years
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The life time of high durability timber is more than 10 years, for moderately it is
between 5-10 years and for low, it is less than 5 years.

Which of the following is an example of soft wood?

a) Sal
b) Oak
c) Deodar
d) Mahogany
Sal, Oak and Mahogany are all examples of hard wood.
Which of the following is a type of non-refractory timber?
a) Semul
b) Teak
c) Sheesham
d) Sal
Which of the below type of timber has Young’s Modulus greater than 9800 N/mm2, but less than
12600 N/mm2?
a) Average timber
b) Very good timber
c) Good timber
d) Light timber
Average timber has Young’s Modulus (E) varying between 6600 N/mm2 and 9800 N/mm2. Very
good timber has E greater than 12600 N/mm2. There is no classification as light timber based on
E.

What is the density of a light timber?

a) 5.5 kN/m3
b) Less than 2.5 kN/m3
c) 2.5 kN/m3
d) Less than 5.5 kN/m3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Density of light to very light timber is less than 5.5 kN/m3. Moderate timber has
density between 5.5 and 7.5 kN/m3 and heavy to very heavy timber has density greater than 7.5
kN/m3.
Hard wood is strong in tension and weak in compression.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Soft wood is strong in tension and weak in compression. Hard wood is equally
strong in tension and compression.

Exogenous trees are further divided into:

a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
Which of the below is a property of soft wood?
a) Medullary rays are less distinct
b) Annual rings are less distinct
c) Dark in colour
d) Close grained structure
The quality of timber does not depend upon:
a) Maturity of tree
b) Time of felling
c) Type of tree
d) Size of tree
How should the smell of a freshly cut timber be?
a) Sweet
b) Pungent
c) Unpleasant
d) Odourless
Where is the property of shock resistance an important parameter?
a) Furniture
b) Utensils
c) Tool handles
d) Doors
Timbers with ___________ annular rings are generally the strongest.
a) Narrow
b) Wide
c) Distinct
d) Indistinct
Which of the below is true about good timber?
a) Elastic
b) Round fibres
c) Less cost
d) Less density
The water permeability of timber is greater:
a) Along centre
b) Along Fibres
c) Along annual rings
d) Along bark
Which of the below changes do not occur after seasoning?
a) Increase durability
b) Decrease stiffness
c) Workable timber
d) Reduction in weight
How much time does natural seasoning takes for timber to be properly seasoned?
a) 1-4 years
b) 6-12 months
c) 5-10 months
d) 5-7 years
Which of the below is a disadvantage of air seasoning?
a) Power requirement
b) Skilled supervision
c) Elaborate equipment
d) Uniformity of seasoning
How many methods of artificial seasoning are there?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 8
Which method leaves the timber brittle after seasoning?
a) Water seasoning
b) Kiln seasoning
c) Electric seasoning
d) Boiling
Which of the below chemicals is not used in chemical seasoning?
a) Sodium chloride
b) Urea
c) Sodium hypochlorite
d) Sodium nitrate
Which is the most rapid and effective method of seasoning?
a) Chemical seasoning
b) Electric seasoning
c) Kiln seasoning
d) Natural seasoning
For how long is timber boiled in water in the seasoning method of boiling?
a) 3-4 hours
b) 1-2 hours
c) 5-6 hours
d) 10-12 hours
Which of the below is a natural defect occurring in timber?
a) Twist
b) Split
c) Shakes
d) Bow
__________ defects is indicated by red/yellow tinge in wood.
a) Froxiness
b) Druxiness
c) Callus
d) Burls
A crack which separates wood fibres is called:
a) Warp
b) Check
c) Collapse
d) Split
Diagonal grain is a defect formed due to improper:
a) Sawing
b) Felling
c) Seasoning
d) Handling
What causes dry rot in timber?
a) Bacteria
b) Beetle
c) White ants
d) Fungus
A good preservative should:
a) Be poisonous
b) Be unaffected by heat and moisture
c) Have pleasant odour
d) Have white colour
Which of the below preservative, with their examples correctly match?
a) Type 1 – DDT
b) Type 2 – Coal
c) Type 3 – Boric acid
d) Type 4 – Benzene
Which method of application of preservative is suitable for moist timber?
a) Pressure application
b) Brushing and spraying
c) Soaking
d) Hot and cold tank treatment
Which of the following makes the timber look sound but might fail it without pre-warning?
a) Marine borers
b) Wasps
c) White ants
d) Beetles
The defect indicated by curvature formed in a transverse direction is:
a) Bow
b) Spring
c) Twist
d) Cup
In large forests, trees are felled using:
a) Hammer and chisel
b) Chainsaw
c) Tractor
d) Axe
The thickness of veneers varies from:
a) 0.4-0.6 cm
b) 0.1-0.4 cm
c) 0.1-0.4 mm
d) 0.4-0.6 mm
Which of the following is not a material that forms Particle Board?
a) Shavings
b) Fibres
c) Ribbons
d) Flakes
Debarking is done so as to:
a) Safeguard saws
b) Improve seasoning
c) Expose surface of wood
d) Reduce weight
Breaking down is the process of:
a) Felling a tree
b) Conversion of logs
c) Defect in timber
d) Reducing weight

How many types of rough sawing are there?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The 2 types of rough sawing are through and through sawn and quarter sawn.

Before peeling in the production of plywood, what has to be carried out?

a) Conditioning
b) Seasoning
c) Debarking
d) Sorting
The carbon content of steel is:
a) Less than 0.15%
b) 2% – 4%
c) 0.08%
d) 0.002% – 2.1%
Cast iron contains 2-4% of carbon, wrought iron contains less than 0.15% of carbon and stainless
steel contains maximum 0.08% carbon.
(Decreasing Carbon Content) Cast Iron, Steel, Stainless steel, Wrought Iron

When carbon contents less than 0.1%, steel is called:

a) Mild steel
b) Medium carbon steel
c) Dead steel
d) Hard steel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mild steel contains carbon up to 0.25%. Medium carbon steel has 0.25%-0.7%
carbon. Hard steel has 0.7-1.5%.

Very low carbon steel is used for:

a) Wires
b) Wire nails
c) Screw drivers
d) Rods
What property does steel impart to an R.C.C. structure?
a) Compression and tension
b) Tension
c) Shear
d) Compression
Which of the below is not an ISI classified channel section?
a) ISLC
b) ISJC
c) ISHC
d) ISMC
Corrugated sheets are also referred to as:
a) CS Sheets
b) CI Sheets
c) GC Sheets
d) GI Sheets
Which of the below is not a disadvantage of using ribbed-torsteel bars?
a) High labour charge
b) Not easily identifiable
c) Weaker than plain round steel
d) Arc welding is not possible
Steel plates are rarely used for:
a) Connecting steel beams for extension
b) Serving as tension members in the truss
c) Forming built up sections of steel
d) Providing support in R.C.C structures
Aluminium is commercially produced from:
a) Aluminiumsulphate
b) Alum
c) Cryolite
d) Bauxite
By which of the below process is Aluminium manufactured?
a) Bayer process
b) Ostwald process
c) Mayer process
d) Haber process
Which is the most important and useful alloy of Aluminium?
a) Magnalium
b) Silumin
c) Duralumin
d) Magnox
Which of the following is a property of aluminium?
a) Hard material
b) Brittle
c) Noise control
d) Magnetic
Aluminium finds its application in:
a) Golf clubs
b) Dehydrating agents
c) Waste management
d) Cricket field
What is the melting point of Aluminium?
a) 250oC
b) 658oC
c) 700oC
d) 470oC
The boiling point of aluminium is 2470oC. It is strong and can be widely used everywhere.
Paint should provide resistance to:
a) Corrosion
b) Sound
c) Heat
d) Warping
The base in a paint does not serve the function of:
a) Durability
b) Hard and elastic
c) Protection against UV rays
d) Catalyst
Which of the below is the most commonly used base?
a) Red lead
b) Zinc white
c) White lead
d) Oxide of iron
How does drier act as a catalyst?
a) Releasing oxygen
b) Releasing water
c) Absorbing oxygen
d) Absorbing water
Which of the below vehicles are used for ordinary work?
a) Nut oil
b) Poppy oil
c) Stand oil
d) Linseed oil
When should drier be added to the paint?
a) 12 hours before paint is used
b) Immediately after opening it
c) 1 hour before paint is used
d) When paint is ready to use
________ Oil is thicker and darker than raw oil, which is used as vehicle?
a) Double boiled linseed oil
b) Boiled linseed oil
c) Pale boiled linseed oil
d) Linseed oil
_________ base is generally used for priming coat to new wood work?
a) Antimony white
b) Titanium dioxide
c) Aluminium powder
d) Red lead
Emulsion Paints contain:
a) Nitro cotton
b) Zinc white
c) White lead
d) Polyvinyl acetate
Anticorrosive paint is ___________ in colour
a) Blue
b) White
c) Black
d) Yellow
Synthetic rubber paints are prepared from:
a) Resin
b) Rubber
c) Synthetic fibres
d) Polyvinyl Chloride
What is used to make paints odourless to an extent?
a) Flat latex
b) Celluloid sheets
c) Acrylic compound
d) Plioway resins
The open-time of paint can be extended by adding white spirit.
a) True
b) False
Which of the below has a sheen and is highly washable?
a) Acrylic flat
b) Acrylic eggshell
c) Acrylic satin
d) Acrylic gloss
Driers in varnish are used as:
a) Reducers
b) Retarders
c) Accelerators
d) Oxidisers
Wood naphtha, a cheap variety of resin, is also called:
a) Methyl alcohol
b) Synthetic rubber
c) Acetylene
d) Ethanol
The word varnish is derived from the word:
a) Latin varne
b) Latin Vernix
c) Greek Vernix
d) Green varne
Which of the below is an oil based varnish?
a) Urethane
b) Acrylic
c) Polyurethane
d) Urea
________ Varnish is also called French varnish and used for furniture.
a) Oil
b) Water
c) Acrylic
d) Spirit

Solvents contain high levels of polyunsaturated fatty acids.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Drying oils are the ones that contain high levels of polyunsaturated fatty acids.
These include linseed oil, tung oil and walnut oil.

M-Sand has ___________ type of particle shape.

a) Flaky
b) Round
c) Angular
d) Cubical
The specific gravity for sand is:
a) 2.6
b) 2.65
c) 2.8
d) 2.75
PGBS stands for:
a) Perfectly Graded Blast furnace Slag
b) Pre-Grinded Blast furnace Slag
c) Poly Granule Blast furnace Slag
d) Processed Granulated Blast furnace Slag

Coarse aggregates are classified into how many groups?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The two main groups of coarse aggregates are single-sized aggregates and graded
aggregates. But Fine has 3 categories.

How much percent of material which passes through a specific sieve is contained in that single-
size aggregate?
a) 50-60%
b) 85-100%
c) 70-90%
d) 80-85%
Flaky particles have:
a) Small thickness
b) Elongated sides
c) Sharp edges
d) Rounded edges
Which size coarse aggregate is ideal for use in a concrete mix?
a) Smaller
b) 4.75-10mm
c) Larger
d) 10-20mm
In crushing test on coarse aggregates, what size particle is taken as a sample?
a) Passing 12.5mm IS sieve
b) Retained on 10mm IS sieve
c) Passing 10mm and retained on 4.75mm IS sieve
d) Passing 12.5mm and retained on 10mm IS sieve

What is the density of undisturbed gravel?

a) 2630-2760 kg/cum
b) 1920-2160 kg/cum
c) 1600 kg/cum
d) 1200 kg/cum
2630-2760 kg/cum is a density of granite. 1600 kg/cum is of loose gravel and 1200 kg/cum is
that of brick ballast.
Gravel is a type of:
a) Rounded aggregate
b) Angular aggregate
c) Flaky aggregate
d) Irregular aggregate
The sieve sets for coarse aggregate ranges from:
a) 40-4.75mm
b) 20-4.75mm
c) 80-4.75mm
d) 100-4.75mm
In how many ways can sieve analysis be carried out?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 5 methods are throw-action, horizontal, tapping, wet and air circular jet

Under what circumstance is a wet sieve analysis carried out?

a) Sample is washed
b) Moisture content is high in sample
c) Sample contains organic matter
d) Very fine powdered sample
Which of the below is a limitation of performing sieve analysis?
a) Time consuming
b) Costly
c) Particle shape
d) Particle size
A narrow gradation is also called:
a) Gap gradation
b) Uniform gradation
c) Rich gradation
d) Open gradation
For how long is the mechanical vibrator shaked?
a) 15-20 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 10-15 minutes
d) 30 minutes
For fine aggregates that is, sample passing through 4.75mm IS sieve, how much sample should
be taken?
a) 5 kg
b) 1 kg
c) 2 kg
d) .5 kg
Glass is a mixture of:
a) Non-metallic silicates
b) Metallic silicates
c) Metallic acetates
d) Non-metallic acetates
How many different categories of glass are there?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
Which of the following types of glass accounts for about 90% of manufactured glass?
a) Potash-lime glass
b) Soda-lime glass
c) Potash-lead glass
d) Soda-lead glass
The two types of soda-lime glass- flat glass and container glass differ in:
a) Application and production method
b) Application and chemical composition
c) Production method and chemical composition
d) Application, production method and chemical composition
Which type of glass is used in the manufacture of artificial gems, bulbs, lenses, etc?
a) Soda-lime glass
b) Special glass
c) Potash-lead glass
d) Common glass
What changes are observed when a glass is heated?
a) It becomes softer
b) It bursts
c) It solidifies
d) It disintegrates
How many commercial forms of glass are there for various engineering and industrial
requirements?
a) 8
b) 11
c) 9
d) 10
The appearance of potash-lime glass in colour is:
a) Black
b) Green to colourless
c) Reddish brown
d) White
What is added to rubber to make it a thermosetting polymer?
a) Potassium
b) Sulphur
c) Sodium
d) Phosphorous
Natural rubber contains polymers of an organic compound:
a) Polyprene
b) Neoprene
c) Thiokol
d) Isoprene
Rubber latex is used for:
a) Bonding wood plys
b) Bonding rubber to walls
c) Bonding rubber to wood
d) Bonding tools
Rubber seed oil can be used in:
a) Paint
b) Medicine
c) Varnish
d) Fuel
Recycled crumb rubber can be used in:
a) Plastering
b) Mortar
c) Paints
d) Concrete
Rubber bricks are generally used for:
a) Roofing
b) Walls
c) Floorings
d) Lining pizza ovens
Hardness of rubber is measured on which scale?
a) Rockwell scale
b) Shore scale
c) Mohr’s scale
d) Vicker’s scale
Synthetic rubber is also called:
a) Gum rubber
b) Caoutchouc
c) Buna-S
d) Gum elastic
Modifying properties of PVC is called:
a) Reformation
b) Recasting
c) Compounding
d) Curing
PVC is widely used to make pipes because:
a) Cost effective
b) Does not react to chemicals
c) Easily available
d) Easy to transport
In how many forms does PVC come?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
RPVC can be made softer and more flexible using:
a) Reducers
b) Conditioners
c) Oils
d) Plasticizers
What is the Limiting Oxygen Index (LOI) of PVC?
a) 45 or more
b) 20 or more
c) 45 or less
d) 20 or less
Flexible PVC is used for:
a) Pipes
b) Partition walls
c) Flooring
d) Door frames
Which of the following PVC product is not there in the market?
a) PVC brick decor
b) PVC door
c) PVC cement
d) PVC plaster
PVC plug is used to:
a) Connect pipes of varying diameter
b) Connect 2 pipe lines
c) Seal pipes of less diameter
d) Seal end of pipe line
How is PVC recycled commonly?
a) Feedstock process
b) VinyLoop process
c) Mechanical process
d) Chemical process
Which additive in PVC pipe leads to the contamination of potable water?
a) Lead
b) VCM
c) Phthalates
d) Sulphur
Pure PVC is ____________ in colour.
a) Grey
b) Blue
c) White
d) Black
Which of the below adhesive is not attacked by water?
a) Starch glue
b) Albumin glue
c) Vegetable glue
d) Rubber glue
Nitrocellulose glue is prepared from:
a) Pyridine
b) Benzene
c) Pyroxylin
d) Resin
Which of the following glues is used to join light metals?
a) Metal glue
b) Cycle weld
c) Araldite glue
d) Special glue
Epoxy adhesives are used in the manufacturing of:
a) Glass
b) Fabric
c) Plywood
d) Plastic
Which of the below glue can be made plastic again by re-heating?
a) Thermo-setting
b) Rubber glue
c) Animal protein glue
d) Thermo-plastic
Which glue can bond a metal to wood?
a) Contact cement
b) Super glue
c) PVC cement
d) Gorilla glue
Gorilla glue is made up of:
a) Resin
b) Epoxy
c) Polyurethane
d) Animal protein
The word adhesive has its origin from:
a) Greek Adhaerere
b) Latin Adherae
c) Greek Adherae
d) Latin Adhaerere
Vegetable glue is used for:
a) Labelling
b) Joining glass
c) Plastic adhesion
d) Plywood manufacture
Adhesive becomes strong immediately after its application.
a) True
b) False
Adhesive takes time to completely adhere to a surface and form films for bonding. It may take
anywhere from minutes to hours to attain full strength.a
Soil-cement blocks help in reducing the amount of:
a) Sand
b) Cement
c) Water
d) Mortar
Stone blocks help in saving materials by reducing wall thickness from:
a) 30-20mm
b) 20-10cm
c) 20-10mm
d) 30-20cm
In ___________ cement mortar is reinforced with wire meshes.
a) Fibre Reinforced Cement
b) Wire Reinforced Cement
c) Ferro Cement
d) Mesh Mortar
Fibre Reinforced Concrete (FRC) is used in:
a) Pavements
b) Foundation
c) Slab
d) Beam
Concrete hollow bricks have the following characteristic:
a) Less thermal insulation
b) Costly
c) Fast construction
d) Decrease floor area
___________ are widely used in rural areas for construction of walls?
a) Red bricks
b) Stabilised mud blocks
c) Lime based bricks
d) Hollow bricks
Recycling steel reduces:
a) Energy use by 75%
b) Energy use by 50%
c) Energy use by 35%
d) Energy use by 20%
Fluorogypsum, used in super sulphated cement or as binding agents, is a waste product of
manufacture of:
a) Fluorine
b) Thermal power
c) Hydrofluoric acid
d) Phosphoric acid
Which of the below roofing materials is most cost effective?
a) Asphalt
b) Plastic
c) Rubber
d) Metal