General Studies (Prelims) Paper- 1994

October 2, 2014

Q1 Indian expertise was recently used in the archaeological restoration of the

monuments at
(a) Jerusalem
(b) Angkor Wat
(c) Rome
(d) Yucatan

Q2 The earliest evidence of silver in India is found in the

(a) Harappan culture
(b) Chalcolithic cultures of Western India
(c) Vedic texts
(d) Silver punch-marked coins

Q3 To know whether the rich are getting richer and the poor getting poorer, it is
necessary to compare
(a) the wholesale price index over different periods of time for different regions
(b) the distribution of income of an identical set of income recipients in different
periods of time
(c) the distribution of income of different sets of income recipients at a point of
time
(d) the availability of foodgrains among two sets of people, one rich and the other
poor, over different periods of time

Q4 Given below are voting percentage of a political party secured in three

successive elections to the Lok Sabha:
Years 1984 1989 1991
Percentages of Votes 7.4 11.4 22.4
The party which secured these percentages of votes was
(a) Congress (I)
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party
(c) Bharatiya Janata Party
(d) Communist Party of India (Marxist)

Q5 An aeroplane takes off from 30° North Latitude, 50° East Longitude, and
lands at the opposite end of the earth. Where does it land ?
(a) 30° North Lat., 50° West Long
(b) 30° South Lat., 50° West Long
(c) 50° North Lat., 30° West Long
(d) 30° South Lat., 130° West Long
Q6 The length of its day and the tilt of its axis are almost identical to those of the
earth’. This is true of
(a) Uranus
(b) Neptune
(c) Saturn
(d) Mars

Q7 The main function of the I.M.F. is to

(a) arrange international deposits from banks
(b) help to solve balance of payments problems of member countries
(c) act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
(d) finance investment to developing countries

Q8 Who among the following was the leader of a number of anti-British revolts in
Sambalpur ?
(a) Utirat Singh
(b) Surendra Sai
(c) Kattabomman
(d) Sayyid Ahmad Barelvi

Q9 Which one of the following is a language of Baluchistan but linguistically

Dravidian ?
(a) Brahui
(b) Kui
(c) Parji
(d) Pengo

Q10 Which of the following statements about the Dunkel draft is/are correct ?
I. It is mandatory for the Government of India to accept all its proposals in all the
sectors.
II. In the field of agriculture, the main proposal is to cut agricultural subsidies.
III. In the field of textiles, it reiterates the operation of the multifibre agreement.
IV. The proposals have already been accepted by the Parliament.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes :
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and IV only
(d) III and IV only

Q11 Which one of the following is the most fundamental difference between
Mahayana Buddhism and Hinayana Buddhism ?
(a) Emphasis on ahimsa
(b) Casteless society
(c) Worship of gods and goddesses
(d) Worship of stupa

Q12 Given below is a map of America:

The shaded (marked 1 and 2), dotted (marked 3) and the plain areas (marked 4)
indicate respectively, the regions where the languages spoken are
(a) Spanish, French, Portuguese and others
(b) French, Spanish, Portuguese and others
(c) French, Portuguese, Spanish and English
(d) Portuguese, French, Spanish and others

Q13 The statue of Gomateswara at Sravanabelagola was built by

(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Kharavela
(c) Amoghavarsha
(d) Chamundaraya

Q14 Consider the map given below :

The numbers marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively indicate the islands of

(a) the Bahamas, Azores, Falkland and Cape Verde
(b) the Bahamas, Azores, Cape Verde and Falkland
(c) Azores, Cape Verde, the Bahamas and Falkland
(d) Cape Verde, the Bahamas, Falkland and Azores

Q15 Fiscal deficit in the Union Budget means

(a)the sum of budgetary deficit and net increase in internal and external
borrowings
(b) the difference between current expenditure and current revenue
(c) the sum of monetized deficit and budgetary deficit
(d) net increase in Union Government’s borrowing from the Reserve Bank of
India

Q16 “Live well, as long as you live. Live well even by borrowings, for, once
cremated, there is no ‘return.” This rejection of after-life in an aphorism of the
(a) Kapalika sect
(b) Sunyavada of Nagarjuna
(c) Ajivikas
(d) Charvakas

Q17 Who among the following are appointed by the President of India ?
I. The Chairman, Finance Commission .
II. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
III. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only

Q18 Those who joined Mahatma Gandhi during the Champaran struggle
included
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel and Vinobha Bhave
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Rajendra Prasad
(c) Rajendra Prasad and Anugraha Narayan Sinha
(d) Mahadev Desai and Maniben Patel

Q19 The shortest air-route from Perth to London is

(a) Perth, Bombay, Rome, London
(b) Perth, Ankara, Paris, London
(c) Perth, Aden, Paris, London
(d) Perth, Mombasa, Rome, London

Q20 According to the newly-adopted Constitution of Russia, the Prime Minister is

appointed by
(a) the State Duma, the Lower Chamber of the Federal Assembly
(b) the President, with the consent of the State Duma
(c) the President, with the consent of the Federal Council
(d) the Federal Council

Q21 Which one of the the following usages was a post-Vedic development ?
(a) Dharma — Artha — Kama — Moksha
(b) Brahmana—Kshatriya—Vaishya—Shudra
(c) Brahmacharya—Grihastashrama— Vanaprastha — Sanyasa
(d) Indra — Surya — Rudra — Marut

Q22 The Himalayas are formed of parallel fold ranges, of which the oldest range
is
(a) the Siwalik Range
(b) the Lesser Himalayas
(c) the Great Himalayan Range
(d) the Dhaula Dhar Range

Q23 The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that
(a) certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be
abrogated
(b) fundamental rights cannot be abridged or taken away
(c) the Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure
prescribed in Art, 368
(d) the Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not a part of the
Constitution and at the same time represents its real spirit

Q24 The hallmark of watershed development in the semi-arid regions of India is

the
(a) establishment of sheds on large scale, so that the rain water does not
evaporate
(b) undertaking of earthworks, soil conservation measures and tree plantation, so
as to conserve soil moisture and recharge underground water
(c) drilling deep tubewells so as to tap water at the rock-strata level
(d) setting up a system of tanks by banking water from seasonal rivers

Q25 The capital of the kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was

(a) Amritsar
(b) Patiala
(c) Lahore
(d) Kapurthala

Q26 “The Uniting for Peace Resolution” adopted by the U.N. has
(a) enhanced the powers of the General Assembly in a comprehensive way
(b) reduced the powers of the General Assembly
(c) made no difference to the powers of the General Assembly
(d) empowered the General Assembly to act in specific situations in matters of
peace and security

Q27 Convertibility of the rupee implies

(a) being able to convert rupee notes into gold
(b) allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by market forces
(c) freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice
versa
(d) developing an international market for currencies in India

Q28 In ancient Indian historical geography the name ‘Ratnakara’ denoted

(a) the Arabian Sea
(b) the Bay of Bengal
(c) the Indian Ocean
(d) the the confluence of the Ganga, the Yamuna and the mythical Saraswati at
Prayaga

Q29 Which one of the following is the most important reason for the
establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?
(a) The sea is near to the place in the East, West and South directions
(b) It is a place near to a city in India, which is nearest to the Geographic Equator
(c) It is situated on the Geomagnetic Equator
(d) Outer space near Thumba exhibits queer atmospheric phenomena

Q30 Consider the map of India given below :

The map, read with the index provided, refers to the distribution of
(a) winter rains
(b) pressure
(c) annual rainy days
(d) mean temperature

Q31 E.T.A. is a terrorist organization in

(a) Cyprus
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Spain
(d) South Africa

Q32 In the Gandhara sculptures the preaching mudra associated with the
Buddha’s First Sermon at Sarnath is
(a) abhaya
(b) dhyana
(c) dharmachakra
(d) bhumisparsa
Q33 Which one of the following regions of Asia is experiencing the highest
annual growth rate of population ?
(a) South Asia
(b) South-East Asia
(c) Central Asia
(d) West Asia

Q34 Which of the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court are correct ?
I. It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter referred to
it by the President.
II. The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made to it under its
power of advisory jurisdiction.
III. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory
jurisdiction is not binding on the government.
IV. Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the Supreme Court
under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
Select the answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) II and IV

Q35 Which one of the following governmental steps has proved relatively
effective in controlling the double-digit rate of inflation in the Indian economy
during recent years ?
(a) Enhanced rate of production of all consumer goods
(b) Streamlined public distribution system
(c) Pursuing an export-oriented strategy
(d) Containing budgetary deficits and unproductive expenditure

Q36 The name of the poet Kalidasa is mentioned in the

(a) Allahabad pillar inscription
(b) Aihole inscription
(c) Alapadu grant
(d) Hanumakonda inscription

Q37 Assertion (A):

The monsoonal rainfall decreases as one goes towards the west and north-west
in the Ganga plain.
Reason (R):
The moisture-bearing monsoonal winds go higher up as one moves up in the
Ganga plain.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q38 Consider the map given below :

The shaded area in the map shows the kingdom of the

(a) Satavahanas
(b) Chalukyas of Vatapi
(c) Rashtrakutas
(d) Marathas

Q39 If safe storage is to be ensured, the moisture content of foodgrains at the

time of harvesting should not be higher than
(a) 14%
(b) 16%
(c) 18%
(d) 20%

Q40 Devaluation of a currency means

(a) reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded
currencies
(b) permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
(c) fixing the value of the currency in conjunction with the movement in the value
of a basket of predetermined currencies
(d) fixing the value of a currency in multilateral consultation with the IMF, the
World Bank and major trading partners

Q41 Which one of the following statements regarding the “veto” power in the
Security Council is correct according to the United Nations Charter ?
(a) The decisions of the Security Council on all non-procedural matters must be
made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring, votes of
the permanent members of the Council
(b) Every permanent member of the Security Council can prevent any decision
from being accepted, by vetoing it
(c) The term veto was used in Article 27 of the United Nations Charter to enable
any permanent member of the Security Council to prevent any resolution from
being passed by the majority
(d) Any member of the Security Council can prevent any resolution from being
passed by voting against it

Q42 Which one of the following important trade centres of ancient India was on
the trade route connecting Kalyana with Vengi ?
(a) Tagara
(b) Sripura
(c) Tripuri
(d) Tamralipti

Q43 The first Indian ruler who joined the Subsidiary Alliance was
(a) the Nawab of Oudh
(b) the Nizam of Hyderabad
(c) Peshwa Baji Rao II
(d) the King of Travancore

Q44 Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(a) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by State Legislative
Assemblies
(b) As the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, only a
member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-President
(c) A point of difference between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is that
while a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a
candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be are resident of the State from
where he is contesting
(d) The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated
member of Rajya Sabha to the post of a minister

Q45 The difference between a bank and a Non-Banking Financial Institution

(NBFI) is that
(a) a bank interacts directly with customers while an NBFI interacts with banks
and governments
(b) a bank indulges in a number of activities relating to finance with a range of
customers, while an NBFI is mainly concerned with the term loan needs of large
enterprises
(c) a bank deals with both internal and international customers while an NBFI is
mainly concerned with the finances of foreign companies
(d) a bank’s main interest is to help in business transactions and savings/
investment activities while an NBFI’s main interest is in the stabilisation of the
currency
Q46 Vidhushaka, a common character in Sanskrit drama, is invariably a
(a) Brahmana
(b) Kshatriya
(c) Vaisya
(d) Shudra

Q47 Freedom of the Press in India

(a) is specifically provided in Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution
(b) is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a) of
the Constitution
(c) is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361 A of the Constitution
(d) emanates from the operation of the Rule of Law In the country

Q48 Assertion (A):

The USA re-emerged as India’s single largest import source in the early nineties.
Reason (R):
With swift political developments in the erstwhile Soviet Union, India gradually
began to rely on the USA for its defence requirements.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q49 Toramana belonged to the ethnic horde of the

(a) Scythians
(b) Hunas
(c) Yue-chis
(d) Sakas

Q50 In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as
“municipal relations” ?
(a) Centre’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
(b) Centre’s control of the State in financial matters
(c) Centre’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(d) Centre’s control of the State in the planning process

Q51 Who among the following is said to have witnessed the reigns of eight Delhi
Sultans?
(a) Ziauddin Barani
(b) Shams-i-Siraj Afif
(c) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(d) Amir Khusrau

Q52 Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct ?
(a) ‘Exit Poll’ is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding
the candidate in whose favour they had exercised their franchise
(b) ‘Exit Poll’ and ‘Opinion Poll’ are one and the same
(c) ‘Exit Poll’ is a device through which results of voting can be most exactly
predicted
(d) ‘Exit Poll’ is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election
Commissioner to prevent impersonation

Q53 Which one of the following types of erosion is responsible for the formation
of Chambal Ravines ?
(a) Splash
(b) Sheet
(c) Rill
(d) Gully

Q54 Nirmal Hriday, Sanjiwini and Saheli are

(a) organisations engaged in social work
(b) herbal medicines produced in India for hypertension, heart disturbances and
neurological problems
(c) names of some savings schemes mooted by nationalised banks
(d) institutions set up by Jayaprakash Narayan for the rehabilitation of erstwhile
dacoits

Q55 ‘Self-sufficiency’ in food. In the true sense of freedom from hunger, has not
been achieved in India in spite of a more than three-fold rise in food grains
production over 1950-1990. Which of the following are the reasons for it ?
I. The green revolution has been restricted to small pockets of the country.
II. The cost of food is too high compared to the earnings of the poor.
III. Too much emphasis is laid on wheat and paddy compared to the coarse
grains.
IV. The gain s of the green revolution have largely accrued to the cash crop
rather than food crops.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes :
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV

Q56 When it is noon along 82° 30' E longitude along what degree of longitude it
will be 6.30 am ?
(a) along 165° E
(b) along 67°30' W
(c) 0° E or W
(d) along 82° 30' W

Q57 Who among the following became the Prime Minister of India without being
earlier the Chief Minister of a State ?
I. Morarji Desai
II. Charan Singh
III. V. P. Singh
IV. Chandrashekhar
V. P.V. Narasimha Rao.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes :
(a) I, II and IV
(b) II, II and V
(c) II only
(d) IV only

Q58 The latest regional economic block to be formed is

(a) ASEAN
(b) COMECON
(c) APEC
(d) NAFTA

Q59 The first Indian ruler to organize Haj pilgrimage at the expense of the state
was
(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Feroz Tughlak
(c) Akbar
(d) Aurangzeb

Q60 The density of cattle population per 100 hectares of gross cropped area is
the highest in
(a) Bihar
(b) Haryana
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Q61 A major shift in the 8th Five-Year Plan from its preceding ones is
(a) the significant reduction in pubic sector outlays
(b) the concentration of pubic investment in infra-structural sectors
(c) major investment in agriculture with a view to promote exports
(d) major investment in sectors in which industrial sickness has been a chronic
problem

Q62 The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is

(a) 2 km
(b) 3 km
(c) 4 km
(d) 5 km

Q63 Which one of the following soil types of India is rendered infertile by the
presence of excess iron ?
(a) Desert sand
(b) Alluvial
(c) Podzolic
(d) Lateritic

Q64 Assertion (A):

In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the
majority of seats secured in the elections to the House of the People at the
Centre and the Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes.
Reason (R):
The elections based on the majority -vote system decide the result on the basis
of relative majority of votes secured.
In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q65 Who among the following ladies wrote a historical account during the
Mughal period ?
(a) Gulbadan Begum
(b) Nurjahan Begum
(c) Jahanara Begum
(d) Zebunnissa Begum

Q66 Consider the map given below :

The map shows the sea voyage route followed by
(a) Thomas Cook
(b) Ferdinand Magellan
(c) John Cabot
(d) Vasco da Gama

Q67 Which of the following is/are among the functions of the Election
Commission of India ?
I. Conduct of election for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Lok
Sabha and the Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
II. Conduct of election to the Corporations and Municipalities.
III. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of the elections.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes :
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) None of these

Q68 The principal reason why national, economic planning is still being pursued
inspite of embracing a market economy since 1991 is that
(a) it is a Constitutional requirement
(b) the vast quantity of capital already deployed in the public sector needs to be
nurtured
(c) Five-Year Plans can continue to provide a long-term perspective to the
economy in market-friendly fashions
(d) the market economy is mainly confined to industry and commerce and central
planning in agriculture is necessary

Q69 The ideal climatic conditions for the cultivation of rice are
(a) rainfall above 100 cm, temperature above 25°C
(b) cool and moist climate for the entire crop period
(c) rainfall below 100 cm, temperature below 25°C
(d) warm and dry climate during the entire crop period

Q70 The oldest monarchy in the world is that of

(a) U.K.
(b) Nepal.
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Japan

Q71 The time taken by the sun to revolve around the centre of our galaxy is
(a) 25 million years
(b) 100 million years
(c) 250 million years
(d) 500 million years

Q72 The first to start a joint stock company to trade with India were the
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) French
(d) Danish

Q73 Which of the following electoral systems have been adopted for various
elections in India ?
I. System of direct elections on the basis of adult suffrage.
II. System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable
vote.
III. List system of proportional representation.
IV. Cumulative system of indirect elections.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II, III and Lv

Q74 Which one of the following upheavals took place in Bengal immediately after
the Revolt of 1857 ?
(a) Sanyasi Rebellion
(b) Santhal Rebellion
(c) Indigo Disturbances
(d) Pabna Disturbances

Q75 Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and
appropriated by the States ?
(a) Stamp Duties
(b) Passenger and Goods Tax
(c) Estate Duty
(d) Taxes on Newspapers

Q76 The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are

(a) Buddhist
(b) Buddhist and Jain
(c) Hindu and Jain
(d) Hindu, Buddhist and Jain

Q77 The first bird is believed to have appeared on the surface of the earth
(a) 300 million years ago
(b) 200 million years ago
(c) 150 million years ago
(d) 100 million years ago

Q78 Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is
Federal?
(a) A written and rigid Constitution
(b) An independent Judiciary
(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
(d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States

Q79 The significance of the Bengal Regulation of 1793 lies in the fact that
(a) it provided for the establishment of the Supreme Court
(b) it restricted the application of English law to Englishmen only
(c) it accommodated the personal laws of Hindus and Muslims
(d) it provided for the appointment of the Indian Law Commission

Q80 The Mansabdari System introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the
system followed in
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Turkey
(c) Mongolia
(d) Persia

Q81 Which of the following are correctly matched ?

A B C
Establishment of Manufacturing Industries Year Place
I. Setting up of the first cotton mill 1854 Bombay
II. Manufacture of the first machine-made paper 1870 Near Calcutta
III. Setting up of the first cement factory 1904 Madras
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Q82 Even though the Railways are the most pervasive mode of transport in
India, it is the road transport which received the maximum impetus in most of the
post-independence period. Which of the following are the reasons for this ?
I. Railways are cheap to operate but the associated capital costs are very high.
II. Given the geographic spread of the human settlements, it is unrealistic that the
railways alone can serve the needs of transport.
III. The per unit (tonne/km) cost of transport is cheaper in road compared to rail
transport.
IV. Given the indivisible nature of the Railways, it is not always convenient for the
population to avail of it with the same ease as private cars, buses or two-
wheelers.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV

Q83 Consider the map of India given below :

The map shows

(a) an ischyet
(b) all-India water divide
(c) a combination of national highways
(d) a combination of major railway routes

Q84 What is common among Madam Bhikaji Cama, M. Barkatulla, V.V.S. Iyer
and M.N. Roy ?
(a) All of them were leading members of the International Communist Movement
(b) M. Barkatulla was the Prime Minister and the rest were Ministers in the
Provisional Government of Free India established by a group of revolutionaries at
Kabul
(c) All of them were among the prominent revolutionaries outside India operating
in different countries during the Freedom Movement
(d) All of them were accused in the case relating to the throwing of a bomb on
Lord Hardinge

Q85 The greatest diversity of animal and plant species occurs in

(a) temperate deciduous forests
(b) tropical moist forests
(c) heavily polluted rivers
(d) deserts and savannas

Q86 Which of the following are the purposes to which the National Renewal Fund
has been set up ?
I. To restructure sick small scale industries.
II. To help workers likely to be displaced due to retrenchment in the process of
industrial restructuring.
III. To modernise existing industrial units.
IV. To help refugees from Bangladesh, Sri Lanka etc.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes:
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I and IV
(d) II and IV

Q87 Which of the following international events influenced the course of the
national movement in India before the advent of Mahatma Gandhi ?
. Italian-Abyssinian War, 1898
II. Boxer Movement in China
III. Revolutionary Movement in Ireland
IV. Victory of Japan in the Russo-Japanese War
Choose the correct answer from the code given below.
Codes:
(a) I, II and III only
(b) I, II and IV only
(c) III and IV only
(d) I, II, III and IV

Q88 The pitch of the voice of women is in general

(a) marginally lower than that of men
(b) higher than that of men
(c) much lower than that of men
(d) the same as that of men

Q89 Consider the figure of a fountain with four holes given below :

Which one of the holes in the fountain will throw the water farthest ?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

Q90 In an electronic watch, the component corresponding to pendulum of a

pendulum clock is a
(a) transistor
(b) crystal oscillator
(c) diode
(d) balance wheel

Q91 A man jumped at a speed of 5 metres per second from a stationary boat and
the boat moved off with the speed of 0.5 metre per second. How many times is
the mass of the boat greater than that of the man ?
(a) 5.5 times
(b) 4.5 times
(c) 2.5 times
(d) 10 times

Q92 One mole of hydrogen gas burns in excess of oxygen to give 290 kJ of heat.
What is the amount of heat produced when 4g of hydrogen gas is burnt under the
same conditions ?
(a) 145 kJ
(b) 290 kJ
(c) 580 kJ
(d) 1160 kJ

Q93 If a gas is compressed to half of its original volume at 27°C, to what

temperature should it be heated to make it occupy its original volume ?
(a) 327°C
(b) 600°C
(c) 54°C
(d) 300°C

Q94 Which one of the following combinations of aperture and shutter speed of a
camera will allow the maximum exposure ?
(a) f-22, 1/60
(b) f-16, 1/125
(c) f-8, 1/250
(d) f-5.6, 1/1000

Q95 A corked bottle full of water when frozen will break because
(a) the bottle contracts on freezing
(b) the volume of water decreases on freezing
(c) the volume of water increases on freezing
(d) glass is a bad conductor of heat

Q96 The half-life of a radio active element is 5 years. The fraction of the
radioactive substance that remains after 20 years is
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/16

Q97 The speed of light will be minimum while passing through

(a) glass
(b) vacuum
(c) water
(d) air

Q98 The acceleration due to gravity of a catastrophic earthquake will be

(a) > 550 cm/sec2
(b) > 750 cm/sec2
(c) > 950 cm/sec2
(d) > 980 cm/sec2

Q99 The colour of a star is an indication of its

(a) distance from the sun
(b) luminosity
(c) distance from the earth
(d) temperature

Q100 The colour of an opaque object is due to the colour it

(a) absorbs
(b) refracts
(c) reflects
(d) scatters

Q101 The heart of human embryo starts beating

(a) in the first week of its development
(b) in the third week of its development
(c) in the fourth week of its development
(d) in the sixth week of its development

Q102 If father has blood group A and mother has blood group O, then which one
of the following blood group may be found in their son ?
(a) B
(b) AB
(c) O
(d) B, AB or O

Q103 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given
below the lists :
List I List II
(Crops) (Crop Pests)
I. Rice (A) Aphid
II. Wheat (B) Gundhi bug
III. Sugarcane (C) Greasy cutworm
IV. Gram (D) Top shoot borer moth
(E) Bollworm
Codes:
(a) I-B II-C III-D IV-E
(b) I-C II-A III-B IV-D
(c) I-B II-A III-D IV-C
(d) I-E II-D III-A IV-C

Q104 What is the correct sequence of the following in a heart attack ?

I. Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel
II. ‘Plaque’ from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol
III. Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen
IV. Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries.
Choose the answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, IV, I, III
(c) II, III, I, IV
(d) IV, II, I, III

Q105 In the case of a Test-tube baby’

(a) fertilization takes place inside the test-tube
(b) development of the baby taken place inside the test-tube
(c) fertilization takes place outside the mother’s body
(d) unfertilized egg develops inside the test-tube

Q106 Which of the following is/are used as biofertilizers ?

I. Azolla
II. Blue-green algae
III. Alfalfa.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) II alone
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III

Q107 Even though an animal is fed with carbohydrate-rich diet, its blood sugar
concentration tends to remain constant. This is on account of the fact that in the
case of an animal
(a) hormones of pituitary glands control metabolic process
(b) hormones of pancreas cause such a condition
(c) blood sugar is readily absorbed by liver
(d) glucose undergoes autolysis

Q108 Which of the following are characteristics shown by a breast-fed baby

when compared to a bottle-fed baby ?
I. It is less obese.
II. It shows greater capacity, to resist diseases.
III. It gets more vitamins an proteins.
IV. Its growth in height is abnormal.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV

Q109 Which one of the following crops enriches the nitrogen content in soil ?
(a) Potato
(b) Sorghum
(c) Sunflower
(d) Pea

Q110 In the balanced dietaries for a day of an adult working man, weights of
carbohydrate food and total protein food (both superior and inferior) should be in
order of
(a) 600 gm and 420 gm respectively
(b) 600 gm and 600 gm respectively
(c) 420 gm and 600 gm respectively
(d) 420 gm and 420 gm respectively
Q111 Which one of the following is caused by the expression of a recessive gene
present on sex chromosome ?
(a) Rheumatism
(b) Nervous shock
(c) Muscular dystrophy
(d) Cerebral hemorrhage

Q112 Which one of the following animals stores water in the intestine ?
(a) Moloch
(b) Camel
(c) Zebra
(d) Uromastix

Q113 If water pollution continues at its present rate, it will eventually

(a) stop water cycle
(b) prevent precipitation
(c) make oxygen molecules unavailable to water plants
(d) make nitrate unavailable to water plants

Q114 The only anthropoid ape to be found in India is the

(a) hanuman monkey
(b) liontailed macaque of Western Ghats
(c) slow loris of Assam
(d) whitebrowed gibbon of Assam

Q115 The highest milk producing breed of goat in India is

(a) Barbari
(b) Jamnapari
(c) Black Bengal
(d) Beetal

Q116 Assertion (A):

A lock of Einstein’s hair, if scientists could locate it and extract its DNA, could
help in producing another Einstein, by cloning.
Reason (R):
The DNA extracted from the cell of an embryo at an early stage of development,
can be transferred to individual eggs which in turn can be implanted into the
uterus of a surrogate mother to give birth to an identical off spring.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q117 Which one of the following vitamins is considered to be a hormone ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Q118 Farm land tends to erode most rapidly when planted with
(a) sorghum
(b) potato
(c) wheat
(d) clover

Q119 Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the
human body by the age of
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) eight

Q120 Haemoglobin is dissolved in the plasma of

(a) frog
(b) fish
(c) man
(d) earthworm

Q121 Which of the following fish are bred exclusively in the cold regions of India
?
I. Catla.
II. Tinca.
III. Bhekti.
IV. Trout.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) I and lV
(b) I and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) III and IV

Q122 Phenylketonuria is an example of an in born error of metabolism. This

“error” refers to
(a) hormonal overproduction
(b) atrophy of endocrine glands
(c) inherited lack of an enzyme
(d) non-disjunction

Q123 Which one of the following is in the correct sequential order in which these
appeared under simulated primitive earth condition ?
(a) Methane, Hydrogen cyanide, nitriles, aminoacids
(b) Hydrogen cyanide, methane, nitriles, aminoacids
(c) Aminoacids, nitriles. Hydrogen cyanide, methane
(d) Nitriles, aminoacids, methane, Hydrogen cyanide

Q124 The basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of a suitably cut diamond is
that
(a) it has a very high transparency
(b) it has a very high refractive index
(c) it is very hard
(d) it has well-defined cleavage planes

Q125 The main constituents of pearl are

(a) calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
(b) aragonite and conchiolin
(c) ammonium sulphate and sodium carbonate
(d) calcium oxide and ammonium chloride

Q126 Monazite is an ore of

(a) zirconium
(b) thorium
(c) titanium
(d) iron

Q127 Galvanised iron sheets are protected from rusting due to the presence of a
layer of
(a) lead
(b) chromium
(c) zinc
(d) tin

Q128 In recent years, there has been some concern over the threat posed by the
Mathura Oil Refinery and the thermal power plants to the Taj Mahal in Agra. The
scientific basis of any possible damage to the Taj is mainly
(a) stratospheric ozone and the chlorofluorocarbons which destroy it
(b) acid precipitation and tropospheric ozone
(c) increasing levels of atmospheric CO2 which produce the greenhouse effect
(d) ultraviolet radiation (240-260 nanometers wavelength) and the fumes from the
heavily polluted Yamuna river

Q129 Which radioactive pollutant has recently drawn the attention of the public,
due to its occurrence in the building material ?
(a) Plutonium
(b) Thorium
(c) Radon
(d) Radium

Q130 Water is a good solvent of ionic salts because

(a) it has a high boiling point
(b) it has a high dipole moment
(c) it has a high specific heat
(d) it has no colour

Q31 if is would be

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Q132 The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by

nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order, 4 is assigned to P. The difference
between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer
assigned to N?
(a) 7
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 6

Q133 Examine the following statements:

I. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older then B.
II. Either C and Dare of the same age or D is older than C.
III. B is older than C.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above
statements?
(a) A is older than B
(b) B and D are of the same age
(c) D is older than C
(d) A is older than C
Q134 Study the graphs given below :

The first graph depicts a hypothetical movement of Bombay Stock Exchange

Sensitive index which is an indicator of the average price movement of a
representative set of stocks. The second graph depicts the averaged price of all
automobile manufacturing companies. Which one of the following is a valid
inference ?
(a) The market in unstable because prices are continuously fluctuating
(b) Automobile shares are more stable that shares in general
(c) There was a major political change in June/July
(d) Automobile shares have been steadily improving in price rather than being
affected by major market movements

Q135 Which one of the following four logical diagrams represents correctly the
relationship between musicians, instrumentalists, violinists ?

Q136 Consider the diagram given below :

Five hundred candidates appeared in an examination comprising tests in English,

Hindi and Mathematics. The diagram gives the number of candidates who failed
in different tests. What is the percentage of candidates who failed in at least two
subjects ?
(a) 7.8
(b) 0.078
(c) 6.8
(d) 1.0

Q137 Sound waves travel at 300 m/s. Sound produced at a point is heard by a
person after 5 seconds while the same sound is heard by another person after 6
seconds. What could be the maximum and minimum distances between the two
persons?
(a) 1.8 km, 0.15 km
(b) 2.2 km, 0.20 km
(c) 2.8 km, 0.25 km
(d) 3.3 km 0.3 km

Q138 The surface area of a cube is 216 sq.m. What is its volume ?
(a) 100 cu m
(b) 216 cu m
(c) 480 cu m
(d) 512 cu m

Q139 If Rs. 1000 is invested at 12% interest and interest is compounded half
yearly, what will be the total amount at the end of one year ?
(a) Rs. 1120.00
(b) Rs. 1123.60
(c) Rs. 1126.20
(d) Rs. 1134.40

Q140 The persons start walking at a steady pace of 3 km/hour from a road 1
intersection along two roads that make an angle of 60° with each other. What will
be the (shortest) distance separating them at the end of 20 minutes ?
(a) 3 km
(b) 2 km
(c) 1.5 km
(d) 1 km

Q141 Which one of the following figures will generate a cone when rotated about
one of its straight edges ?
(a) An equilateral triangle
(b) A sector of a circle
(c) A segment of a circle
(d) A right-angled triangle

Q142 A person at a point D on a straight road AC has four options to go to B

which lies on a perpendicular to AC through D.

Which one of the following is the shortest route to B ?

(a) D to A and A to B
(b) D to E and E to B
(c) D to C and C to B
(d) D to F and F to B

Q143 There are three tables containing two drawers each. It is known that one of
the table contains a silver coin in each of its drawers, another table contains a
gold coin in each drawer while the third table contains a silver coin in one drawer
and a gold coin in the other. One of the drawers of a table is opened and found to
contain a silver coin. What is the probability that the other drawer of that table
contains a gold coin ?
(a) 1
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.25
(d) 0.75

Q144 Consider the following chart :

Interest Rates (in percentage)

The chart above shows the movement of nominal interest rates and real interest
rates (defined as nominal interest rate minus inflation). Which one of the
following is the correct interpretation ?
(a) Nominal interest rates decreased at a constant rate in the period Feb. 1992
— Sept. 1993
(b) Inflation has constantly decreased from Feb. 1992 — Sept. 1993
(c) Although the nominal rates of interest have constantly declined from Feb.
1992—Sept. 1993, the real rates have been steadily increasing throughout the
period
(d) Nominal rate of interest and real rate of interest are likely to become equal in
1994

Q145 The table below compares apparel exports of various countries between
the years 1980 and 1990.
Apparel Exports of Various Countries
(in billions)
Country 1980 1990
Hong Kong 4.98 15.41
Italy 4.58 11.84
China 1.63 9.67
[Link] 2.95 7.88
Thailand 0.27 3.33
India 0.59 2.50
Indonesia 0.10 1.65
Malaysia 0.15 1.32
Total 15.25 53.60
Which one of the following statements in not true ? (Restricting consideration to
countries listed in the table only)
(a) Thailand has overtaken India in apparel export performance between 1980
and 1990
(b) Total apparel export from the countries listed has increased (in dollar terms)
between 1980 and 1990 but part of this is likely to be due to global inflation
(c) India’s share of the apparel export market has increased
(d) Maximum improvement in apparel export performance has been achieved by
Indonesia

Q146 Consider the following figures marked A and B :

The manufacturing cost and projected sales for a product are shown in figures A
and B respectively. What is the minimum number of pieces that should be
manufactured to avoid a loss ?
(a) 2000
(b) 2500
(c) 3000
(d) 3500

Q147 Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of
it. Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the
job. How long would Ram take to complete the entire job alone?
(a) 6 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 11 days

Q148 The square root of the cube of this number is the cube of its square root. It
is not 1 and it is less than 6. What is it ?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Q149 In the sequence 462, 420, 380, X, 306. X stands for

(a) 352
(b) 342
(c) 332
(d) 322

Q150 Ten per cent of twenty plus twenty per cent of ten equals
(a) 10 per cent of 20
(b) 20 per cent of 20
(c) 1 per cent of 200
(d) 2 per cent of 200

Answers - 1994 UPSC Civil Services / IAS Preliminary General Studies

1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. C
11. C 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. C 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. D 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. D
31. C 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. D 36. D 37. C 38. D 39. A 40. A
41. B 42. A 43. B 44. C 45. B 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. B 50. D
51. D 52. A 53. D 54. A 55. A 56. C 57. D 58. D 59. B 60. B
61. A 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. A 66. B 67. D 68. C 69. A 70. D
71. C 72. B 73. A 74. C 75. A 76. D 77. C 78. D 79. C 80. C
81. C 82. B 83. B 84. C 85. B 86. A 87. D 88. B 89. D 90. B
91. D 92. C 93. A 94. A 95. C 96. D 97. A 98. D 99. D 100. C
101. D 102. C 103. C 104. B 105. C 106. B 107. B 108. A 109. D 110. A
111. D 112. B 113. C 114. D 115. B 116. D 117. B 118. C 119. A 120. D
121. B 122. B 123. A 124. B 125. A 126. B 127. C 128. B 129. B 130. B
131. B 132. D 133. D 134. A 135. A 136. A 137. D 138. B 139. B 140. D
141. D 142. D 143. B 144. B 145. B 146. A 147. C 148. A 149. B 150. D