Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

Pre NEET Mock Test-3

(for NEET-2021)

Answer Key

1. (3) 41. (3) 81. (4) 121. (4) 161. (4)

2. (1) 42. (4) 82. (3) 122. (3) 162. (3)
3. (3) 43. (4) 83. (3) 123. (3) 163. (2)
4. (3) 44. (3) 84. (2) 124. (2) 164. (3)
5. (4) 45. (3) 85. (2) 125. (2) 165. (2)
6. (3) 46. (1) 86. (4) 126. (3) 166. (3)
7. (1) 47. (4) 87. (4) 127. (3) 167. (2)
8. (2) 48. (3) 88. (4) 128. (2) 168. (3)
9. (4) 49. (3) 89. (3) 129. (1) 169. (3)
10. (2) 50. (3) 90. (1) 130. (1) 170. (3)
11. (1) 51. (1) 91. (3) 131. (2) 171. (3)
12. (2) 52. (1) 92. (4) 132. (3) 172. (3)
13. (1) 53. (3) 93. (4) 133. (3) 173. (1)
14. (1) 54. (2) 94. (2) 134. (4) 174. (3)
15. (4) 55. (2) 95. (3) 135. (2) 175. (1)
16. (4) 56. (3) 96. (3) 136. (4) 176. (1)
17. (1) 57. (2) 97. (3) 137. (3) 177. (3)
18. (1) 58. (4) 98. (2) 138. (2) 178. (3)
19. (3) 59. (4) 99. (1) 139. (3) 179. (1)
20. (2) 60. (4) 100. (2) 140. (1) 180. (4)
21. (2) 61. (1) 101. (4) 141. (3) 181. (2)
22. (2) 62. (1) 102. (3) 142. (2) 182. (2)
23. (4) 63. (3) 103. (4) 143. (2) 183. (4)
24. (1) 64. (2) 104. (4) 144. (2) 184. (4)
25. (4) 65. (2) 105. (1) 145. (2) 185. (4)
26. (1) 66. (4) 106. (2) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27. (3) 67. (2) 107. (3) 147. (4) 187. (2)
28. (1) 68. (3) 108. (4) 148. (3) 188. (4)
29. (2) 69. (3) 109. (3) 149. (4) 189. (2)
30. (1) 70. (2) 110. (3) 150. (3) 190. (1)
31. (4) 71. (2) 111. (3) 151. (3) 191. (3)
32. (4) 72. (4) 112. (1) 152. (3) 192. (2)
33. (2) 73. (4) 113. (2) 153. (2) 193. (4)
34. (2) 74. (2) 114. (4) 154. (3) 194. (3)
35. (4) 75. (1) 115. (3) 155. (4) 195. (2)
36. (3) 76. (3) 116. (4) 156. (3) 196. (3)
37. (3) 77. (1) 117. (2) 157. (2) 197. (4)
38. (3) 78. (3) 118. (3) 158. (2) 198. (1)
39. (4) 79. (4) 119. (1) 159. (1) 199. (4)
40. (1) 80. (1) 120. (4) 160. (2) 200. (2)

(1)
 Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

Pre NEET Mock Test-3

(for NEET-2021)

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
SECTION-A From the FBDs of blocks

1. Answer (3)

For SHM, acceleration is related to displacement

as

a = –2x
m1g – T = m1a (i)
as x = Asin(t)
T – m2g = m2a (ii)
dx
v= = A cos(t ) Solving these two equations for tension T
dt
2m1m2 2  2  3  10
T = g=
dv m1 + m2 2+3
a = = – 2Asin(t)
dt
= 24 N
2. Answer (1) Now, 2T = 2 × 24 = 48 N
At end of a long solenoid, magnetic field is given 4. Answer (3)
0 ni
as B = , where n is number of turns per unit In electromagnetic waves, contribution of
2 magnetic and electric field in average energy
length. intensity is same.

 200  So, IB = IE = I
4  10−7   5
 1   Inet = IE + IB = 2I
B= = 6.28  10−4 T
2 5. Answer (4)
3. Answer (3) Relation between electric field and potential is
r V ˆ
Ex = − i
x
r V 
| E |= = (4 x 2 ) = 8 x
x x
at x = 2 m
r
| E |= 8  2 = 16 V/m

(2)
Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock Test 2021

6. Answer (3) 14. Answer (1)

For a diatomic gas, Mobility () is defined as,
Degree of freedom = 3 translational + 2 rotational
vd
= 5 (total) =
E
7. Answer (1)
r r So, vd = E = 6  10–2  9  10−3
Torque due to force F with position vector r is
given as = 54 × 10–5 = 0.54 × 10–3 m/s = 0.54 mm/s
r r r
 = r F 15. Answer (4)
r r r
If r || F  r = 0 , so for F = 16iˆ N torque is zero 10.01 × 9.11 = 91.1911
about the origin.
= 91.2 (upto 3 significant figures as least number
8. Answer (2) of significant figures in the number being
Mean free path of ideal gas molecules is given by multiplied is three)
1 16. Answer (4)
= , where n is number density
2nd 2
The magnetic permeability of a substance is
Since n becomes double, the mean free path () given as

becomes  = 0r
2
9. Answer (4)  22 × 10–4 = 4 × 10–7 × r
From Einstein's mass-energy equivalence 22  10−4 7
E= mc2  r = =  103 = 1750
22 4
4  10−7
= (4 × 10–3) × (3 × 108)2 7
= 3.6 × 1014 J Relative permeability is related to magnetic
10. Answer (2) susceptibility as :
For a screw gauge, Least count is given as r = 1 + 
Pitch
Least Count = So,  = r – 1 = 1749
Number of divisions on circular scale
17. Answer (1)
0.2
= = 0.02 mm
10 For uniformly charged spherical body, electric
field inside it is given by
11. Answer (1)
In adiabatic compression, 
E= x (x < R)
Q = 0 3 0
Also work done by the gas (W) is negative,
4  10−8  0.1
hence from first law of thermodynamics =
4
Q = U + W  U = –W > 0 (0.2)3  3  8.85  10−12
3
12. Answer (2)
 4496 N/C  4500 N/C
As per ideal gas equation
PV = nRT 18. Answer (1)

nRT 2  8.314  300 In series LCR circuit power factor is the ratio of
P= = = 2.5 atm resistance and impedance (Z)
V 20  10−3
13. Answer (1) Z = R 2 + ( X L − XC )2
From conservation of number of nucleons,
R 2 1
25 + 4 = A + 1  A = 28 cos  = = =
Z 2 + (4 − 2)
2 2 2
12 + 2 = Z + 1  Z = 13
(3)
Pre NEET Mock Test 2021 Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

19. Answer (3)  d R

g  = g  1 −  ; for d =
In a capillary tube vertical height of rise would  R  2
remain same.
 R  g
= g 1 − =
 2R  2
 g = 2g
 mg = 2mg = 2 × 36 = 72 N
h cos45° = h
26. Answer (1)
 h = h 2
20. Answer (2)
In YDSE fringe width is given as Centre of mass divides the line joining the line
joining two masses, makes in the inverse ratio of
D
= , d is distance between slits D is distance masses.
d
between screen and slit plane  6x1 = 24x2

(3D ) D x1 4
 = = =  =
(3d ) d x2 1
21. Answer (2) 27. Answer (3)
Boolean expression for logic circuit is
Depletion width of a p-n junction diode depends
C = AB on doping.
Hence the truth table is given as Forward bias voltage is opposite to the
contact/barrier potential. Hence depletion width
A B C
decreases and in reverse bias, potential barrier
0 0 0 will increase because reverse bias voltage will be
1 0 0 in same direction.
0 1 1 28. Answer (1)
1 1 0 As per Einstein's photoelectric equation,
22. Answer (2) hf
In case 1 : hf = +K
The 4th
band of carbon resistor is tolerance band 2
and the tolerance related to gold is 5%. hf
Thus, K =
23. Answer (4) 2
The capacitance with dielectric is given as hf
In case 2: h(2f ) = + K
Cdielectric = KCair 2
Cdielectric
 Cair = Thus K  =
3hf
= 3K
K 2
8
 2=  K=4 29. Answer (2)
K
Limit of resolution of a telescope is given by
24. Answer (1)
1.22
Using equation of motion, = , where a is aperture size
a
v2 = u2 – 2gh = 402 – 2 × 10 × 10
v = 37.4 m/s Thus, as wavelength becomes half, the limit of
resolution will also become half.
25. Answer (4)

Variation of acceleration due to gravity with depth  =
d is given by 2

(4)
Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock Test 2021

30. Answer (1) SECTION-B

For balanced wheatstone bridge.
36. Answer (3)
R 1 S
=  R =
S 2 2
Given : S = 20   R = 10 
1
Now, length per unit resistance = = 0.1 m
10
Length of 2  resistance = 2 × 0.1 = 0.2 m
31. Answer (4)
Momentum due to electromagnetic wave is given From the definition of Young’s modulus
by Stress
Y=
U Strain
p= where U is energy
c TL
Y =
IAt 20  20  1 AL
= = = 1.33 N s
c 3  108 Here, T = M(g + a)
32. Answer (4) M (g + a )L 2(10 + 2)  1
 Y = = = 120  106
A(L1 − L ) 2  10−6 (0.1)
1 3
sin ic = = = 1.2 × 108 N/m2
 2
37. Answer (3)
For an electric dipole, the potential at equatorial
line is zero i.e.
Vequatorial line = Zero
38. Answer (3)
ic = 60° As beat frequency increases on filing B
r2 = ic = 60° (as grazing refraction) fA < fB  fB – fA = 7  fB = fA + 7
r1 + r2 = A  r1 = 30° = 274 + 7 = 281 Hz
From Snell‘s law 39. Answer (4)
For an electron accelerated by potential
 1 
 sini =  sin30°  i = sin–1   difference V, de-Broglie wavelength is given by
 3
h
33. Answer (2) =
2me eV
Inductive reactance = XL
XL = L = 2 × 50 × 40 × 10–3 = 4  For electron, putting the values, we get
12.27 12.27
irms =
v rms 200
=  16 A = Å =  3.5 Å
XL 4 V 12.27

34. Answer (2) 40. Answer (1)

Strain is fractional change in dimension. Resistance of a semiconductor decreases with
increase in temperature while that of metal
l
e.g. strain = So, it is dimensionless increases with increase in temperature.
l
41. Answer (3)
35. Answer (4)
eV and Joule unit are related as
As per Brewster's law,
E (in joule)
tan ib =  E (in eV) =
e
or, tan ib = 3
375
 i b = 60 = −19
= 2.3  1021 eV
1.6  10
(5)
Pre NEET Mock Test 2021 Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

42. Answer (4) 47. Answer (4)

We know that, heat required to raise the Given s = 24t + 3t4 – 2t3
temperature of an object by T is given as From definition of instantaneous velocity.
Q = mcT
ds
v= = 24 + 12t 3 − 6t 2
4 dt
m1 =  R 3
3 at t = 0  v = 24 m/s
3
4 3  27 48. Answer (3)
m2 =    R  = m1
3 2  8
work
Power =
 27  time
Q1 = m1c(1) and Q2 =   mc(2)
 8  Given, power P = 20 kW = 20000 W
Q1 4 mgh
 Ratio =  = 20000
Q2 27 t
43. Answer (4) 100  10  20
 = 20000
For nichrome,  = 0 (1 + T), so graph is linear t

44. Answer (3)  t=1s

In CE configuration, input is given between base 49. Answer (3)

and emitter and the output is taken between
collector and emitter.
iB − v BE plot is known as input characteristics
and iC − vCE plot is knowns output
characteristics.
For a circular ring, moment of inertia about an
45. Answer (3) axis perpendicular to the plane and passing
through the centre is
As per Bohr's model, angular momentum is
quantized I1 = mR2

nh From perpendicular axes theorem

L= ; n = 1, 2, 3...
2 I1 mR 2
ID = =
46. Answer (1) 2 2
50. Answer (3)

9d 2 y
Given + 16y = 0
dt 2

d 2y 16
r  =− y
F1 = 10sin60 jˆ − 10cos60iˆ = 5 3 jˆ − 5iˆ dt 2 9
r
F2 = 5iˆ d 2y
Comparing with equation for S.H.M. 2
= –2 y
r r r dt
Fnet = F1 + F2 = 5 3 jˆ
16
  =
2
From Newton's II law. 9
r
r Fnet 5 3 ˆj
a= = = 2.5 ˆj m/s2  =
4
units
m 2 3 3
(6)
Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock Test 2021

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A R1 – X + 2Na + X – R1 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Dry ether
→
51. Answer (1) R1 – R1 + 2NaX.
In N2, oxidation state of N is zero. If R1 and R2 are different, then mixture of alkanes
In N2O: 2x – 2 = 0 may be obtained as
x=+1 R1 − X + Na + X − R2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Dry ether
→R1 − R1 + R1 − R2 + R2 − R2
0 +1
N2 ⎯⎯→ N2O , so oxidation state of nitrogen 56. Answer (3)

changes from 0 to +1. • PVC, Teflon and Dacron are non-

biodegradable polymers.
52. Answer (1)
• PHBV is a biodegradable polymer. It undergoes
Aqueous Na2SO4 solution on electrolysis
bacterial degradation in the environment. It is a
produces O2 gas at anode and H2 gas at
co-polymer of 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and
cathode.
3-hydroxypentanoic acid.
At anode:
57. Answer (2)
2H2O(l) ⎯⎯→ O2 (g) + 4H+ (aq) + 4e−
 7 
At cathode:  28 
pN2 = (N2 )PTotal =   12
− 1  7 + 8 
H2O(l) + e ⎯⎯→ H2 (g) + OH− (aq)  28 32 
2
53. Answer (3) 1
4
=  12 = 6 bar
• A catalyst does not alter Kp or Kc values.
1
• A catalyst increases rate of a reaction as it 2
lowers threshold energy barrier thus it lowers
58. Answer (4)
activation energy for both the forward and
the backward reactions. • CO + H2 : synthesis gas
54. Answer (2) • B2H6 : An electron deficient hydride
• Aldehydes which do not have an - hydrogen • H2O2 is sold in market as an antiseptic as
atom, undergo self-oxidation and reduction Perhydrol.
(disproportionation) reaction on heating with
concentrated alkali. • Permanent hardness of water is due to the
soluble salt of calcium and magnesium in the
• HCHO and C6H5CHO, in presence of conc. form of chlorides and sulphates.
NaOH undergo cross Cannizzaro’s reaction.
59. Answer (4)
N2O4(g) → 2NO2(g)
Decomposition reaction of N2O4(g) is
endothermic, with an increase in gaseous moles,
so H > 0 and S > 0.
60. Answer (4)
In primitive cubic lattice, a = 2r
a
 r=
55. Answer (2) 2

Wurtz reaction is used to prepare symmetrical 1

r = 272  pm
alkanes in good yield. 2
(7)
Pre NEET Mock Test 2021 Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

61. Answer (1) 67. Answer (2)

• Fe2O3·xH2O is brown coloured substance Atomic number IUPAC official name
and known as rust.
102 Nobelium
• Zn(OH)2 is white in colour.
107 Bohrium
• [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 is a blue coloured complex.
101 Mendelevium
• [Ag(NH3)2]Cl is white in colour.
103 Lawrencium
62. Answer (1)
68. Answer (3)
N0
As amount of substance left N = where n is
2n
the number of half-lives, N0 is the initial amount.
63. Answer (3)
2
The calcium concentration in plasma is regulated As, 0.25 =
2n
at about 100 mg L–1. It is maintained by two
hormones: Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone. 2
Or 2n = =8
0.25
64. Answer (2)
235  n=3
92U has 92 protons, 92 electrons and 235-92 =
143 neutrons.  time required in the reduction = 3 × 10 = 30 s

65. Answer (2) 69. Answer (3)

• Blister copper has blistered appearance due
to evolution of SO2 gas
• • Wrought iron is the purest form of iron
• Cast iron has about 3% carbon
• van Arkel Method is used for the refining of Zr
and Ti whereas Zn can be refined using
distillation as well as electrolytic refining.
•
70. Answer (2)
Electrophoresis confirms existence of charge on
colloidal particles, under an applied electric
So, all these molecules have non-zero dipole
potential.
moment.
71. Answer (2)
66. Answer (4)
1
• BO = (Nb − Na ) • H2SO4,
2
1
• B2, BO = (6 − 4) = 1
2
• H2SO5,
1
• C2, BO = (8 − 4) = 2
2
1
• Li2, BO = (4 − 2) = 1
2 • H2S2O7,

1
• Ne2, BO = (10 − 10) = 0
2
• H2SO3,
 Bond order of Ne2 is zero so, it does not exist

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Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock Test 2021

72. Answer (4)

 
−elimination,
CH3 − CH − CH2 − CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Dehydrohalogenation,
→
|
saytzeff product
Br
CH3 − CH = CH − CH3
More stable product is called Saytzeff product.
73. Answer (4)
• CO is almost insoluble in water.
• CO2 (s) is called dry ice used as refrigerant.
• C60 contains 20 six membered rings and 12 79. Answer (4)
five membered rings. Cu+2 : [Ar]3d9
74. Answer (2)
Cu2+ has 1 unpaired electron
•  = n(n + 2) BM
  = 3 = 1.73 BM
80. Answer (1)
Maltose on hydrolysis gives two –D-glucose
• units.
In maltose two -D-glucose units are linked at
75. Answer (1) C-1 of one glucose unit to the C-4 of another
• Dumas method is used for the estimation of glucose unit.
nitrogen.
• Carius method is used to estimate S and
halogens.
76. Answer (3)
N2O – Neutral oxide
CaO – Basic oxide
ZnO – Amphoteric oxide 81. Answer (4)
SO3 – Acidic oxide • (H2O + HNO3) mixture shows negative
77. Answer (1) deviation from Raoult’s law, as on mixing
there is decrease in vapour pressure as well
1
• 1 g H2 =  2  NA atoms = NA atoms as in total volume due to increase in inter
2 molecular forces of attraction.
1 N • Benzene + Toluene and chlorobenzene +
• 1 g O2 =  2  NA atoms = A atoms
32 16 Bromobenzene are ideal solutions
• Acetone + Ethanol shows positive deviation
1 N
• 1 g Li = NA atoms = A atoms from Raoult’s law
7 7
82. Answer (3)
1 N
• 1 g Ag = NA atoms = A atoms
108 108
is very stable due to hyperconjugation
78. Answer (3)
Arginine has more number of NH2 groups, hence effect. More the number of -H atoms more will
it is a basic amino acid. be the hyperconjugation effect, hence more will
Structure of Arginine is be stability.

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Pre NEET Mock Test 2021 Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

83. Answer (3) • The carboxyhaemoglobin complex is 300

times more stable than oxyhaemoglobin
• NaOH ⎯⎯→Na+ + OH−
0.1 M 0.1 M complex.
88. Answer (4)
• Mg(OH)2 Mg2+ + 2OH−
s 2s + 0.1 rG = rG° + RT ln QC
Ksp = [Mg2+][OH–]2 At equilibrium, QC = Keq
 1.8 × 10–11 = s(2s + 0.1)2 and rG = 0
1.8 × 10–11 = s × (0.1)2 [Q 2s + 0.1 ; 0.1]  0 = G° + RT ln Keq

 s = 1.8 × 10–9 M G° = – RT ln Keq

84. Answer (2) = – 8.314 × 300 ln(5 × 1013)

89. Answer (3)
• Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a
cationic detergent as cationic detergents are Ligand field strength decreases as
quaternary ammonium salts of amines with NH3 > H2O > F– > S2–
acetates, chlorides or bromides as anion.
90. Answer (1)
• Sodium stearate (C17H35COONa) is a soap.
• Non-ionic detergents are used as liquid
dishwashers.
• The highly branched carbon chains in
detergents cannot be easily degraded by
bacteria, so their accumulation causes water
pollution.
85. Answer (2) 91. Answer (3)
Tf = Kf × m • For isothermal process, T = 0
Where Tf = depression in freezing point We know
Kf = Cryoscopic constant • At constant volume, qv = CvT = U
m = molality If T = 0
 Tf = 1.99 × 0.075 U = 0
Tf = 0.15 K • H = U + (PV) = U + nRT
SECTION-B =0
86. Answer (4) • Now from first law of thermodynamics
+3 +3 U = q + w
• P2 O3 ⎯⎯→ H3 PO3
If T = 0 then U = 0 and w = –q
• Eo 4 + 3 + is positive (+ 1.74 V) Hence w  0
Ce /Ce
92. Answer (4)
• Transition metals and their compounds are
+3e −
used as catalyst as they can adopt multiple Al3 + ⎯⎯⎯ → Al
27 g
oxidation states and they can form
complexes.  27 g Al is deposited by 3 F
87. Answer (4)
 4.5 g Al is deposited by 0.5 F
• CO is a neutral oxide, it reduces oxygen
93. Answer (4)
carrying ability of blood.
Crude sodium chloride contains Na2SO4, CaSO4,
• It is produced due to incomplete combustion
CaCl2 and MgCl2 as impurities, and therefore it is
of carbon.
hygroscopic (moisture absorbing) in nature.
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Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock Test 2021

94. Answer (2) • NH4Cl, NH4NO3 are the salts of strong acid
and weak base, so these have their pH < 7.
• • NaCl is a salt of strong acid and strong base
so, its pH = 7.
Mechanism: 98. Answer (2)
Due to H-bonding, F– and OH– are heavily
•
hydrated  order of nucleophilicity in polar protic
solvent is PhS−  I−  OH  F−
99. Answer (1)
Decreasing acidic strength of the given
95. Answer (3) molecules is, as
All primary amines on heating with chloroform HCOOH > C6H5COOH > C6H5OH > C2H5OH
and ethanolic KOH form isocyanides or
C6H5COOH is weaker acid than H-COOH due to
carbylamines which are foul smelling substances.
+R effect of benzene ring. Phenol and alcohols
Secondary and tertiary amines do not show this
are weaker acid than carboxylic acids.
reaction. This reaction is known as carbylamine
reaction or isocyanide test. 100. Answer (2)

R − NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH ⎯⎯→R − NC + 3KCl + 3H2O • Interhalogen compounds are more reactive
96. Answer (3) than pure halogen due to electronegativity
Co has its electronic configuration as [Ar]3d74s2 difference.
so, it has 3 unpaired electrons, as 3d7 is • BrF3 is bent T-shaped.
represented as
97. Answer (3)
• CH3COONa is a salt of weak acid and strong
base, so its aqueous solution has its pH > 7.
1
pH = 7 + (pKa + logC) , where C is the • All interhalogen compounds are diamagnetic
2
in nature, as they have all paired electrons.
concentration of the salt.

BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. Answer (4)

101. Answer (4) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water from

roots to stem. Heartwood is central part of the
Gibberellic acid promotes seed germination.
wood.
ABA, Phenolic acid and para-ascorbic acid inhibit
It has tannins, resins, oil etc. It is darker in colour.
seed germination.
Both types of wood has lignified xylary elements.
102. Answer (3)
105. Answer (1)
PQ facilitates the transfer of electrons from PS II
to Cyt b6f and PC from Cyt b6f to PS I. PS II first Alleles IA & IB are dominant over i and IA & IB are
transfers the electrons to Pheophytin. codominant together.

103. Answer (4) Parents : IAIB × IAIB

Pollen grains, embryo sac and gametes are Offspring : IAIA, IAIB, IBIB.
haploid. So, blood group ‘O’ cannot be seen in the
Seed and ovule are diploid offsprings as both parents lack that allele called i.
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Pre NEET Mock Test 2021 Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

106. Answer (2) 115. Answer (3)

Translation begins when there is attachment of Monascus purpureus – Statins
ribosomes to mRNA. Although aminoacylation of Trichoderma polysporum – Cyclosporin A
tRNA is the first step.
Streptococcus – Streptokinase
Each codon is recognized by specific anti-codon
of tRNA. Nostoc – Autotrophic N2 fixer.

107. Answer (3) 116. Answer (4)

Ray florets of sunflower have inferior ovary. Viroids have free RNA and they lack protein coat.
They do not have DNA.
Plum, rose and peach have half inferior ovary.
117. Answer (2)
108. Answer (4)
Montreal protocol became effective in 1989.
Lag phase is initial phase.
118. Answer (3)
Log phase is exponential phase. Stationary
phase is phase where growth stops. GTP is formed during conversion of succinyl CoA
→ Succinic acid.
109. Answer (3)
From -ketoglutaric acid → Succinyl CoA, there
Tap root arises from radicle.
is formation of NADH2.
Adventitious roots arise from any part other than
radicle. From succinic acid → Malic acid, there is
formation of FADH2.
Prop, stilt and modified storage roots of sweet
potato are adventitious roots. 119. Answer (1)
Sickle cell anaemia causing gene is present on
110. Answer (3)
chromosomes 11.
Water hyacinth is insect pollinated plant.
Colour blindness is X-linked recessive disorder.
Vallisneria, Zostera and Hydrilla are pollinated by
Myotonic dystrophy is autosomal dominant
water.
disorder.
111. Answer (3)
120. Answer (4)
Activated sludge contains bacterial flocs.
UV B does not directly cause any hole in ozone
Primary sludge contains small pebbles. layer. It splits CFCs and releases Cl atoms which
Primary treatment leads to the formation of disturbs the ozone layer.
primary effluent. 121. Answer (4)
112. Answer (1) Filamentous forms are Anabaena, Spirulina
Inclusion bodies are not membrane bound. Laminaria and Sargassum

They lie free in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes. Colonial alga is Volvox

113. Answer (2) Multicellular algae are Gracilaria and Gelidium.

Sutton and Boveri proposed chromosomal theory 122. Answer (3)

of inheritance. Mendel is father of Genetics. Dicot stem has vascular bundles which are
arranged in a ring and pith is well developed.
Morgan experimentally verified the chromosomal
theory of inheritance. Roots do not have hypodermis.
114. Answer (4) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous in monocot
stem and vascular bundles are scattered which
Golgi apparatus is involved in packaging and
are conjoint and closed.
sorting of materials.
123. Answer (3)
Lysosome contains hydrolytic enzymes.
Total 7 characters and 14 true breeding varieties
Polysome helps in protein synthesis.
were taken by Mendel for his experiments on
Peroxisome is a microbody. pea.
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Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock Test 2021

124. Answer (2) 133. Answer (3)

Stored food in red algae is floridean starch. In Biological nitrogen fixation is N2 → NH3.
green algae it is starch.
NO2– ⎯⎯
→ NO3– is nitrification
Glycogen is stored food in animals and fungi.
NO3– ⎯⎯→ N2 is denitrification.
125. Answer (2)
DNA replication takes place in S phase. 134. Answer (4)
126. Answer (3) Zn is required for synthesis of auxin. N is
constituent of nucleic acid in their bases.
Length of DNA = Distance between two bp ×
number of bp Ca is required for mitotic spindle formation. S is
constituent of biotin.
= 0.34 nm × 4.6 × 106
135. Answer (2)
= 0.34 × 10–9 × 4.6 × 106
Nucellus is mass of parenchymatous cells.
= 1.56 mm
Micropyle is opening in ovule. Chalaza lies
= 1.56 × 10–3 m. opposite to micropyle. Hilum is the point of
127. Answer (3) attachment of ovule to ovary.
Phytoplanktons are producers, large fishes are
top carnivores. Zooplanktons feed on SECTION-B
phytoplanktons. 136. Answer (4)
128. Answer (2) Selaginella is heterosporous pteridophyte.
Ethylene is only gaseous phytohormone. Pteris and Equisetum are homosporous.
ABA and GA are acidic in nature. Marchantia is a liverwort.

129. Answer (1) 137. Answer (3)

Pairing of homologous chromosomes is synapsis

which takes place in zygotene.
Leptotene → Condensation of chromatin
begins.
Pachytene → Crossing over takes place.
138. Answer (2)
Diplotene → Dissolution of synaptonemal
Birth of an individual is not an attribute of a
complex.
population. It is feature of an individual.
130. Answer (1)
Sex ratio, natality and death rate are attributes of
During DNA replication, population.
DNA helicase is responsible for unwinding of 139. Answer (3)
DNA helix.
⚫ Leptotene → Condensation of chromatin
DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA begins
RNA polymerase called primase forms primers ⚫ Zygotene → Synapsis of homologous
DNA ligase joins the okazaki fragments. chromosomes.
131. Answer (2) ⚫ Diplotene → Dissolution of synaptonemal
complex occurs.
A = T → Two Hydrogen bonds
⚫ Diakinesis → Terminalisation of chiasmata
G  C → Three Hydrogen bonds
140. Answer (1)
132. Answer (3)
Mustard has superior ovary. So, it has
Western Ghats have maximum diversity in India.
hypogynous flowers. Plum and peach have
In world, Amazon forests have maximum perigynous flowers. Ray florets of sunflower has
diversity. inferior ovary.
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Pre NEET Mock Test 2021 Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

141. Answer (3) 146. Answer (3)

Root pressure is positive pressure. 9 + 0 is microtubular organisation of basal
bodies.
Transpiration is loss of water in the form of water
The arrangement of microtubules in cilia and
vapour from the surface of leaves.
flagella is ‘9 + 2’.
Imbibition is absorption of H2O without making 147. Answer (4)
any solution. Plasmolysis is loss of water from
Histone and tubulin are synthesized in S and G2
plant cell, when placed in hypertonic solution.
phase respectively.
142. Answer (2) 148. Answer (3)
Cells in G0 phase do not proliferate. Channels transport molecules passively only.
Cells in G0 phase are metabolically active, Pumps transport molecules only actively.
respire and can divide if they are called on to do Carriers transport molecules both actively as well
so. as passively. Na+/K+ pump requires energy for its
function.
143. Answer (2)
149. Answer (4)
Total number of known and described species is
Ovule is also known as megasporangium.
more than 1.5 million according to IUCN (2004).
Female gametophyte is embryo sac which is
144. Answer (2) haploid.
Trichoderma are fungi species. Male gametophyte is pollen grain which is also
haploid.
Bacteria and viruses are also biocontrol agents.
150. Answer (3)
145. Answer (2)
Protein synthesis takes place in cytoplasm as
Photorespiration takes place when concentration machinery is there for translation.
of O2 is high at enzyme site. Calvin cycle takes Replication of DNA, formation of mRNA and
place when concentration of CO2 > O2. splicing of hnRNA takes place in nucleus.

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A eating ancestor bird which was present in South
America.
151. Answer (3)
153. Answer (2)
In the alveoli, where there is high pO2, low
pCO2, lesser H+ concentration and lower (a) Elephantiasis – Genital organs are
temperature, the factors are all favourable affected, chronic
for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin, inflammation of the
whereas in the tissues, where low pO2, lymphatic vessels of
the lower limbs
high pCO2, high H+ concentration and
higher temperature exist, the conditions (b) Ringworms – Appearance of dry,
are favourable for dissociation of oxygen scaly lesions on
from the oxyhaemoglobin. various parts of the
body such as skin,
152. Answer (3)
nails and scalp
Darwin’s finches of Galapagos Islands are
(c) Ascariasis – Internal bleeding,
examples of adaptive radiation, founder effect
muscular pain, fever,
and natural selection.
anemia, blockage of
Darwin finches were small black birds which the intestinal passage
differed mainly in the shape of beaks and feeding
habits. They evolved from the original seed- (d) Common – Nose and respiratory
passage is infected by
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Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock Test 2021

cold Rhino viruses but examples of artificial selection. Homologous

lungs are not infected organs are result of divergent evolution or
adaptive radiation.
154. Answer (3)
159. Answer (1)
Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of Presence of glucose (glycosuria) and ketone
diaphragm which increases the volume of bodies (ketonuria) in urine are indicative of
thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior diabetes mellitus.
axis. The contraction of external inter-costal
Excess micturition due to low secretion of ADH is
muscles lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing
called diabetes insipidus. Renal calculi are
an increase in the volume of the thoracic
mainly formed of calcium oxalate. Tetany is due
chamber in the dorso-ventral axis.
to low calcium in blood plasma.
The overall increase in the thoracic volume 160. Answer (2)
causes a similar increase in pulmonary volume.
An increase in thoracic volume decreases the S. No. Chordates Non-chordates
intra-pulmonary pressure to less than the
1. Notochord present. Notochord
atmospheric pressure which forces the air from
outside to move into the lungs, i.e., inspiration. absent.

155. Answer (4) 2. Central nervous Central nervous

system is dorsal, system is ventral,
• The separated DNA fragments can be hollow and single. solid and double.
visualised only after staining the DNA with
EtBr under UV radiation. 3. Pharynx perforated Gill slits are
by gill slits. absent.
• Absorption range for UV rays is between 210-
280 nm. 4. Heart is ventral. Heart is dorsal (if
present).
• Ethidium bromide is an intercalating agent
that gets stacked in between nitrogenous 5. A post-anal part Post-anal tail is
bases. (tail) is present. absent.

156. Answer (3) 161. Answer (4)

Taenia belongs to phylum Platyhelminthes.
Ctenoplana and Pleurobrachia are ctenophores.
Meandrina is a coelenterate.
162. Answer (3)
Aspartic acid and Glutamic acid are two acidic
amino acids. Tryptophan is an aromatic amino
acid.
157. Answer (2) 163. Answer (2)

Fertilization and development take place in the GIFT and IUI falls under in-vivo fertilization
gut of mosquito. technique. In ICSI, sperm is directly injected
within the ovum.
Asexual reproduction called schizogony occurs in
164. Answer (3)
liver cells and RBCs. Hepatic lobules are the
structural unit of liver. Bacterial STIs :

158. Answer (2) (a) Syphilis : Treponema pallidum

(b) Gonorrhoea : Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Analogy is based on convergent evolution. The
species which are artificially produced and Viral STIs:
selected by humans for desirable benefits are (a) AIDS : Human immunodeficiency virus

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Pre NEET Mock Test 2021 Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

(b) Hepatitis-B : Hepatitis-B virus Hinny : The offspring of a female donkey

(c) Genital herpes : Herpes simplex virus type-II and a male horse.
(d) Genital warts : Human papilloma virus Mule : The offspring of a female horse and
a male donkey.
165. Answer (2)
Hinny : Tigon and mule are examples of
hybrids obtained by interspecific
hybridization.
171. Answer (3)
Each antibody has four peptide chains, two small
called light chains and two longer called heavy
chains.
The primary and secondary immune responses
are carried out with the help of two special types
of lymphocytes present in human blood. i.e., B-
lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes. IgA, IgG, IgM,
166. Answer (3) IgD and IgE are produced in human body.
Karl Ernst von Baer disapproved the 172. Answer (3)
embryological support for evolution given by Restriction endonucleases make cuts at specific
Ernst Haeckel (Biogenetic law). positions within the DNA. They recognize a
167. Answer (2) specific sequences of DNA called palindrome.
Palindrome are group of letters that form the
Origin of replication (ori) is a sequence
same words when read both forward and
from where replication starts and any piece of
backward. Thus, the palindrome in DNA is a
DNA when linked to this sequence can be made
sequence of base pairs that reads same on the
to replicate within the host cells. This sequence is
two strands when orientation of reading is kept
also responsible for controlling the copy number
the same.
of the linked DNA.
173. Answer (1)
rop codes for the protein involved in the
replicaton of the plasmid. Brain is represented by supra-oesophageal
ganglion, which supply nerve fibres to eyes and
168. Answer (3)
antennae.
The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH)
The nervous system of cockroach consists of a
increases gradually during the follicular phase,
series of fused, segmentally arranged ganglia
and stimulates follicular development as well as
joined by paired longitudinal connections on the
secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles.
ventral side. The nervous system is spread
Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the
throughout the body.
middle of cycle (about 14th day). Rapid secretion
of LH leading to its maximum level during the 174. Answer (3)
mid-cycle called LH surge which induces rupture Trypsinogen (inactive) is converted to trypsin
of Graafian follicle and thereby the release of (active) under the action of enterokinase (found
ovum (ovulation). in succus entericus). Trypsin is responsible for
169. Answer (3) conversion of chymotrypsinogen into
chymotrypsin and procarboxypeptidase into
Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in the inner
carboxypeptidase.
lining/surface of hollow organs like bronchioles
and fallopian tubes. Squamous epithelium is 175. Answer (1)
found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs Duodenum is C-shaped. Stomach is J-shaped
of lungs. and opens into duodenum which is guarded by
170. Answer (3) pyloric sphincter. Ileum opens into caecum and
this opening is regulated by ileo-caecal valve
Tigon : The offspring of a female lion and a
176. Answer (1)
male tiger.

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Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock Test 2021

Restriction enzymes can cut the strands of DNA gland

a little away from the centre of the palindrome
sites, but between the same two bases on the (d) Thymus (iii) Located between
opposite strands. This leaves single stranded gland lungs behind sternum
portions at the ends. There are overhanging on the ventral side of
stretches called sticky ends on each strand. aorta
These are named so because they form 181. Answer (2)
hydrogen bonds with their complementary cut
counterparts. This stickiness of the ends ADH or vasopressin facilitates water reabsorption
facilitates the action of the enzyme, DNA ligase. from the latter parts of nephron (DCT and CD),
thereby preventing diuresis.
177. Answer (3)
An increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart
Collagen is the most abundant protein in animal
can cause the release of Atrial Natriuretic
world.
Factor (ANF). ANF can cause vasodilation
Ligases are the enzymes catalysing the linking
(dilation of blood vessels) and thereby
together of two compounds, e.g., enzymes which
decrease the blood pressure. ANF
catalyse the joining of C–O, C – S, C – N, P – O
mechanism, therefore, acts as a check on
etc. bonds.
the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
When the inhibitor closely resembles the
substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits 182. Answer (2)
the activity of the enzyme, it is known as a • The first meiotic division results in the
competitive inhibitor. formation of a haploid secondary oocyte and
Lactose is a disaccharide which is made up of a the first polar body.
galactose and glucose. • The second meiotic division is unequal and
178. Answer (3) results in the formation of a second
The cuboidal epithelium is composed of a polar body and a haploid ovum
single layer of cube-like cells. This is commonly (ootid). The haploid nucleus of the
found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of sperm and that of the ovum fuse
nephrons in kidneys and its main functions are together to form a diploid zygote.
secretion and absorption. The epithelium of
183. Answer (4)
proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of nephron in
the kidney has microvilli. Squamous epithelium is (a) Phylum (iii) Bioluminescence
made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with Ctenophora
irregular boundaries.
(b) Phylum (i) Presence of water
179. Answer (1)
Echinodermata vascular system
Placoid scales are present in class
Chondrichthyes whereas cycloid/ctenoid scales (c) Phylum (ii) Mouth contains a
are present in class Osteichthyes. Tympanum Mollusca file-like rasping
represents ear in amphibians. Cyclostomes are organ for feeding
jawless fishes. (d) Phylum (iv) Jointed
180. Answer (4) Arthropoda appendages
(a) Thyroid (ii) Composed of two 184. Answer (4)
gland lobes which are
located on either side (a) Vertebrosternal (ii) 14 in number
of the trachea ribs

(b) Sternum (i) Flat bone, on the

ventral midline of
(b) Pineal (i) Located on the dorsal thorax
gland side of forebrain
(c) Pectoral girdle (iv) Glenoid cavity
(c) Parathyroid (iv) Present on the back
gland side of the thyroid (d) Pelvic girdle (iii) Acetabulum

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Pre NEET Mock Test 2021 Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions

185. Answer (4) and monocytes (6-8 per cent) are phagocytic
Caffeine, strychnine and nicotine are produced cells which destroy foreign organisms entering
by plants for defence. Glucose, tyrosine and the body. Eosinophils (2-3 per cent) resist
fructose are not secondary metabolites. They are infections and are also associated with
primary metabolites as they have recognised allergic reactions. Lymphocytes (20-25 per
function. cent) are of two major types – ‘B’ and ‘T’
forms.
SECTION-B
186. Answer (2) 192. Answer (2)
Insulin is a protein whereas inulin is a
(a) ELISA (ii) Antigen-antibody
homopolysaccharide. Proteins are polymers of
interaction
amino acids joined together by peptide bonds.
(b) Probe (i) Single stranded DNA or Polysaccharides are polymers of
RNA, tagged with a monosaccharide units linked together by
radioactive molecule glycosidic bonds.

(c) Pest (iv) RNA interference 193. Answer (4)

resistant
plants (a) Sertoli (ii) Provide nutrition to the
cells germ cells
(d) Gene (iii) Functional ADA cDNA
therapy (b) Interstitial (i) Secrete androgens
cells
187. Answer (2)
S.L. Miller produced monomers of proteins (c) Placenta (iii) Structural and functional
(amino acids) by mixing CH4, H2, NH3 and water unit between foetus and
vapour at 800°C in a closed flask. In his electric maternal body
discharge experiment CH3 was not used.
(d) Zona (iv) Acellular layer formed
188. Answer (4) pellucida by secondary oocyte
(a) Thermus (ii) Thermostable DNA
194. Answer (3)
aquaticus polymerase

(b) Polymerase (i) Denaturation, (a) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of inner ear
chain annealing, extension
reaction (b) Scala (i) Ends at the oval
vestibuli window
(c) Plasmid (iv) Cloning vector
(c) Organ of (iv) Located on the basilar
(d) Meloidogyne (iii) Post-transcriptional Corti membrane
incognita silencing
(d) Eustachian (iii) Equalizes the pressure
189. Answer (2)
tube on either sides of the
The proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and ear drum
cryIIAb control the cotton bollworms and that of
cryIAb controls corn borer. 195. Answer (2)
190. Answer (1) RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in whole
Ligases are used to join DNA fragments that of the biosphere whereas collagen is the most
have the same kind of sticky ends. Restriction abundant protein in the animals. Myosin is
endonucleases break phosphodiester bonds. contractile protein in muscles and haemoglobin is
a transporting protein for respiratory gases.
191. Answer (3)
Neutrophils are the most abundant cells (60-65 196. Answer (3)
per cent) of the total WBCs and basophils are the
least (0.5-1 per cent) among them. Neutrophils
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Test-3 (Code-A)_ Hints and Solutions Pre NEET Mock Test 2021

Glucagon stimulates the process of The brain capacities of Homo habilis were
gluconeogenesis which also contributes to between 650-800 cc. They were the first human-
hyperglycemia. Glucagon reduces the cellular like being the hominid. Brain capacity of Homo
glucose uptake and utilization. Thus, glucagon is erectus was about 900cc.
a hyperglycemic hormone.
199. Answer (4)
197. Answer (4) Saheli –the new oral contraceptive for the
A deep cleft divides the cerebrum longitudinally females which contains a non-steroidal
into two halves, which are termed as the left and preparation. It is ‘once a week’ pill with very few
right cerebral hemispheres. The hemispheres are side effects and high contraceptive value. It acts
connected by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus by interfering with implantation.
callosum.
200. Answer (2)
The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists
mainly of four round swellings (lobes) called Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheeps, cows and
corpora quadrigemina. fishes have been produced, although over 95 per
cent of all existing transgenic animals are mice.
198. Answer (1)

❑ ❑ ❑

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