PROSTHODONTICS AND DENTAL MATERIALS

1. In constructing a full gold crown, future recession of the gingival tissue can be most effectively
prevented by:
A. narrowing the food table by one-sixth
B. accurately reproducing the tooth form in the gingival one-fifth
C. slightly overcontouring the tooth form ion the gingival one-fifth
D. extending the margins of the crown 1mm into the gingival crevice.
E. None of the above.

2. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because:
A. it is stronger C. it can be treated as an independent abutment
B. better esthetics can be achieved D. less chair time is required in its fabrication

3. A partially edentulous arch in which there is a unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth
remaining both anterior and posterior to it.
A. Kennedy Class I C. Kennedy Class III
B. Kennedy Class II D. Kennedy Class IV E. Kennedy Class V

4. A partially edentulous arch in which a single edentulous area, located anterior to the remaining
natural teeth crossing the midline.
A. Kennedy Class I C. Kennedy Class III
B. Kennedy Class II D. Kennedy Class IV E. Kennedy Class V

5. When a RPD is completely seated, the retentive terminals of the retentive clasp arms should be:
A. passive and applying no pressure on the teeth.
B. Contacting the abutment teeth only in the suprabulge areas.
C. Resting lightly on the height of contour line on the abutment teeth
D. Applying a definite, positive force on the abutment teeth in order to prevent dislodgement of
the RPD
E. None of the above.

6. Indirect retention is designed to:

A. stabilize tooth-borne RPDs
B. engage an undercut area of an abutment tooth
C. help resist tissueward movement of an extension base partial denture
D. help resist dislodgement of an extension base partial denture in an occlusal
direction.
E. None of the above.

7. The most frequent cause of tissue soreness along the mucobuccal area of a RPD is:
A. use of anatomic teeth D. extension of the denture border
B. a centric prematurity E. lack of rigidity of the major connector
C. heavy balancing contact

8. Stability of RPDs is best insured by:

A. using flat plane teeth D. incorporating harmonious occlusion
B. incorporating adequate bracing areas E. depending upon clasping and indirect retention
C. none of the above.

9. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:

A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion
E. none of the above

10. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

A. from the tissues only
B. mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth
C. mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues
D. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues

11. Arrange the following steps for clinical trial insertion and adjustment of a FPD.
I. Check margins
II. Check centric contacts
III. Adjust functional contacts
IV. Adjust proximal contacts and pontic tips.
A. I, II, III, IV B. I, IV, II, III C. II, I, III, IV D. IV, I, II, III
12. An anterior FPD is contraindicated when:
A. abutment teeth are noncarious
B. an abutment tooth is inclined 15 degree but is otherwise sound
C. there is considerable resoprtion of the residual ridge
D. crowns of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession
E. none of the above.

13. A broken-stress or nonrigid FPD is indicated when:

A. constructing a mandibular FPD only
B. two or three missing teeth are to be replaced
C. retainers cannot be prepared to draw together without excessive tooth reduction
D. fixed splinting involves tow or three abutment teeth
E. retainers can be designed to have equal retentive qualities.

14. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
A. failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
B. lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
C. lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts
D. lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci and sharp marginal ridges.
E. None of the above.

15. When preparing a partial veneer crown on a maxillary incisor, proximal grooves should be parallel
to the:
A. long axis of the tooth C. incisal two-thirds of the facial surface
B. gingival two-thirds of the facial surface D. none of the choices

16. Two of the most common causes of clicking in complete dentures are:
A. reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion
B. excessive vertical dimension and poor denture retention
C. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap
D. improper relation of teeth to the residual ridge and excessive anterior vertical overlap

17. The area of the buccal frenum of a complete mandibular denture must be thinned to allow for
contraction of which of the following muscles?
A. Caninus B. masseter C. Zygomaticus D. Triangularis

18. The incisal guidance on the articulator is the:

A. horizontal guidance
B. same as the condylar guidance
C. mechanical equivalent of the compensating curve
D. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlaps.
E. None of the above.

19. The side shift (Bennet) movement exerts its greatest influence in:
A. lateral movements C. protrusive movements
B. retrusive movements D. opening and closing movements

20. Support for a complete maxillary denture is ultimately derived from which of the following pairs of
bones?
I. Maxillary III. Palatine
II. Mandibular IV. Coronoid V. Temporal
A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. I & V E. II & III

21. When establishing the plane of orientation, the occlusal portion of the maxillary occlusal rim is
parallel to the:
I. Fox plane III. Frankfort plane
II. Camper’s line IV. Interpupillary line V. Horizontal condylar inclination
A. I & III B. I & IV C. I & V D. II & IV E. III & IV

22. In complete dentures, the path of the condyle during free mandibular movements is governed
primarily by the:
A. height of the cusps of the posterior teeth
B. amount of horizontal and vertical overlap
C. vertical dimension, centric relation and degree of the compensating curve
D. shape of the fossa and meniscus and the muscular influence.
E. None of the above.
23. The distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is dictated by:
A. tuberosity C. maxillary tori
B. fovea palatine D. vibrating line E. posterior palatal seal

24. When constructing complete dentures, the most effective time to test for phonetics is:
A. when maxillary anterior teeth have been set
B. when occlusion rims are attached to bases
C. when the vertical dimension is determined
D. when finished dentures are inserted
E. at the time of the wax try-in of the trial denture.

25. In developing balanced occlusion of complete denture during tooth arrangement, a steep condylar
path associated with a low degree of incisal guidance requires that the compensating curve be:
A. flat B. prominent C. shallow D. reverse

26. Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete denture too far superiorly and anteriorly might
result in difficulty in pronouncing:
A. ”f” and “v” sounds C. “s” and “th” sounds
B. “d” and “t” sounds D. most vowels E. none of these

27. The greatest potential for wear exists between:

A. tooth and gold C. porcelain and tooth
B. tooth and tooth D. porcelain and porcelain E. all of the choices

28. For the maxillary arch, if an anterior-posterior major connector design is to be considered, the
opening between the anterior strap and posterior palatal bar/strap should be at least _____mm.
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

29. For maxillary major connectors, except where plating is used, the border of major connector
should be at least _______mm away from the gingival margin. a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

30. For the anterior-posterior palatal strap maxillary major connector, the anterior, posterior, and
lateral straps should be about _____mm wide. a) 4-6 b) 6-8 c) 8-10 d) at least 10

31. The basic philosophy of dental treatment for partially edentulous patient is to : A. Preserve
what remains and restore what is missing B. Replace the missing teeth C.
Improve the path of insertion D. Reshape rotated teeth

32. The function of the guide plate or proximal plate is to : A. Help establish a definite path of
insertion/dislodgment B. Stabilize the RPD by controlling it’s horizontal position C. Provide
contact with adjacent tooth D. all of the above

33. What would be the best denture base connector when there is limited interocclussal space (<3mm)
A. Open latticework B. meshwork C. all metal base D. all plastic base

34. Reciprocation between bracing and retentive components requires: A. I-bar be used B.
Bracing components contact after retentive components C. Correct timing of contact during
seating and removal of RPD D. Both b and c

35. Infrabulge clasps originate: A. Above the height of the contour B. Below the height of
contour C. Above the 0.01 inch undercut D. Above the occlusal surface of most
premolars

36. All of the following clasps are infrabulge clasps except:

A. I- bar B. modified T-bar C. roach clasp D. Akers’ clasp

37. A clasp assembly should : A. have a retentive arm with adequate length and taper for flexibility
B. have a retentive arm that terminates in an undercut C. have elements that, when
considered together, will provide 180 degree encirclement D. all of the above

38. In a class III modification 1 RPD ,the rests are usually placed: A. on the canines B. away
from the modification space C. in the area of the opposing occlusal contact D. adjacent to
the modification space
39. The presence of mandibular lingual tori would indicate the need for : A. a metal base B.
lingual plating C. tube teeth D. extra indirect relation

40. Rigid metal retention is associated with : A. a dual path of insertion B. a class IV RPD
C. the need for excellent esthetics D. all of the above

41. In maxillary RPDs, the bead line is approximately______mm thick (deep) A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1

42. The most important point to observe in making hydrocolloid impression for a removable partial
denture is to: A. position the patient upright to prevent gagging B. maintain uniform pressure on
the tray in the premolar area C. allow ample time for gelation before muscle molding the bores

D. select a tray large enough to provide adequate thickness of hydrocolloid to avoid tearing
of areas of severe undercut E. use a straight, steady pull on removal from the mouth, thus
following the long axis of those teeth having the greatest undercut

43. For a mandibular denture impression, action of which of the following muscles determines the form
of the lingual flange in the molar region: A. mylohyoid B. geniohyoid C. lateral pterygoid D.
superior pharyngeal constrictor E. medial pterygoid

44. A 25 year old patient with one missing maxillary central incisor, extreme labioversion of the
remaining maxillary incisor, and history of having worn a flipper (all acrylic) type removable
appliance for ten years. There are no other missing teeth. A Class 1 interarch relationship exists.
Which of the following is indicated to achieve OPTIMUM esthetics and function? A. Extract the
malposed central incisor and place a removable appliance B. Extract the malposed central incisor
and place a fixed partial denture C. reduce the facial aspect of the remaining central incisor
maximally and place a fixed partial denture D. Orthodontically reposition the remaining central
incisor and place a fixed partial denture E. none of the above

45. Maxillary and mandibular removable partial denture frameworks have been independently
adjusted for occlusion to allow natural teeth [Link] both frameworks seated, it is noted that
the natural teeth are not in contact. The premature contact exist between: A. the
mandibular framework and the natural upper teeth B. opposing framework C. natural teeth
and pontics D. the maxillary framework and the natural lower teeth

46. In constructing single complete dentures opposed by natural or predominantly natural dentition: A.
a totally different procedure is followed in construction B. procedures are simpler since you
are dictated by one set of natural dentition C. less problems are expected to be encountered D.
more careful planning of both natural and the denture’s occlusal surfaces is required

47. The most reliable method of recording centric occlusion when constructing a mandibular bilateral
distal extension partial denture occluding with natural teeth is to construct a stabilized occlusion
rim: A. for the mandibular master casts and record the relationship with baseplate wax B.
for the mandibular master cast and record the relationship with utility wax C. for the mandibular
master cast and record the relationship with zinc oxide-eugenol registration pasteD. attached to
the finished partial denture frame and record the relationship with zinc oxide-registration
paste

48. Seventy-two hours after inserting a relined distal extension partial prosthesis, vertical movement of
the base is noted. Cause would LIKELY be: I. Ridge tissue changes occurring since the reline
impression II. Failure to properly orient the metal framework to the contacted teeth during reline
impression procedures III. Premature occlusal contacts:
A. I only B. I and III C. II and III D. III only E. all of these.

49. Tissue trauma due to an RPD can be caused by the following except:
A. sharp denture borders C. posterior palatal seal too shallow
B. over-extension on highly mobile soft palate D. over extended denture bases

50. The following are done to remedy an RPD which “snaps” during insertion EXCEPT
A. polishing the internal surface of the clasps
B. shorten the end of the direct retainer
C. grind the abutment tooth in the area of the clasp contact
D. adjust clasp with clasp-bending pliers
51. The lifting of a mandibular partial denture with distal extension bases may be corrected by:
A. narrowing the teeth B. correcting occlusion C. tightening the bracing arms
D. tightening the retention arms E. reducing overextended borders

52. Radiographs are aid to determining prognosis because reaction of the bone that supports the
abutment teeth can be judged by the
A. shape of the roots of the abutment tooth
B. amount of bone loss due to extractions
C. reaction of the bone to previously induced stress
D. all of the above
E. none of the above

53. Which one of the following classes of RPDs NEVER has an axis of rotation?
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

54. Mounted diagnostic casts in partial denture treatment planning is ESSENTIAL for selecting
I, Type of denture base
II, Areas for support
III. Areas for retention
IV. Type of supplied teeth
V. Major connector
A. I, II, III B. II, IV C. I, II, IV D. II, IV, V E. I, II

55. In using occlusal indicator wax to identify occlusal discrepancies between a removable partial
denture and the natural dentition, it is best to
A. insert the wax bilaterally
B. use the double thickness wax
C. insert the wax alternately between the right and left sides
D. introduce the wax into specific areas of the mouth where suspected deflective occlusal
contacts exists
E. none of the above

56. When making a removable partial denture, a definitive evaluation of existing occlusal disharmonies
should be made
A. during the screening examination C. after mounting diagnostic casts
B. before making preliminary impression D. after removing caries and placing restorations

57. Increased bulk in the major connector is necessary if the:

I. major connector is shorter than usual
II. major connector is longer than usual
III framework is made of gold
IV framework is to be made of cobalt-chrome
A. IV B II C. II and III D. III

58. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load
B. improve embrasure contours
C. stabilize the abutment teeth
D. improve mesiodistal spacing

59. When establishing balanced occlusion, lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the balancing
side should contact which of the following?
A. Central fossa of mandibular posterior teeth.
B. Lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular posterior teeth.
C. Lingual inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth.
D. Facial inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth.

60. Which of the following is defined as “the vertical distance between the occlusal surfaces of the
upper and lower teeth when the mandible is in its physiologic rest position”?
A. vertical dimension C. vertical dimension of rest
B. vertical dimension of occlusion D. interocclusal distance (freeway space)

61. The following amount of forward slide from centric relation to centric occlusion can be regarded as
normal in the absence of any periodontal pathology or mobile teeth:
A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm. E. None of tghese.
62. The incisal edge of the three-quarter crown retainer on the cuspid tooth is: A. about 45
degrees to long axis of tooth. B.. 60 degrees to long axis of tooth. C. . 30 degrees to long
axis of tooth D. . 15 degrees to long axis of tooth E. none of the above.

63. The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown preparation is that;
A. it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be supragingival
B. Its position be subgingivall D. its position be easily discernible

64. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a FPD?
A. Tooth with pulpal involvement
B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure
C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown

65. In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and other readily oxidized minor
components of the alloy is to;
A. Improve bonding
B. Decrease porosity
C. React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask the metal
D. Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and the porcelain

66. The buccal three-quarter crown is a variation of the standard three-quarter crown and is used on
the:
A. maxillary molars C. maxillary cuspids
B. mandibular bicuspids D. mandibular molars E. None of these.

67. The gold-veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated D. a mesial half crown is indicated.
B. a complete crown is indicated E. none of these.
C. a buccal three-quarter crown is indicated

68. When a rigid connector is used in a FPD, the path of insertion of the key to the keyway should be
parallel to:
A. the path of insertion of the retainer carrying the keyway
B. the path of insertion of the retainer not involved with the keyway
C. the paths of insertion of both retainers
D. none of the above.

69. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the young patient
the depth is:
A. more than 1.0mm C. more than 5.0mm
B. shallow D. more than 2.0mm E. none of these.

70. The periodontium remains heathlier when crown margins are placed:
A. at the gingival crest C. about ½ mm apical to the gingival rest
B. above the gingival crest D. about 1mm apical to the gingival crest

71. A porcelain jacket crown will fracture when:

A. used in an end-to-end occlusion
B. fabricated for a mandibular incisor
C. allowed to contact the opposing teeth in centric occlusion
D. subjected to tensile forces by the opposing teeth
E. subjected to compressive forces by the opposing teeth

72. The nonrigid connector maybe used in the construction of a FPD only when the span is:
A. short and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced.
B. Short and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced.
C. Long and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced.
D. Long and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced.
E. None of the above.

73. Trauma to the pulp following tooth preparation for fixed bridges arises from the following cause/s:
A. Use of spray water.
B. Severing vital structures in dentin and an increase in temperature from frictional heat.
C. Coolant evacuation.
D. Anesthesia.
 E. None of the above.

74. Following cementation, the bridge should be examined :

A. after 3 days. C. after 7 to 10 days.
B. after 14 days D. after 30 days E. none of these.

75. Intraradicular retainers is/are used on:

A. vital teeth
B. any tooth where a complete crown is indicated.
C. nonvital teeth when the coronal tissues cannot be saved.
D. any tooth where a three-quarter crown is indicated.
E. none of the above.

76. The complete seating of a FPD requires evaluation of the following:

1. contact areas 3. centric occlusion
2. marginal finish line 4. functional occlusion and stability
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. 1 only

77. Dental plaster is: A. alpha hemihydrate B. calcium sulfate dehydrate C. beta hemihydrate
D. orthorhombic hydrate E. none of the above.

78. Big Gilmore needle measures: A. final setting time B. initial setting time C. hardness
D. preliminary setting time E. all of the above.

79. One of the following is not included in the group : A. diatomaceous earth B. potassium alginate
C. potassium sulfate D. potassium titanium fluoride E. calcium chloride.

80. The common accelerator which decreases setting time of dental plaster is: A boroglycerin
B. potassium sulfate C. calcium chloride D. sodium chloride E. primary alcohol.

81. The filler which increases the strength of the impression compound: A. rosin B. beeswax
C. palmitic acid D. borax E. French chalk.

82. Zinc oxide eugenol paste hardens by: A. chemical reaction B. physical change
C. thermoplastic means D. all of the above E. none of the above.

83. Another name for Type IV dental stone is: A. hydrocal B. densite C. improved stone D. B & C
E. A & C.

84. The following are factors affecting setting time of dental plaster under the control of the dentist
except: A. water powder ratio B. mixing C. particle size D. temperature E. addition of chemical
modifiers.

85. One of the following is not included in the group: A. malleability B. brittleness C. hardness
D. ductility E. elastic limit.

86. BIS-GMA is referred to : A. dental cement B. composite resin C. acrylic resin D. calcium
hydroxide E. agar.

87. The best method to control the setting time of zinc oxide eugenol: A. temperature of the mixing
slab B. ratio of base to catalyst C. mixing D. addition of accelerator E. addition of retarder.

88. The best pickling agent: A. sulfuric acid B. nitric acid C. hydrochloric acid D. carbolic acid
E. none of the above.

89. The lag between liquefaction and gelation temperature: A. syneresis B. hysteresis C. histerisis
D. osmosis E. isis.

90. One of the following acts as scavenger: A. silver B. tin C. copper D. zinc E. all of the above.

91. The process of condensing gold into the prepared cavity is: A. plugging B. condensation
C. contraction D. compaction E. none of the above.

92. To render impression plaster soluble in warm water : A. dental plaster B. potato C. tomato
starch D. oil starch E. all of the above

93. Liquifaction temperature is higher than gelation temperature. A. true B. false.

 94. One that minimizes caries formation: A. carbon B. fluoride C. zinc D. magnesium E. cobalt.

95. The essential component of reversible hydrocolloid by weight: A. agar B. lemon C. water
D. borax E. potassium .

96. The standard size of gold foil: A. 4 inches B. 4 sq m. C. 4 inches sq D. 4 inches cm. E. 24
inches sq.

97. Composite resin is insoluble to oral fluids. A. true B. false.

98. The property which can be beneficial and a source of error : A. elastic limit B. flexibility
C. flow D. stress E. strain

99. The process of heating gold is: A. compaction B. degassing C. annealing D. percolation
E. oxidation.

100. The final polishing of amalgam is after : A. 12 B. 24 C. 36 D. 48 E. 72 hours.

1. An advantage of a wide, thin palatal bar compared with a narrow bar is that the wide bar:
A. is more stable C. can be rigid with less bulk
B. is easier to polish D. is less irritating to the soft tissue

2. When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in centric relation, but does not contact in one or more
of the eccentric movements, grinding should be performed on:
A. both the cusp and the opposing area C. the opposing fossa or the marginal ridge
B. the cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact D. the opposing areas in eccentric positions.

3. Proper lip support for a patient with complete dentures is provided primarily by the;
A. convex surface of the labial flange D.. rounded contours of interdental
papillae
B. proper pronouncement of sibilant sounds E. thickness of the border in the
vestibule
C .facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated attached gingiva.

4. In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base, which of the following is on the
posterior border?
A. Hamular notch C. fovea palatini
B. Hamular process D. vibrating line E. pterygomandibular raphe

5. Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture?

A. Xerostomia D. Air chamber in midpalate
B. Foreshortened denture bases E. Increased salivary film thickness
C. Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa

6. Which of the following design characteristics of a partial denture is most important to oral health?
A. Bracing B. support C. stability D. retention

7. The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of porcelain is the;

A. fusion temperature C. uniformity of particle size
B. ratio of flux to feldspar D. thoroughness of condensation

8. An abutment tooth exhibiting an unfavorable survey line should;

A. be restored C. have unfavorable contours improved
B. be by-passed in the framework design D. receive only a rest and not be clasped

9. To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge should be so

formed that it;
A. extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
B. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
C. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
D. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area
10. Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not sweets
occurs. The most likely cause is;
A. gingival recession D. unseating of the bridge
B. deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
C. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth

11. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap

12. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve embrasure contours
B. stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing

13. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to correct the
centric occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this dentist do?
A. Make a new centric relation record and remount
B. Make a new face bow and centric record
C. Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
D. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

14. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
A. Lingually inclined maxillary molars
B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
C. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
D. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

15. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of
the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this
pontic?
A. The length of the pontic.
B. The masticatory force of the patient.
C. The position of the opposing contact areas.
D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

16. The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is;

A. moisture contamination C. excessive condensation of the porcelain
B. excessive firing D. inadequate condensation of the porcelain

17. On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

A. horizontal guidance C. mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee
B. same as the condylar guidance D. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical
overlap.

18. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because;
A. it is stronger C. better esthetics can be achieved
B. it can be treated as an independent abutment D. less chair time is required in its
fabrication

19. The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown preparation is that;
A. it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be supragingival
B. Its position be subgingivall D. its position be easily discernible

20. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a FPD?
A. Tooth with pulpal involvement
B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure
C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown
21. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred over a lingual
bar connector?
A. When more rigidity is required.
B. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
C. When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
D. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.

22. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over the ascending
area of the mandible?
A. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
B. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
C. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle.
E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture.

23. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
A. unseating of the denture C. greater retention
B. a tingling sensation D. increased gagging

24. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the
non-working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
A. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
B. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central fossae

25. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the
vermillion border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to correct the
situation?
A. Moving the anterior teeth facially. C. Increasing the interocclusal distance
B. Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension D. Increasing the occlusal vertical
dimension

26. In a complete maxillary denture, accurate adaptation of the border of the maxillary facial flange
affects which of the following the most?
A. Speech B. support C. stability D. esthetics

27. The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should receive special attention. Which of
the following anatomical structures might cause soreness if the denture is overextended?
A. Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe
B. Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral tendon of the temporal

28. A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-extension partial
denture. The recommended procedure is to
A. make impression of both simultaneously
B. start first on the maxillary complete denture
C. start first with the least stable prosthesis
D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

29. Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount of adjustment of a base metal
removable clasp arm?
A. Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D. tensile strength

30. A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-extension partial
denture. The recommended procedure is to
A. make impression of both simultaneously
B. start first on the maxillary complete denture
C. start first with the least stable prosthesis
D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

31. The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the:
A. junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
 B. junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown
C. level of the free gingival margin
D. occlusal one third of the clinical crown

32. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
A. “s” sounds C. “t” and “th” sounds
B. “f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds

33. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the remaining
supporting tissues?
A. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
B. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

34. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is:
A. increased rigidity C. increased durability
B. increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface

35. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

A. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
B. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
C. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
D. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture.

36. A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned repeatedly for
adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
A. An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
B. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
C. The loss of even centric relation contacts.
D. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.

37. The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure hinging movements is possible is:
A. centric occlusion C. postural position of the mandible (rest vertical dimension)
B. retruded contact position D. transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position)

38. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing point are in
contact and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
A. interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
B. vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension E. occlusal vertical dimension

39. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial denture?
Plastic teeth are:
A. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
B. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin

40. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine needs an
immediate maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient is best
treated by:
A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
B. reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
C. reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut
D. leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.

41. Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the most esthetic?
A. A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attachment
B. A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-wire clasp

42. Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to mount a patient’s casts on the true
hinge axis?
A. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
 B. When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures.
C. When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension through restorations.
D. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-cusped teeth on a fully adjusted
articulator.

43. In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regulate/s the paths of the condyles in
mandibular movements?
A. the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
B. The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap.
C. The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and muscular influence.
D. The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of compensating curve.

44. Which of the following best explains why the dentist should provide a postpalatal seal in a complete
maxillary denture? The seal will compensate for:
A. errors in fabrication C. polymerization and cooling shrinkage
B. tissue displacement D. deformation of the impression material

45. For complete dentures, which of the following three factors affect the correct positioning of lips?
A. Face-bow transfer, position of teeth, and correct rest vertical dimension.
B. Face-bow transfer, thickness of the anterior border, and correct occlusal vertical dimension.
C. Correct rest vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and position of teeth.
D. Correct occlusal vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and position of
teeth.

46. In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and other readily oxidized minor
components of the alloy is to;
A. Improve bonding
B. Decrease porosity
C. React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask the metal
D. Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and the porcelain

47. Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when

A. air fired C. tempered after firing
B. under compression D. fired several times before completion

48. The phenomenon where porcelain aapears different under varying light conditions is;
A. metamerism C. transmittance
B. translucency D. opacification E. refractive optics

49. Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on short molars can be enhanced by;
A. using zinc phosphate cement C. placing several vertical groove
B. using a full shoulder finish line D. minimizing the depth of occlusal carving

50. The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an occlusion rim by paralleling the rim with the;
A. ala-tragus plane C. tragus-canthus plane
B. ala-canthus plane D. ala-external auditory meatus plane

51. Which of the following jaw-relation records should be used for setting both the medial and superior
condylar guides on an arcon articulator?
A. Intercuspation C. lateral interocclusal records
B. Centric relation D. protrusive interocclusal records

52. An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a patient to overclose and to have a poor facial
profile. To correct this problem, the dentist should do which of the following?
A. increase the rest vertical dimension and increase the interocclusal distance
B. decrease the rest vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal distance
C. decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and increase interocclusal distance
 D. increase the occlusal vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal distance

53. Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if occlusal vertical dimension is increased?
A. The closing muscles may become strained
B. The opening muscles may become strained
C. The closing muscles may become too relaxed
D. Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth.

54. A patient has a chronically tender, knife-edge mandibular residual ridge. In fabricating a complete
denture for this patient, a dentist should consider which of the following?
A. Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute forces of occlusion over a greater area.
B. Minimal extension of the denture- to limit tenderness to a smaller area.
C. Decreased occlusal vertical dimension- to decrease biting forces
D. A broad occlusal table- to provide a firmer contact in eccentric jar relations.

55. Tripod marks are placed on the cast after surveying for which of the following reasons?
A. To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth.
B. To help mount the cast on the articulator
C. To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator
D. To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor.

56. In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what direction?

A. Out, back and up C. down, forward and medially
B. Up, back and down D. down, forward and laterally E. none of the above.

57. The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a complete denture that has been worn for
a long time is:
A. epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
B. pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma

58. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in a horizontal
direction is:
A. support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability

59. Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best avoided by:
A. Using stressbreakers D. using intracoronal attachments
B. Using bar-type clasps E. altering tooth contours
C. clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and normal bone support

60. Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is due primarily to:

A. occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal conditioner
B. improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed framework

61. A patient who wears complete denture is having trouble pronouncing the letter “t”. This is probably
caused by:
A. too thick a palatal seal area
B. too thick a base in the mandibular denture
C. incorrect positioning of maxillary incisors
D. improper positioning of mandibular incisors

62. The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a complete denture is limited by the
action of the:
A. stylohyoid muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle
B. medial pterygoid muscle D. superior constrictor muscle

63. In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to:

A. aid in balancing occlusion
B. assure predictable clasp retention
 C. from right angles to the occlusal plane
D. eliminate the necessity for precision attachments
E. eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp

64. When the path of dislodgement is not controlled and rotational dislodgement of extension bases
occurs, remotely located vertical metal stops placed in prepared seats can be used to enhance the
effectiveness of retentive clasps. The vertical metal stops are:
A. indirect claps C. indirect retainers
B. remote retainer D. forward retainers E. passive retainers

65. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in

A. poor denture retention C. increased interocclusal distance
B. drooping of the corners of the mouth E. creases and wrinkles around the lip
C. trauma to underlying supporting tissues

66. Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete denture with severe bilateral tuberosity
undercuts is to:
A. remove both tuberosity undercuts C. reduce the tissue bilaterally
B. reduce the tissue on one side , if possible D. none of the above. No treatment is
necessary.

67. Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs;

A. on closing from centric relation C. on initial opening from centric relation
B. in the upper compartment of the TMJ D. in the lower compartment of the TMJ

68. When the posterior maxillary buccal space is entirely filled with the denture flange, interference
may occur with movement of the;
A. masseter muscle B. coronoid process C. condyloid process D. zygomatic process

69. A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal extension RPD. This is probably
caused by:
A. deflective occlusal contacts C. thin flanges on acrylic bases
B. passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth D. insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth

70. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the distance between occluding surfaces of
maxillary and mandibular teeth or occlusion rim is;
A. centric occlusion C. interocclusal distance
B. vertical dimension D. vertical dimension of rest

71. The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount of;
A. silica B. carbon C. gypsum D. alumina

72. The property that most closely describes the ability of a cast gold inlay to be burnished is;
A. elastic limit C. percentage elongation
B. ultimate strength D. modulus of resilience E. modulus of elasticity

73. Creep of a metal indicates that the metal;

A. lacks edge strength D. has insufficient retention
B. has excessive flexibility E. will deform under static load
C. has insufficient crushing strength

74. The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of the retainer in
function is called;
A. tripoding B. reciprocation C. stress-breaking D. indirect retention

75. The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence in;

A. lateral movements C. opening movements
B. protrusive movements D. closing movements

76. The face-bow is used to record;

 A. centric relation C. relation of the mandible to the maxilla
B. relation of the maxilla to the TMJ D. relation of the mandible to the TMJ

77. The function of the compensating curve is;

A. to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible is
protruded.
B. To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
C. The same as the function of the curve of Spee
D. None of the above.

78. The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular complete denture is the;
A. labial border B. buccal border C. distolingual border D. anterior lingual
border

79. Which of the following describes a material with high compressive strength but low tensile
strength?
A. Tough B. brittle C. ductile D. malleable E. resilient

80. Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and, therefore, the most difficult to
remove from the mouth?
A. Polyether C. Addition silicone
B. Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible hydrocolloid

81. Which of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol materials, except:
A. They provide an excellent marginal seal.
B. They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
C. They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin
D. They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.

82. Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging them into an
acid bath. This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restoration
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness of the restoration

83. Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a base-metal alloy in numerical value?
A. Hardness C. casting shrinkage
B. Specific gravity D. fusion temperature E. modulus elasticity

84. Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a condensation impression material as soon as
possible?
A. The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is initially high and then decreases
with time.
B. Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of the set material.
C. If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expands as they absorb water from air.
D. Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer of the impression tray and cause
distortion.

85. A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in:
A. holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
B. a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed
C. an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during polymerization
D. an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the mouth

86. The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on the surface of a dental amalgam
restoration is most likely;
A. mercury B. a sulfide C. gamma-2 D. copper oxide
87. Which of the following is a problem with the polyether impression materials?
A. Low modulus of elasticity
B. Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
C. dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
D. consistency very similar to the reversible hydrocolloid

88. The component common to most composite resins, sealants, bonding and glazing agents, and resin
cements for orthodontic bonds is;
A. inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
B. benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate

89. Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

A. Shear B. impact C. tension D. compression

90. When compared to other materials, which of the following is the main disadvantage of using
polyether elastomeric impression materials?
A. Tear easily C. are much stiffer
B. Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate E. have longer working time

91. An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is that
polysulfide impression material;
A. will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamentarium
B. is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is
present.

92. In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is:
A. silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. ChromiumE. Tungsten

93. Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type IV) powder primarily in;
A. Density C. crystal structure
B. Chemical formula D. solubility in water

94. Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc phosphate cement?
A. Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
B. Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility

95. Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire indicates that it has been;
A. cold worked C. stress relief annealed
B. recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment

96. Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;

A. degree of translucency C. degree of saturation of the hue
B. combined effect of hue and value D. all of the above

97. Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid restoration for frameworks of the
same dimension?
A. Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
B. Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the hardened condition

98. Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a
function of the ;
A. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C. percent composition by weight of
water
B. concentration of potassium sulfate D. temperature

99. Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible after fabrication in order to minimize
changes in shape caused by;
 A. Drying of the wax C. volatilization of wax components
B. Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of the wax
E. relaxation of internal stresses

100. Which of the following properties of dental materials is time-dependent?

A. Creep C. elastic limit
B. Resilience D. ultimate strength E. compressive strength

1. A FPD is indicated to replace maxillary first and second premolars. The abutment teeth, which are in
normal alignment, are the canine and the first molar. The connectors of choices are: A. precision
attachment on both the canine and the molars
B. a soldered joint on the canine and a nonprecision dovetail keyway on the molar
C. a soldered joint on the molar with a subocclusal rest on the canine
D. soldered joints on both canine and the molar.

2. When a nonrigid connector is used in a FPD, the path of insertion of the key into the keyway should be
parallel to: A. the path of insertion of the retainer carrying the keyway
B. the path of insertion of the retainer not involved with the keyway
C. the paths of insertion of both retainers
D. none of the above.

3. Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on short molars can be achieved by: A.
using a zinc phosphate cement D. placing several vertical grooves
B. using a full shoulder finish line E. minimizing the depth of occlusal carving.

4. Which of the following are important when evaluating abutments for FPD?
I. crown-root ratio II. Root configuration III. Periodontal surface area
A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I only E. I, II & III

5. A low sag factor in a metal-ceramic FPD can cause:

I. flow of metal under functional leads II. high abrasion resistance
III. less deformation of bridge spans when fired IV. poor metal-ceramic bond strength
V. contamination of porcelain
A. I & II B. II & III C. III only D. IV & V E. all of the choices

6. Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not sweets occurs.
The most likely cause is;
A. gingival recession B. unseating of the bridge C. deflective occlusal contact
D. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
E. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth

7. To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge should be so formed
that it;
[Link] to the buccal margin of the retainer
B. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
C. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
D. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area
E. none of the above

8. Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is due primarily to:

A. occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal conditioner
B. improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed framework

9. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of the
following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this pontic?
A. The length of the pontic. . B. The position of the opposing contact areas.
C. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.
D. The masticatory force of the patient

10. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap

11. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load B. improve embrasure contours
C. stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing

12. Arrange the following steps for clinical trial insertion and adjustment of a FPD.
I. Check margins II. Check centric contacts
III. Adjust functional contacts IV. Adjust proximal contacts and pontic tips.
A. I, II, III, IV B. I, IV, II, III C. II, I, III, IV D. IV, I, II, III

13. When a rigid connector is used in a FPD, the path of insertion of the key to the keyway should be
parallel to:
A. the path of insertion of the retainer carrying the keyway
B. the path of insertion of the retainer not involved with the keyway
C. the paths of insertion of both retainers D. none of the above.

14. Which of the following are important when evaluating abutments for fixed prostheses?
I. crown-root ration II. Root configuration
III. Periodontal surface area
A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I, II & III

15. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout the mouth
only when major and minor connectors are:
A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane E. none of these.

16. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion

17. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

A. from the tissues only
B. mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth
C. mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues
D. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues

18. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions can best be avoided
A. using stressbreakers
B. employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
C. maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions
D. clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
E. maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension

19. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout the mouth
only when major and minor connectors are:
A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane

20. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion

21. Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on the inner aspects of which teeth?
A. facial cusps of mandibular molars B. facial cusps of maxillary premolars
C. lingual cusps of mandibular molars D. facial cusps of maxillary molars

22. A semi-rigid connector is used:

A. because of difficulty in soldering
B. if a rigid connector interferes with the physiologic movement of abutment teeth and does not
transmit torsional stresses
C. where parallelism exists in the abutment teeth
D. where long spans are present

23. A semi-rigid connector:

A. is always located in the distal surface of the anterior retainer
B. in the mesial surface of the anterior retainer
C. in the strongest abutment tooth D. in long spans

24. Porcelain should be the material of choice :

A. when a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons
B. when the material is to be used without the support of metal
C. for other than for veneer purposes
D. since extensive inflammatory changes occur in adjacent soft tissue

25. The retentive clasp, as it flexes over the highest convexity of abutment exerts some horizontal force,
which can be neutralized with this attribute of the RPD:
A. passivity B. encirclement C. neutral zone D. reciprocation E. retention.

26. The retruded contact position is what type of position?

A. “tooth-guided” B. “ligament-guided” C. “muscle-guided”

27. An edentulous patient has slight undercuts in both tuberosities and also in the facial of the anterior
maxilla. To construct a satisfactory maxillary complete denture, you should reduce which of the following?
A. All undercuts C. Both tuberosity undercuts
B. The anterior undercut only D. None of them.

28. Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a patient, which of the following must be
determined?
A. Location of the hinge axis point. C. Vertical dimension of occlusion.
B. The inclination of each condyle. D. Centric relation.

29. Delineates the height of contour:

A. undercut gauge B. analyzing rod C. mandrel
D. wax trimmer E. carbon marker and sheath.

30. In circumferential clasps, these should be on the same level to dissipate stress as flexible tip passes
over tooth’s greatest convexity:
A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal arm

31. Prevents vertical dislodgement of RPD:

A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal arm

32 The terminal third of the retentive arm is:

A. rigid B. semi-rigid C. flexible

33. Posterior border of denture clearance from the fovea palatina / vibrating line:
A. 2mm B. 4mm C. 6mm D. 8mm E. 10mm.

34. Low survey line that allows placement of the retentive terminus of a clasp arm on the
A. gingival one-third of the abutment tooth indicates that:
B. the angle of cervical convergence is small.
C. the angle of cervical convergence is large
D. the abutment tooth must be recontoured
a bar clasp is the clasp design of choice

35. A refitting procedure consisting of resurfacing the tissue side of the denture with new base material is
referred to as:
A. reline B. rebase C. reconstruction D. all of the choices

36. The flexibility of a retentive arm of clasp depends on which of the following?
1. length of the clasp 4. cross-sectional form
2. thickness of the clasp 5. taper of the clasp
3. width of the clasp 6. clasp material
A. 1,2,3,5,6 B. 1,2,3,5 C. 1,2,3,6 D. all of the above

37. Which of the following describes the major connector?

A. The connecting tang between the denture and other units of the prosthesis.
B. The part of the denture base which extends from the necks of the teeth to the border
of the denture.
C. The units of a partial denture that connects parts located on one side of the arch
with those on the opposite side.
D. Both B & C are correct
E. none of the above.

38. Speech difficulties (clicking) related to complete denture can be caused by:
1. excessive vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO)
2. lack of retention of mandibular or maxillary denture
3. porcelain teeth hitting termination of speech during swallowing
A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. all of the above.

39. What is the absolute maximum number of posterior teeth which can be safely replaced with a fixed
bridge? A. one B. two C. three D. four

40. The following are major components of the high noble metal alloys used in fabricating metal-ceramic
restorations? 1. Gold 2. Platinum 3. Palladium
A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. all of these

41. Soldering flux is composed of what materials? 1. sodium pyroborate 2. boric acid 3. silica
A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. all of these

42. Which of the following presents as a painless, firm, pink or red nodular proliferation of the mucosa?
A. inflammatory papillary hyperplasia C. denture stomatitis
B. fibrous hyperplasia D. moniliasis

43. If you are fabricating both mandibular and maxillary immediate dentures for a patient, the ideal
treatment is which of the following?
A. Fabricate the maxillary immediate first
B. Fabricate the mandibular immediate first
C. Fabricate both the maxillary and mandibular immediate at the same time
D. Makes no difference which one you fabricate first.

44. Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture fabrication for
centric relation are true?
A. Ideally, selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and lower fossa
( and marginal ridges of bicuspids).
B. Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and protrusive movements.
C. Neither of the above statements are true.
D. Both of the above statements are true.

45. Which of the following are functions of the posterior palatal seal?
1. completes the border seal of the maxillary canine
2. prevents impaction of food beneath the tissue surface of the denture
3. improves the physiologic retention of the denture
46. compensates for shrinkage of the denture resin during the processing
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. all of these

46. Which of the following types of porcelain is usually used when manufacturing porcelain teeth? A.
high fusing B. medium fusing C. low fusing

47. When the mandible is in the physiologic rest or postural position, contact of teeth is?
A. maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight

48. All new dentures should be evaluated within how many hours?
A. 3 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours.

49. What muscle moves the disk of the TMJ forward?

A. Digastric B. lateral pterygoid C. mylohyoid D. geniohyoid

50. All things being ideal, which restoration is usually the treatment of choice?
A. removable partial denture B. fixed partial denture C. both RPD & FPD

51. Balancing side (non-working) interferences generally occur on the inner aspects of which teeth?
A. facial cusps of mandibular molars C. lingual cusps of mandibular molars
B. facial cusps of maxillary premolars D. facial cusps of maxillary molars

52. The following are situations in which a RPD is specifically indicated rather than a FPD:
1. distal extensions
2. short span edentulous area
3. periodontally involved abutment teeth
4following recent extractions
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. all of the above.

53. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap

54. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load
B. improve embrasure contours
C. stabilize the abutment teeth
D. improve mesiodistal spacing

55. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to correct the centric
occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this dentist do?
A. Make a new centric relation record and remount
B. Make a new face bow and centric record
C. Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
D. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

56. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
A. Lingually inclined maxillary molars
B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
C. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
D. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

57. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of the
following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this pontic?
A. The length of the pontic.
B. The masticatory force of the patient.
C. The position of the opposing contact areas.
D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

58. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred over a lingual bar
connector?
A. When more rigidity is required.
B. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
C. When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
D. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.

59. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over the ascending area
of the mandible?
A. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
B. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
C. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle.
E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture.

60. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
A. unseating of the denture C. greater retention
B. a tingling sensation D. increased gagging

61. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the non-
working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
A. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps
B. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
C. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps
D. The central fossae

62. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the vermillion
border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to correct the situation?
A. Moving the anterior teeth facially.
B. Increasing the interocclusal distance
C. Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
D. Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension

63. The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the:
A. junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
B. junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown
C. level of the free gingival margin
D. occlusal one third of the clinical crown
64. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
A. “s” sounds C. “t” and “th” sounds
B. “f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds

65. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the remaining
supporting tissues?
A. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
B. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

66. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is:
A. increased rigidity C. increased durability
B. increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface

67. A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned repeatedly for
adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
B. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
C. The loss of even centric relation contacts.
D. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.

68. The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure hinging movements is possible is:
A. centric occlusion
B. retruded contact position
C. postural position of the mandible (rest vertical dimension)
D. transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position)

69. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing point are in contact
and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
A. interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
B. vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension

70. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

A. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
B. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
C. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
D. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture.

71. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial denture?
Plastic teeth are:
A. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
B. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin

72. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine needs an immediate
maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient is best treated by:
A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
B. reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
C. reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut
D. leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.

73. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural position, contact of teeth is:
A. maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight

74. Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture fabrication for
centric relation are true?
A. Ideally selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and lower fossa
(and marginal ridges of bicuspsids)
B. Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and protrusive movements.
C. Neither of the above statements are true.
D. Both of the above statements are true.

75. The shoulderless preparation:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown
76. The chamfer cervical finish:
A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

77. The shoulder cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

78. The gold—veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated C. a buccal three quarter crown is indicated
B. a complete crown is indicated D .a mesial half crown is indicated

79. Indications for three-quarter crown retainers includes:

A. when caries have eroded proximal and lingual surfaces
B. cannot be used on any tooth (anterior or posterior)
C. cannot be used on periodontally involved tooth
D. cannot be used on short anterior teeth

80. Contraindications to the use of the three-quarter crown are:

A. anterior teeth with short clinical crown and incisor tapered crowns
B. periodontally involved tooth C. teeth with eroded proximal surfaces
D. teeth with eroded lingual surfaces E. none of the choices.

81. In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what direction?

[Link], back and up C. down, forward and medially
B. Up, back and down D. down, forward and laterally
E. none of the above.

82. The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a complete denture that has been worn for a
long time is:
A. epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
B. pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma

83. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in a horizontal
direction is:
A. support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability

84 Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a patient, which of the following must be
determined?
A. Location of the hinge axis point. C. Vertical dimension of occlusion.
B. The inclination of each condyle. D. Centric relation.

85. Delineates the height of contour:

A. undercut gauge B. analyzing rod C. mandrel
D. wax trimmer E. carbon marker and sheath.

86. In circumferential clasps, these should be on the same level to dissipate stress as flexible tip passes
over tooth’s greatest convexity:
A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal arm

87. Aesthetic is an important consideration when deciding between a fixed or a removable partial denture
for which of the following Kennedy classification?
A. Kennedy Class I C. Kennedy Class III
B. Kennedy Class II D. Kennedy Class IV

88. In protrusive movement, the condyles of the mandible have moved in which direction?
A. backward and upward [Link] and forward C. neither of the two.

89. Which of the following is the superior attachment for the pterygomandibular raphe?
A. Hamular notch B. Fovea palatine [Link]

90. Termination of a free end clasp is referred to as:

A. finger B. stop C. tang D. arm

91. Main purpose of tilting the cast in surveying:

A. To locate the undercut.
B. To locate the height of contour.
C. To provide the most desirable path of placement.
D. To aid in designing.

92. The location of the clasps is determined by:

A. Clinical examination C. Surveying the cast
B. Radiograph D. Position of the remaining natural teeth

93. The scriber of a surveyor:

A. Marks the clasp outline. C. Dictates the RPD design.
B. Guarantee undercut retention. D, Mark the greatest convexity of the tooth.

94. Achieves >180 degrees encirclement of abutment:

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronalD. extracoronal

95. Maintains three point contact on abutment :

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronalD. extracoronal

96. Achieves retention by the use of key and keyway system :

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoronal

97. Direct retention is achieved by clasps:

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronalD. extracoronal

98. The limiting structure of the upper denture are as follows, except:
A. vestibular spaces C. pterygomandibular raphe
B. hamular notches D. posterior palatal seal area in the region of the vibrating line

99. Also known as the emergency retentive force:

A. atmospheric pressure C. interfacial surface tension
B. capillary attraction D. cohesion E. adhesion.

100. The primary stress bearing area of the lower arch:

A. slope of the residual ridge C. buccal shelf
B. crest of the residual ridge D. retromolar pad

101. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
A. Lingually inclined maxillary molars
B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
C. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
D. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

102. The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the:
A. junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
B. junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown
C. level of the free gingival margin
D. occlusal one third of the clinical crown

103. The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of the
retainer in function is called;
A. tripoding C. stress-breaking
B. reciprocation D. indirect retention

104. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the
remaining supporting tissues?
A. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
B. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

105. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial
denture? Plastic teeth are:
A. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
 B. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin

106. Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the most esthetic?
A. A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attachment
B. A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-wire clasp

107. Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best avoided by:
A. Using stressbreakers D. using intracoronal attachments
B. Using bar-type clasps E. altering tooth contours
C. clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and normal bone support

108. In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to:

A. aid in balancing occlusion D. assure predictable clasp retention
B. from right angles to the occlusal plane E. eliminate the necessity for precision
attachments
C. eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp

109. A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal extension RPD. This is
probably caused by:
A. deflective occlusal contacts
B. thin flanges on acrylic bases
C..passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth
D. insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth

110. Which classes of mandibular RPDs require an altered cast impression?

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. both A & B

111. 2. Examples of suprabulge clasps are the following except:

A. Circumferential B. Embrasure C. RPI D. Ring E. Hairpin

112. 3. The following are indications for a linguoplate as a major connector for a mandibular
RPD, except
A. High floor of the mouth (<7 mm of vertical height)
D. High lingual frenum
B. Absence of lingual tori
E. One or more missing incisors
C. Periodontially involved incisors with possible loss in the future

113. The WORST clasp assembly for a terminal abutment on a mandibular class I RPD is
A. Mesial rest and I-bar
C. Mesial and distal rest and a 1/2 and 1/2 clasp
B. Distal rest and cast circumferential clasp
D. Mesial rest and modified T-bar

114. During biting, a maxillary Class I RPD will rotate around a line determined by the rigid metal
above the survey line and closest to the extension areas. This line is called
A. Camper's line B. Frankfort line C. Dual path line D. Axis of rotation

115. Function of clasp:

A. help stabilize the RPD by controlling occlusal movement.
B. help stabilize the RPD by controlling gingival movement.
C. may also function as indirect retainers.
D. prevent excessive biting forces on the abutments.

116. When surveying to determine the height of contour of the abutments, the mark on the tooth
must be made by the:
A. side of the lead marker. C. side of the analyzing rod
B. tip of the carbon marker D. tip of the analyzing rod

117. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and can be used on
premolars for either extension or tooth-supported RPDs?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar
C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp

118. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and is only used on
molars?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar
 C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp

119. Cast retentive arms are usually selected when the RPD is tooth supported / or when the
retentive tips release during functional movements of extension RPDs.
A. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
B. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
C. First phrase is false, second phrase is false.
D. Both phrases are true.

120. The nonrigid connector is:

A. used for long spans C. used when alveolus is extremely reduced
B. a broken-stress joint D. used when alveolus is actively receding

121. Trauma to the pulp following tooth preparation for fixed bridges arises from the following
cause/s:
A. Use of spray water.
B. Severing vital structures in dentin and an increase in temperature from frictional heat.
C. Coolant evacuation.
D. Anesthesia.
E. None of the above.

122. Following cementation, the bridge should be examined :

A. after 3 days. C. after 7 to 10 days.
B. after 14 days D. after 30 days E. none of these.

123. Temporary protection for the porcelain jacket crown preparation should be accomplished
by:
A. celluloid crown. D. gutta percha crown
B. a self-curing resin temporary crown E. none of these.
C. zinc oxide and eugenol

124. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the adult
patient the depth is:
A. less than 1.0mm C. more than 10mm
B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm E. none of these.

125. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the young
patient the depth is:
A. more than 1.0mm B. more than 5.0mm
C. shallow D. more than 2.0mm E. none

126. The complete seating of a FPD requires evaluation of the following:

1. contact areas 3. centric occlusion
2. marginal finish line 4. functional occlusion and stability
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. 1 only

127. FPD require the use of:

A. soft golds B. medium hard golds
C. hard golds D. Type A golds

128. Well-fired porcelain depends on good preliminary condensation. This is accomplished by

the following method/s: 1. Vibration 2. Pressure 3. Brushing 4. Capillary packing
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. 1 only E. 4 only.

129. A disadvantage of the porcelain bonded to gold is:

A. porosity [Link] stability
C. The casting of the restorative gold D. allergy E. none of these.

130. The first essential condition for physiologic tooth form for the FPD is:
A. hinge axis C. dentolabial relations
B. harmony of jaws D. functional occlusion E. none of these.

131. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve embrasure contours
B. stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing
132. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic.
Which of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of
this pontic?
A. The length of the pontic.
B. The masticatory force of the patient.
C. The position of the opposing contact areas.
D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

133. Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not
sweets occurs. The most likely cause is;
A. gingival recession D. unseating of the bridge
B. deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
C. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth

134. In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and other readily oxidized
minor components of the alloy is to;
A. Improve bonding
B. Decrease porosity
C. React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask the metal
D. Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and the porcelain

135. Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when

A. air fired C. tempered after firing
B. under compression D. fired several times before completion

136. To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge should be
so formed that it;
A. extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
B. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
C. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
D. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area

137. The shoulderless preparation:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

138. The chamfer cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

139. The shoulder cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

140. The gold—veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated C. a buccal three quarter crown is indicated
B. a complete crown is indicated D .a mesial half crown is indicated

141. The primary stress bearing area of the lower arch:

slope of the residual ridge C. buccal shelf
C. crest of the residual ridge D. retromolar pad

142. Premature contacts in centric relation and any lateral slide as patient closes into centric
occlusion:
A. can be eliminated while bridge is under construction.
B. can be eliminated after bridge has been constructed.
C. need not be eliminated.
D. should be eliminated by grinding before the bridge is made.

143. The following amount of forward slide from centric relation to centric occlusion can be
regarded as normal in the absence of any periodontal pathology or mobile teeth:
 A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm.

144. Excessive vertical dimension may result in___?

A. poor denture retention C. wrinkles around the lip
B. drooping of commisures D. trauma to the underlying supporting tissues E. all of these

145. Following extraction, alveolar process of the maxilla will resorb:

A. upward and forward direction C. downward and forward
B. upward and backward D. downward and backward

146. The working side is the :

A. balancing side C. side toward which the mandible is moved
B. side opposite to which the mandible move D. eccentric occlusion

47. Which is the best pre-extraction guide for complete dentures:

A. size of face C. color of teeth E. photographs
B. size of teeth D. casts of natural teeth

48. Which of the following factors is necessary in the adhesion of denture bases to the
tissue:
A. Rounded peripheries C. Atmospheric pressure E. All of them
B. Proper peripheral seal D. Thin film of saliva

49.. The distal palatal termination of the upper denture is best dictated by:
A. hamulus B. vibrating line
C. fovea palatine D. A and B only E. B and C only

50.. The oral structure which remains consistent through life:

A. residual ridge B. incisive papilla
C. mental foramen D. maxillary tuberosity E. all of them

51. The inter arch distance is located between:

A. the edentulous ridges
B.. masticatory surface of the teeth with mouth open fully
C. masticatory surface of the teeth at rest
D. all of the above E. none of the above

52.. The following are the most important aspect of complete denture construction:
A. accurate impression C. proper occlusion
B. correct jaw relations D. all of the above E. none of the above

I. Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete denture with severe bilateral tuberosity
undercuts is to:
A. remove both tuberosity undercuts
B. reduce the tissue bilaterally
C. reduce the tissue on one side , if possible
D. none of the above. No treatment is necessary
J. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
unseating of the denture C. greater retention
a tingling sensation D. increased gagging

K. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the
non-working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central fossae

L. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the
vermillion border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to correct the situation?
Moving the anterior teeth facially.
Increasing the interocclusal distance
Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension

147. In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regulate/s the paths of the condyles
in mandibular movements?
A. the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
B. The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap.
 C. The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and muscular influence.
D. The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of compensating curve.

148. The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should receive special attention.
Which of the following anatomical structures might cause soreness if the denture is overextended?
A. Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe
B. Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral tendon of the temporal

149. A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-extension
partial denture. The recommended procedure is to
A. make impression of both simultaneously
B. start first on the maxillary complete denture
C. start first with the least stable prosthesis
D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame
E.
150. Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture?
A. Xerostomia D. Air chamber in midpalate
B. Foreshortened denture bases E. Increased salivary film thickness
C. Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa

151. The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence in;

A. lateral movements C. opening movements
B. protrusive movements D. closing movements

152. The face-bow is used to record;

A. centric relation C. relation of the mandible to the maxilla
B. relation of the maxilla to the TMJ D. relation of the mandible to the TMJ

153. The function of the compensating curve is;

A. to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible is
protruded.
B. To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
C. The same as the function of the curve of Spee
D. None of the above.

154. A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned repeatedly for
adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
A. An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
B. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
C. The loss of even centric relation contacts.
D. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.

155. Which of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol materials,
except:
A. They provide an excellent marginal seal.
B. They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
C. They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin
D. They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.

156. Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging them
into an acid bath. This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restoration
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness of the restoration

157. A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in:
A. holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
B. a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed
C. an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during
polymerization
D. an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the mouth

158. An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is

that polysulfide impression material;
A. will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamentarium
B. is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is
present.
159. In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is:
A. silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten

160. Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type IV) powder primarily in;
A. Density B. crystal structure C. Chemical formula D. solubility in water

161. Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc phosphate
cement?
A. Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
B. Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility

162. Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol
as a function of the ;
A. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C. percent composition by weight of water
B. concentration of potassium sulfate D. temperature

163. Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible after fabrication in order to
minimize changes in shape caused by;
A. Drying of the wax C. volatilization of wax components
B. Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of the wax
E. relaxation of internal stresses

164. The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount of;
A. silica B. carbon C. gypsum D. alumina

75. The process of changing the rubber base product to a rubberlike material is
A. setting B. gelation C. vulcanization D. polymerization

101. The vapor pressure of mercury increase with:

A. increasing temperature C. contamination by dust
B. decreasing size of mercury droplets D. both A & B E. Both B & C.

165. Which of the following cement bases has the highest elastic modulus to best support an
extensive amalgam restoration?
A. zinc phosphate C. zinc polyacrylate
B. polymer-reinforced zinc oxide-eugenol D. glass ionomer

166. The following are classified as rigid impression materials, except:

[Link] oxide-eugenol B. impression plaster C. silicone rubber D. dental impression compound

167. The impression material that shows the least dimensional change as a result of disinfection
by immersion is:
A. alginate B. agar C. polysulfide D. addition silicones E. polyether.

168. The gold content of an 18-K alloy is:

A. 50% B. 75% C. 100% D. 30%

81. The first procedure in casting:

A. impression B. investing C. preparation of wax pattern D. spatulation.

82. The ff. are acidic dental cements except

A. silicate B. polycarboxylate C. zinc phosphate D. calcium hydroxide.

83. The ff. are causes of amalgam failure except

A. dimensional change B. fracture C. recurrent caries D. polished surface.

84. Rapid disintegration of the investment from the casting ring is

A. percolation B. investing C. quenching D. waxing.

85. The cleaning of the casted metal with an acid is

A. polymerization B. quenching C. soldering D. pickling.

86. The main ingredient of inlay wax is

A. carnauba B. paraffin C. gum dammar D. candillila wax.

87. The ff. are effects of wax pattern softened in a water bath except
 A. thermal change B. spattering
C. easy to manipulate D. smearing of the surface of the wax.

88. The hottest portion of the flame in an air gas blowpipe

A. combustion B. reducing C. nozzle D. oxidizing zone.

89. Burnout is done in an electrical furnace for:

A. 30 min B.15 min C. 45 min. D.) one hour.

90. The passageway of the molten metal to reach the mold is

A. crucible B. sprue C. reservoir D. asbestos.

91. The size of the sprue depends upon

A. size of the wax pattern B. height of the casting ring
C. type of casting machine D. all of these

92. The following are classified as fillers except

A. borax C. diatomaceous earth E. zinc oxide
B. french chalk D. potassium sulfate.

93. The lag between liquefaction and gelation temperature is

A.. histeresis B. iceteresis C. syneresis D. hysteresis

94. The principal constituent by weight of reversible hydrocolloid

A. agar B. borax C. potassium sulfate D. zinc oxide [Link].

95. The ff. are ingredients of dental porcelain except

A. feldspar B. quartz C. silver D. glasses.

96. The area of the buccal frenum of a complete mandibular denture must be thinned to allow for
contraction of which of the following muscles?
1. Caninus B. masseter C. Zygomaticus D. Triangularis

97. Which of the following is not a member of the polyalkenoic acid family?
A. Polyacrylic acid. B. Polyitaconic acid.
C. Polymaleic acid. D. Polyacetic acid.

98. The metal ion in glass ionomer which has raised concern over neurotoxicity is:
A. Magnesium. B. Aluminum. C. Tin. D. Zinc.

99. When compared to other materials, which of the following is the main disadvantage of using
polyether elastomeric impression materials?
A. Tear easily C. are much stiffer
B. Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
E. have longer working time

100. An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is that
polysulfide impression material;
A. will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamentarium
B. is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is present.

2. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural position, contact of teeth is:
A. maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight

3. Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture fabrication for
centric relation are true?
1. Ideally selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and
lower fossa (and marginal ridges of bicuspsids)
2. Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and protrusive movements.
3. Neither of the above statements are true.
4. Both of the above statements are true.

4. The shoulderless preparation:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
 C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

5. The chamfer cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

6. The shoulder cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

7. The gold—veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated C. a buccal three quarter crown is indicated
B. a complete crown is indicated D .a mesial half crown is indicated

8. Indications for three-quarter crown retainers includes:

A. when caries have eroded proximal and lingual surfaces
B. cannot be used on any tooth (anterior or posterior)
C. cannot be used on periodontally involved tooth
D. cannot be used on short anterior teeth

9. Contraindications to the use of the three-quarter crown are:

A. anterior teeth with short clinical crown and incisor tapered crowns B. periodontally
involved tooth C. teeth with eroded proximal surfaces D. teeth with eroded lingual surfaces E.
none of the choices.

10. Which of the following presents as a painless, firm, pink or red nodular proliferation of the mucosa?
1. inflammatory papillary hyperplasia C. denture stomatitis
2. fibrous hyperplasia D. Moniliasis

11. If you are fabricating both mandibular and maxillary immediate dentures for a patient, the ideal
treatment is which of the following?
1. Fabricate the maxillary immediate first.
2. Fabricate the mandibular first.
3. Fabricate both the maxillary and mandibular immediate at the same time.
4. Makes no difference which one you fabricate first.

12. All new dentures should be evaluated within how many hours?
A. 3 hours b. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours

13. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout the
mouth only when major and minor connectors are:
A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane E. none of these.

14. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
1. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
2. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion

15. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

1. from the tissues only
2. mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth
3. mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues
4. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues

16. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions can best be avoided by:
1. using stressbreakers
2. employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
3. maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions
4. clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
5. maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension
17. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout the
mouth only when major and minor connectors are:
A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane

18. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
1. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
2. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion

19. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

1. from the tissues only
2. mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth
3. mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues
4. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues

20. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions can best be avoided by:
1. using stressbreakers
2. employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
3. maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions
4. clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
5. maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension

21. Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on the inner aspects of which
teeth?
1. facial cusps of mandibular molars
2. facial cusps of maxillary premolars
3. lingual cusps of mandibular molars
4. facial cusps of maxillary molars

22. Which of the following concerning centric relation is/are TRUE?

1. The mandible cannot forced into centric relation from the rest position because the patient’s
reflex neuromascular defense would resist the applied force
2. The mandible should be relaxed and gently guided into centric relation.
3. In fixed and removable prosthodontics, centric relation should be established prior to designing
the frameworks.
4. When a centric relation record is taken in the natural dentition, imprints of the teeth should be
confined to cusp tips and the registration material should not be perforated.
A. 1 & 2 B. 1,2 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2,3 & 4 E. 3 only.

23. A semi-rigid connector is used:

A. because of difficulty in soldering
B. if a rigid connector interferes with the physiologic movement of abutment teeth and does
not transmit torsional stresses
C. where parallelism exists in the abutment teeth
D. where long spans are present

24. A semi-rigid connector:

A. is always located in the distal surface of the anterior retainer
B. in the mesial surface of the anterior retainer
C. in the strongest abutment tooth
D. in long spans

25. Porcelain should be the material of choice :

1. when a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons
2. when the material is to be used without the support of metal
3. for other than for veneer purposes
4. since extensive inflammatory changes occur in adjacent soft tissue

26. The retentive clasp, as it flexes over the highest convexity of abutment exerts some horizontal
force, which can be neutralized with this attribute of the RPD:
A. passivity B. encirclement C. neutral zone D. reciprocation E. retention.

27. The retruded contact position is what type of position?

A. “tooth-guided” B. “ligament-guided” C. “muscle-guided”
28. An edentulous patient has slight undercuts in both tuberosities and also in the facial of the anterior
maxilla. To construct a satisfactory maxillary complete denture, you should reduce which of the
following?
1. All undercuts C. Both tuberosity undercuts
2. The anterior undercut only D. None of them.

29. Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a patient, which of the following must
be determined?
1. Location of the hinge axis point. C. Vertical dimension of occlusion.
2. The inclination of each condyle. D. Centric relation.

30. Delineates the height of contour:

A. undercut gauge B. analyzing rod C. mandrel D. wax trimmer E. carbon marker and sheath.

31. In circumferential clasps, these should be on the same level to dissipate stress as flexible tip
passes over tooth’s greatest convexity:
A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal arm

32. Prevents vertical dislodgement of RPD:

A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal arm

33. The terminal third of the retentive arm is:

A. rigid B. semi-rigid C. flexible

34. Posterior border of denture clearance from the fovea palatina / vibrating line:
A. 2mm B. 4mm C. 6mm D. 8mm E. 10mm.

35. Low survey line that allows placement of the retentive terminus of a clasp arm on the gingival one-
third of the abutment tooth indicates that:
1. the angle of cervical convergence is small.
2. the angle of cervical convergence is large
3. the abutment tooth must be recontoured
4. a bar clasp is the clasp design of choice

36. A refitting procedure consisting of resurfacing the tissue side of the denture with new base
material is referred to as:
1. reline B. rebase C. reconstruction D. all of the choices

37. Which of the following is not a function of occlusal rests?

1. maintenance of the correct occlusal relation of the artificial teeth
2. guiding of prosthesis along planned path of insertion
3. stabilization of clasp arms in their planned position
4. resistance of cervical movement of prosthesis

38. Aesthetic is an important consideration when deciding between a fixed or a removable partial
denture for which of the following Kennedy classification?
1. Kennedy Class I C. Kennedy Class III
2. Kennedy Class II D. Kennedy Class IV

39. In protrusive movement, the condyles of the mandible have moved in which direction?
1. backward and upward [Link] and forward C. neither of the two.

40. Which of the following is the superior attachment for the pterygomandibular raphe?
1. Hamular notch B. Fovea palatine [Link] hamulus

41. The ease and accuracy of border molding depends on which of the following?
1. An accurately fitting custom tray.
2. Control of bulk and temperature of the modeling compound.
3. The tray being thoroughly dried.
A. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3 `C. 1,2 and 3 D. 1 only

42. Which teeth on a maxillary complete denture are the most important when considering esthetics?
1. Maxillary laterals C. Maxillary canines
2. Maxillary centrals D. Maxillary first premolars
43. A broken-stress or nonrigid FPD is indicated when:
1. constructing a mandibular FPD only
2. two or three missing teeth are to be replaced
3. retainers cannot be prepared to draw together without excessive tooth reduction
4. fixed splinting involves tow or three abutment teeth
5. retainers can be designed to have equal retentive qualities.

44. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
1. failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
2. lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
3. lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts
4. lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci and sharp marginal ridges.
.

45. When preparing a partial veneer crown on a maxillary incisor, proximal grooves should be parallel
to the:
1. long axis of the tooth C. incisal two-thirds of the facial surface
2. gingival two-thirds of the facial surface

46. Termination of a free end clasp is referred to as:

A. finger B. stop C. tang D. arm

47. Main purpose of tilting the cast in surveying:

1. To locate the undercut.
2. To locate the height of contour.
3. To provide the most desirable path of placement.
4. To aid in designing.

48. The location of the clasps is determined by:

1. Clinical examination C. Surveying the cast
2. Radiograph D. Position of the remaining natural teeth

49. The scriber of a surveyor:

1. Marks the clasp outline. C. Dictates the RPD design.
2. Guarantee undercut retention. D, Mark the greatest convexity of the tooth.

50. Achieves >180 degrees encirclement of abutment:

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoronal

51. Maintains three point contact on abutment :

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoronal

52. Achieves retention by the use of key and keyway system :

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoronal

53. Direct retention is achieved by clasps:

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoronal

54. Counteracts the force exerted on the undercut area on one side of the abutment:
A. major connector C. lingual plate
B. minor connector D. retentive arm E. reciprocal arm.

55. A porcelain jacket crown will fracture when:

1. used in an end-to-end occlusion
2. fabricated for a mandibular incisor
3. allowed to contact the opposing teeth in centric occlusion
4. subjected to tensile forces by the opposing teeth
5. subjected to compressive forces by the opposing teeth

56. The nonrigid connector maybe used in the construction of a FPD only when the span is:
1. short and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced.
2. Short and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced.
3. Long and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced.
4. Long and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced.
 5. None of the above.

57. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because:
1. it is stronger C. it can be treated as an independent abutment
2. better esthetics can be achieved D. less chair time is required in its fabrication

58. The limiting structure of the upper denture are as follows, except:
A. vestibular spaces C. pterygomandibular raphe
B. hamular notches D. posterior palatal seal area in the region of the vibrating line

59. Also known as the emergency retentive force:

A. atmospheric pressure C. interfacial surface tension
B. capillary attraction D. cohesion E. adhesion.

60. The primary stress bearing area of the lower arch:

1. slope of the residual ridge C. buccal shelf
2. crest of the residual ridge D. retromolar pad

61. The construction of a bridge is normally scheduled after the following is/are completed:
A. surgery
B. surgery, periodontal therapy and operative dentistry
C. periodontal therapy
D. Operative dentistry

62. Premature contacts in centric relation and any lateral slide as patient closes into centric occlusion:
A. can be eliminated while bridge is under construction.
B. can be eliminated after bridge has been constructed.
C. need not be eliminated.
D. should be eliminated by grinding before the bridge is made.

63. The following amount of forward slide from centric relation to centric occlusion can be regarded as
normal in the absence of any periodontal pathology or mobile teeth:
A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm.

64. The incisal edge of the three-quarter crown retainer on the cuspid tooth is:
A. about 45 degrees to long axis of tooth. C. 60 degrees to long axis of tooth.
B. 30 degrees to long axis of tooth. D. 15 degrees to long axis of tooth

65. Of what importance is tongue size and position to the prognosis of a complete denture?
A. of little or no importance
B. large tongue helps stabilize lower dentures
C. patients with large tongues often experience poor lower denture stability.

66. Factors affecting the stability of dentures, are as follows, except:

A. location and arrangement of artificial teeth C. quality of final impression
B. size and form of basal seat D. all of the choices E. none of these.

67. This is a resistance of a denture to the vertical component of mastication.

A. retention B. stability C. support D. lip esthetic E. health of basal seat.

68. The nonrigid connector is:

A. used for long spans C. used when alveolus is extremely reduced
B. a broken-stress joint D. used when alveolus is actively receding

69. A good solder joint must have:

A. a triangular peripheral attachment
B. a complete and concave peripheral attachment
C. a partial and convex peripheral attachment
D. a partial and concave peripheral attachment

70. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the adult patient
the depth is:
A. less than 1.0mm C. more than 10mm
 B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm

71. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the young patient
the depth is:
A. more than 1.0mm C. more than 5.0mm
B. shallow D. more than 2.0mm

72. Excessive vertical dimension may result in___?

A. poor denture retention C. wrinkles around the lip
B. drooping of commisures D. trauma to the underlying supporting tissues E. all of these

73. Following extraction, alveolar process of the maxilla will resorb:

A. upward and forward direction C. downward and forward
B. upward and backward D. downward and backward

74. The working side is the :

A. balancing side C. side toward which the mandible is moved
B. side opposite to which the mandible move D. eccentric occlusion

75. Qualities of shade that refers to the amount of color per unit area:
A. brilliance B. saturation C. translucency D. hue

76. A direct restorative materials used frequently to restore a portion of a posterior tooth that is subject
to large biting forces has the following properties:
A. esthetics B. high strength C. ease of casting D. thermal insulation

77. Rank the following dental materials in order of increasing values of their coefficient of thermal
expansion: 1. dental amalgam 2. human teeth 3. porcelain 4. unfilled acrylic plastics: \
A. 2,3,1,4 B. 3,2,4,1 C. 3,2,1,4 D. 2,3,4,1.

78. The following statements describe percolation, except:

A. Percolation usually decreases with time after insertion of dental amalgam
B. Percolation is caused by differences in the coefficient of thermal expansion between tooth and
the restorative material when heated or cooled.
C. Percolation is thought to be undesirable because of possible irritation to the dental pulp and
recurrent decay.
D. Percolation is not likely to occur with unfilled acrylic restorations.

79. A curve of spee that is too flat produces:

A. molar cusps that are too short C. anterior teeth that are too short
B. molar cusps that are too long D. anterior teeth that are too long

80. When the plane of occlusion is too low, the posterior cusps:
A. will appear too long C. will appear of normal length
B. will appear too short D. will appear out of occlusion

81. FPD require the use of:

A. soft golds B. medium hard golds C. hard golds D. Type A golds

82. Well-fired porcelain depends on good preliminary condensation. This is accomplished by the
following method/s:
1. Vibration 2. Pressure 3. Brushing 4. Capillary packing
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. 1 only E. 4 only.

83. The vapor pressure of mercury increase with:

A. increasing temperature C. contamination by dust
B. decreasing size of mercury droplets D. both A & B E. Both B & C.

84. Which of the following cement bases has the highest elastic modulus to best support an extensive
amalgam restoration?
A. zinc phosphate C. zinc polyacrylate
 B. polymer-reinforced zinc oxide-eugenol D. glass ionomer

85. The following are classified as rigid impression materials, except:

[Link] oxide-eugenol B. impression plaster C. silicone rubber D. dental impression compound

86. The impression material that shows the least dimensional change as a result of disinfection by
immersion is:
A. alginate B. agar C. polysulfide D. addition silicones E. polyether.

87. The gold content of an 18-K alloy is:

A. 50% B. 75% C. 100% D. 30%

88. The following statements about heat curing resin are true , except:
A. the method of activation is by heat or boiling
B. the peak temperature is as high as that of self-curing resin
C. the initial strength properties is higher than self-curing resin
D. color is more stable
\
89. Aids in inhibition of polymerization during storage:
A. benzoyl peroxide C. hydroquinone
B. dibutyl phthalate D. methyl methacrylate E. gelatin talc.

90. The widely used method for fabrication of metallic appliance outside the mouth:
A. firing B. casting C. pickling D. quenching E. fluxing.

91. The monomer is principally:

A./ benzoyl peroxide C. dibutyl phthalate
B. polymethyl methacrylate D. methyl methacrylate E. hydroquinone.

92. Dental porcelain used as a veneer over cast metal crowns:

A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. any of these.

93. Also known as “inlay golds” :

A. Type 1 and Type 2 B. Type II & Type III C. Type III & IV D. Type I & IV

94. Increases the toughness of wax and resistance to cracking and flaking:
A. paraffin B. gum dammar C. carnauba wax D. candelilla wax E. any of these.

95. dental porcelain used as a veneer over cast metal crowns:

A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. any of these.

96. Even correctly mixed zinc phosphate cement is irritating to the pulp. How can this irritation be
minimized?
1. Place 2 coats of cavity varnish over the preparations
2. Add 1 drop of eugenol to the cement after mixing.
3. Apply eugenol with a cotton pellet to the preparation.
4. decrease the liquid powder ratio ratio of the cement

97. Two of the most common causes of clicking in complete dentures are:
1. reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion
2. excessive vertical dimension and poor denture retention
3. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap
4. improper relation of teeth to the residual ridge and excessive anterior vertical overlap

98. The area of the buccal frenum of a complete mandibular denture must be thinned to allow for
contraction of which of the following muscles?
1. Caninus B. masseter C. Zygomaticus D. Triangularis

99. The incisal guidance on the articulator is the:

1. horizontal guidance
2. same as the condylar guidance
3. mechanical equivalent of the compensating curve
4. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlaps.
5. None of the above.

100. The side shift (Bennet) movement exerts its greatest influence in:
 1. lateral movements C. protrusive movements
2. retrusive movements D. opening and closing movements

101. The hinge axis face-bow transfer is of value because it:

1. assures an accurate centric relation record
2. enables alteration in vertical dimension on the articulator
3. facilitates mounting the mandibular cast in the center of the articulator
4. maintains the condyles in their most retruded positions in the glenoid fossae

1. Which is the most common reason for the failure of a casting to seat?
A. deficient margins B. overextended margins
C. proximal contacts D. buccal overcontouring

2. Final set amalgam should contain

A. 20–35% mercury B. 35–45% mercury.
C. 45–50% mercury. D. 55–65% mercury.

3. What is required in order for polymerization of resins to occur when desired?

A. Monomers. B. Free radicals.
C. Fillers. D. Polymers.

4. The typical polymerization shrinkage of resin composite is:

A. 2–3%. B. 4–5%. C. 6–7%. D. 8–9%.

5. The curing of resin composite is inhibited by:

A. Moisture. B. Filler. C. Calcium hydroxide. D. Oxygen.

6. Which of the following is not one of the setting reaction stages of glass ionomer cement?
A. Gelation stage. B. Dissolution stage.
C. Hardening stage. D. Polymerization stage.

7. Glass ionomers were first introduced in the:

A. 1950s. B. 1960s. C. 1970s. D. 1980s.

8. Which of the following is not a member of the polyalkenoic acid family?

A. Polyacrylic acid. B. Polyitaconic acid.
C. Polymaleic acid. D. Polyacetic acid.

9. The metal ion in glass ionomer which has raised concern over neurotoxicity is:
A. Magnesium. B. Aluminum. C. Tin. D. Zinc.

10. Hydrogen peroxide in dentistry ____.

A. has been in use for more than 100 years
B. has been found to promote bone healing
C. has no antimicrobial effects
D. cannot be used in conjunction with periodontal surgery

11. The carbamide peroxide reaction is defined as follows:

A. Carbamide peroxide degrades into hydrogen peroxide and water.
B. Carbamide peroxide degrades into oxygen and water.
C. Carbamide peroxide degrades into ammonia and carbon dioxide.
D. Carbamide peroxide degrades into hydrogen peroxide and urea.

12. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
A. “s” sounds B. “t” and “th” sounds C. “f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds

[Link] weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not sweets occurs.
The most likely cause is;
A. gingival recession D. unseating of the bridge
B. deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
C. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth

14. The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of the retainer in
function is called;
A. tripoding C. stress-breaking
B. reciprocation D. indirect retention

15. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the remaining
supporting tissues?
A. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
B. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

16. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is:
A. increased rigidity C. increased durability
B. increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface

17. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing point are in contact
and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
A. interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
B. vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension

18. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

A. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
B. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
C. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
D. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture.

19. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial denture?
Plastic teeth are:
A. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
B. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin

20. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine needs an immediate
maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient is best treated by:
A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
B. reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
C. reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut
D. leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.

21. Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the most esthetic?
A. A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attachment
B. A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-wire clasp

22. Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to mount a patient’s casts on the true hinge
axis?
A. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
B. When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures.
C. When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension through restorations.
D. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-cusped teeth on a fully adjusted articulator.

23. Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a condensation impression material as soon as
possible?
A. The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is initially high and then decreases with time.
B. Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of the set material.
C. If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expands as they absorb water from air.
D. Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer of the impression tray and cause distortion.

24. Which of the following is a problem with the polyether impression materials?
A. Low modulus of elasticity
B. Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
C. dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
D. consistency very similar to the reversible hydrocolloid

25. The component common to most composite resins, sealants, bonding and glazing agents, and resin
cements for orthodontic bonds is;
A. inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
B. benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate

26. Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

A. Shear B. impact C. tension D. compression
27. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in a horizontal
direction is:
A. support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability

28. Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and, therefore, the most difficult to remove
from the mouth?
A. Polyether C. Addition silicone
B. Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible hydrocolloid

29. Which of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol materials, except:
A. They provide an excellent marginal seal.
B. They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
C. They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin
D. They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.

30. Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging them into an acid
bath. This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restoration
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness of the restoration

31. A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in:
A. holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
B. a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed
C. an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during polymerization
D. an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the mouth

32. When compared to other materials, which of the following is the main disadvantage of using polyether
elastomeric impression materials?
A. Tear easily C. are much stiffer
B. Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
E. have longer working time

33. An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is that
polysulfide impression material;
A. will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamentarium
B. is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is present.

34. In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is:
A. silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten

35. Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type IV) powder primarily in;
A. Density B. crystal structure
C. Chemical formula D. solubility in water

36. Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc phosphate cement?
A. Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
B. Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility

37. Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire indicates that it has been;
A. cold worked C. stress relief annealed
B. recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment

38. Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;

A. degree of translucency C. degree of saturation of the hue
B. combined effect of hue and value D. all of the above E. none of the above.

39. Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid restoration for frameworks of the same
dimension?
A. Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
B. Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the hardened condition

40. Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a
function of the ;
A. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C. percent composition by weight of water
B. concentration of potassium sulfate D. temperature
41. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap

42. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve embrasure contours
B. stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing

43. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to correct the centric
occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this dentist do?
A. Make a new centric relation record and remount
B. Make a new face bow and centric record
C. Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
D. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

44. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
A. Lingually inclined maxillary molars
B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
C. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
D. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

45. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of the
following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this pontic?
A. The length of the pontic.
B. The masticatory force of the patient.
C. The position of the opposing contact areas.
D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

46. The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is;

A. moisture contamination C. excessive condensation of the porcelain
B. excessive firing D. inadequate condensation of the porcelain

47. On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

A. horizontal guidance
B. mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee
C. same as the condylar guidance
D. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.

48. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because;
A. it is stronger
B. better esthetics can be achieved
C. it can be treated as an independent abutment
D. less chair time is required in its fabrication

49. The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown preparation is that;
A. it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be supragingival
B. Its position be subgingivall D. its position be easily discernible

50. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a FPD?
A. Tooth with pulpal involvement
B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure
C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown

51. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred over a lingual bar
connector?
A. When more rigidity is required.
B. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
C. When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
D. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.

52. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over the ascending area
of the mandible?
A. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
B. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
C. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle.
E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture.

53. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
A. unseating of the denture C. greater retention
B. a tingling sensation D. increased gagging

54. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the non-
working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
A. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
B. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central fossae

55. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the vermillion
border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to correct the situation?
A. Moving the anterior teeth facially.
C. Increasing the interocclusal distance
B. Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
D. Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension

56. Which classes of mandibular RPDs require an altered cast impression?

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. both A & B

57. Examples of suprabulge clasps are the following except:

A. Circumferential B. Embrasure C. RPI D. Ring E. Hairpin

[Link] following are indications for a linguoplate as a major connector for a mandibular RPD, except
A. High floor of the mouth (<7 mm of vertical height) D. High lingual frenum
B. Absence of lingual tori E. One or more missing incisors
C. Periodontially involved incisors with possible loss in the future

59. The guide surface preparation should be curved

A. mesio-distally B. bucco-lingually C.
occluso-gingivally D. none of the above

60. The WORST clasp assembly for a terminal abutment on a mandibular class I RPD is
A. Mesial rest and I-bar
B. Mesial and distal rest and a 1/2 and 1/2 clasp
C. Distal rest and cast circumferential clasp
D. Mesial rest and modified T-bar

[Link] biting, a maxillary Class I RPD will rotate around a line determined by the rigid metal above the
survey line and closest to the extension areas. This line is called
A. Camper's line B. Frankfort line C. Dual path line D. Axis of rotation

62. Function of clasp:

A. help stabilize the RPD by controlling occlusal movement.
B. help stabilize the RPD by controlling gingival movement.
C. may also function as indirect retainers.
D. prevent excessive biting forces on the abutments.

63. When surveying to determine the height of contour of the abutments, the mark on the tooth must be
made by the:
A. side of the lead marker. C. side of the analyzing rod
B. tip of the carbon marker D. tip of the analyzing rod

64. If a metal base is to be used

A. an altered cast impression should be made after framework try-in
B. a stock tray should be used for the final impression
C. a custom tray should be used for the final impression
D. interocclusal records must be made after tooth selection

65. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and can be used on premolars for
either extension or tooth-supported RPDs?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar
C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp

66. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and is only used on molars?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp

67. Cleaning a removable partial denture in sodium hypochlorite may result in:
A. increased caries activity C. corrosion of the metal of the framework
B. increased periodontal problems D. A and B above

68. Cast retentive arms are usually selected when the RPD is tooth supported / or when the retentive tips
release during functional movements of extension RPDs.
A. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
B. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
C. First phrase is false, second phrase is false.
D. Both phrases are true.

69. Incisal rests:

A. are generally more positive vertical stops than cingulum rests.
B. may interfere with the opposing occlusion.
C. should not be used on maxillary incisors.
D. all of the above.

70. Which of the following steps is done LAST?

A. Rest preparation C. Centric relation records
B. Framework try-in D. Altered cast impression

71. In a circumferential clasp assembly, only one of the arms may extend into an undercut. The other arm,
the bracing or reciprocating arm, must be rigid and therefore, cannot extend into an undercut.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. First statement is false, second statement is false.
D. First statement is true, second statement is true.

72. An anterior-posterior palatal strap major connector is less rigid than a horse-shoe major connector
because it (the A-P strap) has less width.
A. The first statement is true but the reason is false.
B. The first statement is false and the reason is also a false statement.
C. The first statement is true and the reason is true.
D. The first statement is false but the reason is a true statement.

73. Guide plates for anterior teeth

A. should be kept to the labial for best esthetics. C. be thinned on the labial aspect.
B. should be kept to the lingual for best esthetics. D. both B and C above.

74. Occlusal rest preparations should be

A. spoon shaped C. at least one millimeter deep
B. at least 1/3 the buccolingual width of the occlusal surface D. all of the above

75. In general, lingual plating should be supported

A. by the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors. [Link] minor connectors.
B. with bracing arms. D. with rests.

76. The internal and external finish lines are

A. normally superimposed over each other.
B. normally offset from each other to avoid weakness in the framework.
C. normally designed and placed independently.
D. none of the above statements are true.

77. When placing the tripod marks on the diagnostic cast, the vertical arm of the surveyor
A. should have the analyzing rod in place.
B. should be moved up or down to touch the tissues at widely separated areas.
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 nor 2 are true

78. The partial denture design should be finalized prior to

A. any emergency treatment. C. preparation of rest seats.
B. any fixed prosthodontic treatment. D. both B and C above.

79. The open latticework on a maxillary class I RPD:

A. covers the hamular notch. C. does not cover the tuberosity.
B. covers the tuberosity. D. requires substantial interarch space

80. The external finish line on a maxillary Class I RPD originates from the lingual of the guide plate of the
terminal abutment and ends
A. at the hamular notch. C. opposite the buccal pouch
B. in the glenoid fossa. D. opposite Stenson's duct.

81. The following factor/s may be responsible for the failure to seat the bridge:
A. Cusps may be high.
B. Under contouring axial surfaces of retainer.
C. Abutment teeth may have moved and one or more contacts may be overbuilt.
D. Incorrect hinge axis.
E. None of the above.

82. Trauma to the pulp following tooth preparation for fixed bridges arises from the following cause/s:
A. Use of spray water.
B. Severing vital structures in dentin and an increase in temperature from frictional heat.
C. Coolant evacuation.
D. Anesthesia.
E. None of the above.

83. Following cementation, the bridge should be examined :

A. after 3 days. C. after 7 to 10 days.
B. after 14 days D. after 30 days E. none of these.

84. Intraradicular retainers is/are used on:

A. vital teeth
B. any tooth where a complete crown is indicated.
C. nonvital teeth when the coronal tissues cannot be saved.
D. any tooth where a three-quarter crown is indicated.
E. none of the above.

85. The construction of a bridge is normally scheduled after the following is/are completed:
A. surgery
B. surgery, periodontal therapy and operative dentistry
C. periodontal therapy
D. Operative dentistry
E. none of the above.

86. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural position, contact of teeth is:
A. maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight

87. Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture fabrication for
centric relation are true?
A. Ideally selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and lower fossa
(and marginal ridges of bicuspsids)
B. Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and protrusive movements.
C. Neither of the above statements are true.
D. Both of the above statements are true.
88. The shoulderless preparation:
A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

89. The chamfer cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

90. The shoulder cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown
91. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout the mouth
only when major and minor connectors are:
A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane E. none of these.

92. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion

93. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

A. from the tissues only
B. mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth
C. mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues
D. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues

94. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions can best be avoided by:
A. using stressbreakers
B. employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
C. maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions
D. clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
E. maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension

95. Which teeth on a maxillary complete denture are the most important when considering esthetics?
A. Maxillary laterals C. Maxillary canines
B. Maxillary centrals D. Maxillary first premolars

96.A broken-stress or nonrigid FPD is indicated when

A. constructing a mandibular FPD only
B. two or three missing teeth are to be replaced
C. retainers cannot be prepared to draw together without excessive tooth reduction
D. fixed splinting involves tow or three abutment teeth
E. retainers can be designed to have equal retentive qualities.

97. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
A. failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
B. lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
C. lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts
D. lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci and sharp marginal ridges.

98. When preparing a partial veneer crown on a maxillary incisor, proximal grooves should be parallel to
the:
A. long axis of the tooth C. incisal two-thirds of the facial surface
B. gingival two-thirds of the facial surface

99. Termination of a free end clasp is referred to as:

A. finger B. stop C. tang D. arm

100. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the adult patient the
depth is:
A. less than 1.0mm C. more than 10mm
B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm

169. The most frequent cause of tissue soreness along the mucobuccal area of a RPD is:
A. use of anatomic teeth D. extension of the denture border
B. a centric prematurity E. lack of rigidity of the major connector
C. heavy balancing contact

170. Stability of RPDs is best insured by:

A. using flat plane teeth D. incorporating harmonious occlusion
B. incorporating adequate bracing areas E. depending upon clasping and indirect retention
C. none of the above.

171. A broken-stress or nonrigid FPD is indicated when:

A. constructing a mandibular FPD only
 B. two or three missing teeth are to be replaced
C. retainers cannot be prepared to draw together without excessive tooth reduction
D. fixed splinting involves tow or three abutment teeth
E. retainers can be designed to have equal retentive qualities.

172. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
A. failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
B. lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
C. lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts
D. lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci and sharp marginal ridges.
E. None of the above.

173. The greatest potential for wear exists between:

A. tooth and gold C. porcelain and tooth
B. tooth and tooth D. porcelain and porcelain E. all of the choices

174. For the maxillary arch, if an anterior-posterior major connector design is to be considered,
the opening between the anterior strap and posterior palatal bar/strap should be at least _____mm.
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

175. For maxillary major connectors, except where plating is used, the border of major
connector should be at least _______mm away from the gingival margin. a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d)
6

176. The presence of mandibular lingual tori would indicate the need for : A. a metal base
B. lingual plating C. tube teeth D. extra indirect relation

177. Rigid metal retention is associated with : A. a dual path of insertion B. a class IV
RPD C. the need for excellent esthetics D. all of the above

178. In maxillary RPDs, the bead line is approximately______mm thick (deep) A. 4 B. 3 C.

2 D. 1

179. The most important point to observe in making hydrocolloid impression for a removable
partial denture is to: A. position the patient upright to prevent gagging B. maintain uniform
pressure on the tray in the premolar area C. allow ample time for gelation before muscle
molding the bores
D. select a tray large enough to provide adequate thickness of hydrocolloid to avoid tearing
of areas of severe undercut E. use a straight, steady pull on removal from the mouth, thus
following the long axis of those teeth having the greatest undercut

180. Maxillary and mandibular removable partial denture frameworks have been independently
adjusted for occlusion to allow natural teeth [Link] both frameworks seated, it is noted that
the natural teeth are not in contact. The premature contact exist between: A. the
mandibular framework and the natural upper teeth B. opposing framework C. natural teeth
and pontics D. the maxillary framework and the natural lower teeth

181. In constructing single complete dentures opposed by natural or predominantly natural

dentition: A. a totally different procedure is followed in construction B. procedures are
simpler since you are dictated by one set of natural dentition C. less problems are expected
to be encountered D. more careful planning of both natural and the denture’s occlusal
surfaces is required

182. For the anterior-posterior palatal strap maxillary major connector, the anterior, posterior,
and lateral straps should be about _____mm wide. a) 4-6 b) 6-8 c) 8-10 d) at least 10

183. The basic philosophy of dental treatment for partially edentulous patient is to : A.
Preserve what remains and restore what is missing B. Replace the missing teeth C.
Improve the path of insertion D. Reshape rotated teeth

184. The function of the guide plate or proximal plate is to : A. Help establish a definite path
of insertion/dislodgment B. Stabilize the RPD by controlling it’s horizontal position C.
Provide contact with adjacent tooth D. all of the above
185. In using occlusal indicator wax to identify occlusal discrepancies between a removable
partial denture and the natural dentition, it is best to
A. insert the wax bilaterally
B. use the double thickness wax
C. insert the wax alternately between the right and left sides
D. introduce the wax into specific areas of the mouth where suspected deflective occlusal
contacts exists
E. none of the above

186. When making a removable partial denture, a definitive evaluation of existing occlusal
disharmonies should be made
A. during the screening examination C. after mounting diagnostic casts
B. before making preliminary impression D. after removing caries and placing restorations

187. Arrange the following steps for clinical trial insertion and adjustment of a FPD.
J. Check margins
II. Check centric contacts
III. Adjust functional contacts
IV. Adjust proximal contacts and pontic tips.
A. I, II, III, IV B. I, IV, II, III C. II, I, III, IV D. IV, I, II, III

188. An anterior FPD is contraindicated when:

A. abutment teeth are noncarious
B. an abutment tooth is inclined 15 degree but is otherwise sound
C. there is considerable resoprtion of the residual ridge
D. crowns of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession
E. none of the above.

189. When a rigid connector is used in a FPD, the path of insertion of the key to the keyway
should be parallel to:
A. the path of insertion of the retainer carrying the keyway
B. the path of insertion of the retainer not involved with the keyway
C. the paths of insertion of both retainers
D. none of the above.

190. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the young
patient the depth is:
A. more than 1.0mm C. more than 5.0mm
B. shallow D. more than 2.0mm E. none of these.

191. The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown preparation is that;
A. it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be supragingival
B. Its position be subgingivall D. its position be easily discernible

192. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a FPD?
A. Tooth with pulpal involvement
B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure
C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown

193. The area of the buccal frenum of a complete mandibular denture must be thinned to allow
for contraction of which of the following muscles?
A. Caninus B. masseter C. Zygomaticus D. Triangularis

194. The incisal guidance on the articulator is the:

A. horizontal guidance
B. same as the condylar guidance
C. mechanical equivalent of the compensating curve
D. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlaps.
E. None of the above.

195. For a mandibular denture impression, action of which of the following muscles determines
the form of the lingual flange in the molar region: A. mylohyoid B. geniohyoid C. lateral
pterygoid D. superior pharyngeal constrictor E. medial pterygoid
196. A 25 year old patient with one missing maxillary central incisor, extreme labioversion of the
remaining maxillary incisor, and history of having worn a flipper (all acrylic) type removable
appliance for ten years. There are no other missing teeth. A Class 1 interarch relationship exists.
Which of the following is indicated to achieve OPTIMUM esthetics and function? A. Extract the
malposed central incisor and place a removable appliance B. Extract the malposed central incisor
and place a fixed partial denture C. reduce the facial aspect of the remaining central incisor
maximally and place a fixed partial denture D. Orthodontically reposition the remaining central
incisor and place a fixed partial denture E. none of the above

197. When a RPD is completely seated, the retentive terminals of the retentive clasp arms
should be:
A. passive and applying no pressure on the teeth.
B. Contacting the abutment teeth only in the suprabulge areas.
C. Resting lightly on the height of contour line on the abutment teeth
D. Applying a definite, positive force on the abutment teeth in order to prevent dislodgement of
the RPD
E. None of the above.

198. Indirect retention is designed to:

A. stabilize tooth-borne RPDs
B. engage an undercut area of an abutment tooth
C. help resist tissueward movement of an extension base partial denture
D. help resist dislodgement of an extension base partial denture in an occlusal
direction.
E. None of the above.

199. The gold-veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated D. a mesial half crown is indicated.
B. a complete crown is indicated E. none of these.
C. a buccal three-quarter crown is indicated

200. The periodontium remains heathlier when crown margins are placed:
A. at the gingival crest C. about ½ mm apical to the gingival rest
B. above the gingival crest D. about 1mm apical to the gingival crest

201. A porcelain jacket crown will fracture when:

A. used in an end-to-end occlusion
B. fabricated for a mandibular incisor
C. allowed to contact the opposing teeth in centric occlusion
D. subjected to tensile forces by the opposing teeth
E. subjected to compressive forces by the opposing teeth

202. The following are done to remedy an RPD which “snaps” during insertion EXCEPT
A. polishing the internal surface of the clasps
B. shorten the end of the direct retainer
C. grind the abutment tooth in the area of the clasp contact
D. adjust clasp with clasp-bending pliers

203. The lifting of a mandibular partial denture with distal extension bases may be corrected by:
A. narrowing the teeth B. correcting occlusion C. tightening the bracing arms
D. tightening the retention arms E. reducing overextended borders

204. Radiographs are aid to determining prognosis because reaction of the bone that supports
the abutment teeth can be judged by the
A. shape of the roots of the abutment tooth
B. amount of bone loss due to extractions
C. reaction of the bone to previously induced stress
D. all of the above
E. none of the above

205. In constructing a full gold crown, future recession of the gingival tissue can be most
effectively prevented by:
A. narrowing the food table by one-sixth
B. accurately reproducing the tooth form in the gingival one-fifth
C. slightly overcontouring the tooth form ion the gingival one-fifth
D. extending the margins of the crown 1mm into the gingival crevice.
 E. None of the above.

206. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because:
A. it is stronger C. it can be treated as an independent abutment
B. better esthetics can be achieved D. less chair time is required in its fabrication

207. A partially edentulous arch in which there is a unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth
remaining both anterior and posterior to it.
A. Kennedy Class I C. Kennedy Class III
B. Kennedy Class II D. Kennedy Class IV E. Kennedy Class V

208. A partially edentulous arch in which a single edentulous area, located anterior to the
remaining natural teeth crossing the midline.
A. Kennedy Class I C. Kennedy Class III
B. Kennedy Class II D. Kennedy Class IV E. Kennedy Class V

209. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion
E. none of the above

210. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

A. from the tissues only
B. mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth
C. mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues
D. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues

211. When preparing a partial veneer crown on a maxillary incisor, proximal grooves should be
parallel to the:
A. long axis of the tooth C. incisal two-thirds of the facial surface
B. gingival two-thirds of the facial surface D. none of the choices

212. Two of the most common causes of clicking in complete dentures are:
A. reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion
B. excessive vertical dimension and poor denture retention
C. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap
D. improper relation of teeth to the residual ridge and excessive anterior vertical overlap

213. The side shift (Bennet) movement exerts its greatest influence in:
A. lateral movements C. protrusive movements
B. retrusive movements D. opening and closing movements

214. Support for a complete maxillary denture is ultimately derived from which of the following
pairs of bones?
VI. Maxillary III. Palatine
VII. Mandibular IV. Coronoid V. Temporal
A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. I & V E. II & III

215. When establishing the plane of orientation, the occlusal portion of the maxillary occlusal
rim is parallel to the:
III. Fox plane III. Frankfort plane
IV. Camper’s line IV. Interpupillary line V. Horizontal condylar inclination
A. I & III B. I & IV C. I & V D. II & IV E. III & IV

216. In complete dentures, the path of the condyle during free mandibular movements is
governed primarily by the:
A. height of the cusps of the posterior teeth
B. amount of horizontal and vertical overlap
C. vertical dimension, centric relation and degree of the compensating curve
D. shape of the fossa and meniscus and the muscular influence.
E. None of the above.

217. The distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is dictated by:
A. tuberosity C. maxillary tori
B. fovea palatine D. vibrating line E. posterior palatal seal

218. When constructing complete dentures, the most effective time to test for phonetics is:
 A. when maxillary anterior teeth have been set
B. when occlusion rims are attached to bases
C. when the vertical dimension is determined
D. when finished dentures are inserted
E. at the time of the wax try-in of the trial denture.

219. In developing balanced occlusion of complete denture during tooth arrangement, a steep
condylar path associated with a low degree of incisal guidance requires that the compensating
curve be:
A. flat B. prominent C. shallow D. reverse

220. Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete denture too far superiorly and anteriorly
might result in difficulty in pronouncing:
A. ”f” and “v” sounds C. “s” and “th” sounds
B. “d” and “t” sounds D. most vowels E. none of these

221. What would be the best denture base connector when there is limited interocclussal space
(<3mm) A. Open latticework B. meshwork C. all metal base D. all plastic
base

222. Reciprocation between bracing and retentive components requires: A. I-bar be used B.
Bracing components contact after retentive components C. Correct timing of contact during
seating and removal of RPD D. Both b and c

223. Infrabulge clasps originate: A. Above the height of the contour B. Below the height of
contour C. Above the 0.01 inch undercut D. Above the occlusal surface of most
premolars

224. All of the following clasps are infrabulge clasps except:

A. I- bar B. modified T-bar C. roach clasp D. Akers’ clasp

225. A clasp assembly should : A. have a retentive arm with adequate length and taper for
flexibility B. have a retentive arm that terminates in an undercut C. have elements that, when
considered together, will provide 180 degree encirclement D. all of the above

226. In a class III modification 1 RPD ,the rests are usually placed: A. on the canines B.
away from the modification space C. in the area of the opposing occlusal contact D.
adjacent to the modification space

227. The most reliable method of recording centric occlusion when constructing a mandibular
bilateral distal extension partial denture occluding with natural teeth is to construct a stabilized
occlusion rim: A. for the mandibular master casts and record the relationship with baseplate wax
B. for the mandibular master cast and record the relationship with utility wax C. for the
mandibular master cast and record the relationship with zinc oxide-eugenol registration paste D.
attached to the finished partial denture frame and record the relationship with zinc oxide-
registration paste

228. Seventy-two hours after inserting a relined distal extension partial prosthesis, vertical
movement of the base is noted. Cause would LIKELY be: I. Ridge tissue changes occurring since
the reline impression II. Failure to properly orient the metal framework to the contacted teeth
during reline impression procedures III. Premature occlusal contacts:
A. I only B. I and III C. II and III D. III only E. all of these.

229. Tissue trauma due to an RPD can be caused by the following except:
A. sharp denture borders C. posterior palatal seal too shallow
B. over-extension on highly mobile soft palate D. over extended denture bases

230. Which one of the following classes of RPDs NEVER has an axis of rotation?
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

231. Mounted diagnostic casts in partial denture treatment planning is ESSENTIAL for selecting
I, Type of denture base
II, Areas for support
VIII. Areas for retention
 IX. Type of supplied teeth
X. Major connector
A. I, II, III B. II, IV C. I, II, IV D. II, IV, V E. I, II

232. Increased bulk in the major connector is necessary if the:

I. major connector is shorter than usual
II. major connector is longer than usual
III framework is made of gold
IV framework is to be made of cobalt-chrome
A. IV B II C. II and III D. III

233. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load
B. improve embrasure contours
C. stabilize the abutment teeth
D. improve mesiodistal spacing

234. When establishing balanced occlusion, lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the
balancing side should contact which of the following?
A. Central fossa of mandibular posterior teeth.
B. Lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular posterior teeth.
C. Lingual inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth.
D. Facial inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth.

235. Which of the following is defined as “the vertical distance between the occlusal surfaces of
the upper and lower teeth when the mandible is in its physiologic rest position”?
A. vertical dimension C. vertical dimension of rest
B. vertical dimension of occlusion D. interocclusal distance (freeway space)

236. The following amount of forward slide from centric relation to centric occlusion can be
regarded as normal in the absence of any periodontal pathology or mobile teeth:
A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm. E. None of tghese.

237. The incisal edge of the three-quarter crown retainer on the cuspid tooth is: A. about
45 degrees to long axis of tooth. B.. 60 degrees to long axis of tooth. C. . 30 degrees to long
axis of tooth D. . 15 degrees to long axis of tooth E. none of the above.

238. In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and other readily oxidized
minor components of the alloy is to;
A. Improve bonding
B. Decrease porosity
C. React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask the metal
D. Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and the porcelain

239. The buccal three-quarter crown is a variation of the standard three-quarter crown and is
used on the:
A. maxillary molars C. maxillary cuspids
B. mandibular bicuspids D. mandibular molars E. None of these.

240. The nonrigid connector maybe used in the construction of a FPD only when the span is:
A. short and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced.
B. Short and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced.
C. Long and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced.
D. Long and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced.
E. None of the above.

241. Trauma to the pulp following tooth preparation for fixed bridges arises from the following
cause/s:
A. Use of spray water.
B. Severing vital structures in dentin and an increase in temperature from frictional heat.
C. Coolant evacuation.
D. Anesthesia.
E. None of the above.

242. Following cementation, the bridge should be examined :

A. after 3 days. C. after 7 to 10 days.
 B. after 14 days D. after 30 days E. none of these.

243. Intraradicular retainers is/are used on:

A. vital teeth
B. any tooth where a complete crown is indicated.
C. nonvital teeth when the coronal tissues cannot be saved.
D. any tooth where a three-quarter crown is indicated.
E. none of the above.

244. The complete seating of a FPD requires evaluation of the following:

1. contact areas 3. centric occlusion
2. marginal finish line 4. functional occlusion and stability
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. 1 only

245. Dental plaster is: A. alpha hemihydrate B. calcium sulfate dehydrate C. beta
hemihydrate D. orthorhombic hydrate E. none of the above.

246. Zinc oxide eugenol paste hardens by: A. chemical reaction B. physical change
C. thermoplastic means D. all of the above E. none of the above.

247. Another name for Type IV dental stone is: A. hydrocal B. densite C. improved stone D.
B & C E. A & C.

248. The common accelerator which decreases setting time of dental plaster is: A boroglycerin
B. potassium sulfate C. calcium chloride D. sodium chloride E. primary alcohol.

249. The filler which increases the strength of the impression compound: A. rosin B. beeswax
C. palmitic acid D. borax E. French chalk.

250. The best method to control the setting time of zinc oxide eugenol: A. temperature of the
mixing slab B. ratio of base to catalyst C. mixing D. addition of accelerator E. addition of
retarder.

251. The best pickling agent: A. sulfuric acid B. nitric acid C. hydrochloric acid D. carbolic
acid E. none of the above.
252. The process of condensing gold into the prepared cavity is: A. plugging B.
condensation C. contraction D. compaction E. none of the above.

253. To render impression plaster soluble in warm water : A. dental plaster B. potato starch
C. tomato starch D. oil starch E. all of the above

254. Big Gilmore needle measures: A. final setting time B. initial setting time C. hardness
D. preliminary setting time E. all of the above.

255. One of the following is not included in the group : A. diatomaceous earth B. potassium
alginate C. potassium sulfate D. potassium titanium fluoride E. calcium chloride.

256. The following are factors affecting setting time of dental plaster under the control of the
dentist except: A. water powder ratio B. mixing C. particle size D. temperature E. addition of
chemical modifiers.

257. One of the following is not included in the group: A. malleability B. brittleness C. hardness
D. ductility E. elastic limit.

258. BIS-GMA is referred to : A. dental cement B. composite resin C. acrylic resin D.

calcium hydroxide E. agar.

259. The lag between liquefaction and gelation temperature: A. syneresis B. hysteresis C.
histerisis D. osmosis E. isis.

260. One of the following acts as scavenger: A. silver B. tin C. copper D. zinc E. all of the
above.

261. Liquifaction temperature is higher than gelation temperature. A. true B. false.

262. One that minimizes caries formation: A. carbon B. fluoride C. zinc D. magnesium E.
cobalt.

263. The process of heating gold is: A. compaction B. degassing C. annealing D.

percolation E. oxidation.

264. The final polishing of amalgam is after : A. 12 B. 24 C. 36 D. 48 E. 72 hours.

265. The essential component of reversible hydrocolloid by weight: A. agar B. lemon C. water
D. borax E. potassium .

266. The standard size of gold foil: A. 4 inches B. 4 sq m. C. 4 inches sq D. 4 inches cm.
E. 24 inches sq.

267. Composite resin is insoluble to oral fluids. A. true B. false.

268. The property which can be beneficial and a source of error : A. elastic limit B. flexibility
C. flow D. stress E. strain

269. In selecting anterior teeth for complete denture patients, one considers the patient’s
I. facial size
II. age
III. sex
IV. physical features
A. I, II, III B. I, II, IV C. I, IV D. all of the above

270. Freeway space is synonymous with:

A. physiologic rest position
interocclusal distance
B. interdental arch space
C. intermaxillary space
D. both A and B

271. After extractions and healing, the maxillary denture-bearing area discloses bony
undercuts in both tuberosity areas. Usually, the best treatment for this condition is to:
surgically reduce the undercuts just enough to allow a path of insertion
A. do no surgical trimming on the ridge, but reduce the denture base in the undercut
area
B. use soft liner inserts in tuberosity areas of maxillary denture
C. reduce both bony undercuts tuberosities so that no bony undercut exists anywhere
on the ridge

272. Dental plaster powder differs from dental stone powder primarily in:
A. chemical formula
B. crystal structure
C. solubility in water
physical nature of the particle

273. In arranging prosthetic teeth for balanced occlusion, increasing the incisal
guidance:
A. increases the condylar guidance
B. decreases the height of the cusps
increases the compensating curve
C. increases the plane of orientation

274. A patient in excellent health and wearing complete dentures complains of a burning
sensation in the anterior palate. This is most likely caused by:
A. a nicotinamide deficiency
B. deflective occlusal contact
failure to relieve the incisive papillae area
C. excessive thickness of the denture in the rugae area
275. To locate a hinge axis on a patient, one should use:
A. a simple facebow
a kinematic facebow
B. eccentric records
C. centric relation registrations

276. A patient has a complete maxillary denture against natural teeth. He complains of
pain in the area of the left TMJ. Examination of the posterior teeth indicates that these
teeth contact first on the right side. Patient then slides forward and to the left to effect good
cusp interdigitation. What treatment procedure should be instituted to relieve this patient’s
symptoms?
A. markedly reduce the cusp height of the mandibular posterior teeth on the right side
B. grind the right posterior teeth to a flat plane
re evaluate and correct the posterior occlusion
C. reduce the occlusal vertical dimension

277. Why would a clear surgical template be used for an immediate denture?
A. To aid the dentist in placing sutures
B. To prevent bleeding for the first 24 hours.
As an aid in trimming bone to fit the immediate denture
C. To facilitate shortening the borders so the denture will fit securely.

278. Where should grinding be accomplished if the following conditions exist? The
distobuccal cusp of the mandibular right first molar strikes prematurely in centric occlusion
in the central fossa of the maxillary first molar, the distobuccal cusp of the mandibular right
first molar is not premature in working or balancing occlusion.
Grind the central fossa of the maxillary molar
A. Grind the distobuccal cusp of the mandibular molar
B. Adjust the cusp tip and the fossa
C. Either A or B is acceptable

279. The mesiobuccal cusp of the mandibular left first molar is in deflective occlusal
contact in centric occlusion but not in lateral excursions. What might be spot ground to
effect a balanced occlusion? The:
A. mesiobuccal cusp of the mandibular right first molar
marginal ridges of the maxillary first molar and second premolar
B. mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary left first molar
C. distolingual cusp of the mandibular left first molar

280. Selective grinding is a procedure used routinely:

A. to reduce the vertical dimension of occlusion
B. to reduce the inclination of condylar guidance
for final correction of any existing occlusal disharmony in dentures
C. to improve the esthetics of the final arrangement of the anterior teeth

281. The most important copnsideration in checking custom trays for accurate muscle
molding is:
A. stability
B. a tight posterior seal
stability and lack of displacement
C. a tight peripheral seal disregarding displacement

282. When a patient wearing complete dentures makes a whistling sound while
enunciating the S sound, it is caused by:
the anterior teeth being placed too far labially
A. the anterior teeth being placed too far lingually
B. too great a vertical overlap
C. the palatal vault being too high and narrow
283. The shape and amount of the distobuccal extension of a complete mandibular
edentulous impression is determined during border molding by the:
A. ramus of the mandible
B. lateral pterygoid muscle
C. tone of the buccinator muscle
D. size and location of the buccal frena
position and action of the masseter muscle

284. In recording centric relation, the mandible can be retruded by having the patient:
A. relax the jaw muscle while the dentist manually manipulates the chin up and down
B. protrude and retrude the mandible repeatedly
C. turn the tongue backward toward the posterior border of the palate
D. make repeated swallowing movements
E. all of the above.

285. The path of the condyle during free mandibular movements is governed primarily
by the:
A. height of the cusps of the posterior teeth
B. amount of horizontal and vertical overlap
C. vertical dimension, centric relation, and degree of the compensating curve
D. shape of the fossa and meniscus and the muscular influence.

286. The physiologic rest position has practical significance during the evaluation of
maxillomandibular relations, especially as related to:
A. centric relation
B. centric occlusion
vertical dimension
C. protrusive occlusion

287. The setting time of a zinc oxide eugenol impression paste may best be accelerated
by:
A. adding a drop of oleic acid to the mix
B. chilling the mixing slab and the spatula
adding a drop of water to the mix
C. increasing the amount of eugenol
D. increasing the amount of zinc oxide

288. Heating a gypsum cast at a temperature of 110°C for one hour will:
A. drive off its excess gauging water only
B. have minimal effect on its cushing strength
weaken it because its water of crystallization is driven off
C. strengthen it because it is a recorded fact that the dry crushing strength of gypsum
is high when compared with the wet crushing strength
D. none of the above.

289. In processing methyl methcrylate, the resin may show porosity if the flask is placed
in boiling water. Where in the denture is this type of porosity most likely to occur?
A. Throughtout
In the thickest part
B. Near the borders
C. Close to the surface
D. On the tissue surface

290. In patients with complete dentures, fissures found at the corners of the mouth are
most frequently caused by:
I. avitaminosis
II. insufficient vertical
III. blood dyscrasias
IV. general hyperactivity
A. I, II B. I, II, III C. I, III D. II, III E. II, III, IV
291. The posterior palatal seal for a maxillary denture:
I. is placed immediately posterior to the vibrating line
II. helps to compensate for the lack of adaptation caused by shrinkage of acrylic
III. is not necessary if a metal base is made
IV. will vary in outline and depth according to the palatal form encountered.
A. I, II B. I, III C. II, III D. II, IV E. III, IV

292. For achieving a natural appearance in complete denture, the anterior teeth must
appear separate and distinct from one another. This may be accomplished by employing:
I. diastema
II. the shadow effect
III. different shades of teeth
IV. wedge shaped spaces at the incisal thirds
A. I, II B. I, II, III C. I, III D. II, III, IV E. all of these

293. At the trial in of maxillary and mandibular complete dentures, the “f” sound
disclosed the upper incisal edges of the teeth just making contact with the wet line of the
lower lip. Production of the sibilant sound suggests that the mandibular anterior teeth are
in a protrusive relation with no vertical overlap. It may be concluded that:
I. maxillary anterior teeth are correctly set for length
II. maxillary anterior teeth are set with insufficient facial fullness
III. vertical dimension of occlusion is too great
IV. mandibular anterior teeth are set too far facially
V. mandibular anterior teeth are too long
A. I, II B. I, IV C. II, III D. II, V E. III, V

294. All of the components listed below may be involved in the 180 degree encirclement
rule, except:
I-bar C. minor connector
B. guide plate D. open latticework E. none of these

295. What is the correct relationship of the foot of an I-bar to the survey line (height of
contour) on a terminal abutment for an extension RPD?
The foot should be entirely above the survey line
The foot should be partially above and partially below the survey line
The foot should be totally below the survey line
The relationship of the foot of the I-bar and the survey line is of no consequence.
E. none of these.

296. Reason(s) for selecting a mandibular lingual plate major connector is/are?
the presence of lingual tori
anticipated loss of one or more of the remaining teeth
a high lingual frenum
all of the above
E. both A & C are correct

297. Which of the following clasps commonly utilize lingual undercuts?

ring clasp C. half and half clasp
B. extended arm clasp D. both A & B E. Both A & C

298. A cingulum rest should be placed?

between the occlusal and middle thirds of the incisor teeth
above the middle third of the incisor teeth
at the junction of the gingival and middle thirds of the incisor teeth
on the disto-incisal edges of the incisor teeth

299. The external finish line is?

the external junction of framework metal and denture base plastic
the external junction of framework metal and supporting tissues
the external junction of the framework metal and the natural teeth
D. the external junction of the natural teeth and the denture base plastic.
300. A “bead line”
is used only on mandibular major connectors
is a seal at the interface of framework metal and tissues
should taper off as it approaches the marginal gingiva of the abutment teeth
both A and B
Both B & C

301. The superior border of a mandibular lingual bar major connector should be?
at least 3mm from the tooth/tissue junction
at least 2mm from the tooth/tissue junction
located at the tooth/tissue junction
at least 3mm above the tooth/tissue junction

302. The internal finish line is?

the butt joint between the metal and plastic on the tissue side of the edentulous
area
the butt joint between the metal and plastic on the outer surface of the RPD
a type of posterior palatal seal
a special type of bead line

303. A class 1 modification 0 RPD normally has how many clasps?

1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

304. If a mandibular RPD abutment must be covered, the FPR impression should
include:
all the abutment teeth for the RPD
a full arch impression
the retromolar pads
both A and B
all of the above

305. A tissue undercut may preclude the selection of?

a suprabulge calsp C. a half and half clasp
B. an infrabulge clasp D. a combination of clasp

306. A combination clasp assembly generally has:

a cast bracing arm C. a wrought wire retentive arm
B. a distal rest D. both A & B E. all of these

307. Which of the following should be considered in diagnosis for an RPD patient?
interarch space C. occlusal contacts
B. tissue undercuts D. both A & C E. all of these

308. A lingual plate mandibular major connector may be selected because:

the mandibular incisors are tilted lingually D. both B & C
there are mandibular tori present E. all of these
C. there is a high lingual frenum

309. A master cast for a RPD should be blocked out and duplicated before:
overlapped incisors are recontoured D. both A & B
rest preparations are prepared E. all of these
the framework is waxed up

310. Rest placement on a terminal abutment of a Class 1 RPD depends on:

the opposing occlusion D. both A & C
the tilt of the abutment E. all of these
C. tissue undercuts

311. A general rule for rest placement on an abutment adjacent to an extension area is?
 Place the rest on the occlusal surface on the opposite side of the tooth from the
extension area.
Place the rest on the occlusal surface adjacent to the extension area
Place rests on both the mesial and distal occlusal surfaces
D. Do not place a rest on this tooth.

312. Low fusing metal is associated with which of the following procedures?
the altered cast impression D. making records for RPDs
physiological adjustment of the framework E. all of these
the RPD remount cast

313. Physiologic adjustment of the framework:

is usually done at delivery of the RPD
should be done at the framework try-in appointment
is usually done at the records appointment
D. may be omitted in the presence of strong abutments and good residual ridges

314. Physiologic adjustment is related to:

the aixs of rotation D. both A & B
adjustment of the framework to the teeth E. all of these
functional movement of the framework

315. The external finish line on a maxillary Class 1 RPD originates from the lingual of
the guide plate of the terminal abutment and ends___?
at the hamular notch C. opposite the buccal pouch
B. in the glenoid fossa D. opposite Stensen’s duct

316. The open latticework on a maxillary Class 1 RPD

covers the hamular notch C. does not cover the tuberosity
B. covers the tuberosity D. does not require substantial interarch space

317. The partial denture design should be finalized prior to:

any emergency treatment C. preparation of rest seats
any fixed prosthodontic treatment D. both B & C E. all of these

318. When placing the tripod marks on the diagnostic cast, the vertical arm of the
surveyor:
should have the analyzing rod in place
should be moved up or down to touch the tissues at widely separated areas
both A and B are true
D. Neither A nor B are true.

319. The internal and external finish lines are:

normally superimposed over each other
normally offset from each other to avoid weakness in the framework
normally designed and placed independently
none of the avove statements are true.

320. In general, lingual plating should be supported:

by the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors C. with bracing arms
with minor connectors D. with rests

321. Occlusal rest preparations should be:

spoon shaped
at least 1/3 the buccolingual width of the occlusal surface
at least one millimeter deep
both A & B
all of the above.

322. Guide plates for anterior teeth:

 should be kept to the labial for best esthetics D. both A & B
should be kept to the lingual for best esthetics E. both B & C
be thinned on the labial aspect

323. An anterior-posterior palatal strap major connector is less rigid than a horse-shoe
major connector because it (the A-P strap) has less width.
The first statement is true but the reason is false
The first statement is false and the reason is also a false statement
The first statement is true and the reason is true
The first statement is false but the reason is a true statement.

324. What is the required clearance if the occlusal surface of a metal restoration is
porcelain?
.05mm B. 1.0mm C. 1.5mm D. 2.0mm E. none of these

325. Finish line often used for tilted abutments:

shoulder B. knife edge C. chamfer D. beveled shoulder

326. Preferred finish line for veneer metal restorations:

chamfer B. knife edge C. shoulder D.. acute edge

327. The occlusogingival thickness of a hygienic pontic should be:

no less than 2.0mm C. more than 2.0mm
no less than 3.0mm D. more than 3.0mm

328. Amount of facial reduction for metal ceramic system:

0.5-1.0mm B. 1.2-1.5mm C. 1.5-2.0mm D. 1.0-2.0mm

329. Crown preparation margins for FPD are best placed:

subgingival C. supragingival
B. equi-gingival D. 0.5mm below the gingival crest

330. Tooth preparation for FPD must terminate ____ to avoid violating the biologic
width:
1.0mm from the alveolar crest C. 1.0mm from the gingival crest
B. 2.0mm from the alveolar crest D. 2.0mm from the gingival crest

331. Minimum acceptable crown:root ratio for FPD is:

1:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:3 D. 2:3 E. none of these

332. The proximal grooves for a partial crown preparation on a maxillary incisor should
be parallel to the:
Incisal 2/3 of the labial surface C. gingival 2/3 of the labial surface
middle third of the labial surface D. long axis of the tooth

333. Primary pontic design for non-appearance zone:

spheroid B. hygienic C. modified ridge lap D. ridge lap

334. Secondary retention and resistance factors in the preparation of FPD restorations:
I. pins II. Opposing walls III. boxes IV. grooves
A. I, II, III B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. II only

335. Partial veneer restorations:

I. ¾ crowns IV. 7/8 crown
II. mesial half corwn V. laminates
III. telescopic crowns
A. I,II,III,IV B. II, III, IV, V C. I, II, IV, V D. I and II only

336. Resistance to displacement for a short walled preparation for a FPD crown on a
large tooth can be improved by:
I. placing axial grooves
 II. lengthening the crown
III. preparing parallel walls
A. I and II B. I and II C. II and III D. I, II, III

337. Dentogingival attachment between the base of the gingival sulcus and the alveolar
crest composed of approximately of 1mm of juinctional epithelium and connective tissue.
biologic width C. alveolar gingiva
attachment epithelium D. gingival epithelium E. none of these

338. Which of the calsp assemblies utilize a primary rest and an auxialiary rest?
RPA clasp C. infrabuldge clasp
ring clasp D. extended clasp arm

339. Which of the following steps is done LAST?

rest preparation C. centric relation records
framework try-in D. altered cast impression

340. Cleaning a RPD in sodium hypochlorite may result in:

increased caries activity C. corrosion of the metal of the
framework
increased periodontal problems D. both A & B.

341. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and can be
used on premolars for either extension or tooth-supported RPDs?
half and half clasp C. lingual modified T-bar
B. lingual I-bar D. ring clasp

342. If a metal base is to be used:

an altered cast impression should be made after framework try-in
a stock tray should be used for the final impression
a custom tray should be used for the final impression
interocclusal records must be made after tooth selection

343. What is the absolute maximum number of posterior teeth which can be safely
replaced with a fixed bridge?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. none

344. The following are major components of the high noble metal alloys used in
fabricating metal-ceramic restorations?
I. Gold II. Platinum III. Palladium
A. I and II B. II and III C. II only D. all of them

345. Soldering flux is composed of what materials?

I. Sodium pyroborate II. Boric acid III. Silica
A. I and II B. II and III C. II only D. all of them

346. Which of the following types of porcelain is usually used when manufacturing
porcelain teeth?
high fusing B. medium fusing C. low fusing D. any of them

347. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or postural position, contact of teeth is:
maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight

348. Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on the inner
aspects of which teeth?
facial cusps of mandibular molars C. lingual cusps of mand molars
B. facial cusps of maxillary premolars D. facial cusps of maxillary molars

349. The following are situations in which a RPD is specifically indicated rather than a
FPD, except:
i. distal extension
 ii. long span edentulous area
iii. periodontally involved abutment teeth
iv. anterior esthetics
v. following recent extractions
vi. economics
A. I, II, III, IV, V B. II, III, IV, V, VI C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI

350. The following are advantages of polysuilfide impression materials, except:

not affected by water transfer like alginate
viscosity displaces soft tissues
more stable than alginate
do not affect hardness of cast
pouring can be delayed up to one hour.

351. A reverse three-quarter crown is most frequently done on which tooth below?
maxillary molar C. maxillary premolar
B. mandibular molar D. mandibular premolar

352. In the intercuspal position, the DB cusp of a permanent mandibular first molar
occludes where?
the interproximal marginal ridge area between max second premolar and first molar
central fossa of the maxillary first molar
central fossa of the maxillary second molar
the interproximal marginal ridge area between maxillary first molar and second molar

353. Which position is one in which there is a relative muscular equilibrium?

retruded contact position C. protruded contact position
B. postural position D. none of these

354. The liquid (monomer) used in heat-cured or self-cured resins is usually what?
poly-methylmethacrylate C. benzoyl peroxide
B. hydroquinone D. methyl-methacrylate

355. The powder (polymer) used in heat-cured or self-cured resins is what?

poly-methylmethacrylate C. benzoyl peroxide
B. hydroquinone D. methyl-methacrylate

356. This is added to the monomer to aid in the inhibition of polymerization during
storage.
poly-methylmethacrylate C. benzoyl peroxide
B. hydroquinone D. methyl-methacrylate

357. This is the constituent of a dental gypsum-bonded investment that functions as the
refractory material and provides the thermal expansion for the investment?
Cristobalite C. calcium sulfate hemihydrate
Graphite D. potassium sulfate

358. What is the primary component of gypsum before it is processed into dental plaster
or stone?
potassium sulfate hemihydrate C. calcium nitrate hemihydrate
B. calcium sulfate hemihydrate D. potassium nitrate hemihydrate

359. Which of the following cements is indicated when maximum retention is required or
when the pulp is of no concern?
Polycarboxylate B. glass ionomer C. zinc phosphate D. ZOE

360. This pontic looks lost like a tooth, replacing all the contours of the missing tooth,
fills the embrassures and overlaps the ridge with a large concave contact. This type of
pontic should never be used.
ridge lap B. hygienic C. saddle D. conical E. none of these
361. Used to describe a pontics which do not have any contact with the tissue.
ridge lap B. hygienic C. saddle D. conical E. none of these

362. This design gives the illusion of being a tooth, but possesses all convex surfaces
for ease of cleaning.
ridge lap B. hygienic C. saddle D. conical E. none of these

363. The shape of this pontic is cleanable, but the triangular shaped spaces around the
tissue contact have a tendency to collect debris.
ridge lap B. hygienic C. saddle D. conical E. none of these

364. In casting the metal substructure for a metal-ceramic crown, it is necessary to use
which type of investment?
gypsum bonded C. sulfate bonded
B. phosphate bonded D. any of these E. all of these
365. Which of the folliwng medicaments are commonly used for cord impregnation?
Epinephrine C. alum (aluminum potassium sulfate)
B. sodium sulfate D. calcium chloride E. both A and C

366. Which of the following metals is most ductile?

Silver B. gold C. platinum D. copper

367. In metal-ceramic restorations, where does failure or fracture usually occur?

in the porcelain C. in the metal
B at the porcelain-metal interface

368. Which of the following alloys are used for casting large prosthetic appliances
(partials)?
Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV

102. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap

103. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order
to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load
B. improve embrasure contours
C. stabilize the abutment teeth
D. improve mesiodistal spacing

104. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to
correct the centric occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should
this dentist do?
A. Make a new centric relation record and remount
B. Make a new face bow and centric record
C. Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
D. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

105. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the
following?
A. Lingually inclined maxillary molars
B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
C. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
D. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

106. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic
pontic. Which of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the
occlusal portion of this pontic?
A. The length of the pontic.
 B. The masticatory force of the patient.
C. The position of the opposing contact areas.
D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

107. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred
over a lingual bar connector?
A. When more rigidity is required.
B. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
C. When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
D. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.

108. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over
the ascending area of the mandible?
A. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
B. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
C. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle.
E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular
denture.

109. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
A. unseating of the denture C. greater retention
B. a tingling sensation D. increased gagging
110. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior
teeth on the non-working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
A. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps
B. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
C. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps
D. The central fossae

111. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent
loss of the vermillion border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to
correct the situation?
A. Moving the anterior teeth facially.
B. Increasing the interocclusal distance
C. Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
D. Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension

112. The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the:
A. junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
B. junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown
C. level of the free gingival margin
D. occlusal one third of the clinical crown

113. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
A. “s” sounds C. “t” and “th” sounds
B. “f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds

114. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain
the remaining supporting tissues?
A. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
B. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

115. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is:
A. increased rigidity C. increased durability
B. increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface

116. A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned
repeatedly for adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the
following is the most likely cause?
A. An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
 B. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
C. The loss of even centric relation contacts.
D. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.

117. The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure hinging movements is
possible is:
A. centric occlusion
B. retruded contact position
C. postural position of the mandible (rest vertical dimension)
D. transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position)

118. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing
point are in contact and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known
as the:
A. interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
B. vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension

119. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

A. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
B. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
C. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
D. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture.

120. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable
partial denture? Plastic teeth are:
A. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
B. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin

121. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine
needs an immediate maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut.
This patient is best treated by:
A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
B. reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
C. reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut
D. leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.

122. Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the most
esthetic?
A. A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attachment
B. A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-wire clasp

123. Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to mount a patient’s casts
on the true hinge axis?
A. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
B. When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures.
C. When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension through restorations.
D. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-cusped teeth on a fully
adjusted articulator.

124. In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regulate/s the paths of the
condyles in mandibular movements?
A. the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
B. The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap.
C. The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and muscular
influence.
D. The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of compensating curve.

125. Which of the following best explains why the dentist should provide a postpalatal
seal in a complete maxillary denture? The seal will compensate for:
 A. errors in fabrication C. polymerization and cooling shrinkage
B. tissue displacement D. deformation of the impression material

126. For complete dentures, which of the following three factors affect the correct
positioning of lips?
A. Face-bow transfer, position of teeth, and correct rest vertical dimension.
B. Face-bow transfer, thickness of the anterior border, and correct occlusal vertical
dimension.
C. Correct rest vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and position of
teeth.
D. Correct occlusal vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and
position of teeth.

127. Which of the following jaw-relation records should be used for setting both the
medial and superior condylar guides on an arcon articulator?
A. Intercuspation C. lateral interocclusal records
B. Centric relation D. protrusive interocclusal records

128. An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a patient to overclose and to have a
poor facial profile. To correct this problem, the dentist should do which of the following?
A. increase the rest vertical dimension and increase the interocclusal distance
B. decrease the rest vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal distance
C. decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and increase interocclusal distance
D. increase the occlusal vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal
distance

129. Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if occlusal vertical dimension is
increased?
A. The closing muscles may become strained
B. The opening muscles may become strained
C. The closing muscles may become too relaxed
D. Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth.

130. A patient has a chronically tender, knife-edge mandibular residual ridge. In

fabricating a complete denture for this patient, a dentist should consider which of the
following?
A. Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute forces of occlusion over a
greater area.
B. Minimal extension of the denture- to limit tenderness to a smaller area.
C. Decreased occlusal vertical dimension- to decrease biting forces
D. A broad occlusal table- to provide a firmer contact in eccentric jar relations.

131. Tripod marks are placed on the cast after surveying for which of the following
reasons?
A. To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth.
B. To help mount the cast on the articulator
C. To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator
D. To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor.

132. In a complete maxillary denture, accurate adaptation of the border of the maxillary
facial flange affects which of the following the most?
A. Speech B. support C. stability D. esthetics

133. The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should receive special
attention. Which of the following anatomical structures might cause soreness if the denture
is overextended?
A. Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe
B. Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral tendon of the temporal

134. A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-
extension partial denture. The recommended procedure is to
 A. make impression of both simultaneously
B. start first on the maxillary complete denture
C. start first with the least stable prosthesis
D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

135. Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount of adjustment of a
base metal removable clasp arm?
A. Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D. tensile strength

136. A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-
extension partial denture. The recommended procedure is to
A. make impression of both simultaneously
B. start first on the maxillary complete denture
C. start first with the least stable prosthesis
D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

137. In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what direction?

A. Out, back and up C. down, forward and medially
B. Up, back and down D. down, forward and laterally
E. none of the above.

138. The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a complete denture that
has been worn for a long time is:
A. epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
B. pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma

139. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in
a horizontal direction is:
A. support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability

140. Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best avoided by:
A. Using stressbreakers
B. using intracoronal attachments
C. Using bar-type clasps
D. altering tooth contours
E. clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and normal bone support

141. Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is due primarily to:

A. occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal conditioner
B. improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed framework

142. A patient who wears complete denture is having trouble pronouncing the letter “t”.
This is probably caused by:
A. too thick a palatal seal area
B. too thick a base in the mandibular denture
C. incorrect positioning of maxillary incisors
D. improper positioning of mandibular incisors

143. The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a complete denture is
limited by the action of the:
A. stylohyoid muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle
B. medial pterygoid muscle D. superior constrictor muscle

144. In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to:

A. aid in balancing occlusion
B. assure predictable clasp retention
C. from right angles to the occlusal plane
D. eliminate the necessity for precision attachments
E. eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp
145. When the path of dislodgement is not controlled and rotational dislodgement of
extension bases occurs, remotely located vertical metal stops placed in prepared seats
can be used to enhance the effectiveness of retentive clasps. The vertical metal stops are:
A. indirect claps C. indirect retainers
B. remote retainer D. forward retainers E. passive retainers

146. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in

A. poor denture retention
B. increased interocclusal distance
C. drooping of the corners of the mouth
D. creases and wrinkles around the lip
E. trauma to underlying supporting tissues

147. An advantage of a wide, thin palatal bar compared with a narrow bar is that the
wide bar:
A. is more stable C. can be rigid with less bulk
B. is easier to polish D. is less irritating to the soft tissue

148. When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in centric relation, but does not
contact in one or more of the eccentric movements, grinding should be performed on:
A. both the cusp and the opposing area
B. the opposing fossa or the marginal ridge
C. the cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact
D. the opposing areas in eccentric positions.

149. Proper lip support for a patient with complete dentures is provided primarily by the;
A. convex surface of the labial flange
B. rounded contours of interdental papillae
C. proper pronouncement of sibilant sounds
D. thickness of the border in the vestibule
E. facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated attached gingiva.

150. In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base, which of the following
is on the posterior border?
A. Hamular notch C. fovea palatini
B. Hamular process D. vibrating line E. pterygomandibular raphe

151. Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture?

A. Xerostomia
B. Air chamber in midpalate
C. Foreshortened denture bases
D. Increased salivary film thickness
E. Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa

152. Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete denture with severe
bilateral tuberosity undercuts is to:
A. remove both tuberosity undercuts
B. reduce the tissue bilaterally
C. reduce the tissue on one side , if possible
D. none of the above. No treatment is necessary.

153. Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs;

A. on closing from centric relation
B. on initial opening from centric relation
C. in the upper compartment of the TMJ
D. in the lower compartment of the TMJ

154. When the posterior maxillary buccal space is entirely filled with the denture flange,
interference may occur with movement of the;
 A. masseter muscle C. condyloid process
B. coronoid process D. zygomatic process

155. A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal extension RPD. This
is probably caused by:
A. deflective occlusal contacts
B. thin flanges on acrylic bases
C. passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth
D. insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth

156. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the distance between
occluding surfaces of maxillary and mandibular teeth or occlusion rim is;
A. centric occlusion C. interocclusal distance
B. vertical dimension D. vertical dimension of rest

157. Which of the following design characteristics of a partial denture is most important
to oral health?
A. Bracing B. support C. stability D. retention

158. The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of porcelain is the;
A. fusion temperature C. uniformity of particle size
B. ratio of flux to feldspar D. thoroughness of condensation

159. An abutment tooth exhibiting an unfavorable survey line should;

A. be restored
B. have unfavorable contours improved
C. be by-passed in the framework design
D. receive only a rest and not be clasped

160. To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge

should be so formed that it;
A. extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
B. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
C. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
D. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area

161. Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but
not sweets occurs. The most likely cause is;
A. gingival recession
B. unseating of the bridge
C. deflective occlusal contact
D. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
E. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth

162. The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of
the retainer in function is called;
A. tripoding C. stress-breaking
B. reciprocation D. indirect retention

163. The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence in;

A. lateral movements C. opening movements
B. protrusive movements D. closing movements

164. The face-bow is used to record;

A. centric relation
B. relation of the mandible to the maxilla
C. relation of the maxilla to the TMJ
D. relation of the mandible to the TMJ

165. The function of the compensating curve is;

 A. to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible
is protruded.
B. To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
C. The same as the function of the curve of Spee
D. None of the above.

166. The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is;

A. moisture contamination
B. excessive condensation of the porcelain
C. excessive firing
D. inadequate condensation of the porcelain

167. On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

A. horizontal guidance
B. same as the condylar guidance
C. mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee
D. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.

168. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because;
A. it is stronger
B. better esthetics can be achieved
C. it can be treated as an independent abutment
D. less chair time is required in its fabrication

169. The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown preparation is that;
A. it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be supragingival
B. Its position be subgingivall D. its position be easily discernible

170. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a
FPD?
A. Tooth with pulpal involvement
B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure
C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown

171. In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and other readily
oxidized minor components of the alloy is to;
A. Improve bonding
B. Decrease porosity
C. React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask the metal
D. Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and the porcelain

172. Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when

A. air fired C. tempered after firing
B. under compression D. fired several times before completion

173. The phenomenon where porcelain aapears different under varying light conditions
is;
A. metamerism C. transmittance
B. translucency D. opacification E. refractive optics

174. Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on short molars can
be enhanced by;
A. using zinc phosphate cement
B. placing several vertical groove
C. using a full shoulder finish line
D. minimizing the depth of occlusal carving

175. The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an occlusion rim by paralleling the
rim with the;
A. ala-tragus plane C. tragus-canthus plane
 B. ala-canthus plane D. ala-external auditory meatus plane

176. The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular complete denture is the;
A. labial border C. distolingual border
B. buccal border D. anterior lingual border

177. Which of the following describes a material with high compressive strength but low
tensile strength?
A. Tough B. brittle C. ductile D. malleable E. resilient

178. Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and, therefore, the most
difficult to remove from the mouth?
A. Polyether C. Addition silicone
B. Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible hydrocolloid

179. Which of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol
materials, except:
A. They provide an excellent marginal seal.
B. They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
C. They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin
D. They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.

180. Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging
them into an acid bath. This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restoration
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness of the restoration

181. Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a base-metal alloy in
numerical value?
A. Hardness C. casting shrinkage
B. Specific gravity D. fusion temperature E. modulus elasticity

182. Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a condensation impression
material as soon as possible?
A. The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is initially high and then
decreases with time.
B. Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of the set material.
C. If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expands as they absorb water
from air.
D. Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer of the impression tray
and cause distortion.

183. A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in:
A. holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
B. a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed
C. an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during
polymerization
D. an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the
mouth

184. When compared to other materials, which of the following is the main disadvantage
of using polyether elastomeric impression materials?
A. Tear easily C. are much stiffer
B. Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
E. have longer working time

185. An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid

material is that polysulfide impression material;
 A. will displace soft tissue
B. requires less armamentarium
C. is significantly more accurate
D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is present.

186. In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is:
A. silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten

187. Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type IV) powder primarily
in;
A. Density C. crystal structure
B. Chemical formula D. solubility in water

188. Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc
phosphate cement?
A. Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
B. Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility

189. Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire indicates that it has been;
A. cold worked C. stress relief annealed
B. recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment

190. Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;

A. degree of translucency
B. degree of saturation of the hue
C. combined effect of hue and value
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

191. Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid restoration for
frameworks of the same dimension?
A. Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
B. Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the hardened condition

192. Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and
gel to sol as a function of the ;
A. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers
B. percent composition by weight of water
C. concentration of potassium sulfate
D. temperature

193. Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible after fabrication in order
to minimize changes in shape caused by;
A. Drying of the wax C. volatilization of wax components
B. Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of the wax
E. relaxation of internal stresses

194. The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount
of;
A. silica B. carbon C. gypsum D. alumina

195. The property that most closely describes the ability of a cast gold inlay to be
burnished is;
A. elastic limit C. percentage elongation
B. ultimate strength D. modulus of resilience
E. modulus of elasticity

196. Creep of a metal indicates that the metal;

A. lacks edge strength C. has insufficient retention
B. has excessive flexibility D. will deform under static load
E. has insufficient crushing strength
197. Which of the following properties of dental materials is time-dependent?
A. Creep C. elastic limit
B. Resilience D. ultimate strength E. compressive strength

198. The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on the surface of a
dental amalgam restoration is most likely;
A. mercury B. a sulfide C. gamma-2 D. copper oxide

199. Which of the following is a problem with the polyether impression materials?
A. Low modulus of elasticity
B. Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
C. dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
D. consistency very similar to the reversible hydrocolloid

200. The component common to most composite resins, sealants, bonding and glazing
agents, and resin cements for orthodontic bonds is;
A. inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
B. benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate

201. Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

A. Shear B. impact C. tension D. compression

202. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap

203. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order
to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load
B. improve embrasure contours
C. stabilize the abutment teeth
D. improve mesiodistal spacing

204. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to
correct the centric occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should
this dentist do?
A. Make a new centric relation record and remount
B. Make a new face bow and centric record
C. Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
D. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

205. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the
following?
A. Lingually inclined maxillary molars
B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
C. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
D. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

206. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic
pontic. Which of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the
occlusal portion of this pontic?
A. The length of the pontic.
B. The masticatory force of the patient.
C. The position of the opposing contact areas.
D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

207. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred
over a lingual bar connector?
A. When more rigidity is required.
 B. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
C. When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
D. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.

208. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over
the ascending area of the mandible?
A. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
B. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
C. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle.
E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular
denture.

209. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
A. unseating of the denture C. greater retention
B. a tingling sensation D. increased gagging
210. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior
teeth on the non-working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
A. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps
B. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
C. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps
D. The central fossae

211. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent
loss of the vermillion border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to
correct the situation?
A. Moving the anterior teeth facially.
B. Increasing the interocclusal distance
C. Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
D. Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension

212. The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the:
A. junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
B. junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown
C. level of the free gingival margin
D. occlusal one third of the clinical crown

213. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
A. “s” sounds C. “t” and “th” sounds
B. “f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds

214. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain
the remaining supporting tissues?
A. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
B. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

215. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is:
A. increased rigidity C. increased durability
B. increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface

216. A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned
repeatedly for adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the
following is the most likely cause?
A. An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
B. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
C. The loss of even centric relation contacts.
D. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.

217. The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure hinging movements is
possible is:
A. centric occlusion
 B. retruded contact position
C. postural position of the mandible (rest vertical dimension)
D. transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position)

218. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing
point are in contact and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known
as the:
A. interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
B. vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension

219. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

A. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
B. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
C. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
D. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture.

220. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable
partial denture? Plastic teeth are:
A. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
B. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin

221. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine
needs an immediate maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut.
This patient is best treated by:
A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
B. reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
C. reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut
D. leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.

222. Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the most
esthetic?
A. A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attachment
B. A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-wire clasp

223. Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to mount a patient’s casts
on the true hinge axis?
A. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
B. When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures.
C. When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension through restorations.
D. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-cusped teeth on a fully
adjusted articulator.

224. In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regulate/s the paths of the
condyles in mandibular movements?
A. the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
B. The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap.
C. The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and muscular
influence.
D. The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of compensating curve.

225. Which of the following best explains why the dentist should provide a postpalatal
seal in a complete maxillary denture? The seal will compensate for:
A. errors in fabrication C. polymerization and cooling shrinkage
B. tissue displacement D. deformation of the impression material

226. For complete dentures, which of the following three factors affect the correct
positioning of lips?
A. Face-bow transfer, position of teeth, and correct rest vertical dimension.
 B. Face-bow transfer, thickness of the anterior border, and correct occlusal vertical
dimension.
C. Correct rest vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and position of
teeth.
D. Correct occlusal vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and
position of teeth.

227. Which of the following jaw-relation records should be used for setting both the
medial and superior condylar guides on an arcon articulator?
A. Intercuspation C. lateral interocclusal records
B. Centric relation D. protrusive interocclusal records

228. An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a patient to overclose and to have a
poor facial profile. To correct this problem, the dentist should do which of the following?
A. increase the rest vertical dimension and increase the interocclusal distance
B. decrease the rest vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal distance
C. decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and increase interocclusal distance
D. increase the occlusal vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal
distance

229. Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if occlusal vertical dimension is
increased?
A. The closing muscles may become strained
B. The opening muscles may become strained
C. The closing muscles may become too relaxed
D. Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth.

230. A patient has a chronically tender, knife-edge mandibular residual ridge. In

fabricating a complete denture for this patient, a dentist should consider which of the
following?
A. Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute forces of occlusion over a
greater area.
B. Minimal extension of the denture- to limit tenderness to a smaller area.
C. Decreased occlusal vertical dimension- to decrease biting forces
D. A broad occlusal table- to provide a firmer contact in eccentric jar relations.

231. Tripod marks are placed on the cast after surveying for which of the following
reasons?
A. To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth.
B. To help mount the cast on the articulator
C. To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator
D. To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor.

232. In a complete maxillary denture, accurate adaptation of the border of the maxillary
facial flange affects which of the following the most?
A. Speech B. support C. stability D. esthetics

233. The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should receive special
attention. Which of the following anatomical structures might cause soreness if the denture
is overextended?
A. Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe
B. Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral tendon of the temporal

234. A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-
extension partial denture. The recommended procedure is to
A. make impression of both simultaneously
B. start first on the maxillary complete denture
C. start first with the least stable prosthesis
D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame
235. Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount of adjustment of a
base metal removable clasp arm?
A. Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D. tensile strength

236. A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-
extension partial denture. The recommended procedure is to
A. make impression of both simultaneously
B. start first on the maxillary complete denture
C. start first with the least stable prosthesis
D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

237. In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what direction?

A. Out, back and up C. down, forward and medially
B. Up, back and down D. down, forward and laterally
E. none of the above.

238. The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a complete denture that
has been worn for a long time is:
A. epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
B. pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma

239. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in
a horizontal direction is:
A. support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability

240. Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best avoided by:
A. Using stressbreakers
B. using intracoronal attachments
C. Using bar-type clasps
D. altering tooth contours
E. clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and normal bone support

241. Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is due primarily to:

A. occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal conditioner
B. improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed framework

242. A patient who wears complete denture is having trouble pronouncing the letter “t”.
This is probably caused by:
A. too thick a palatal seal area
B. too thick a base in the mandibular denture
C. incorrect positioning of maxillary incisors
D. improper positioning of mandibular incisors

243. The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a complete denture is
limited by the action of the:
A. stylohyoid muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle
B. medial pterygoid muscle D. superior constrictor muscle

244. In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to:

A. aid in balancing occlusion
B. assure predictable clasp retention
C. from right angles to the occlusal plane
D. eliminate the necessity for precision attachments
E. eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp

245. When the path of dislodgement is not controlled and rotational dislodgement of
extension bases occurs, remotely located vertical metal stops placed in prepared seats
can be used to enhance the effectiveness of retentive clasps. The vertical metal stops are:
A. indirect claps C. indirect retainers
B. remote retainer D. forward retainers E. passive retainers
246. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in
A. poor denture retention
B. increased interocclusal distance
C. drooping of the corners of the mouth
D. creases and wrinkles around the lip
E. trauma to underlying supporting tissues

247. An advantage of a wide, thin palatal bar compared with a narrow bar is that the
wide bar:
A. is more stable C. can be rigid with less bulk
B. is easier to polish D. is less irritating to the soft tissue

248. When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in centric relation, but does not
contact in one or more of the eccentric movements, grinding should be performed on:
A. both the cusp and the opposing area
B. the opposing fossa or the marginal ridge
C. the cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact
D. the opposing areas in eccentric positions.

249. Proper lip support for a patient with complete dentures is provided primarily by the;
A. convex surface of the labial flange
B. rounded contours of interdental papillae
C. proper pronouncement of sibilant sounds
D. thickness of the border in the vestibule
E. facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated attached gingiva.

250. In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base, which of the following
is on the posterior border?
A. Hamular notch C. fovea palatini
B. Hamular process D. vibrating line E. pterygomandibular raphe

251. Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture?

A. Xerostomia
B. Air chamber in midpalate
C. Foreshortened denture bases
D. Increased salivary film thickness
E. Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa

252. Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete denture with severe
bilateral tuberosity undercuts is to:
A. remove both tuberosity undercuts
B. reduce the tissue bilaterally
C. reduce the tissue on one side , if possible
D. none of the above. No treatment is necessary.

253. Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs;

A. on closing from centric relation
B. on initial opening from centric relation
C. in the upper compartment of the TMJ
D. in the lower compartment of the TMJ

254. When the posterior maxillary buccal space is entirely filled with the denture flange,
interference may occur with movement of the;
A. masseter muscle C. condyloid process
B. coronoid process D. zygomatic process

255. A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal extension RPD. This
is probably caused by:
A. deflective occlusal contacts
 B. thin flanges on acrylic bases
C. passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth
D. insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth

256. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the distance between
occluding surfaces of maxillary and mandibular teeth or occlusion rim is;
A. centric occlusion C. interocclusal distance
B. vertical dimension D. vertical dimension of rest

257. Which of the following design characteristics of a partial denture is most important
to oral health?
A. Bracing B. support C. stability D. retention

258. The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of porcelain is the;
A. fusion temperature C. uniformity of particle size
B. ratio of flux to feldspar D. thoroughness of condensation

259. An abutment tooth exhibiting an unfavorable survey line should;

A. be restored
B. have unfavorable contours improved
C. be by-passed in the framework design
D. receive only a rest and not be clasped

260. To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge

should be so formed that it;
A. extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
B. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
C. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
D. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area

261. Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but
not sweets occurs. The most likely cause is;
A. gingival recession
B. unseating of the bridge
C. deflective occlusal contact
D. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
E. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth

262. The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of
the retainer in function is called;
A. tripoding C. stress-breaking
B. reciprocation D. indirect retention

263. The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence in;

A. lateral movements C. opening movements
B. protrusive movements D. closing movements

264. The face-bow is used to record;

A. centric relation
B. relation of the mandible to the maxilla
C. relation of the maxilla to the TMJ
D. relation of the mandible to the TMJ

265. The function of the compensating curve is;

A. to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible
is protruded.
B. To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
C. The same as the function of the curve of Spee
D. None of the above.
266. The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is;
A. moisture contamination
B. excessive condensation of the porcelain
C. excessive firing
D. inadequate condensation of the porcelain

267. On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

A. horizontal guidance
B. same as the condylar guidance
C. mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee
D. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.

268. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because;
A. it is stronger
B. better esthetics can be achieved
C. it can be treated as an independent abutment
D. less chair time is required in its fabrication

269. The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown preparation is that;
A. it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be supragingival
B. Its position be subgingivall D. its position be easily discernible

270. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a
FPD?
A. Tooth with pulpal involvement
B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure
C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown

271. In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and other readily
oxidized minor components of the alloy is to;
A. Improve bonding
B. Decrease porosity
C. React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask the metal
D. Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and the porcelain

272. Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when

A. air fired C. tempered after firing
B. under compression D. fired several times before completion

273. The phenomenon where porcelain aapears different under varying light conditions
is;
A. metamerism C. transmittance
B. translucency D. opacification E. refractive optics

274. Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on short molars can
be enhanced by;
A. using zinc phosphate cement
B. placing several vertical groove
C. using a full shoulder finish line
D. minimizing the depth of occlusal carving

275. The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an occlusion rim by paralleling the
rim with the;
A. ala-tragus plane C. tragus-canthus plane
B. ala-canthus plane D. ala-external auditory meatus plane

276. The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular complete denture is the;
A. labial border C. distolingual border
B. buccal border D. anterior lingual border
277. Which of the following describes a material with high compressive strength but low
tensile strength?
A. Tough B. brittle C. ductile D. malleable E. resilient

278. Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and, therefore, the most
difficult to remove from the mouth?
A. Polyether C. Addition silicone
B. Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible hydrocolloid

279. Which of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol
materials, except:
A. They provide an excellent marginal seal.
B. They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
C. They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin
D. They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.

280. Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging
them into an acid bath. This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restoration
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness of the restoration

281. Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a base-metal alloy in
numerical value?
A. Hardness C. casting shrinkage
B. Specific gravity D. fusion temperature E. modulus elasticity

282. Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a condensation impression
material as soon as possible?
A. The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is initially high and then
decreases with time.
B. Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of the set material.
C. If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expands as they absorb water
from air.
D. Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer of the impression tray
and cause distortion.

283. A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in:
A. holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
B. a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed
C. an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during
polymerization
D. an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the
mouth

284. When compared to other materials, which of the following is the main disadvantage
of using polyether elastomeric impression materials?
A. Tear easily C. are much stiffer
B. Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
E. have longer working time

285. An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid

material is that polysulfide impression material;
A. will displace soft tissue
B. requires less armamentarium
C. is significantly more accurate
D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is present.

286. In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is:
 A. silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten

287. Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type IV) powder primarily
in;
A. Density C. crystal structure
B. Chemical formula D. solubility in water

288. Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc
phosphate cement?
A. Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
B. Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility

289. Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire indicates that it has been;
A. cold worked C. stress relief annealed
B. recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment

290. Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;

A. degree of translucency
B. degree of saturation of the hue
C. combined effect of hue and value
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

291. Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid restoration for
frameworks of the same dimension?
A. Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
B. Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the hardened condition

292. Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and
gel to sol as a function of the ;
A. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers
B. percent composition by weight of water
C. concentration of potassium sulfate
D. temperature

293. Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible after fabrication in order
to minimize changes in shape caused by;
A. Drying of the wax C. volatilization of wax components
B. Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of the wax
E. relaxation of internal stresses

294. The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount
of;
A. silica B. carbon C. gypsum D. alumina

295. The property that most closely describes the ability of a cast gold inlay to be
burnished is;
A. elastic limit C. percentage elongation
B. ultimate strength D. modulus of resilience
E. modulus of elasticity

296. Creep of a metal indicates that the metal;

A. lacks edge strength C. has insufficient retention
B. has excessive flexibility D. will deform under static load
E. has insufficient crushing strength

297. Which of the following properties of dental materials is time-dependent?

A. Creep C. elastic limit
B. Resilience D. ultimate strength E. compressive strength
298. The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on the surface of a
dental amalgam restoration is most likely;
A. mercury B. a sulfide C. gamma-2 D. copper oxide

299. Which of the following is a problem with the polyether impression materials?
A. Low modulus of elasticity
B. Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
C. dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
D. consistency very similar to the reversible hydrocolloid

300. The component common to most composite resins, sealants, bonding and glazing
agents, and resin cements for orthodontic bonds is;
A. inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
B. benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate

301. Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

A. Shear B. impact C. tension D. compression

I. Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete denture with severe bilateral
tuberosity undercuts is to:
a. remove both tuberosity undercuts
b. reduce the tissue bilaterally
c. reduce the tissue on one side , if possible
d. none of the above. No treatment is necessary.

J. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
a. improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve embrasure contours
b. stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing

K. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to correct the
centric occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this dentist do?
a. Make a new centric relation record and remount
b. Make a new face bow and centric record
c. Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
d. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

L. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
a. Lingually inclined maxillary molars
b. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
c. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
d. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

M. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of
the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this
pontic?
a. The length of the pontic.
b. The masticatory force of the patient.
c. The position of the opposing contact areas.
d. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

N. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:

a. unseating of the denture C. greater retention
b. a tingling sensation D. increased gagging

O. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the
non-working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
a. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
b. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central fossae

P. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the
vermillion border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to correct the situation?
a. Moving the anterior teeth facially.
b. Increasing the interocclusal distance
 c. Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
d. Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension

Q. The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the:
a. junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
b. junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown
c. level of the free gingival margin
d. occlusal one third of the clinical crown

R. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
a. “s” sounds B. “t” and “th” sounds C. “f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds

S. Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not sweets
occurs. The most likely cause is;
a. gingival recession D. unseating of the bridge
b. deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
c. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth

T. The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of the retainer in
function is called;
a. tripoding C. stress-breaking
b. reciprocation D. indirect retention

U. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the remaining
supporting tissues?
a. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
b. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

V. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is:

a. increased rigidity C. increased durability
b. increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface

W. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing point are in
contact and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
a. interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
b. vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension

X. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

a. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
b. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
c. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
d. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture.

Y. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial denture?
Plastic teeth are:
a. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
b. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin

Z. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine needs an
immediate maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient is
best treated by:
a. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
b. reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
c. reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut
d. leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.

AA. Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the most
esthetic?
a. A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attachment
b. A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-wire clasp

BB. Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to mount a patient’s casts on the
true hinge axis?
a. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
b. When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures.
c. When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension through restorations.
 d. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-cusped teeth on a fully adjusted
articulator.

CC. In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regulate/s the paths of the
condyles in mandibular movements?
a. the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
b. The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap.
c. The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and muscular influence.
d. The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of compensating curve.

DD. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because;
a. it is stronger
b. better esthetics can be achieved
c. it can be treated as an independent abutment
d. less chair time is required in its fabrication

EE. The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown preparation is that;
a. it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be supragingival
b. Its position be subgingivall D. its position be easily discernible

FF. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a FPD?
a. Tooth with pulpal involvement
b. Tooth with minimal coronal structure
c. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
d. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown

GG. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because;
a. it is stronger
b. better esthetics can be achieved
c. it can be treated as an independent abutment
d. less chair time is required in its fabrication

HH. The phenomenon where porcelain aapears different under varying light conditions is;
a. metamerism C. transmittance
b. translucency D. opacification E. refractive optics

II. Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on short molars can be enhanced by;
a. using zinc phosphate cement C. placing several vertical groove
b. using a full shoulder finish line D. minimizing the depth of occlusal carving

JJ. The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an occlusion rim by paralleling the rim with the;
a. ala-tragus plane C. tragus-canthus plane
b. ala-canthus plane D. ala-external auditory meatus plane

KK. Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if occlusal vertical dimension is
increased?
a. The closing muscles may become strained
b. The opening muscles may become strained
c. The closing muscles may become too relaxed
d. Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth.

LL. A patient has a chronically tender, knife-edge mandibular residual ridge. In fabricating a complete
denture for this patient, a dentist should consider which of the following?
a. Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute forces of occlusion over a greater
area.
b. Minimal extension of the denture- to limit tenderness to a smaller area.
c. Decreased occlusal vertical dimension- to decrease biting forces
d. A broad occlusal table- to provide a firmer contact in eccentric jar relations.

MM. Tripod marks are placed on the cast after surveying for which of the following reasons?
a. To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth.
b. To help mount the cast on the articulator
c. To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator
d. To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor.

NN. In a complete maxillary denture, accurate adaptation of the border of the maxillary facial
flange affects which of the following the most?
 a. Speech B. support C. stability D. esthetics

OO. The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should receive special attention.
Which of the following anatomical structures might cause soreness if the denture is overextended?
a. Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe
b. Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral tendon of the temporal

PP.A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-extension partial
denture. The recommended procedure is to
a. make impression of both simultaneously
b. start first on the maxillary complete denture
c. start first with the least stable prosthesis
d. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

QQ. Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount of adjustment of a base
metal removable clasp arm?
a. Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D. tensile strength

RR. In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what direction?

a. Out, back and up C. down, forward and medially
b. Up, back and down D. down, forward and laterally
E. none of the above.

SS. The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a complete denture that has been worn
for a long time is:
a. epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
b. pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma

TT. Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a base-metal alloy in numerical value?
a. Hardness C. casting shrinkage
b. Specific gravity D. fusion temperature E. modulus elasticity

UU. Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a condensation impression
material as soon as possible?
a. The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is initially high and then decreases
with time.
b. Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of the set material.
c. If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expands as they absorb water from air.
d. Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer of the impression tray and cause
distortion.

[Link] of the following is a problem with the polyether impression materials?

a. Low modulus of elasticity
b. Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
c. dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
d. consistency very similar to the reversible hydrocolloid

WW. The component common to most composite resins, sealants, bonding and glazing
agents, and resin cements for orthodontic bonds is;
a. inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
b. benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate

[Link] amalgam will best withstand forces of;

a. Shear B. impact C. tension D. compression

[Link] relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in a horizontal
direction is:
a. support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability

ZZ. Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best avoided by:
a. Using stressbreakers D. using intracoronal attachments
b. Using bar-type clasps E. altering tooth contours
c. clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and normal bone support

AAA. Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is due primarily to:

a. occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal conditioner
b. improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed framework
BBB. A patient who wears complete denture is having trouble pronouncing the letter “t”. This
is probably caused by:
a. too thick a palatal seal area
b. too thick a base in the mandibular denture
c. incorrect positioning of maxillary incisors
d. improper positioning of mandibular incisors

CCC. The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a complete denture is
limited by the action of the:
a. stylohyoid muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle
b. medial pterygoid muscle D. superior constrictor muscle

DDD. In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to:

a. aid in balancing occlusion D. assure predictable clasp retention
b. from right angles to the occlusal plane E. eliminate the necessity for precision
attachments
c. eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp

EEE. When the path of dislodgement is not controlled and rotational dislodgement of
extension bases occurs, remotely located vertical metal stops placed in prepared seats can be
used to enhance the effectiveness of retentive clasps. The vertical metal stops are:
a. indirect claps C. indirect retainers
b. remote retainer D. forward retainers E. passive retainers

FFF. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in

a. poor denture retention D. increased interocclusal distance
b. drooping of the corners of the mouth E. creases and wrinkles around the lip
c. trauma to underlying supporting tissues

GGG. An advantage of a wide, thin palatal bar compared with a narrow bar is that the wide
bar:
a. is more stable C. can be rigid with less bulk
b. is easier to polish D. is less irritating to the soft tissue

HHH. When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in centric relation, but does not contact in
one or more of the eccentric movements, grinding should be performed on:
a. both the cusp and the opposing area
b. the opposing fossa or the marginal ridge
c. the cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact
d. the opposing areas in eccentric positions.

III. Proper lip support for a patient with complete dentures is provided primarily by the;
a. convex surface of the labial flange
b. rounded contours of interdental papillae
c. proper pronouncement of sibilant sounds
d. thickness of the border in the vestibule
e. facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated attached gingiva.

JJJ. In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base, which of the following is
on the posterior border?
a. Hamular notch C. fovea palatini
b. Hamular process D. vibrating line E. pterygomandibular raphe

KKK. Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture?

a. Xerostomia D. Air chamber in midpalate
b. Foreshortened denture bases E. Increased salivary film thickness
c. Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa

LLL. When the posterior maxillary buccal space is entirely filled with the denture flange,
interference may occur with movement of the;
a. masseter muscle C. condyloid process
b. coronoid process D. zygomatic process

MMM. A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal extension RPD. This is
probably caused by:
a. deflective occlusal contacts C. thin flanges on acrylic bases
 b. passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth D. insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth

NNN. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the distance between occluding
surfaces of maxillary and mandibular teeth or occlusion rim is;
a. centric occlusion C. interocclusal distance
b. vertical dimension D. vertical dimension of rest

OOO. Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs;

a. on closing from centric relation C. on initial opening from centric relation
b. in the upper compartment of the TMJ D. in the lower compartment of the TMJ

PPP. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
a. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap

QQQ. Which of the following design characteristics of a partial denture is most important to
oral health?
a. Bracing B. support C. stability D. retention

RRR. The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of porcelain is the;
a. fusion temperature C. uniformity of particle size
b. ratio of flux to feldspar D. thoroughness of condensation

SSS. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred over
a lingual bar connector?
a. When more rigidity is required.
b. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
c. When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
d. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.

TTT. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over the
ascending area of the mandible?
a. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
b. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
c. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
d. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle.
e. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture.

UUU. The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence in;

a. lateral movements C. opening movements
b. protrusive movements D. closing movements

VVV. The face-bow is used to record;

a. centric relation C. relation of the mandible to the maxilla
b. relation of the maxilla to the TMJ D. relation of the mandible to the TMJ

WWW. The function of the compensating curve is;

a. to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible is
protruded.
b. To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
c. The same as the function of the curve of Spee
d. None of the above.

XXX. A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned repeatedly
for adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the most
likely cause?
a. An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
b. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
c. The loss of even centric relation contacts.
d. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.

YYY. The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure hinging movements is
possible is:
a. centric occlusion C. postural position of the mandible (rest vertical dimension)
b. retruded contact position D. transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position)
ZZZ. To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge
should be so formed that it;
a. extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
b. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
c. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
d. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area

AAAA. An abutment tooth exhibiting an unfavorable survey line should;

a. be restored C. have unfavorable contours improved
b. be by-passed in the framework design D. receive only a rest and not be clasped

BBBB. The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is;

a. moisture contamination C. excessive condensation of the porcelain
b. excessive firing D. inadequate condensation of the porcelain

CCCC. On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

a. horizontal guidance
b. same as the condylar guidance
c. mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee
d. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.

DDDD. In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and other readily oxidized
minor components of the alloy is to;
a. Improve bonding
b. Decrease porosity
c. React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask the metal
d. Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and the porcelain

EEEE. Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when

a. air fired C. tempered after firing
b. under compression D. fired several times before completion

FFFF. Which of the following jaw-relation records should be used for setting both the medial
and superior condylar guides on an arcon articulator?
a. Intercuspation C. lateral interocclusal records
b. Centric relation D. protrusive interocclusal records

GGGG. An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a patient to overclose and to have a
poor facial profile. To correct this problem, the dentist should do which of the following?
a. increase the rest vertical dimension and increase the interocclusal distance
b. decrease the rest vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal distance
c. decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and increase interocclusal distance
d. increase the occlusal vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal distance

HHHH. The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular complete denture is the;
a. labial border C. distolingual border
b. buccal border D. anterior lingual border

IIII. Which of the following describes a material with high compressive strength but low tensile
strength?
a. Tough B. brittle C. ductile D. malleable E. resilient

JJJJ. Which of the following best explains why the dentist should provide a postpalatal seal in
a complete maxillary denture? The seal will compensate for:
a. errors in fabrication C. polymerization and cooling shrinkage
b. tissue displacement D. deformation of the impression material

KKKK. For complete dentures, which of the following three factors affect the correct positioning
of lips?
a. Face-bow transfer, position of teeth, and correct rest vertical dimension.
b. Face-bow transfer, thickness of the anterior border, and correct occlusal vertical dimension.
c. Correct rest vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and position of teeth.
d. Correct occlusal vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and position of
teeth.

LLLL. Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and, therefore, the most
difficult to remove from the mouth?
 a. Polyether C. Addition silicone
b. Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible hydrocolloid

MMMM. Which of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol
materials, except:
a. They provide an excellent marginal seal.
b. They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
c. They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin
d. They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.

NNNN. Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging
them into an acid bath. This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restoration
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness of the restoration

OOOO. A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in:
a. holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
b. a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed
c. an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during
polymerization
d. an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the mouth

PPPP. When compared to other materials, which of the following is the main disadvantage of
using polyether elastomeric impression materials?
a. Tear easily C. are much stiffer
b. Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
E. have longer working time

QQQQ. An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is

that polysulfide impression material;
a. will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamentarium
b. is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is
present.

RRRR. In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is:
a. silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten

SSSS. Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type IV) powder primarily in;
a. Density B. crystal structure C. Chemical formula D. solubility in water

TTTT. Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc phosphate
cement?
a. Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
b. Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility

UUUU. Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire indicates that it has been;
a. cold worked C. stress relief annealed
b. recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment

VVVV. Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;

a. degree of translucency C. degree of saturation of the hue
b. combined effect of hue and value D. all of the above E. none of the above.

WWWW. Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid restoration for frameworks
of the same dimension?
a. Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
b. Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the hardened condition

XXXX. Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and gel
to sol as a function of the ;
a. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C. percent composition by weight of water
b. concentration of potassium sulfate D. temperature

YYYY. Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible after fabrication in order to
minimize changes in shape caused by;
a. Drying of the wax C. volatilization of wax components
b. Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of the wax
 E. relaxation of internal stresses

ZZZZ. The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount of;
a. silica B. carbon C. gypsum D. alumina

AAAAA. The property that most closely describes the ability of a cast gold inlay to be burnished
is;
a. elastic limit C. percentage elongation
b. ultimate strength D. modulus of resilience E. modulus of elasticity

BBBBB. Creep of a metal indicates that the metal;

a. lacks edge strength C. has insufficient retention
b. has excessive flexibility D. will deform under static load
E. has insufficient crushing strength

CCCCC. Which of the following properties of dental materials is time-dependent?

a. Creep C. elastic limit
b. Resilience D. ultimate strength E. compressive strength

DDDDD. The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on the surface of a dental
amalgam restoration is most likely;
a. mercury B. a sulfide C. gamma-2 D. copper oxide

[Link] classes of mandibular RPDs require an altered cast impression?

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. both A & B

2. Examples of suprabulge clasps are the following except:

A. Circumferential B. EmbrasureC. RPI D. Ring E. Hairpin

[Link] following are indications for a linguoplate as a major connector for a mandibular RPD, except
A. High floor of the mouth (<7 mm of vertical height) D. High lingual frenum
B. Absence of lingual tori E. One or more missing incisors
C. Periodontially involved incisors with possible loss in the future

[Link] guide surface preparation should be curved

A. mesio-distallyB. bucco-linguallyC. occluso-gingivally D. none of the above

[Link] WORST clasp assembly for a terminal abutment on a mandibular class I RPD is
A. Mesial rest and I-bar C. Mesial and distal rest and a 1/2 and 1/2 clasp
B. Distal rest and cast circumferential clasp D. Mesial rest and modified T-bar

[Link] biting, a maxillary Class I RPD will rotate around a line determined by the rigid metal above the
survey line and closest to the extension areas. This line is called
A. Camper's line B. Frankfort line C. Dual path line D. Axis of rotation

[Link] of clasp:
A. help stabilize the RPD by controlling occlusal movement.
B. help stabilize the RPD by controlling gingival movement.
C. may also function as indirect retainers.
D. prevent excessive biting forces on the abutments.

8. When surveying to determine the height of contour of the abutments, the mark on the tooth must be
made by the: A. side of the lead marker. C. side of the analyzing rod
B. tip of the carbon marker D. tip of the analyzing rod

9. If a metal base is to be used

A. an altered cast impression should be made after framework try-in
B. a stock tray should be used for the final impression
C. a custom tray should be used for the final impression
D. interocclusal records must be made after tooth selection
[Link] of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and can be used on premolars for
either extension or tooth-supported RPDs?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp

11. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and is only used on molars?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp

12. Cleaning a removable partial denture in sodium hypochlorite may result in:
A. increased caries activityC. corrosion of the metal of the framework
B. increased periodontal problemsD. A and B above

13. Cast retentive arms are usually selected when the RPD is tooth supported / or when the retentive tips
release during functional movements of extension RPDs.
A. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
B. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
C. First phrase is false, second phrase is false.
D. Both phrases are true.

[Link] rests:
A. are generally more positive vertical stops than cingulum rests.
B. may interfere with the opposing occlusion.
C. should not be used on maxillary incisors.
D. all of the above.

[Link] of the following steps is done LAST?

A. Rest preparationC. Centric relation records
B. Framework try-in D. Altered cast impression

16. In a circumferential clasp assembly, only one of the arms may extend into an undercut. The other arm,
the bracing or reciprocating arm, must be rigid and therefore, cannot extend into an undercut.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. First statement is false, second statement is false.
D. First statement is true, second statement is true.

17. An anterior-posterior palatal strap major connector is less rigid than a horse-shoe major connector
because it (the A-P strap) has less width.
A. The first statement is true but the reason is false.
B. The first statement is false and the reason is also a false statement.
C. The first statement is true and the reason is true.
D. The first statement is false but the reason is a true statement.

18. Guide plates for anterior teeth

A. should be kept to the labial for best esthetics. C. be thinned on the labial aspect.
B. should be kept to the lingual for best esthetics. D. both B and C above.

19. Occlusal rest preparations should be

A. spoon shaped C. at least one millimeter deep
B. at least 1/3 the buccolingual width of the occlusal surface D. all of the above

20. In general, lingual plating should be supported

A. by the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors. [Link] minor connectors.
B. with bracing arms. D. with rests.

21. The internal and external finish lines are

A. normally superimposed over each other.
B. normally offset from each other to avoid weakness in the framework.
C. normally designed and placed independently.
D. none of the above statements are true.

22. When placing the tripod marks on the diagnostic cast, the vertical arm of the surveyor
A. should have the analyzing rod in place.
B. should be moved up or down to touch the tissues at widely separated areas.
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 nor 2 are true

23. The partial denture design should be finalized prior to

A. any emergency treatment.C. preparation of rest seats.
B. any fixed prosthodontic treatment.D. both B and C above.

24. The open latticework on a maxillary class I RPD:

A. covers the hamular notch. C. does not cover the tuberosity.
B. covers the tuberosity.D. requires substantial interarch space

25. The external finish line on a maxillary Class I RPD originates from the lingual of the guide plate of the
terminal abutment and ends
A. at the hamular notch. C. opposite the buccal pouch
B. in the glenoid fossa.D. opposite Stenson's duct.

26. The following factor/s may be responsible for the failure to seat the bridge:
A. Cusps may be high.
B. Under contouring axial surfaces of retainer.
C. Abutment teeth may have moved and one or more contacts may be overbuilt.
D. Incorrect hinge axis.
E. None of the above.

27. Trauma to the pulp following tooth preparation for fixed bridges arises from the following cause/s:
A. Use of spray water.
B. Severing vital structures in dentin and an increase in temperature from frictional heat.
C. Coolant evacuation.
D. Anesthesia.
E. None of the above.

28. Following cementation, the bridge should be examined :

A. after 3 days. C. after 7 to 10 days.
B. after 14 days D. after 30 days E. none of these.

29. Intraradicular retainers is/are used on:

A. vital teeth
B. any tooth where a complete crown is indicated.
C. nonvital teeth when the coronal tissues cannot be saved.
D. any tooth where a three-quarter crown is indicated.
E. none of the above.

30. The construction of a bridge is normally scheduled after the following is/are completed:
A. surgery
B. surgery, periodontal therapy and operative dentistry
C. periodontal therapy
D. Operative dentistry
E. none of the above.

31. Premature contacts in centric relation and any lateral slide as patient closes into centric occlusion:
A. can be eliminated while bridge is under construction.
B. can be eliminated after bridge has been constructed.
C. need not be eliminated.
D. should be eliminated by grinding before the bridge is made.
E. none of the above.

32. The following amount of forward slide from centric relation to centric occlusion can be regarded as
normal in the absence of any periodontal pathology or mobile teeth:
A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm. E. None of tghese.
33. The incisal edge of the three-quarter crown retainer on the cuspid tooth is:
A. about 45 degrees to long axis of tooth. C. 60 degrees to long axis of tooth.
B. 30 degrees to long axis of tooth. D. 15 degrees to long axis of tooth

34. The buccal three-quarter crown is a variation of the standard three-quarter crown and is used on the:
A. maxillary molars C. maxillary cuspids
B. mandibular bicuspids D. mandibular molars [Link] of these.

35. The gold-veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated D. a mesial half crown is indicated.
B. a complete crown is indicated E. none of these.
C. a buccal three-quarter crown is indicated

36. A telescopic crown :

A. is a mesial half crown
B. is a distal half crown
C. is a modified complete crown made as the coping and the crown.
D. Richmond crown

37. Telescopic crowns are indicated for:

A. nonvital teeth C. cases requiring shoulderless preparations
B. cuspids only D. broken-down crown

[Link] for three-quarter crown retainers include:

A. when caries have eroded proximal and lingual surfaces.
B. cannot be used on any tooth (anterior or posterior)
C. cannot be used on periodontally involved tooth.
D. cannot be used on short anterior teeth

39. Temporary protection for the porcelain jacket crown preparation should be accomplished by:
A. celluloid crown. D. guttapercha crown
B. a self-curing resin temporary crown E. none of these.
C. zinc oxide and eugenol

40. The nonrigid connector is:

A. used for long spans C. used when alveolus is extremely reduced
B. a broken-stress joint D. used when alveolus is actively receding

41.A good solder joint must have:

A. a triangular peripheral attachment
B. a complete and concave peripheral attachment
C. a partial and convex peripheral attachment
D. a partial and concave peripheral attachment
E. none of the above.

42. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the adult patient the
depth is:
A. less than 1.0mm C. more than 10mm
B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm E. none of these.

43. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the young patient the
depth is:
A. more than 1.0mm B. more than 5.0mm C. shallow D. more than 2.0mmE. none

44. The complete seating of a FPD requires evaluation of the following:

1. contact areas 3. centric occlusion
2. marginal finish line 4. functional occlusion and stability
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. 1 only

45. A curve of spee that is too flat produces:

A. molar cusps that are too short D. anterior teeth that are too short
B. molar cusps that are too long E. none of the above.
C. anterior teeth that are too long

46. When the plane of occlusion is too low, the posterior cusps:
A. will appear too long C. will appear of normal length
B. will appear too short D. will appear out of occlusion E. none of these.

47. FPD require the use of:

A. soft golds B. medium hard golds C. hard golds D. Type A golds

[Link]-fired porcelain depends on good preliminary condensation. This is accomplished by the following
method/s: 1. Vibration 2. Pressure [Link] 4. Capillary packing
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. 1 only E. 4 only.

49. A disadvantage of the porcelain bonded to gold is:

A. porosity B. color stability [Link] casting of the restorative goldD. allergy E. none of these.

50. The first essential condition for physiologic tooth form for the FPD is:
A. hinge axis C. dentolabial relations
B. harmony of jaws D. functional occlusion E. none of these.

51. Which is the best pre-extraction guide for complete dentures:

A. size of face C. color of teeth E. photographs
B. size of teeth D. casts of natural teeth

52. Which of the following factors is necessary in the adhesion of denture bases to the tissue:
A. Rounded peripheries C. Atmospheric pressure E. All of them
B. Proper peripheral seal D. Thin film of saliva

53-62. For these numbers, identify the impression materials with its corresponding characteristics. Choose
from the following:
A. zinc oxideeugenol paste C. reversible hydrocolloid E. Tru plaster
B. irreversible hydrocolloid D. rubber impression

53. used for high thin mandibular ridges D 58. lose moisture and is affected by salivaB
54. burning sensation can be felt A 59. requires separating medium before pouringE
55. weight of stone may distort border B 60. absorbs mucus secretion from the palateE
56. final impression material of choice for complete [Link] not absorb mucus secretionB
57. used for preliminary impression C 62. change size rapidlyB

63. Prior to centric relation registration, guidelines to determine the width of the six anterior teeth:
A. low lip line B. cuspid line C. high lip line D. midline

64-67. For these numbers, choose the right answer from the following:
A. vertical dimension C. centric relation E. occlusal contour rim
B. centric occlusion D. trial record base

64. tentative blueprint for complete denture E 66. tooth to tooth relationship B
65. bone to bone relationship C67. height of the faceA

68-71. For these numbers, choose from the following:

A. overbite B. high lip line C. alar line D. overjet

68. determines length of anterior teeth B 70. guide to set posterior teethE
69. determines width of six anterior teeth C 71. horizontal overlapD

72. The distal palatal termination of the upper denture is best dictated by:
A. hamulusB. vibrating line C. fovea palatine D. A and B only E. B and C only

73. The oral structure which remains consistent through life:

A. residual ridge B. incisive papillaC. mental foramen D. maxillary tuberosity E. all of them

74. The inter arch distance is located between:

A. the edentulous ridges C. masticatory surface of the teeth with mouth open fully
B. masticatory surface of the teeth at rest D. all of the above E. none of the above

75. The following are the most important aspect of complete denture construction:
A. accurate impression C. proper occlusion
B. correct jaw relations D. all of the above E. none of the above

76. The best pickling agent is: A. phosphoric acid B. hydrochloric acid C. sulfuric acidD. nitric acid.

77. The clinical signs of expansion of amalgam are the ff. except:
A. pain B. corrosion [Link] of amalgam D. smooth and shiny.

78. The standard size of gold foil: A. 4 inchesB. 4 meters C. 4 mm. D. 4 inches sq.

79. U. S. P. labeled for a bottle of mercury is :

A. distilled B. redistilled C. puremercury D. contaminated.

80. The ff. are ingredients of dental porcelain except

A. feldspar B. quartz C. silver D. glasses.

81. The first procedure in casting:

A. impression B. investing C. preparation of wax pattern [Link].

82. The ff. are acidic dental cements except

A. silicate [Link] C. zinc phosphate D. calcium hydroxide.

83. The ff. are causes of amalgam failure except

A. dimensional change B. fracture C. recurrent caries D. polished surface.

84. Rapid disintegration of the investment from the casting ring is

A. percolation B. investing C. quenching D. waxing.

85. The cleaning of the casted metal with an acid is

A. polymerization B. quenching C. soldering D. pickling.

86. The main ingredient of inlay wax is

A. carnauba B. paraffin C. gum dammar [Link] wax.

87. The ff. are effects of wax pattern softened in a water bath except
A. thermal change B. spattering C. easy to manipulate D. smearing of the surface of the wax.

88. The hottest portion of the flame in an air gas blowpipe

A. combustion B. reducing C. nozzle D. oxidizing zone.

89. Burnout is done in an electrical furnace for: A. 30 min B.15 min C. 45 min. D.) one hour.

90. The passageway of the molten metal to reach the mold is

A. crucible [Link] C. reservoir D. asbestos.

91. The size of the sprue depends upon

A. size of the wax pattern B. height of the casting ring C. type of casting machine D. all of these

92. The following are classified as fillers except a) borax b) diatomaceous earth c) zinc oxide d) french
chalk e) potassium sulfate.

93. The lag between liquefaction and gelation temperature is

A..histeresis [Link] [Link] D. hysteresis E. none of the above.
94. The principal constituent by weight of reversible hydrocolloid
A. agar B. borax C. potassium sulfate D. zinc oxide [Link].

95. The adhesive material for polysulfide rubber is

A. dimethyl siloxane B. glass ionomerC. butyl rubber cementD. silicate cement E. none of these

96. The process of changing the rubber base product to a rubberlike material is
A. setting B. gelation C. vulcanization D. polymerization E. none of the above.

97. The ffare causes of chalky stone cast except:

A. inadequate cleaning of the impression D. excess water left in the impression
B. premature removal of the impression E. premature removal of the cast
C. improper mixing of the cast stone.

98. The commercial accelerators for zinc oxide eugenol are the following except
A. zinc acetate B. petrolatumC. glacial acetic acid D. calcium chloride E. primary alcohol.

99. One that facilitates easy removal of the impression plaster and the cast is
[Link] B. tomato starch C. potato starch D. buttered starch.

100. Gypsum is
A. calcium sulfate hemihydrate B. alpha hemihydrate C. beta hemihydrate D. calcium sulfate dihydrate.