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Magnesium oxide.
2 2
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be
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2
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(iii) 2Pb (NO3)2 ID
2PbO+4NO2(g)+O2
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(lead nitrate) (lead oxide) (Nitogen dioxide)
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 Silver chloride turns grey on exposure to sunlight

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ID
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white precipitate of BaSO4 is formed, so it is also called precipitation

reaction.
5
 (ii) 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 +PbI2 +2KNO3
(potassium Iodine) (Lead Nitrate) (Lead iodide)
(Potassium nitrate) (Yellow ppt.) (Yellow ppt.)
(iii) 2KBr+BaI2 2KI + BaBr2
(Potassium Bromide)+(Barium iodide) (Potassium iodide) + (Barium bromide)

60
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ID
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Q. 1 The shiny inish of wall after white wash is because of.
a) Calcium oxide b) Calcium hydroxide
c) Calcium Carbonate d) Calcium phosphate

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Q. 2 Electrolysis of water is decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of
hydrogen and oxygen gases liberated during electrolysis of water is
a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 1:2

ID
Q. 3 Which the following statements about the given reaction are correct:
3Fe(s) + 4H2O (g) Fe2O3(s) + 4H2(g)
i) Iron metal is getting oxidized
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ii) Water is getting reduced
iii) Water is acting as reducing agent
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iv) Water is acting as oxidizine agent

a) (i), (ii) and (iii) b) (iii) and (iv)
c) (i), (ii) and (iv) d) (ii) and (iv)
Q. 4 In order to prevent the spoilage of potato chips, they are packed in
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plastic bags containing the gas

a) Cl2 b) O2 c) N2 d) H2
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Q. 5 The process of respiration is -

a) an oxidation reaction which is endo thermic
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b) a reduction reaction which is exothermic

c) a combination reaction which is endo thermic
d) an oxidation reaction which is exothermic
Ans 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (d)

7
 Q. 6 Give an example of double displacement reaction? (CBSE 2010, 2011)
Q. 7 Name the reducing agent in given below chemical reaction
3 MnO2 + 4Al 3 Mn+2Al2O3 (CBSE-2016)
Q.8 Name the brown coloured gas evolved when lead nitrate crystal are
heated in dry test-tube.

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Q. 9 Give reasons-
a) Silver chloride is stored in dark coloured bottles.
b) Copper vessel loses shine when exposed to air

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c) Iron is places copper from copper sulphate solution.
Q. 10 Identify the following reactions as
i) combination ii) decomposition iii) displacement

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reactions and double displacement reaction.
i) ZnCO3(s) ZnO(s) + CO2 (g)
ii) Pb(s) + CuCl2 PbCl2 (aq) + Cu(s)
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iii) H2 (g) + a2(g) 2HCl
iv) CaCo3 (s) CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
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v) NaCl(g) + AgNO3 (a) AgCl + NaNo3

vi) 3H2 (g) + N2(g) 2NH3(g)
vii) Fe2O3 + Al Al2O3+2Fe
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 in labs?

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Practice Based MCQ’s
1. When aqueous solution of sodium sulphate and barium chloride are
mixed together, it becomes-


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a) turns red b) forms a white precipitate
c) forms yellow precipitate d) becomes colourless
2. The colour of ferrous sulphate crystal is-
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a) yellow b) light green c) red d) brown
3. A student took solid quick lime in a china dish and added a small amount
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of water to it. He would hear-

a) pop sound b) a crackling sound
c) hissing sound d) no sound at all
4. When an iron nail is placed in copper sulphate solution the observation
are as follow-
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a) The solution turns light green

b) A brown deposit is formed on the nail
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c) Born ‘a’ and ‘b’

d) None of the above
Answer
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1. (b)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (c)

9
 3

two s

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(c)c Chemical reaction showing change in temp.

F ID
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Give equation and identify the type of reaction.

9.

10.
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11.

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12.

Silver

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13.

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14.
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15.

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Q.16 When potassium Iodide solution is added to a solution of lead nitrate in

test tube, a precipitate is formed.

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i) State the colour precipitate

ii) Name the compound precipitated

iii) Write balanced equation for chemical reaction (CBSE-2015 Comptt)

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Q. 17 Decomposition reactions require energy either in form of heat and light

a electricity for breaking down of reactions. Write one equation for each

type of decomposition reaction where heat, light or electricity is used as

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form of energy.
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Q. 18 2 gm of silver chloride is taken in china dish, and china dish is placed in

sunlight for sometime. What will be your observation. Write the balanced

chemical equation for above reaction and identify the type of reaction.

(CBSE-2019)
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Q.19 Identify the type of reactions taking place in each of following cases and
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write the balanced chemical equation for the reactions.

a) Zn reacts with silver nitrate to produce zinc nitrate and silver.

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b) Potassium iodine reacts with lead nitrate to produce potassium

nitrate and lead iodide (CBSE-2019)

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2.

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Barium Sodium

HINTS TO LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

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2.
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Reaction of Non-metalic Oxides with Bases
Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
Non-mettalic Oxide+Base Salt+H20
C02+Ca(OH)2 CaCO3 + H2O

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+ Metal Carbonate Salt + CO2+Water

+ Metal Salt+H2

Reaction of Acid + Metal Hydrogen Carbonate Salt+CO2+H2O

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+ Metal oxide Salt + H2O

+ Base Salt + H2O

+ Metal Salt+H2
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+ Metal Carbonate No Reaction

Reaction of Base + Metal Hydrogen Carbonate No Reaction

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+ Acid Salt + H2O

+ Non Metallic oxide Salt + H2O

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eg. Nacl
eg. NH4cl
eg. CH3C00na

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 60
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Anode Cathode
C12 H2
(Water treatment, swimming pools, (Fuels, margarine, ammonia
PVC disinfectanis, CFCs, for fertiliser)
pesucides)

Brine ID Brine containing

NaOH
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C1
OH
Na- (De-greasing metals, soaps and
H+ detergents, paper making
arti icial ibres)
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Membrane

Figure 2.8 Important products from the chlor-alkali process

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s when
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(CBSE-2010, 2011)
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Name of salt Salt obtained from
Base Acid
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1 NH4Cl NH4OH ___________

2 CuSO4 ___________ H2SO4
3 NaCl NaOH ___________
4 Mg (NO3)2 ___________ HNO3
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5 K2SO4 ___________ ___________

6 Ca(NO3)2 Ca(OH)2 ___________
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ID
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Practical Based MCQ’s
1. On putting a drop of liquid on a pH paper a student observer a small
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patch of blue color on pH paper. The liquid is most probably-

a) H2O b) HCl c) NaOH d) H2SO4
2. The correct method of inding the pH of solution is—
a) Heat the solution in test-tube and expose the pH paper to the vapours
formed—
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b) Pour solution on pH paper

c) Dip the pH paper in solution
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d) Put a drop of solution on pH paper using dropper (CBSE-2011)

3. The colour obtained on pH paper for highly acid basic and neutral
solutions are respectively.
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a) blue, orange, green

b) yellow, blue, green

25
 c) red, blue, green
d) red, green, blue
4. Four student- ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and D measured pH value of water, lemon juice
and sodium bicarbonate solution. The student who has expressed correct
pH values in decreasing order.

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a) Water > lemon juice > Sod. bicarbonate solution
b) Lemon juice > Water > Sod. bicarbonate solution
c) Sod. bicarbonate solution > water > lemon juice
d) Water > Sod. bicarbonate solution > lemon juice (CBSE-2010)

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5. If we add some sodium carbonate in distilled water, the pH of solution
will be-
a) less than 7
b) more than 7
c)
d)
6.
exactly 7
very close to 7
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Dil HCl is added to sodium carbonate. It is observed that:-
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a) No change takes place
b) A loud sound is produced immediately
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c) Immediately a brick effervescence occur

d) The solution turns black.
7. A student added Zn grannules to dil HCl and made following
observations:-
I) The surface of Zn become black
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ii) A colourless gas evolved which burns with pop/sound

iii) The solution remains colurless
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The correct observations are-

a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III
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8. Four students performed reactions of zinc and sodium carbonate with dil
Hydrochloric acid sodium hydroxide and present their result as follows.
The (P) represent evolution of gas and ‘x’ represent no reaction.

26
 Zn Na2CO3 Zn Na2CO3
HCl P P HCl P O
A B
NaOH P O NaOH P P

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Zn Na2C03 Zn Na2CO3
HCl O O HCl P P
C D
NaOH P P NaOH O O

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 Assertion Reasoning Based Questions

1. A gas is produced when cone H2SO4 is added to solid sodium chloride

taken is a test-tube. The gas coming out through the delivery tube is
passed over a dry blue litmus paper.
I. Blue colour of litmus changes into Red

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II. Blue colour of litmus does not change into
i) I is correct
ii) II is correct

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iii) I and II both are correct
iv) I and II both are wrong
2. A white coloured powder is used by the doctors for supporting fractured
bones-

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I. It is plastic of Paris
II. It is Gypsum
i) I is correct
ii) II is correct
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iii) Both I and II are correct
iv) Both I and II are wrong
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4. ID
What is bleaching powder chemically. How it is prepared. What happens
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when bleaching powder is exposed to air for long time? Give any two
important uses of bleaching powder.
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2Fe + 6HCl 2FeCl3+3H2

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MCQ’s Tick ü the correct one

1. Green colour coating on copper utensils is due to the formation of —
a) CuCO3 b) Cu (OH)2
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c) CuO d) None
2. Rusting of from takes place in
a) Ordinary water b) distilled water
c) both a, b d) None

39
 3. Silver articles become black on dulongated exposure of air due to-
a) Ag2O b) Ag2S
c) AgCN d) None
4. Alluminium strip is dipped in FeSO4 solution and change that is
observed is-

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a) Green colour changes to brown
b) Lower end of tube becomes warm
c) Colour gas with burning of sulphur

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d) None
Answer
1. a 2. c 3. b 4. d

ID
Fill in the Blanks :
a) Rocky material found with ores is known as __________________.
b) Corrosion of iron is called __________________.
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c) Electrical conductivity of alloy is ______________than that of pure metal.
d) The alloy in which one metal is mercury called________________.
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e) Non-metal used for preserving the food material is _________________.

Very Short Answer Type Question (1 Mark)
1. Name the metal that is highly resistant to corrosion.
2. De ine galvanization
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3. Name the non-metal that is used in rocket as fuel

4. Name the non-metal used for conversion of vegetable oil into vegetable
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ghee.
5. Give the necessary conditions for rusting of iron.
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6. Metal + H2O _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ?

Metal+HCl _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ?

7. School bells are made of metals. Give reason.

40
 8. Name the following:-
a) A metal which is preserved in kerosene.
b) A lustrous coloured non-metal
c) A metal which can melt on palm.
d) A metal poor conductor of heat.

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9.
10.
11.

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12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17. ID
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18. Statement 1. Metals oxides are basic in nature.
Statement 2. Metal oxides turn red litmus paper into blue.
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Tick the correct one

a) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is wrong.
b) Statement 2 is correct but 1 is wrong.
c) Both statements are correct.
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d) None is correct.
19. Statement : Metals are sonorous.
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: Steel is an alloy
Tick the correct one
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a) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is wrong

b) Statement 2 is correct but 1 is wrong
c) Both are correct
d) None is correct

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 60
2.

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3.
4.
5.

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6.
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7. With respect to electore ining of copper, answer the following:-

1. Name the electrolyte
2. Name the anode/cathode
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3. Reaction at anode and cathode

4. Write the steps involved in this reaction
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8. A metal M is found in the form of sulphur M2S, and is good conductor of

electricity and is used in making wires.
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Identify the metal M and write the steps involved in extraction of this
metal.
9. De ine concentration of ore? Write ore of mercury and copper.

42
 10. Sodium is lightly reactive metal. It can not be obtained with heating with
carbon. Give reason for it. How sodium is obtained from sodium
chloride.
11. Give reasons
a) Silver article becomes black after some time.

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b) Zn can desplace copper from CuSO4 solution colour of solution in four
test tubes ore green, yellow, blue and colourless. Which has ZnSO4
solution?

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In which case reaction will take place?
Zn/CuSO4 solution
Cu/ZnSO4 Solution

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Fe/CaSO4 Solution
Ce/FeSO4 Solution
It which case reaction will take place?
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Al/ZnSO4 Solution
Zn/Al2(SO4)3 Solution
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Cu/ZnSO4 Solution
Fe/ZnSO4 Solution
Four labelled solution A,B,C,D along with Radish-Browni, Dark Grey,
Blue, Silver, White. Which has Alluminium strip.
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A Students puts four big iron nails in four different test tube with ZnSO4,
Al2(SO4)3, FeSO4, coating on iron nail well appear?
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12. Reactivity of aluminium decreases if it is dipped in nitric acid explain.

Metal like Calcium and magnesium are never found in their free state.
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Explain sodium chloride is an ionic compound which does not conduct

electricity in solid state whereas it does conduct electricity in molten
state as well as in aqueous solution. CBSE-31/1/3

43
 13. Write chemical equation for followings:-

Calcium metal reacts with water.

Cinnabar metal Reacted in presence of air manganese dioxide is reacted

with almunium powder.

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14. What are alloys? List two properties of alloys. CBSE 2019 31/1/2

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ID
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Oxide ore Carbonate ore Oxide ore

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 3.
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Moleculars

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 Q.1 When a vegetable oil is treated with hydrogen in the presence of nickel

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(or Palladium) as catalyst. It forms vegetable ghee. This is example of-
a) Anodising reaction b) Subsititution reaction
c) Displacement reaction d) Addition reaction
Q.2 The soap molecule has a -

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a) hydrophilic head and hydrophilic tail
b) hydrophobic head and hydrophoilic head
c) hydrophobic head and hydrophobic tail
d) hydrophilic head and hydrophilic tail
Q.3

Q.4
b) -COOH
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The functional group present in propanal is-
a) -OH c) -CO- d) -CHO
Match the reaction given in column A with the names given in column B
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Column A Column B
i) CH3OH+CH3COOH H2SO4 CH3COOH+H2O Addition Reaction
ii) CH2=CH2+H2 Ni CH3CH3 Subsitution Reaction
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iii) CH4+Cl2 CH3Cl+HCl Saponification Reaction

iv) CH3COOC2H5 NaOH C2H5OH +CH3COONa Esterification Reaction

Answer
1d 2a 3d 4 i) d
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ii) a
iii) b
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iv) c
Q. 5 State the reason why covalent compounds are generally poor conductor
of electricity.
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Q.6 Write the molecular formula of first two members of homologous series
having functional group-OH (CBSE-2017)
Q.7 Write the number of covalent bonds in molecular of butane C4H10
(CBSE All India 2017)

57
 Q.8 Give reasons-
i) Ethane is covalent compound.
ii) Carbon shows the property of catenation.
iii) Ethanoic acid is called glacial acetic acid.

60
Q. 9 Identify the functional groups-

H
R
R-C=O C=O

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R
(CBSE Outside - 2016)

Q. 10 Complete the reactions-

i) CH3 CH2 OH Conc. H2SO4
170oC
ii) CH3COOH+C2H5OH Conc. H2SO4
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Alkaline KMnO4
iii) CH3CH2 OH
Acidic K2Cr2O7
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iv) CH3 CH2 OH + Na

v) CH4 + O2
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Practical Based MCQ Questions
1. The cleaning capacity of soap is maximum in-
a) Tap water b) Hand pump water
c) Rain water d) Tube well water
2.

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Hardness of water is due presence of salt.
a) Calcium chloride b) Magnesium chloride
c) Calcium Sulphate d) All the above
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3. pH value of soap solution is-
a) less than 7 b) More than 7
c) Exactly 7 d) None above
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4. Temporary hardness of water can be removed by use of -

a) HCl b) NaOH c) Na2CO3 d) NaHCO3
5. A student performed experiments to study properties of acetic acid. His
observations were as follows-
i) Acetic acid is colourless lequid
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ii) Acetic acid has fruity smell

iii) It changes blue litmus to red.
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iv) When reacted with sodium bicarbonate, it produces hydrogen gas.

Identify the correct observation-
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a) I and II b) I and IV c) I and III d) II and IV

6. When sodium bicarbonate is added to test tube containing acetic acid, a
colourless is produced with brisk effervence. Identify the gas-
a) O2 b) CO2 c) N2 d) H2

59
 7. The about of ethanoic acid resembles with
a) Tomato juice b) Kerosene
c) Orange juice d) Vinegar
8. 5 ml of dilute acid were added to 5 ml of water and the mixture was

60
shaken for one minute. It was observed that-
a) The turbidity appears in test tube.
b) The acid forms separate layer at the bottom

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c) Water forms separate layer at the bottom.
d) A clear solution is formed
Answer
1. (c)
2. (d)
3.
4.
5.
(b)
(c)
(c) ID
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6. (b)
7. (d)
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8. (d)
3

three
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19. Two carbon compounds ‘x’ and ‘Y’ have the molecular formula. C4H8 and
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C5H12 respectively. Which one is more likely to show addition reaction. Justify
your answer by giving equation.
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20. Write three properties of covalent-compounds with relevant reasons.

21. C3H6, C4H8, C5H10 belong to same homologous series.
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i) Define homologous series

ii) Why melting point and boiling point of C5H10 are higher than C4H8
iii) Arrange the hydrocarbons in order of increasing boiling points.

61
 22. A neutral organic compound ‘x’ of molecular formula. C2H6O on oxidalion
with alkaline KMnO4 gives compound Y: compound ‘x’ reacts with compound
‘Y’ on warning in presence, conc. H2SO4 to give sweet smelling substance ‘z’.
Identify ‘x’, ‘y’ & ‘z’.

60
23. a) Why are most of carbon compounds poor conductor of electricity.
b) Write the name and structure of salucated compound in which carbon
alone arrange in a ring. Give the number of single bonds present in this

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compound (CBSE-2018)

ID
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3. Write the chemical formula and name of the compound which is active
ingradient of all alcoholic drinks. List its two uses. Write chemical
equation and name the product formed when this compound reacts with
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(a) Na Metal
(b) Hot conc. sulphuric acid (CBSE-2019)
4. What is methane Draw the election dot structure. Name the type of bond
formed in this compound they one such compounds-
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(a) Poor conductor of electricity

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(b) Have low melting and boiling points

(c) What happens when this compound burns with 02 (CBSE-2019)

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 60
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Concept Map

Needs of classication of elements

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Characteristic
Dobereniers features
triads

Earlier attempts Periodic classication of elements Mendeleev’s Merits

Periodic
classication
Demerits
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Newlands Modern periodic table

octave law

Characteristics features- Trends in periodic Modern Table

Periods, groups, Position of
elements, Electronic conguration,
Valence shell, Valence electrons
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Valency Metallic and Non

Atomie Size
metallic Character
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Valency is the combining power if an element with other atoms when it forms
a chemical compound. Or
Valency is equal to number of electrons gained or lost or shared to complete etc

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octet or doublet.

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Multiple Choice Question (MCQ’s)

1. Elements of 1st period contains valence electron in -
a) M. Shell b) N. Shell c) K. Shell d) L. Shell
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2. In periodic table Heluim (He) is placed at

a) Top left b) Bottom light c) Bottom left d) Top light
3. Across period, Atomic size decreases due to
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a) Sheilding effect b) Photo electric effect

c) Increase in nuclear force d) Decrease in nuclear
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4. First three periods in periodic table are

a) Long b) Short c) Moderate d) None
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5. Group and period of 5 B is
a) 2, III A b) 3, II A c) 4, IV A d) None

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 Answers
1c 2d 4b 5a
Complete the following statements:-
a) The basis of modern Periodic table is _______________

60
b) Group 17 elements are called ______________
c) Group 18 elements are called ______________
d) According to Newland’s law of octave ______________is similar to
oxygen.

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Write T/F (True/False) for following:-
a) Newland divided elements into horizontal rows of eight element
reach.
b) According to Mendeleev’s periodic laws, properties of elements are

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periodic functions of their atomic numbers.

1. Write the principle of modern periodic table.

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2. On which side of periodic table you will find metals.
3. On which side of periodic table you will find-non-metals.
4. Name the elements that separated the metals and non-metals in periodic table .
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5. An element ‘x’ belongs to groups 2. Find its valency.

6. An elements ‘y’ belongs to group 1. Find formula for its oxide.
7. Name the element that has same number of electrons as that of K+ and Cl– have.
8.
D

9.

10.
U

11.
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12.

13.

14.

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 15.

16.

17.

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3

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8.
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9.

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11.
10.
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Periodic Classification of Elements
Statement 1. Periodic Table is based on modern periodic raw.
Statement 2. Modern periodic table is based on atomic number.

ID
a) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is wrong
b) Statement 2 is correct but 1 is wrong
c) Both are correct
U
d) None is correct
Statement 1. Atomic number of magnesium is 12.
YG

Statement 2. Valency of Mg is 2.
a) Both statements are correct
b) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is wrong
c) Statement 2 is wrong but 1 is wrong
d) None is correct
D

Statement 1 Atomic size decreases down the group.

Statement 2 Atomic size depends upon nuclear force.
U

a) Both statement are correct

b) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is wrong
ST

c) Both are wrong

d) Statement 2 is correct but 1 is wrong

75
 Previous years exams questions
1. How many raw and groups are there in periodic table? (CBSE-2013)
2. 4 Be, 9F, 14Si, 19K, 20Ca

60
a) Select the element that has same group and give reason.
b) Select the elements that has same period and give reason.
(CBSE-2013)

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3. There are two elements, X atomic no. 17 and Y atomic no. 20
(CBSE-2013)
a) Write the position of X and Y in periodic table

4.
ID
b) Write the molecular formula for compound XY
Given that A(4), B(9) C(14), D(19), E(20)
ie A,B,C,D,E are elements with their atomic numbers
U
a) Select the elements that has same valence electrons and write their
YG

electronic canfiguration.
b) Select those, who have same group, Give reason.
c) Select who belongs to same period, Give reason
5. Modern Periodic table has contribution of Newland, Mendeleeve and
D

Dobereiner. Write one advantage and one limitation of each scientist.

6. State Modern Periodic Law.
U

7. What is periodicity in properties of elements with respect to modern

periodic table? Why do all the element of same group gave similar
ST

properties. How does tendency to gain electron changes from left to right
State reasons for these two changes.
8. Write the electronic configuration of x and y having atomic number 20, 17

76
 9. Write molucular formula for XY. Draw electron dot structure of product
XY. Find nature and bond in XY.
10. Analyse the Given table

60
Period No. Elements I Elements II
2 Li (3) Be (4)
3 Na (11) Mg (12)

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4 K (19) Ca (20)
5 Rb (37) Sr (38)
(a) Predict the valence electron of Rb.

ID
(b) Write electronic configuration of Ca.
(c) K is metal or non-metal
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(d) Which has the largest atomic size Rb or Sr.
11. An Element X belongs to 3rd Period and 13 Group. Find the Valency and
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Valence electron. Find molecular formula for compound XY.

(Y = At. No. 8)
12. An Element X has mass number 35 and neutron 18. Write atomic number
and electronic configuration of X. Also write group number and period
D

and find valency of X. (CBSE 2016)

13. Write the name, symbol and electronic configuration of an element X
U

atomic number is 11. (CBSE 2019 Set 31/1/2)

14. Can following groups elements be classified as Doberseiner's triad.
ST

(i) Na, Si, Cl (ii) Be, Mg, Ca

Atomic mass of Be-9, Na-23, Mg-24, Si-28
Cl-35, Ca-40. Justify year answer. CBSE 2019
Set 31/1/2

77
 15. How can it proved that the basic structure of Modern periodic Table is
based on electronic configuration of atoms of different elements?
(CBSE 2019 Set, 31/1/1)

60
16. Electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 4. State its
(a) Group and period
(b) Name and write its one physical property. (CBSE 2019, Set 31/1/1)

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ID
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ID

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80
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ID
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ID

leech etc

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ID
Undigested food is
thrown out
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ID

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 Emulsify
g Fat

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ID
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Lo ID
U
ck
of
(In ox
m yg
us en
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cle
s)

(2c) (3c)
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ID

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 Granular Component

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Deep Seated
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 transpiration pull.

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Adrenal Gland
Interior Vena Cava
Left Kidney
Right Kidney

ID Aorta

Ureter
U
Urinary Bladder
(Out Open)
Opening of
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Urethra Urethra

The human excretory system

D
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 1. It maintains water equilibrium, pH equilibrium, ionic equilibrium of the
blood and osmotic equilibrium.
2. It helps to excrete out waste product urea in th the dissolved form from the blood.
3. It excretes poisoneous substance like drugs, toxins etc. from the body.
4. It regulates blood pressure by controlling he fluid balance in the body.

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VERY SHORT QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

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(A) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ's)
1. Which is the first enzyme that gets mixed with food in the digestive tract?
(a) Pepsin (b) Cellulose
(c) Trypsin (d) Amylase
2.
(a) Temperature
ID
The opening and closing of the stomatal pore depends upon.

(c) Concentration of CO2 in stomata

(b) Oxygen
(d) Water in guard cells
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3. The parts A and B Shown in the given diagram are:
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B
D

(a) Guard cell and stomatal pore

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(b) Epidermal cell and stomatal pore

(c) Epidermal cell and guard cell
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(d) Guard cell and epidermal cell

4. Complete the following reactions:
Sunlight
6CO2 + 12H2O C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2
?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chlorophyll (c) Iodine (d) Chlorophyll

93
 5. The energy currency of the cell is:
(a) ATP (b) AMP
(c) CO2 (d) ADP
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a)

60
Objective Type Questions
6. Fill up the blanks:
(i) .................... organisms feed on dead, decaying matter.

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(ii) The artificial kidney is called .................... .
(iii) .................... carry oxygenated blood and are deeply situated and
have thick walls.

ID
(iv) Xylem and Phloem together forms ................... tissue.
(v) The process in plants that links light energy with chemical energy
is known as .....................
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7. Name the following:
(i) Organisms that cannot prepare their own food.
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(ii) A plant parasite.

(iii) The substrate on which the enzyme Pepsin acts.
(iv) The cellular organelle which is energy
(v) The part of the alimentary canal in which food is finally digested.
D

8. Match the words of Column (A) with that of Column (B)

COLUMN [A] COLUMN [B]
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1. Parasitic nutrition (a) Bile

2. Nephron (b) Translocation of food.
ST

3. Phloem (c) Leech

4. Liver (d) Excretion

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 9. Give reasons:
(i) The number of stomata are more on the lower surface of the leaf as
compared to the upper surface.
(ii) Arteries are thick walled.
(iii) Plants have low energy needs.

60
(iv) Aquatic animals breathe faster than the terrestrial animals.
10. (i) What stops blood from flowing backwards through the heart.
(CBSE 2008)

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(ii) Name the process used by single-celled organisms for taking in
food, exchange of gases or removal of wastes. (CBSE 2016)

11.
12.
13. ID
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14.
15.
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16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
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21. Assertion : Stomata are tiny opining present on the surface of the leaf
Reason : Gaseous exchange take place in plants through stomata
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a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct

b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
ST

c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A)

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 22. Assertion : Saliva in the mouth of humans contain the everyone called =
salivary amylase.
Reason : Salivary anylase is responsible for digestion of starch.

60
a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct
b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A)

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d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (3 MARKS)

1. Name the organ which perform the following functions in human

ii) Absorption of water

iii) Secretion of Bile [Link]
i) Absorption of digested food
U
2. Diagramatically illustrate the process of utilization and digestion of
food in Amoeba.
3. Give two examples each of organisms which perform the following
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types of nutrition.
a) Saprotrophic b) Parasitic c) Holojoic.
4. What will happen if green plants disappear from earth?
5. Mention three major events that occur during photosynathesis?
6. Name the energy currency in the living organisms. When and where it is
D

produced?
7. How do carbohydrates, proteins and fats get digested in human
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beings?
8. Explain the three pathways of breakdown of glucose in living
organisms.
ST

9. How is small intestine designed to absorb digested food.

10. Describe the process of double circulation in human beings.
11. Define the term transpiration. Design an experiment to demonstrate this
process. (CBSE 2018-19)

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 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION
1. i) Write three types of blood vessels. Give one important feature of each
(CBSE, Delhi 2018-19)
ii) How are CO2 and O2 transported in human beings? (CBSE 2018-19)

60
2. Write the function of the following in the human alimentary canal.
(CBSE 2018-19)
i) Saliva ii) HCl in Stomach iii) Bile juice iv) Villi

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3. Write one function of each of the following enymes.
i) Pepsin ii) Lipase
4. Draw a well labelled diagram of Nephron. Explain the process of
formation of urine in the human kidney.
5.

6.
Explain.
ID
Why is energy needs in plants is very less as compared to animals?

Draw the diagram showing Human Respiratory System. Label the

following parts.
U
a) Alveolus
b) Trachea
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c) Bronchus
d) Lungs
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ST

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ID

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(
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(
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)
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6. Releasing Hormone Hypothalmus Mid brain Stimulates pituitary

gland to release
hormones

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ID
MCQs
Q.1 Centre for hunger is situated in-
a) Fore-Brain b) Mid-Brain
c) Hind-Brain d) All of the above
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Q. 2 Which is the main co-ordinating centre of the body.
a) Nerves b) Spinal Card
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c) Brain d) Heart
Q 3. Write ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the given low chart of nerves through which
information travels.
Dendrite a b End point of neuron
Q. 4 Fill in the Blanks.
D

a) During___________________response is generated from spinal cord.

b) Goiter is caused due to de iciency of _______________.
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c) Cranial nerves arise from_______________.

d) Stress hormone in plants is ____________and in animals is _____________.
Q. 5 Classify the following actions as voluntary involuntary and re lex
ST

actions:-
Respiration, walking, speaking, blinking of eyes, vomiting heart beat,
withdrawal of hand on touching a heat object.

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 Q. 6 In a neuron, where in impulse converted into chemical signal for onward
transmission?
Q. 7 Name the two parts of Human nervous system.
Q. 8 What is the basic structural and functional unit of nervous system?

60
Q.9 Statements :-
I - During re lex action body reacts quickly
II-In re lex arc response is generated from brain.
a) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect

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b) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
c) Both are correct
d) Both are incorrect
Q. 10 Statements:-


ID
I-Growth harmone is released from pituitary gland,
II-Insulim in released from pancreas.
a) Both statements are incorrect
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b) Both statement are correct
c) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
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d) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.

D
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 20.

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ID
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8. List two different functions performed by pancreas (CBSE-2019)

9.

10.
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11.
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12.
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13 Trace the sequence of events which occur when a bright light is focused on
your eyes. (CBSE-2019)

108
 60
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5. Nervous and normal system together perform the function of control and

ID
co-ordination in human beings. Justify this statement with the help of
an example (CBSE-2019)
U
YG
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Binary ssion in Leishmania

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 Tentacles

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Bud

New Individual

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ID
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ID
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Methods of contraception
D

Mechanical Chemical IUCD Surgical

Barrier Method
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Methods

Condom Cervical Pills Loop Copper T Vasectomy Tubectomy

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Cap

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ID
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MCQ Questions
Q.1 Gametes are formed in-
a) Asexual Reproduction b) Sexual Reproduction
c) Vegetative is Propagation d) Tissue Culture
D

Q.2 Plasmodium reproduced by-

a) Budding b) Binary Fission
c) Fragmentation d) Multiple fission
U

Q. 3 Which of the following is not a part of flower.

a) Stem b) Carpel
c) Stamen d) Sepals
ST

Q.4 Fill in the Blanks:-

a) Leishmania is reproduced by_____________________.
b) Potato is the____________of the plant which helps in reproduction.
c)_______________is the male sex hormone responsible for inducing
secondary sexual characteristics.
d) In a flower___________is the female reproductive part.
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 Q. 5 Arrange the following in correct sequence of happening Baby, gametes,
embryo, zygote, fertilization.
Q.6 Classify following as parts of male and female reproductive systems-
Ovary, sperm, vas deferens, Uterus, fallopian tube tests, Penis, Cervix
Q.7 Name the following where -
a) Sperms are produced

60
b) Fertilisation takes place
c) IUCD’s are implanted
d) On maturation ovule developes into it

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e) Name one bisexual flower.
Q. 8 Arrange the following in the correct sequence
for binary fission in amoeba.
a) 1,2,3,4 b) 3,2,4,1
c) 4,3,2,1 d) 3,4,2,1

ID
Q. 9 Correct diagram for budding in yeast is-
U
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Q. 10 Draw a labelled diagram in proper sequence to show budding in hydra.

Answer 1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (a) 8 (d) 9 (b)
Q.11 Statements:-
I-Asexual reproduction takes place in hydra.
II-Gametes are produced during asexual reproduction
D

a) Both are correct

b) Both are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
U

d) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.

Q. 12 Statements:-
ST

I-Eggs are produced in testes.

II-Then fertilization takes place in uterus
a) Both are correct
b) Both are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.

119
 13.
14.

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15.
16.
17.

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18.
19.
20.

ID 3
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(CBSE-2018)

(CBSE-2018)
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8.
9.
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10.
11.
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12.
13.
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14.

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 (CBSE-2018)

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(CBSE-2018)

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6. Define pollination. Explain the different types of pollination. List two agents
of pollination? How does suitable pollination had to fertilization?
CBSE-2019

ID
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 When ever organism multiply

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of chromosomes,

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Mendel’s
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ID

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ID

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F2
U F1

D F2
F2

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x
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of

ID
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SEX
CHROMOSOMES
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ID
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layer
of
Earth
Surface
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bit over generations.

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ID

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ID
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phenotypic characterstic
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able of
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Multiple Choice Questions (M.C.Q.’s)

ID
1. Genetics is defined as:
a) Study of genes b) The study of chromosomes
c) The study of humans d) Branch of science dealing with heredity
and variation.
U
2. The organism on which Mendel performed his experiments
(CBSE-2019)
YG

a) Gram b) Garden Pea c) Peanut d) Pigeon Pea

3. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (TT) resulted in
progeny that were all tall plants because—
a) Shortness is a dominant trait b) Tallness is a recessive trait
c) Tallness is the dominant trait d) Height of pea plant is not
D

governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’

4. The character which can be acquired but not inherited is :
a) Colour of Eye b) Colour of skin
U

c) Nature of hair d) Size of body

5. A zygote has an X-chrmosome in herewith from the father will develop
ST

into a
a) Boy
b) X-Chromosome does not determine the sex of child.
c) Girl
d) Either boy or girl

139
 Answer
1d 2b 3c 4d 5c
Objective type Questions:
Fill up the blanks:
6. i) ________________deals with the resemblances and variations

60
among related organisms.
ii) A___________is a constituent segment of a chromosome and is made
of DNA.
iii) A cross in which only one character is considered is called

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_________cross.
iv) The differences among the individuals of a species or a population
are called___________.
v) ___________organs have different structure but same functions.
7. Name the following

ID
i) The formation of new species due to gradual change over long period
of time.
ii) The carrier of heredity.
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iii) The alternative form of a gene contolling contrasting character of the
same trait.
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iv) An animal having rudimentary eye.

v) Thread like structure present in the nucleus of a cell, containning
hereditary information of the cell.
Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)
8. a. Write the scientific name of garden pea.
D

b. Where are genes located?

c. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why?
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d. What are the chromosomes XY and XX known as?

e. Name varieties of vegetables which have been produced from ‘wild
cabbage’ by the process of artificial selection.
ST

Q. 9 Give Reasons:
i) Mendel chose pea plant for his experiments
ii) Human beings who look different from each other in terms of size,
colour and looks said to belong to same species.

140
 1. Assertion : Evolution is the gradual change which takes place in
organism over millions of years and new species are product.
Reason: Heredity is the transmission of characters or traits from parents
to offsprings.
a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct

60
b) (A) is incorrect and (R) is incorrect
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

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2. Assertion : Recessive trait can only be expressed in homozygous
condition.
Reason : Dominant trait cannot be expressed in hetrozygous condition.
a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct

ID
a) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
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Short Answer Type Questions
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1. Differentiate between homologous and analgous organs, with

examples.
2. What are fossils? How can the age of fossils be determined?
3. Variation is beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the
individual. Give three reasons to justify it.
D

4. The human hand, cat paw and horse foot, when studied in detail show the
same structure of bones and point towards a common origin.
U

a) What do you conclude from this?

b) What is the term given to such structures?
5. What is genetic drift. Explain with examples
ST

6. Write a short note on a) gene flow b) Natural selection

7. Distinguish between autosomes and sex chromosomes.

141
 8. Distinguish between inherited traits and acquired traits giving one
example of each. Give reason why the traits acquired by an individual
during the life time are not inherited.
9. A cross is carried between pure bred tall pea plant and pure bred dwarf
pea plant

60
a) What is the phenotype of F1 progeny and why
b) What is the phenotype of F2 progeny when F is selfed.
10. Why a small population of surviving genes faces a greater thread of
extinction. Provide a suitable explanation from the point of view of

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Genetics.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 Mark)
1. Evolution should not be equated with progress’ Explain.
2. Explain few the mechaniom of sen determination in human beings.
3.

4. ID
a) What are homologous structure! Give an example.
b) What are fossils. How the age of fossils is determined.
What is speciation. List the factors responsible for speciation and
U
mention how they could lead to the rise of a new species. CBSE-2016
5. a) What are dominant and recessive traits?
b) Is it possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed in the
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next generation? Give a suitable example to justify this statement.

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ECNALUBMA
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Spherical lens
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Biconcave

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On the basis of this position, this

lens is also known as magnifying
lens.

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 [Link]. Light ray Ray diagram How it appears after
from object refraction
is

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After refraction from a
concave lens, the ray
1. Parallel to
appears to diverge from
the principal
the principal focus located
axis
on the same side of the lens

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2. Passing After refraction from a

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through a concave lens, the ray
principal appears to diverge from
focus the principal focus located
on the same side of the lens
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3. Passing After refraction from a
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through the concave lens will

optical center emerge without any
of a lens deviation
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 60
1 MARKER OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

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I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Focal length of plane mirror is
a) At infinity b) Zero
c) Negative d) None of these

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2. Image formed by plane mirror is
a) Real and erect b) Real and inverted
c) Virtual and erect d) Virtual and inverted
3. A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is
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placed
a) At F b) At infinity
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c) At C d) Beyond C
4. Power of the lens is-40, its focal length is
a) 4m b) -40m
c) -0.25m d) 25 m
5. A concave mirror gives virtual, erect and enlarged image of the object. The
D

position of the object is-

a) At infinity b) Between F and C
c) Between P and F d) At F
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6. In optics and object which has higher refractive index is called -

a) Optically rarer b) Optically denser
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c) Optical dense d) Refractive index

7. The optical phenomena, twinkling of stars, is due to
a) Atmospheric reflection b) Total reflection
c) Atmospheric refraction d) Total refraction

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 8. Convex lens focus a real, point sized image at focus, the object is placed-
a) At focus b) Between F and 2F
c) At infinity d) At 2F
9. The unit of power of lens is
a) Metre b) Centimeter
c) Diopter d) M-1

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10. The radius of curvature of a mirror is 20cm the focal length is-
a) 20cm b) 10cm
c) 40cm d) 5cm
Answer

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1. a 2. c 3. c 4. c 5. c
6. b 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. b
11. Fill in the blanks:
(i) Image formed by a plane mirror is always ........... and ........... .

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(ii) A spherical mirror, whose reflecting surface is curved inwards, that is,
faces towards the centre of the sphere, is called a ........... .
(iii) The focal length of a spherical mirror is equal to ........... its radius of
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curvature.
(iv) Speed of light is ........... .
(v) Light rays always travels in ........... .
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12. Answer in one word/one sentence.

(i) A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image
of an object placed at 10 cm in front of it. Where is the image located?
(ii) The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. What does this
mean?
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(iii) An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal

length 15 cm. Find the position and nature of the image.
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(iv) Define the principal focus of a concave mirror.

13. Study the given ray diagrams and select the correct statement from the
following:
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X
Y

20 cm Screen Screen
25 cm

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 (A) Device X is a concave mirror and device Y is a convex lens, whose
focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.
(B) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal
lengths are 10 cm and 25 cm respectively.
(C) Device X is a concave lens and device Y is a convex mirror, whose focal

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lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.
(D) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal
lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively. (CBSE 2017)
14. A student obtains a blurred image of distant object on a screen using a

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convex lens. To obtain a distinct image on the screen he should move the
lens.
(A) away from the screen
(B) towards the screen

the object.
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(C) to a position very far away from the screen
(D) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of
(CBSE 2017)
15. Assertion (A): The bottom of a tank or pond, filled with water appears to be
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raised.
Reason (R): The apparent depth of the tank is given by 1/n times the original
YG

depth.
(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
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(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
16. Assertion (A): The shaving mirrors are convex mirrors.
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Reason (R): Convex mirror always forms a virtual image.

(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
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(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

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 3 Marker Questions

slowest and why?

60
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5.

6.

ID
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7. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front
of it is always erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a labelled ray
diagram to support your answer. (CBSE 2018)
YG

8. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term 'absolute refractive index of a
medium' and write an expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum.
(CBSE 2018)
9. What is meant by power of a lens? Write its SI unit. A student uses a lens of focal
length 40 cm and another of –20 cm. Write the nature and power of each lens.
(CBSE 2018)
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10. An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
List four characteristic (nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens.
(CBSE 2017)
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11. "A lens can form a magnified erect image as well as magnified inverted image of an
object placed in front of it". Same the nature of this lens and draw ray diagrams to
justify the above statement.
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Mark the position of O, F and 2F in the diagram. (2017)

12. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3
respectively. If speed of light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, find the speed of light in water.
(CBSE 2016)

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 5 Marker Questions
1.

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2.

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3.

4. ID
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5. Analysis the following observation table showing variation of image

distance (v) with object distance (u) in case of a convex lens and answer the
questions that follow without doing any calculation:
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S. No. Object Distance-u(cm) Image Distance-v(cm)

1. -100 +25
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2. -60 +30
3. -40 +40
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4. -30 +60
5. -25 +100
6. -15 +120

164
 a) What is the focal length of the convex lens? Give reason to justify your
answer.
b) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct. On what
basis have you arrived at this conclusion?
c) Select an approximate scale and draw a ray diagram for the observation at S.

60
No. 2 Also find the approximate value of magnification.
6. (a) If the image formed by a mirror for all position of the object placed in
front of it is always diminished, erect and virtual, state the type of the mirror
and also draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Write one use such

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mirrors are put to and why.
b) Define the radius of curvature of spherical mirror. Find the nature and
focal length of a spherical mirror whose radius of curvature is +24 cm.

ID
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3.

4.
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6.
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1 MARKER OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The image formed retina of human eye is
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a) Virtual and erect b) Real and inverted

c) Virtual and inverted d) Real and erect
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2. The change in the focal length of human eye is caused due to

a) Ciliary muscles b) Pupil
c) Cornea d) Iris
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3. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is
a) 25 m b) 20 m
c) 25 cm d) 20 cm

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 4. The persistence of vision for human eye is
a) 1/10th of a second b) 1/16th of a second
c) 1/6th of the second d) 1/18th of a second
5. The light sensitive cells of retina which are sensitive to the intensity of light
are—

60
a) Cones b) Rods
c) Both rods and cones d) None of these
Answer:
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b)

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ID
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8. Assertion (A): Some persons have the difficulty to see the objects in dim light
during night.
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Reason (R): Cones respond less to the illumination.

(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
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(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
9. Assertion (A): The colour of the clear sky appears blue.
ST

Reason (R): The sky of the moon appears dark.

(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

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 10. Assertion (A): The human eye has more field of view.
Reason (R): For a normal eye, the farthest point upto which the eye can see
objects clearly is infinity.
(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

60
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
11. A student very cautiously traces the path of a ray through a glass slab for
different values of the angle of incidence (Ði). He then measures the

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corresponding values of the angle of incidence. On analysing these
measurements of angles, his conclusion would be

(A) Ði > Ðr > Ðe (B) Ði = Ðe > Ðr

(C) Ði < Ðr < Ðe

Sol. (B) Ði = Ðe > Ðr ID (D) Ði = Ðe < Ðr

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5. What is "dispersion of white light"? Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate the

recombination of the spectrum of white light. Why it is essential that the two
prisms used for the purpose should be identical and placed in an inverted
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position with respect to each other? (CBSE 2017)

6. With the help of scattering of light, explain the reason for the difference in
colours of the Sun as it appears during sunset/sunrise and noon. (CBSE 2015)
ST

7. Write the importance of ciliary muscles in the human eye. Name the defect of
vision that arises due to gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles. What types
of lenses are required by the person suffering from this defect to see the objects
clearly. (CBSE 2015)

179
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3. (a) A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the black board
placed at a distance of approximately 3 m from him. Name the defect of
vision the boy is suffering from. State the possible causes of this defect and

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explain the method of correcting it.
(b) Why do stars twinkle? Explain. (CBSE 2018)
4. (a) Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye:
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris (iii) Crystalline (iv) Ciliary muscles

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(b) Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning? Will this
phenomenon be observed by an astronaut on the Moon? Give reason to
justify your answer.
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5. (a) A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the object
placed beyond 5 m. List two possible reasons due to which this defect of
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vision may have arisen. With the help of ray diagrams explain.
(i) Why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond
5 cm from his eyes.
(ii) The type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how
this defect is correct by the use of this lens.
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(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens
is 5 m, find the power of the lens as per the new Cartesian sign convention.
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Electric Current
SI unit
Ampere
What is it

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It is the rate of flow of electric charges (electrons) in a conductor.
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Experimentaly Mathematically

Measured by an Q
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I= t
ammeter

How is it connected Where

always in series in a circuit through

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which we measure current

Q is the net charge that flows across
cross-section of a conductor in time.
What is a circuit
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Electric circuit is a continuous and

closed path of an electric current.
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Direction of current
flow in circuit
Positive terminal of the cell
to the negative terminal

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is
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7. How the ammeter is connected in a circuit?
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8.
9.
10. Define IKWh in them of joints.
11.
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I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

12. What is the rate of flow of electric charges called?
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a) Electric potential b) Electric conductance

c) Electric current d) None of these
13. Which of the following is the SI Unit of Electric Current?
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a) Ohm b) Ampere
c) Volt d) Faraday
14. Which instrument is used for measuring electric potential?
a) Ammeter b) Galvanometer
c) Voltmeter d) Potentiometer

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 15. When one unit electric charge moves from one point in an electric circuit,
then the amount of work done in joules is known as?
a) Electric current b) Electric resistance
c) Electric conductance d) Potential difference
16. The hindrance presented by material of conductor to the smooth passing of

60
electric current is known as:
a) Resistance b) Conductance
c) Inductance d) None of these
17. The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to:

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a) Its area of cross-section b) Density
c) Melting d) Length
18. The purpose of a rheostat is:
a) Increase the magnitude of current only

ID
b) Decrease the magnitude of current only
c) Increase or decrease the magnitude of current
d) None of these
19. Point to be kept in mind for verification of Ohm's Law is:
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a) Ammeter and voltmeter should be connected in series
b) Ammeter should be connected in series and voltmeter in parallel
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c) Ammeter should be connected in parallel and voltmeter in series

d) Ammeter and voltmeter should be connected in parallel
20. A fuse wire is inserted in a?
a) Live wire
b) In the neutral wire
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c) In the earth wire

d) May be connected in any line
Answer: 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c)
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21. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

1. What is electricity?
ST

2. What is the SI unit of electric charge?

3. What is the SI unit of electric current?
4. What is an electric circuit?
5. Which device is used for measuring electric current?
6. An ammeter is attached to the circuit in which combination?

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 Answer:
1. The set of phenomena; associated with the presence and flow of electric
charge is called electricity.
2. Coulomb
3. Ampere

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4. The closed path through which electric current flows is called electric
circuit.
5. Ammeter

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6. Series.
22. Fill in the blanks:
1. The nature of charge processed by an electron is ...................... .
2. The nature of charge possessed by a proton is ...................... .

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3. Electric current shows the ...................... of flow of charge.
4. Electric components are represented by ...................... in a circuit
diagram.
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5. 1 milliampere is ...................... part of 1 ampere.
23. Write True/False for the following:
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1. Electrons were not discovered at the time of discovery of electric current.

2. The direction of flow of electric current is same as the direction of flow of
electrons.
3. Electric current can flow through a closed circuit only.
4. The electric switch helps in opening or closing a circuit.
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Answer: 1. ® T, 2. ® F, 3. ® T, 4. ® T
24. The values of current (I) flowing through a given resistor of resistance (R),
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for the corresponding values of potential difference (V) across the resistor
are as given below:
ST

V (volts) 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 4.0 5.0

I (amperes) 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0
Plot a graph between current (I) and potential difference (V). (CBSE 2018)

190
 25. Determine the resistance (R) of the resistor in the above case. (CBSE 2018)
26. Assertion (A): The fuse wire damages the various appliances in household
connections.
Reason (R): Depending on the device/appliance used, the fuse wire of proper

60
thickness has to be used.
(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of

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(A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
27. Assertion (A): When a current I flows through a resistor R, heat produced.
2
Reason (R): The Joule's law of heating says –H = I RT.

ID
(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of
U
(A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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1.
D

2.
U

3.
4.
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5.

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ID
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6.

7. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 W so that the
equivalent resistance of the combination is (i) 13.5 W, (ii) 6 W?
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8. (a) Write Joule's law of heating. (b) Two lamps, one rated 100 W; 220 V, and
the other 60 W; 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric mains supply. Find
U

the current drawn by two bulbs from the line, if the supply voltage is 220 V.
9. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a
ST

wire depends. (b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas
glass is a bad conductor of electricity? Give reason. (c) Why are alloys
commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason. (CBSE 2018)

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Domestic Safety measure

electric circuits
Magnet and its
D

Fuse Earth
properties
wire
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MAGNETIC Magnetic field lines

Fleming right hand rule. EFFECT OF & properties.
Electromagnetic induction. ELECTRIC Right hand thumb rule.
Generator
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CURRENT

Electro magnet Solenoid

Fleming left hand rule
Electric motor

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60
 6. What should be the core of an electromagnet?
a) Soft iron b) Hard iron
c) Rusted iron d) None of above
7. Who has stated the Right hand Thumb Rule?
a) Oersted b) Fleming

60
c) Einstein d) Maxwell
8. In all the electrical appliances, the switches are put in the
a) Live wire b) Earth wire
c) Neutral wire d) All of above

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9. What is the condition of an electromagnetic induction?
a) There must be a relative motion between the coil of wire and galvanometer
b) There must be a relative motion between the galvanometer and a magnet
c) There must be a relative motion between the galvanometer and generator

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d) There must be a relative motion between the coil of wire and a magnet
10. No force acts on a current carrying conductor when it placed—
a) Perpendicular to the magnetic field b) Parallel to the magnetic field
c) Far away from the magnetic field d) Inside a magnetic field
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11. What is that instrument which can detect the presence of electric current in a
circuit?
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a) Galvanometer b) Motor
c) Generator d) None of above
12. Which device produces the electric current?
a) Generator b) Galvanometer
c) Ammeter d) Motor
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13. What is electromagnetic induction?

a) The process of charging a body
b) The process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
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c) Producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a

magnet and the coil.
ST

d) The process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a

coil.
14. What happens to the current in short circuit?
a) Reduces substantially b) Does not change
c) increase heavily d) Vary continuously

206
 15. An alpha particle is diverted towards west is deflected towards north by a
field. The field is magnetic. What will be the direction of field?
a) Towards south b) Towards east
c) Downward d) Upward
Answer: 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c)

60
16. Very Short Answer Type Questions:
1. What is a magnet?
2. What is a permanent magnet?
3. What is a temporary magnet?

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4. What is an electromagnet?
5. What is the direction of magnetic field lines?
6. What is the shape of magnetic field lines due to a straight current-
carrying conductor?

ID
17. Fill in the blanks:
1. A microphone works on ...................... effect of electric current.
2. There are ...................... poles in a magnet.
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3. A freely suspended bar magnet always points to ...................... direction
when it is in rest.
4. ...................... poles of two magnets repel each other.
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5. ...................... poles of two magnets attract each other.

18. Write True/False for the following:
1. Natural magnets are permanent magnets.
2. All current-carrying conductors may not produce the magnetic effect.
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3. All electromagnets are solenoids.

4. Electromagnetism is responsible for working with speakers.
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5. A solenoid creates the uniform magnetic field.

6. Magnetic strength decreases with increase in current in a coil of solenoid.
ST

7. Magnetic strength increases with increase in a number of turns in the coil

in the solenoid.
Answer: 1. ® T, 2. ® F, 3. ® T, 4. ® T, 5. ® T, 6. ® T, 7. ® T

207
 19. Assertion (A): Every magnet has two poles–North and South.

Reason (R): Like poles repel each other.

(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

60
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

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20. Assertion (A): Magnetic field lines never intersect each other.
Reason (R): There must not be two north directions at a point.
(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

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(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of
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(A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
YG

21. Assertion (A): As the speed of the coil in the motor increases, there is
reduction in the current flowing through it.
Reason (R): During rotation in electric motor, some induced current is
produced.
D

(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
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(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
ST

(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

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 8.
7.
6.
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ID

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 4. (a) State Fleming's left hand rule.
(b) Write the principle of working of an electric motor.
(c) Explain the function
(i) Armature (ii) Brushes (iii) Split ring. (CBSE 2018)

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Concept map
Sources of Energy

Environmental
Consequences
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Good sources of
Energy
Life of Energy Source
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Conventional None Conventional
Sources Source
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Fossil Hydro Biomass Wind Solar Geothermal Oceanthermal

fuel power Energy Energy energy energy

Energy from the Sea

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Tidal Wave Oceanthermal

energy energy energy
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Renewable Nonrenewable
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Solar Wind Hydro Ocean Bio Geothermal Coal Petroleum Natural

energy energy energy energy mass gas

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 QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice Questions (1 mark)
1. Most popular kitchen fuel in India is
a) LPG b) Kerosene c) Coal d) Fire woods
2. Which is odd:-

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a) Petroleum b) Hydro electricity c) Coal d) CNG
3. Ultimate sources of energy is :-
a) LPG b) Solar energy c) CNG d) Coal
4. In which of the following kinetic energy is converted into electrical

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energy.
a) Tidal energy b) Hydro electricity c) Wind energy
d) All of the above
5. Out of the following what is used to trap solar energy in Solar cookers:-

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a) Solar Panel b) Silicon cell c) Mirror d) All of the above
Answer
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. c
6. Fill in the blanks:-
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(i) Domestic gas cylinder like Indane contains mainly__________
(ii) A solar cell converts _____________into__________energy.
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(iii) Splitting of a heavy nucleus into smaller nucleus is called___________

Very Short Answer Type Question (1 Marks )

1. Apart from cow dung, what can be used for biogas plant?
2. Write the full form of OTEC.
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3. Which of following sources of energy are not derived from sun:-

Bio mass, wind, thermal energy, geothermal energy, nuclear energy,
Hydro electricity, wave energy, coal.
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4. Out of LPG or coal, which would produce more heat?

5. Define calorific value of a fuel.
6. LPG is considered as good fuel why?
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7. What is full form of CNG?

8.
9.
10.

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 11.

12.

13.

14.

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15.

16.

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17.
18. Statements 1 : Wood is biomass
Statements 2 : It produce lot of smoke
Tick the correct answer
a) Statement 1 is correct but 2 is wrong

c) Both are correct

d) None is correct ID
b) Statement 2 is correct but 1 is wrong
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three
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 10.

11.

12.

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13.

14. Write the name of main constituents of biogas. Also write its percentage

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(CBSE 2019 Set 31/1/2)
15. If you would use any source of energy for heating food which one would you
prefer? State one reason for year choice (CBSE 2019 Set 31/3/3)
16. Why is biogas considered an excellent fuel? (CBSE 2019 Set 31/1/1)

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17. How the nuclear energy is generated? Explains the process of production of
electricity from it? Mention major hazards of nuclear energy.
18. Write three advantages and three limitations of solar cooker.
(CBSE 2010)
(CBSE 2010)
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19. Name two semiconductors used in solar cell. What is solar cell panel?
20. What do you mean by OTEC? How it is used for generating electricity?
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(CBSE 2010-1180521)
21. What is nuclear fusion? Write two advantages of it?
(CBSE 2010/1080611-C1)
22. Write three needs to look for alternate source of energy.(CBSE 2011-570016)
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23. There is temperature difference between surface of sea and deeper section.
How this difference is used to certain energy from sea?
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(CBSE 2010-1080607-C1)
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ID
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1 Marker Questions
Q.1 Classify the following into biotic and abiotic components
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Plants, Soil, Water, air, animals, temperature

Q.2 Make a food chain with following organisms-
Snake, Grass, Eagle, Frog, Grass hopper
Q.3 How much energy is transferred to the next trophic level?
a) 1% b) 90%
c) 10% d) 100%
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Q.4 CFC Causes depletion of -

a) Ozone b) Oxygen
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c) Nitrogen d) None of the above

Q.5 The concentration of harmful chemicals increases with energy next
trophic level in a food chain. Name this process.
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Q.6 Name two materials which can be recycled.

Q7.
Q8.
Q9.

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 Q10.
Q11.
Q12.

Q13.

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Q14.
Q15. Statements:
I: Both biotic and abiotic factors form an ecosystem.
II: Plants and soil are the biotic factors of ecosystem.

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(a) Both statements are correct.
(b) Both statements are in correct.
(c) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect.

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(d) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.
Q16. Statements:
I: Only 90% energy is transferred from one trophic level to another.
II: The remaining 10% energy is used in life processes by present trophic
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level.
(a) Both statements are correct.
(b) Both statements are incorrect.
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(c) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect.

(d) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.
Answers
1. Abiotic-Soil, air, water temperature. Biotic—Plants, animals
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2. Grass ® grasshopper ® frog ® snakes ® eagle

3. 3.10%
4. a
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5. Biological magnification
6. Paper, Plastic
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9.
10.
11.

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13.
14.
15.

16.
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(CBSE-2018, 2019)
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5 R’s to Save the Enivronment

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Refuse Reduce Reuse Repurpose Recycle

To say 'No' to Use less Use Again To use a product Segregate waste
things you for some other that can be
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don't need. useful purpose recycled.

For example: For example: For example: For example: For example:
Say 'No' to single (i) Switching off (i) Instead of throwing Cracked crockery Plastic, glass, metal
use plastic carry unnecessary things away they can can be used to items can be
bags. lights and fans. be used again. grow plants. recycled.
(ii) Repairing leaky Water after washing
taps dal etc. can be used
(iii) Not wasting for watering plants.
food

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Industrialist Wildlife
and nature enthersibast
who use various forest
produce

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 1. Which of the following bacteria contaminates review water and is found

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is river Ganga.
a) Streptocoreus b) Coliform
c) Diplococus d) Stapylococcus.
2. ‘Kulhs’ System of irrigation is common in

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a) Himachal Pradesh b) Rajasthan
c) Bihar d) Madhya Pradesh
3. Large Scale deforestation cleareast
a) Rainfall b) Soil erosson

4.
c) Global Warming

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d) Drought
‘Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award’ is given in memory for her work
in -
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a) Protection of Ganga from pollution
b) Protection of trees in Reni Village of Garhwal
c) Protection of Khijri trees in khejrali village near jodhpur is Rajasthan
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d) Protection of sal forest

5. Ground water will not be depleted due to
a) Afforestation b) Thermal power plants
c) Less of forest d) Cropping of high water demanding crops.
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6. Fill up the blanks.

i) Forest are ___________hot spots.
ii) Fuels obtained from the remains of plants and animals are
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called__________.
iii) Arabari forest of Bengal is dominated by ________trees.
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iv) The five Rs. to save the environment are____________,____________

__________,_________and_______________
v) Khadims, Bundhis, Ahara and Kattas are ancient structures that are
example for _____________.

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 7. Name the following
i) The two natural resource
ii) Hot spot in India
iii) Two stake holders
iv) Green house gas

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v) Any one ancient water harvesting structure.
8. Match the words of column A with that of column B.

Column A Column B

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1. Chipko Andolan a Nild life Conservation
2. Ganga Action Plan b Sal Tree
3. Arabari Forest c Rani Village, Garwal
4. Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award

ID d 1985
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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
11. Which of the following bacteria contaminates river water and is found in river
Ganga:
a) Streptococcus b) Coliform
c) Diplococcus d) Staphylococcus.

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12. Kulhs' System of irrigation is common in
a) Himachal Pradesh b) Rajasthan
c) Bihar d) Madhya Pradesh
13. Large scale deforestation decreases

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a) Rainfall b) Soil erosion
c) Global warming d) Drought
14. Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award' is given in memory for her work in
a) Protection of Ganga from pollution

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b) Protection of trees in Reni Village of Garhwal.
c) Protection of Khejri trees in Khejrali village near jodhpur in Rajashtan
d) Protection of sal forest
15. Ground water will not be depleted due to
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a) Afforestation
b) Thermal power plants
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c) Loss of forest
d) Cropping of high water demanding crops.
16. Fill up the blanks:
i) Forests are ............... hot spots.
ii) Fuels obtained from the remains of plants and animals are called ............... .
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iii) A rabari forest of Bengal is dominated by ............... trees.

iv) The five R's to save the environment are ..............., ..............., ...............,
............... and ............... .
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v) Khadins, Bundhis, Ahars and Kattas are ancient strcutures that are
examples for ............... .
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17. Name the following

i) The two natural resources
ii) Hot spots in India
iii) Two stake holders
iv) Green house gas
v) Anyone ancient water havesting structure.
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 18. Match the words of column A with that of column B.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
1. Chipko Andolan a) Wild life conservation
2. Ganga Action Plan b) Sal tree
3. A rabari forest c) Rani Village, Garhwal
4. Amrita Devi Bishnoi Award d) 1985

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19. Assertion (A): Windmills are used to generate power for irrigation.
Reason (R): Wind is a renewable source of Energy.
(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

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(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
20. Assertion (A): Sustainable development is a long planned and persistent
development.

stakeholders.
ID
Reason (R): Sustainable development does not consider the many points of

(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

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(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
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three
three
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6. What is meant by inploitation of resources with short term aims? List its
four advantages (CBSE-2019)
7. State an instance where human intervention saved the forests from
destruction (CBSE (Delhi)

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