Valuation Insights by Aswath Damodaran
Valuation Insights by Aswath Damodaran
Aswath Damodaran
[Link]
Aswath Damodaran 1
Some Initial Thoughts
Aswath Damodaran 2
Misconceptions about Valuation
Aswath Damodaran 3
Approaches to Valuation
Aswath Damodaran 4
Discounted Cash Flow Valuation
What is it: In discounted cash flow valuation, the value of an asset is the
present value of the expected cash flows on the asset.
Philosophical Basis: Every asset has an intrinsic value that can be estimated,
based upon its characteristics in terms of cash flows, growth and risk.
Information Needed: To use discounted cash flow valuation, you need
• to estimate the life of the asset
• to estimate the cash flows during the life of the asset
• to estimate the discount rate to apply to these cash flows to get present value
Market Inefficiency: Markets are assumed to make mistakes in pricing assets
across time, and are assumed to correct themselves over time, as new
information comes out about assets.
Aswath Damodaran 5
Equity Valuation
Aswath Damodaran 6
Firm Valuation
Present value is value of the entire firm, and reflects the value of
all claims on the firm.
Aswath Damodaran 7
Valuation with Infinite Life
Expected Growth
Cash flows Firm: Growth in
Firm: Pre-debt cash Operating Earnings
flow Equity: Growth in
Net Income/EPS Firm is in stable growth:
Equity: After debt
Grows at constant rate
cash flows
forever
Terminal Value
CF1 CF2 CF3 CF4 CF5 CFn
Value .........
Firm: Value of Firm Forever
Discount Rate
Firm:Cost of Capital
Aswath Damodaran 8
DISCOUNTED CASHFLOW VALUATION
Riskfree Rate :
- No default risk Risk Premium
- No reinvestment risk Beta - Premium for average
- In same currency and + - Measures market risk X
risk investment
in same terms (real or
nominal as cash flows
Type of Operating Financial Base Equity Country Risk
Business Leverage Leverage Premium Premium
Aswath Damodaran 9
BMW: Status Quo (Euros) Return on Capital
Reinvestment Rate 9.17%
Current Cashflow to Firm 57% Stable Growth
EBIT(1-t) : 2,227 Expected Growth g = 2%; Beta = 1.00;
- Nt CpX 687 in EBIT (1-t) Country Premium= 1.5%
- Chg WC 583 .57*.0917=.0523 Cost of capital = 7.15%
= FCFF ! 958 5.23% ROC= 7.15%; Tax rate=37%
Reinvestment Rate=(687+583)/2227 Reinvestment Rate=g/ROC
= 57% =2/ 7.15= 27.97%
Value/Sh ! 38.07
Discount at $ Cost of Capital (WACC) = 8.52% (.8015) + 3.26% (0.1985) = 7.47%
Riskfree Rate:
Euro Riskfree Rate= 3.95% Beta Mature market Emerg Market Equity
+ 1.14 X premium + Lambda X Risk Premium
3.83 % 0.08 2.50%
Aswath Damodaran 10
Discounted Cash Flow Valuation: High Growth with Negative Earnings
Current Reinvestment
Current Operating
Revenue Stable Growth
Margin
Sales Turnover Competitive
Ratio Advantages Stable Stable Stable
EBIT Revenue Operating Reinvestment
Revenue Expected Growth Margin
Growth Operating
Tax Rate Margin
- NOLs
Riskfree Rate :
- No default risk Risk Premium
- No reinvestment risk Beta - Premium for average
- In same currency and + - Measures market risk X
risk investment
in same terms (real or
nominal as cash flows
Type of Operating Financial Base Equity Country Risk
Business Leverage Leverage Premium Premium
Aswath Damodaran 11
Reinvestment:
Cap ex includes acquisitions Stable Growth
Current Current Working capital is 3% of revenues
Revenue Margin: Stable Stable
Stable Operating ROC=20%
$ 1,117 -36.71% Revenue
Sales Turnover Competitive Margin: Reinvest 30%
Ratio: 3.00 Advantages Growth: 6% 10.00% of EBIT(1-t)
EBIT
-410m Revenue Expected
Growth: Margin: Terminal Value= 1881/(.0961-.06)
NOL: 42% -> 10.00% =52,148
500 m
Term. Year
$41,346
Revenues $2,793 5,585 9,774 14,661 19,059 23,862 28,729 33,211 36,798 39,006 10.00%
EBIT -$373 -$94 $407 $1,038 $1,628 $2,212 $2,768 $3,261 $3,646 $3,883 35.00%
EBIT (1-t) -$373 -$94 $407 $871 $1,058 $1,438 $1,799 $2,119 $2,370 $2,524 $2,688
- Reinvestment $559 $931 $1,396 $1,629 $1,466 $1,601 $1,623 $1,494 $1,196 $736 $ 807
FCFF -$931 -$1,024 -$989 -$758 -$408 -$163 $177 $625 $1,174 $1,788 $1,881
Value of Op Assets $ 14,910
+ Cash $ 26 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
= Value of Firm $14,936 Forever
Cost of Equity 12.90% 12.90% 12.90% 12.90% 12.90% 12.42% 12.30% 12.10% 11.70% 10.50%
- Value of Debt $ 349 Cost of Debt 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 7.80% 7.75% 7.67% 7.50% 7.00%
= Value of Equity $14,587 AT cost of debt 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 6.71% 5.20% 5.07% 5.04% 4.98% 4.88% 4.55%
- Equity Options $ 2,892 Cost of Capital 12.84% 12.84% 12.84% 12.83% 12.81% 12.13% 11.96% 11.69% 11.15% 9.61%
Value per share $ 34.32
Riskfree Rate :
T. Bond rate = 6.5% [Link]
Risk Premium
Beta January 2000
4%
+ 1.60 -> 1.00 X Stock Price = $ 84
Aswath Damodaran 12
I. Discount Rates:Cost of Equity
Aswath Damodaran 13
A Simple Test
You are valuing BMW in Euros for a US institutional investor and are
attempting to estimate a risk free rate to use in the analysis. The risk free rate
that you should use is
The interest rate on a US $ denominated treasury bond (4.25%)
The interest rate on a Euro-denominated bond issued by the German
government (3.95%)
The lowest interest rate on a 10-year Euro-denominated bond issued by any
European government (3.95%)
The lowest interest rate on a 10-year bond issued by a European government
(Swiss bond: 2.62%)
Aswath Damodaran 14
Everyone uses historical premiums, but..
The historical risk premium is easiest to estimate in the United States, because
there is unbroken market data going back to 1870.
Arithmetic average Geometric Average
Stocks - Stocks - Stocks - Stocks -
Historical Period [Link] [Link] [Link] [Link]
1928-2003 7.92% 6.54% 5.99% 4.82%
1963-2003 6.09% 4.70% 4.85% 3.82%
1993-2003 8.43% 4.87% 6.68% 3.57%
It is difficult to get enough historical data to estimate risk premiums in
other countries.
Aswath Damodaran 15
Risk Premium for a Mature Market? Broadening the sample..
Aswath Damodaran 16
An Alternative to Historical Risk Premiums: Implied Equity
Premium for the S&P 500: January 1, 2004
We can use the information in stock prices to back out how risk averse the market is and how much
of a risk premium it is demanding.
After year 5, we will assume that
earnings on the index will grow at
In 2003, dividends & stock
Analysts expect earnings to grow 9.5% a year for the next 5 years as 4.25%, the same rate as the entire
buybacks were 2.81% of
the economy comes out of a recession. economy
the index, generating 31.29
in cashflows
34.26 37.52 41.08 44.98 49.26
January 1, 2004
S&P 500 is at1111.91
If you pay the current level of the index, you can expect to make a return of 7.94% on stocks (which
is obtained by solving for r in the following equation)
34.26 37.52 41.08 44.98 49.26 49.26(1.0425)
1111.91 = + 2
+ 3
+ 4
+ 5
+
(1+ r) (1+ r) (1+ r) (1+ r) (1+ r) (r " .0425)(1+ r) 5
Implied Equity risk premium = Expected return on stocks - Treasury bond rate = 7.94% - 4.25% =
3.69%
!
Aswath Damodaran 17
Implied Premiums in the US
Aswath Damodaran 18
Choosing an Equity Risk Premium
Historical Risk Premium: When you use the historical risk premium, you are
assuming that premiums will revert back to a historical norm and that the time
period that you are using is the right norm. You are also more likely to find
stocks to be overvalued than undervalued (Why?)
Current Implied Equity Risk premium: You are assuming that the market is
correct in the aggregate but makes mistakes on individual stocks. If you are
required to be market neutral, this is the premium you should use. (What
types of valuations require market neutrality?)
Average Implied Equity Risk premium: The average implied equity risk
premium between 1960-2003 in the United States is about 4%. You are
assuming that the market is correct on average but not necessarily at a point in
time.
Aswath Damodaran 19
Implied Equity Risk Premium for Germany: September 23,
2004
We can use the information in stock prices to back out how risk averse the market is and how much
of a risk premium it is demanding.
Dividends and stock Analysts are estimating an expected growth rate of 11.36% in earnings
buybacks were 2.67% of over the next 5 years for stocks in the DAX (Source: IBES)
the index last year
Source: Bloomberg Expected dividends and stock buybacks over next 5 years
116.13 129.32 144.01 160.37 178.59 Assumed to grow
at 3.95% a year
forever after year 5
Aswath Damodaran 20
Opportunities and Threats: The Allure of Asia and the
Risk…
Aswath Damodaran 21
Using Country Ratings to Estimate Equity Spreads
Country ratings measure default risk. While default risk premiums and equity
risk premiums are highly correlated, one would expect equity spreads to be
higher than debt spreads.
• One way to adjust the country spread upwards is to use information from the US
market. In the US, the equity risk premium has been roughly twice the default
spread on junk bonds.
• Another is to multiply the bond spread by the relative volatility of stock and bond
prices in that market. For example,
– Standard Deviation in BSE = 32%
– Standard Deviation in Indian Government Bond = 16%
– Adjusted Equity Spread = 1.30% (32/16) = 2.60%
Aswath Damodaran 22
Equity Risk Premiums in Asia
Country Rating Typical Default Spread Relative Equity Market volatility Equity Risk Premium
China A2 90 2.25 2.03%
Hong Kong A1 80 1.8 1.44%
India Baa2 130 2 2.60%
Indonesia B2 550 1.8 9.90%
Malaysia A3 95 2.5 2.38%
Pakistan B2 550 1.75 9.63%
Singapore Aaa 0 2.2 0.00%
Taiwan Aa3 70 2.5 1.75%
Thailand Baa1 120 2.2 2.64%
Vietnam B1 450 1.6 7.20%
Weighted average risk premium = 2.50%
Aswath Damodaran 23
Country Risk and Company Risk: Three points of view
Aswath Damodaran 24
Estimating Company Exposure to Country Risk:
Determinants
Aswath Damodaran 25
Estimating Lambdas: The Revenue Approach
The easiest and most accessible data is on revenues. Most companies break
their revenues down by region. One simplistic solution would be to do the
following:
λ = % of revenues domesticallyfirm/ % of revenues domesticallyavg firm
Consider, for instance, the fact that BMW got about 12% of its revenues from
Asia, Africa and Oceania (?). Assuming that 6% of the revenues are from
Japan and Australia, we would estimate that the remaining 6% are in
“Emerging Asia”, we can estimate a lambda for BMW for Asia (using the
assumption that the typical Asian firm gets about 75% of its revenues in Asia)
• LambdaBMW, Asia = 6%/ 75% = .08
There are two implications
• A company’s risk exposure is determined by where it does business and
not by where it is located
• Firms might be able to actively manage their country risk exposures
Aswath Damodaran 26
BMW’s Cost of Equity
Aswath Damodaran 27
Estimating Beta
The standard procedure for estimating betas is to regress stock returns (Rj)
against market returns (Rm) -
Rj = a + b Rm
• where a is the intercept and b is the slope of the regression.
The slope of the regression corresponds to the beta of the stock, and measures
the riskiness of the stock.
This beta has three problems:
• It has high standard error
• It reflects the firm’s business mix over the period of the regression, not the current
mix
• It reflects the firm’s average financial leverage over the period rather than the
current leverage.
Aswath Damodaran 28
Beta Estimation: Amazon
Aswath Damodaran 29
Beta Estimation for BMW: The Index Effect
Aswath Damodaran 30
Who is the marginal investor in BMW?
Aswath Damodaran 31
A more reasonable assessment of market risk?
Aswath Damodaran 32
Determinants of Betas
Beta of Equity
Implications Implications
1. Cyclical companies should 1. Firms with high infrastructure
have higher betas than non- needs and rigid cost structures
cyclical companies. shoudl have higher betas than
2. Luxury goods firms should firms with flexible cost structures.
have higher betas than basic 2. Smaller firms should have higher
goods. betas than larger firms.
3. High priced goods/service 3. Young firms should have
firms should have higher betas
than low prices goods/services
firms.
4. Growth firms should have
higher betas.
Aswath Damodaran 33
In a perfect world… we would estimate the beta of a firm by
doing the following
Adjust the business beta for the operating leverage of the firm to arrive at the
unlevered beta for the firm.
Use the financial leverage of the firm to estimate the equity beta for the firm
Levered Beta = Unlevered Beta ( 1 + (1- tax rate) (Debt/Equity))
Aswath Damodaran 34
Bottom-up Betas
Step 1: Find the business or businesses that your firm operates in.
Possible Refinements
Step 2: Find publicly traded firms in each of these businesses and
obtain their regression betas. Compute the simple average across
these regression betas to arrive at an average beta for these publicly If you can, adjust this beta for differences
traded firms. Unlever this average beta using the average debt to between your firm and the comparable
equity ratio across the publicly traded firms in the sample. firms on operating leverage and product
Unlevered beta for business = Average beta across publicly traded characteristics.
firms/ (1 + (1- t) (Average D/E ratio across firms))
Step 4: Compute a weighted average of the unlevered betas of the If you expect the business mix of your
different businesses (from step 2) using the weights from step 3. firm to change over time, you can
Bottom-up Unlevered beta for your firm = Weighted average of the change the weights on a year-to-year
unlevered betas of the individual business basis.
Aswath Damodaran 35
BMW’s Bottom-up Beta
Aswath Damodaran 36
Amazon’s Bottom-up Beta
Amazon is a specialty retailer, but its risk currently seems to be determined by the fact
that it is an online retailer. Hence we will use the beta of internet companies to begin
the valuation
By the fifth year, we are estimating substantial revenues for Amazon and we move the
beta towards to beta of the retailing business.
Aswath Damodaran 37
From Cost of Equity to Cost of Capital
Cost of Capital = Cost of Equity (Equity/(Debt + Equity)) + Cost of Borrowing (1-t) (Debt/(Debt + Equity))
Cost of equity
based upon bottom-up Weights should be market value weights
beta
Aswath Damodaran 38
Bond Rating: Synthetic versus Actual
If a firm is rated, its bond rating represents the ratings agency’s judgment of
the default risk of a firm. BMW is rated A+ by S&P.
The rating for a firm can be estimated using the financial characteristics of the
firm. In its simplest form, the rating can be estimated from the interest
coverage ratio
Interest Coverage Ratio = EBIT / Interest Expenses
For BMW’s interest coverage ratio, we used the interest expenses and EBIT
from 2003.
Interest Coverage Ratio = 3353/ 811 = 2.64
[Link] has negative operating income; this yields a negative interest
coverage ratio, which should suggest a low rating. We computed an average
interest coverage ratio of 2.82 over the next 5 years.
Aswath Damodaran 39
Interest Coverage Ratios, Ratings and Default Spreads
If Interest Coverage Ratio is Estimated Bond Rating Default Spread(1/00) Default Spread(1/04)
> 8.50 AAA 0.20% 0.35%
6.50 - 8.50 AA 0.50% 0.50%
5.50 - 6.50 A+ 0.80% 0.70%
4.25 - 5.50 A 1.00% 0.85%
3.00 - 4.25 A– 1.25% 1.00%
2.50 - 3.00 BBB 1.50% 1.50% BMW Interest
coverage ratio
2.25 - 2.50 BB+ 1.75% 2.00%
of 2.64
2.00 - 2.25 BB 2.00% 2.50%
1.75 - 2.00 B+ 2.50% 3.25%
1.50 - 1.75 B 3.25% 4.00%
1.25 - 1.50 B– 4.25% 6.00%
0.80 - 1.25 CCC 5.00% 8.00%
0.65 - 0.80 CC 6.00% 10.00%
0.20 - 0.65 C 7.50% 12.00%
< 0.20 D 10.00% 20.00%
Aswath Damodaran 40
Estimating the cost of debt for a firm
The synthetic rating for BMW is BBB, lower than the actual rating of the firm of A+.
We will use the synethetic rating to estimate the cost of debt. Using the 2004 default
spread of 1.50%, we estimate a cost of debt of 5.45% (using a riskfree rate of 3.95%):
Cost of debt = Riskfree rate + Company default spread
= 3.95% + 1.50% = 5.45%
The synthetic rating for [Link] in 2000 was BBB. The default spread for BBB
rated bond was 1.50% in 2000 and the treasury bond rate was 6.5%.
Pre-tax cost of debt = Riskfree Rate + Default spread
= 6.50% + 1.50% = 8.00%
The firm is paying no taxes currently. As the firm’s tax rate changes and its cost of debt
changes, the after tax cost of debt will change as well.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Pre-tax 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 7.80% 7.75% 7.67% 7.50% 7.00%
Tax rate 0% 0% 0% 16.13% 35% 35% 35% 35% 35% 35%
After-tax 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 6.71% 5.20% 5.07% 5.04% 4.98% 4.88% 4.55%
Aswath Damodaran 41
Weights for the Cost of Capital Computation
The weights used to compute the cost of capital should be the market value
weights for debt and equity.
There is an element of circularity that is introduced into every valuation by
doing this, since the values that we attach to the firm and equity at the end of
the analysis are different from the values we gave them at the beginning.
As a general rule, the debt that you should subtract from firm value to arrive
at the value of equity should be the same debt that you used to compute the
cost of capital.
Aswath Damodaran 42
Estimating Cost of Capital: [Link]
Equity
• Cost of Equity = 6.50% + 1.60 (4.00%) = 12.90%
• Market Value of Equity = $ 84/share* 340.79 mil shs = $ 28,626 mil (98.8%)
Debt
• Cost of debt = 6.50% + 1.50% (default spread) = 8.00%
• Market Value of Debt = $ 349 mil (1.2%)
Cost of Capital
Cost of Capital = 12.9 % (.988) + 8.00% (1- 0) (.012)) = 12.84%
Aswath Damodaran 43
Estimating Cost of Capital: BMW
Equity
• Cost of Equity = 3.95% + 1.14 (3.83%) + 0.08 (2.50%) = 8.52%
• Market Value of Equity =22,596 million Euros (80.15%)
Debt
• Cost of debt = 3.95%+1.50%= 5.45%
• Market Value of Debt = 5,597 million Euros (19.85%)
Cost of Capital
Cost of Capital = 8.52 % (.8015) + 5.45% (1- .4021) (0.1985)) = 7.47%
Aswath Damodaran 44
II. Estimating Cash Flows to Firm
Aswath Damodaran 45
The Importance of Updating
The operating income and revenue that we use in valuation should be updated
numbers. One of the problems with using financial statements is that they are
dated.
As a general rule, it is better to use 12-month trailing estimates for earnings
and revenues than numbers for the most recent financial year. This rule
becomes even more critical when valuing companies that are evolving and
growing rapidly.
Last 10-K Trailing 12-month
Revenues $ 610 million $1,117 million
EBIT - $125 million - $ 410 million
Aswath Damodaran 46
Normalizing Earnings: Amazon
Aswath Damodaran 47
Operating Leases at The Home Depot in 1998
Aswath Damodaran 48
Capitalizing R&D Expenses: BMW
To capitalize R&D,
• Specify an amortizable life for R&D (2 - 10 years)
• Collect past R&D expenses for as long as the amortizable life
• Sum up the unamortized R&D over the period. (Thus, if the amortizable life is 5 years, the
research asset can be obtained by adding up 1/5th of the R&D expense from five years ago,
2/5th of the R&D expense from four years ago...:
R & D was assumed to have a 3-year life at BMW.
Aswath Damodaran 49
The Effect of Net Operating Losses: [Link]’s Tax
Rate
Year 1 2 3 4 5
EBIT -$373 -$94 $407 $1,038 $1,628
Taxes $0 $0 $0 $167 $570
EBIT(1-t) -$373 -$94 $407 $871 $1,058
Tax rate 0% 0% 0% 16.13% 35%
NOL $500 $873 $967 $560 $0
Aswath Damodaran 50
Estimating Actual FCFF: BMW
Aswath Damodaran 51
Estimating FCFF: [Link]
Aswath Damodaran 52
IV. Expected Growth in EBIT and Fundamentals
Aswath Damodaran 53
Return on Capital Computation: BMW
Book value of debt and Book Value of Equity Book Value of Debt
equity from end of prior year 13,871+4041 = 6,769 million Euros
17,509 million Euros
Aswath Damodaran 54
Reinvestment Rate Computation: BMW
Aswath Damodaran 55
Revenue Growth and Operating Margins
Aswath Damodaran 56
Growth in Revenues, Earnings and Reinvestment: Amazon
Aswath Damodaran 57
V. Growth Patterns
A key assumption in all discounted cash flow models is the period of high
growth, and the pattern of growth during that period. In general, we can make
one of three assumptions:
• there is no high growth, in which case the firm is already in stable growth
• there will be high growth for a period, at the end of which the growth rate will
drop to the stable growth rate (2-stage)
• there will be high growth for a period, at the end of which the growth rate will
decline gradually to a stable growth rate(3-stage)
Aswath Damodaran 58
Determinants of Growth Patterns
Aswath Damodaran 59
Stable Growth Characteristics
In stable growth, firms should have the characteristics of other stable growth
firms. In particular,
• The risk of the firm, as measured by beta and ratings, should reflect that of a stable
growth firm.
– Beta should move towards one
– The cost of debt should reflect the safety of stable firms (BBB or higher)
• The debt ratio of the firm might increase to reflect the larger and more stable
earnings of these firms.
– The debt ratio of the firm might moved to the optimal or an industry average
– If the managers of the firm are deeply averse to debt, this may never happen
• The reinvestment rate of the firm should reflect the expected growth rate and the
firm’s return on capital
– Reinvestment Rate = Expected Growth Rate / Return on Capital
Aswath Damodaran 60
BMW and [Link]: Stable Growth Inputs
Aswath Damodaran 61
Dealing with Cash and Marketable Securities
The simplest and most direct way of dealing with cash and marketable
securities is to keep them out of the valuation - the cash flows should be
before interest income from cash and securities, and the discount rate should
not be contaminated by the inclusion of cash. (Use betas of the operating
assets alone to estimate the cost of equity).
Once the firm has been valued, add back the value of cash and marketable
securities.
• If you have a particularly incompetent management, with a history of overpaying
on acquisitions, markets may discount the value of this cash.
Aswath Damodaran 62
Dealing with Cross Holdings
When the holding is a majority, active stake, the value that we obtain from the
cash flows includes the share held by outsiders. While their holding is
measured in the balance sheet as a minority interest, it is at book value. To get
the correct value, we need to subtract out the estimated market value of the
minority interests from the firm value.
When the holding is a minority, passive interest, the problem is a different
one. The firm shows on its income statement only the share of dividends it
receives on the holding. Using only this income will understate the value of
the holdings. In fact, we have to value the subsidiary as a separate entity to
get a measure of the market value of this holding.
Proposition 1: It is almost impossible to correctly value firms with minority,
passive interests in a large number of private subsidiaries.
Aswath Damodaran 63
Non-debt Obligations
Pension fund obligations: If pension fund assets are not intermingled with
other assets, only the underfunded portion of pension fund liabilities should
be considered. If pension fund assets are intermingled, all of the pension fund
obligations should be considered.
Lawsuit obligations: If lawsuits are pending against the firm, the expected
value (based on the likelihood of losing the lawsuits and the penalty if that
occurs) of the lawsuits should be deducted.
Other obligations: Deferred tax liabilities, employee health care benefits and
social cost obligations can also be deducted, though the rationale has to be
clearly specified.
Aswath Damodaran 64
BMW: Towards the final value
Aswath Damodaran 65
Amazon: Estimating the Value of Equity Options
Aswath Damodaran 66
Reinvestment:
Cap ex includes acquisitions
Stable Growth
Current Current Working capital is 3% of revenues
Revenue Margin: Stable Stable
Stable Operating ROC=20%
$ 1,117 -36.71% Revenue
Sales Turnover Competitive Margin: Reinvest 30%
Ratio: 3.00 Advantages Growth: 6% 10.00% of EBIT(1-t)
EBIT
-410m Revenue Expected
Growth: Margin: Terminal Value= 1881/(.0961-.06)
NOL: 42% -> 10.00% =52,148
500 m
Term. Year
$41,346
Revenues $2,793 5,585 9,774 14,661 19,059 23,862 28,729 33,211 36,798 39,006 10.00%
EBIT -$373 -$94 $407 $1,038 $1,628 $2,212 $2,768 $3,261 $3,646 $3,883 35.00%
EBIT (1-t) -$373 -$94 $407 $871 $1,058 $1,438 $1,799 $2,119 $2,370 $2,524 $2,688
- Reinvestment $559 $931 $1,396 $1,629 $1,466 $1,601 $1,623 $1,494 $1,196 $736 $ 807
FCFF -$931 -$1,024 -$989 -$758 -$408 -$163 $177 $625 $1,174 $1,788 $1,881
Value of Op Assets $ 14,910
+ Cash $ 26 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
= Value of Firm $14,936 Forever
Cost of Equity 12.90% 12.90% 12.90% 12.90% 12.90% 12.42% 12.30% 12.10% 11.70% 10.50%
- Value of Debt $ 349 Cost of Debt 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 7.80% 7.75% 7.67% 7.50% 7.00%
= Value of Equity $14,587 AT cost of debt 8.00% 8.00% 8.00% 6.71% 5.20% 5.07% 5.04% 4.98% 4.88% 4.55%
- Equity Options $ 2,892 Cost of Capital 12.84% 12.84% 12.84% 12.83% 12.81% 12.13% 11.96% 11.69% 11.15% 9.61%
Value per share $ 34.32
Riskfree Rate :
T. Bond rate = 6.5% [Link]
Risk Premium January 2000
Beta 4%
+ 1.60 -> 1.00 X Stock Price = $ 84
Aswath Damodaran 68
Reinvestment:
Cap ex includes acquisitions Stable Growth
Current Current Working capital is 3% of revenues
Revenue Margin: Stable Stable
Stable Operating ROC=16.94%
$ 2,465 -34.60% Revenue
Sales Turnover Competitive Margin: Reinvest 29.5%
Ratio: 3.02 Advantages Growth: 5% 9.32% of EBIT(1-t)
EBIT
-853m Revenue Expected
Growth: Margin: Terminal Value= 1064/(.0876-.05)
NOL: 25.41% -> 9.32% =$ 28,310
1,289 m
Term. Year
Revenues $4,314 $6,471 $9,059 $11,777 $14,132 $16,534 $18,849 $20,922 $22,596 $23,726 $24,912 $24,912
EBIT -$703 -$364 $54 $499 $898 $1,255 $1,566 $1,827 $2,028 $2,164 $2,322 $2,322
EBIT(1-t) -$703 -$364 $54 $499 $898 $1,133 $1,018 $1,187 $1,318 $1,406 $1,509 $1,509
- Reinvestment $612 $714 $857 $900 $780 $796 $766 $687 $554 $374 $445 $ 445
FCFF -$1,315 -$1,078 -$803 -$401 $118 $337 $252 $501 $764 $1,032 $1,064
$1,064
Value of Op Assets $ 7,967
+ Cash & Non-op $ 1,263 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
= Value of Firm $ 9,230 Forever
Debt Ratio 27.27% 27.27% 27.27% 27.27% 27.27% 24.81% 24.20% 23.18% 21.13% 15.00%
- Value of Debt $ 1,890 Beta 2.18 2.18 2.18 2.18 2.18 1.96 1.75 1.53 1.32 1.10
= Value of Equity $ 7,340 Cost of Equity 13.81% 13.81% 13.81% 13.81% 13.81% 12.95% 12.09% 11.22% 10.36% 9.50%
- Equity Options $ 748 AT cost of debt 10.00% 10.00% 10.00% 10.00% 9.06% 6.11% 6.01% 5.85% 5.53% 4.55%
Value per share $ 18.74 Cost of Capital 12.77% 12.77% 12.77% 12.77% 12.52% 11.25% 10.62% 9.98% 9.34% 8.76%
Riskfree Rate :
T. Bond rate = 5.1% [Link]
Risk Premium
Beta January 2001
4%
+ 2.18-> 1.10 X Stock price = $14
Value/Sh ! 38.07
Discount at $ Cost of Capital (WACC) = 8.52% (.8015) + 3.26% (0.1985) = 7.47%
Riskfree Rate:
Euro Riskfree Rate= 3.95% Beta Mature market Emerg Market Equity
+ 1.14 X premium + Lambda X Risk Premium
3.83 % 0.08 2.50%
Aswath Damodaran 70
Value Enhancement: Back to Basics
Aswath Damodaran
[Link]
Aswath Damodaran 71
Price Enhancement versus Value Enhancement
Aswath Damodaran 72
The Paths to Value Creation
Using the DCF framework, there are four basic ways in which the value of a
firm can be enhanced:
• The cash flows from existing assets to the firm can be increased, by either
– increasing after-tax earnings from assets in place or
– reducing reinvestment needs (net capital expenditures or working capital)
• The expected growth rate in these cash flows can be increased by either
– Increasing the rate of reinvestment in the firm
– Improving the return on capital on those reinvestments
• The length of the high growth period can be extended to allow for more years of
high growth.
• The cost of capital can be reduced by
– Reducing the operating risk in investments/assets
– Changing the financial mix
– Changing the financing composition
Aswath Damodaran 73
A Basic Proposition
Aswath Damodaran 74
Value-Neutral Actions
Stock splits and stock dividends change the number of units of equity in a firm, but
cannot affect firm value since they do not affect cash flows, growth or risk.
Accounting decisions that affect reported earnings but not cash flows should have no
effect on value.
• Changing inventory valuation methods from FIFO to LIFO or vice versa in financial reports
but not for tax purposes
• Changing the depreciation method used in financial reports (but not the tax books) from
accelerated to straight line depreciation
• Major non-cash restructuring charges that reduce reported earnings but are not tax deductible
• Using pooling instead of purchase in acquisitions cannot change the value of a target firm.
Decisions that create new securities on the existing assets of the firm (without altering
the financial mix) such as tracking stock cannot create value, though they might affect
perceptions and hence the price.
Aswath Damodaran 75
I. Ways of Increasing Cash Flows from Assets in Place
More efficient
operations and Revenues
cost cuttting:
Higher Margins * Operating Margin
= EBIT
Divest assets that
have negative EBIT - Tax Rate * EBIT
Aswath Damodaran 76
II. Value Enhancement through Growth
Aswath Damodaran 77
III. Building Competitive Advantages: Increase length of the
growth period
Aswath Damodaran 78
3.1: The Brand Name Advantage
Some firms are able to sustain above-normal returns and growth because they
have well-recognized brand names that allow them to charge higher prices
than their competitors and/or sell more than their competitors.
Firms that are able to improve their brand name value over time can increase
both their growth rate and the period over which they can expect to grow at
rates above the stable growth rate, thus increasing value.
Aswath Damodaran 79
Illustration: Valuing a brand name: Coca Cola
Aswath Damodaran 80
3.2: Patents and Legal Protection
The most complete protection that a firm can have from competitive pressure
is to own a patent, copyright or some other kind of legal protection allowing it
to be the sole producer for an extended period.
Note that patents only provide partial protection, since they cannot protect a
firm against a competitive product that meets the same need but is not covered
by the patent protection.
Licenses and government-sanctioned monopolies also provide protection
against competition. They may, however, come with restrictions on excess
returns; utilities in the United States, for instance, are monopolies but are
regulated when it comes to price increases and returns.
Aswath Damodaran 81
3.3: Switching Costs
Another potential barrier to entry is the cost associated with switching from
one firm’s products to another.
The greater the switching costs, the more difficult it is for competitors to
come in and compete away excess returns.
Firms that devise ways to increase the cost of switching from their products to
competitors’ products, while reducing the costs of switching from competitor
products to their own will be able to increase their expected length of growth.
Aswath Damodaran 82
3.4: Cost Advantages
There are a number of ways in which firms can establish a cost advantage
over their competitors, and use this cost advantage as a barrier to entry:
• In businesses, where scale can be used to reduce costs, economies of scale can give
bigger firms advantages over smaller firms
• Owning or having exclusive rights to a distribution system can provide firms with
a cost advantage over its competitors.
• Owning or having the rights to extract a natural resource which is in restricted
supply (The undeveloped reserves of an oil or mining company, for instance)
These cost advantages will show up in valuation in one of two ways:
• The firm may charge the same price as its competitors, but have a much higher
operating margin.
• The firm may charge lower prices than its competitors and have a much higher
capital turnover ratio.
Aswath Damodaran 83
Gauging Barriers to Entry
Which of the following barriers to entry are most likely to work for BMW?
Brand Name
Patents and Legal Protection
Switching Costs
Cost Advantages
What about for [Link]?
Brand Name
Patents and Legal Protection
Switching Costs
Cost Advantages
Aswath Damodaran 84
Reducing Cost of Capital
Aswath Damodaran 85
[Link]: Optimal Debt Ratio
Debt Ratio Beta Cost of Equity Bond Rating Interest rate on debt Tax Rate Cost of Debt (after-tax) WACC Firm Value (G)
0% 1.58 12.82% AAA 6.80% 0.00% 6.80% 12.82% $29,192
10% 1.76 13.53% D 18.50% 0.00% 18.50% 14.02% $24,566
20% 1.98 14.40% D 18.50% 0.00% 18.50% 15.22% $21,143
30% 2.26 15.53% D 18.50% 0.00% 18.50% 16.42% $18,509
40% 2.63 17.04% D 18.50% 0.00% 18.50% 17.62% $16,419
50% 3.16 19.15% D 18.50% 0.00% 18.50% 18.82% $14,719
60% 3.95 22.31% D 18.50% 0.00% 18.50% 20.02% $13,311
70% 5.27 27.58% D 18.50% 0.00% 18.50% 21.22% $12,125
80% 7.90 38.11% D 18.50% 0.00% 18.50% 22.42% $11,112
90% 15.81 69.73% D 18.50% 0.00% 18.50% 23.62% $10,237
Aswath Damodaran 86
BMW : Optimal Capital Structure
Debt Ratio Beta Cost of Equity Bond Rating Interest rate on debt Tax Rate Cost of Debt (after-tax) WACC Firm Value (G)
0% 0.99 7.95% AAA 4.30% 40.21% 2.57% 7.95% $25,604
10% 1.06 8.22% AAA 4.30% 40.21% 2.57% 7.65% $26,945
20% 1.14 8.55% AAA 4.30% 40.21% 2.57% 7.35% $28,432
30% 1.25 8.98% A+ 4.65% 40.21% 2.78% 7.12% $29,725
40% 1.39 9.55% A- 4.95% 40.21% 2.96% 6.91% $30,953
50% 1.59 10.34% BB+ 5.95% 40.21% 3.56% 6.95% $30,713
60% 1.88 11.54% B+ 7.20% 40.21% 4.30% 7.20% $29,268
70% 2.38 13.53% B- 9.95% 40.21% 5.95% 8.22% $24,488
80% 3.42 17.71% CC 13.95% 39.00% 8.51% 10.35% $18,247
90% 6.83 31.48% CC 13.95% 34.67% 9.11% 11.35% $16,275
Aswath Damodaran 87
Grow more in
BMW: Restructured emerging Return on Capital
Reinvestment Rate markets 12.00%
Current Cashflow to Firm 70% Stable Growth
EBIT(1-t) : 2,227 Expected Growth g = 2%; Beta = 1.00;
- Nt CpX 687 in EBIT (1-t) Country Premium= 1.5%
- Chg WC 583 .70*.12=.084 Cost of capital = 6.49%
= FCFF ! 958 8.40% ROC= 6.49%; Tax rate=37%
Reinvestment Rate=(687+583)/2227 Reinvestment Rate=g/ROC
= 57% =2/ 6.49= 30.80%
Value/Sh ! 49.30
Discount at $ Cost of Capital (WACC) = 9.90% (.60) + 3.56% (0.40) = 7.36%
Riskfree Rate:
Euro Riskfree Rate= 3.95% Beta Mature market Emerg Market Equity
+ 1.39 X premium + Lambda X Risk Premium
3.83 % 0.25 2.50%
Increased risk
Unlevered Beta for Firm’s D/E from
Sectors: 0.99 Ratio: 24.77% emerging markets
Aswath Damodaran 88
The Value of Control?
If the value of a firm run optimally is significantly higher than the value of the
firm with the status quo (or incumbent management), you can write the value
that you should be willing to pay as:
Value of control = Value of firm optimally run - Value of firm with status quo
Implications:
• The value of control is greatest at poorly run firms.
• Voting shares in poorly run firms should trade at a premium on non-voting shares
if the votes associated with the shares will give you a chance to have a say in a
hostile acquisition.
• When valuing private firms, your estimate of value will vary depending upon
whether you gain control of the firm. For example, 49% of a private firm may be
worth less than 51% of the same firm.
49% stake = 49% of status quo value
51% stake = 51% of optimal value
Aswath Damodaran 89
Relative Valuation
Aswath Damodaran
Aswath Damodaran 90
What is relative valuation?
Aswath Damodaran 91
Relative valuation is pervasive…
Aswath Damodaran 92
Why relative valuation?
“If you think I’m crazy, you should see the guy who lives across the hall”
Jerry Seinfeld talking about Kramer in a Seinfeld episode
“ If you are going to screw up, make sure that you have lots of company”
Ex-portfolio manager
Aswath Damodaran 93
So, you believe only in intrinsic value? Here’s why you
should still care about relative value
Aswath Damodaran 94
Standardizing Value
You can standardize either the equity value of an asset or the value of the asset itself, which goes in
the numerator.
You can standardize by dividing by the
• Earnings of the asset
– Price/Earnings Ratio (PE) and variants (PEG and Relative PE)
– Value/EBIT
– Value/EBITDA
– Value/Cash Flow
• Book value of the asset
– Price/Book Value(of Equity) (PBV)
– Value/ Book Value of Assets
– Value/Replacement Cost (Tobin’s Q)
• Revenues generated by the asset
– Price/Sales per Share (PS)
– Value/Sales
• Asset or Industry Specific Variable (Price/kwh, Price per ton of steel ....)
Aswath Damodaran 95
The Four Steps to Understanding Multiples
Aswath Damodaran 96
Definitional Tests
Aswath Damodaran 97
Descriptive Tests
What is the average and standard deviation for this multiple, across the
universe (market)?
What is the median for this multiple?
• The median for this multiple is often a more reliable comparison point.
How large are the outliers to the distribution, and how do we deal with the
outliers?
• Throwing out the outliers may seem like an obvious solution, but if the outliers all
lie on one side of the distribution (they usually are large positive numbers), this
can lead to a biased estimate.
Are there cases where the multiple cannot be estimated? Will ignoring these
cases lead to a biased estimate of the multiple?
How has this multiple changed over time?
Aswath Damodaran 98
Analytical Tests
What are the fundamentals that determine and drive these multiples?
• Proposition 2: Embedded in every multiple are all of the variables that drive every
discounted cash flow valuation - growth, risk and cash flow patterns.
• In fact, using a simple discounted cash flow model and basic algebra should yield
the fundamentals that drive a multiple
How do changes in these fundamentals change the multiple?
• The relationship between a fundamental (like growth) and a multiple (such as PE)
is seldom linear. For example, if firm A has twice the growth rate of firm B, it will
generally not trade at twice its PE ratio
• Proposition 3: It is impossible to properly compare firms on a multiple, if we
do not know the nature of the relationship between fundamentals and the
multiple.
Aswath Damodaran 99
Application Tests
Median PE
Japan = 24.74
US = 20.76
Em. Mkts = 18.87
Europe = 15.99
FCFE1
P0 =
r ! gn
P0 (FCFE/Earnings) * (1 + g n )
= PE =
EPS0 r-g n
Aswath Damodaran 106
PE Ratio and Fundamentals
Proposition: Other things held equal, higher growth firms will have
higher PE ratios than lower growth firms.
Proposition: Other things held equal, higher risk firms will have lower
PE ratios than lower risk firms
Proposition: Other things held equal, firms with lower reinvestment
needs will have higher PE ratios than firms with higher reinvestment
rates.
Of course, other things are difficult to hold equal since high growth firms,
tend to have risk and high reinvestment rats.
The price-earnings ratio for a high growth firm can also be related to
fundamentals. In the special case of the two-stage dividend discount model,
this relationship can be made explicit fairly simply:
" (1+ g)n %
EPS0 * Payout Ratio *(1+ g)* $1 !
# (1+ r) n & EPS0 * Payout Ratio n *(1+ g)n *(1+ g n )
P0 = +
r-g (r -g n )(1+ r)n
• For a firm that does not pay what it can afford to in dividends, substitute
FCFE/Earnings for the payout ratio.
Dividing both sides by the earnings per share:
" (1 + g)n %
Payout Ratio * (1 + g) * $ 1 ! '
P0 # (1+ r) n & Payout Ratio n *(1+ g) n * (1 + gn )
= +
EPS0 r -g (r - g n )(1+ r) n
In this model, the PE ratio for a high growth firm is a function of growth, risk
and payout, exactly the same variables that it was a function of for the stable
growth firm.
The only difference is that these inputs have to be estimated for two phases -
the high growth phase and the stable growth phase.
Expanding to more than two phases, say the three stage model, will mean that
risk, growth and cash flow patterns in each stage.
Assume that you have been asked to estimate the PE ratio for a firm which
has the following characteristics:
Variable High Growth Phase Stable Growth Phase
Expected Growth Rate 25% 8%
Payout Ratio 20% 50%
Beta 1.00 1.00
Number of years 5 years Forever after year 5
Riskfree rate = [Link] Rate = 6%
Required rate of return = 6% + 1(5.5%)= 11.5%
# (1.25) 5 &
0.2 * (1.25) * %1" 5( 5
$ (1.115) ' 0.5 * (1.25) * (1.08)
PE = + = 28.75
(.115 - .25) (.115 - .08) (1.115) 5
!
Aswath Damodaran 110
PE and Growth: Firm grows at x% for 5 years, 8% thereafter
180
160
140
120
100 r=4%
PE Ratio
r=6%
r=8%
80 r=10%
60
40
20
0
5% 10% 15% 20% 25% 30% 35% 40% 45% 50%
Expected Growth Rate
50
45
40
35
30
g=25%
Ratio
g=20%
25
g=15%
PE
g=8%
20
15
10
0
0.75 1.00 1.25 1.50 1.75 2.00
Beta
A market strategist argues that stocks are over priced because the PE ratio
today is too high relative to the average PE ratio across time. Do you agree?
Yes
No
If you do not agree, what factors might explain the higher PE ratio today?
There is a strong positive relationship between E/P ratios and [Link] rates, as
evidenced by the correlation of 0.69 between the two variables.,
In addition, there is evidence that the term structure also affects the PE ratio.
In the following regression, using 1960-2003 data, we regress E/P ratios
against the level of [Link] rates and a term structure variable ([Link] -
[Link] rate)
E/P = 2.03% + 0.753 [Link] Rate - 0.355 ([Link] [Link] Rate)
(2.19) (6.38) (-1.38)
R squared = 50.85%
1 00
80
60
40
Current PE
20
0
-20 0 20 40 60 80
Mod el Summary
Co effici entsa,b
The basic regression assumes a linear relationship between PE ratios and the
financial proxies, and that might not be appropriate.
The basic relationship between PE ratios and financial variables itself might
not be stable, and if it shifts from year to year, the predictions from the model
may not be reliable.
The independent variables are correlated with each other. For example, high
growth firms tend to have high risk. This multi-collinearity makes the
coefficients of the regressions unreliable and may explain the large changes in
these coefficients from period to period.
Expected
Growth in
Revenues: Regr ession
next 5 ye ars Beta PAYOUT
Expected G rowth in Pear son Correlation 1 .031 -.325**
Reven ues: next 5 year s Sig. (2 -tailed) . .228 .000
N 147 2 1472 1185
Regression Bet a Pear son Correlation .03 1 1 -.183**
Sig. (2 -tailed) .22 8 . .000
N 147 2 6933 4187
PAYOUT Pear son Correlation -.325** -.183** 1
Sig. (2 -tailed) .00 0 .000 .
N 118 5 4187 4187
**. Correlation is significa nt at the 0.01 level (2-tailed).
Assume that you were given the following information for Dell. The firm has
an expected growth rate of 10%, a beta of 1.20 and pays no dividends. Based
upon the regression, estimate the predicted PE ratio for Dell.
Predicted PE =
Dell is actually trading at 22 times earnings. What does the predicted PE tell
you?
Model Summary
Adjusted R
Mode l R R Square Square Std. Er ror of the Estimate
1 .58 0a .33 6 .32 2 1113.202 1491486830 0
a. Predictor s: ( Constant), IBES Est Long Term Growth, RAW_BETA
Co effici en tsa,b
While Price earnings ratios look at the market value of equity relative to earnings to equity investors,
Value earnings ratios look at the market value of the firm relative to operating earnings. Value to
cash flow ratios modify the earnings number to make it a cash flow number.
The form of value to cash flow ratios that has the closest parallels in DCF valuation is the value to
Free Cash Flow to the Firm, which is defined as:
Value/FCFF = (Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt-Cash)
EBIT (1-t) - (Cap Ex - Deprecn) - Chg in WC
Consistency Tests:
• If the numerator is net of cash (or if net debt is used, then the interest income from the cash should not be in
denominator
• The interest expenses added back to get to EBIT should correspond to the debt in the numerator. If only long
term debt is considered, only long term interest should be added back.
Assume that you have computed the value of a firm, using discounted cash
flow models. Rank the following multiples in the order of magnitude from
lowest to highest?
Value/EBIT
Value/EBIT(1-t)
Value/FCFF
Value/EBITDA
What assumption(s) would you need to make for the Value/EBIT(1-t) ratio to
be equal to the Value/FCFF multiple?
MCI Communications had earnings before interest and taxes of $3356 million
in 1994 (Its net income after taxes was $855 million).
It had capital expenditures of $2500 million in 1994 and depreciation of
$1100 million; Working capital increased by $250 million.
It expects free cashflows to the firm to grow 15% a year for the next five years
and 5% a year after that.
The cost of capital is 10.50% for the next five years and 10% after that.
The company faces a tax rate of 36%.
æ
ç (1.15)5 ö
(1.15) è1-
(1.105)5 ø
5
V0 (1.15) (1.05)
= + 5
= 31.28
FCFF0 .105 -.15 (.10 - .05)(1.105)
In this case of MCI there is a big difference between the FCFF and short cut
measures. For instance the following table illustrates the appropriate multiple
using short cut measures, and the amount you would overpay by if you used
the FCFF multiple.
Free Cash Flow to the Firm
= EBIT (1-t) - Net Cap Ex - Change in Working Capital
= 3356 (1 - 0.36) + 1100 - 2500 - 250 = $ 498 million
$ Value Correct Multiple
FCFF $498 31.28382355
EBIT (1-t) $2,148 7.251163362
EBIT $ 3,356 4.640744552
EBITDA $4,456 3.49513885
1. The multiple can be computed even for firms that are reporting net losses, since earnings before
interest, taxes and depreciation are usually positive.
2. For firms in certain industries, such as cellular, which require a substantial investment in infrastructure
and long gestation periods, this multiple seems to be more appropriate than the price/earnings ratio.
3. In leveraged buyouts, where the key factor is cash generated by the firm prior to all discretionary
expenditures, the EBITDA is the measure of cash flows from operations that can be used to support
debt payment at least in the short term.
4. By looking at cashflows prior to capital expenditures, it may provide a better estimate of “optimal
value”, especially if the capital expenditures are unwise or earn substandard returns.
5. By looking at the value of the firm and cashflows to the firm it allows for comparisons across firms
with different financial leverage.
In this case, the Value/EBITDA multiple for this firm can be estimated as
follows:
Value (1- .36) (0.2)(.36) 0.3 0
= + - - = 8.24
EBITDA .10 -.05 .10 -.05 .10 - .05 .10 - .05
12
10
8
Value/EBITDA
WACC=10%
6 WACC=9%
WACC=8%
0
6% 7% 8% 9% 10% 11% 12% 13% 14% 15%
Return on Capital
Co ef fici entsa,b
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 (Constant) 10. 073 .768 13.121 .00 0
Eff T ax Rate -.152 .022 -.174 -6.878 .00 0
Expected G rowth in
.907 .039 .563 23.464 .00 0
Revenues: next 5 year s
Reinvestment Rate -.015 .006 -.062 -2.420 .01 6
a. Dependent Va riable: EV /EBITDA
b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - We ighte d by Mar ket Cap
Model Summary
Adjusted R
Mode l R R Square Square Std. Er ror of the Estimate
1 .542 a .293 .292 1581.333005721082 000
a. Predictors: ( Constant), Tax Rate , Reinv Rate , Market Debt to Ca pital
Coefficientsa,b
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 (Constant) 8.419 1.2 79 6.580 .00 0
Mar ket Debt t o Capital .58 9 .021 .511 28. 035 .00 0
Reinv Ra te -.051 .009 -.099 -5.472 .00 0
Tax Rat e -.152 .029 -.095 -5.236 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: EV/EBITDA
b. Weighted Least Square s Regression - Weig hted by Marke t Capitalization
The price/book value ratio is the ratio of the market value of equity to the
book value of equity, i.e., the measure of shareholders’ equity in the balance
sheet.
Price/Book Value = Market Value of Equity
Book Value of Equity
Consistency Tests:
• If the market value of equity refers to the market value of equity of common stock
outstanding, the book value of common equity should be used in the denominator.
• If there is more that one class of common stock outstanding, the market values of
all classes (even the non-traded classes) needs to be factored in.
Defining the return on equity (ROE) = EPS0 / Book Value of Equity, the value
of equity can be written as:
BV 0 * ROE * Payout Ratio * (1 + gn )
P0 =
r-gn
P0 ROE * Payout Ratio * (1 + g n )
= PBV =
BV 0 r-g n
If the return on equity is based upon expected earnings in the next time
period, this can be simplified to,
Regressing PBV ratios against ROE for banks yields the following regression:
PBV = 0.81 + 5.32 (ROE) R2 = 46%
For every 1% increase in ROE, the PBV ratio should increase by 0.0532.
MV/BV
Overvalued
Low ROE High ROE
High MV/BV High MV/BV
ROE-r
Undervalued
Low ROE High ROE
Low MV/BV Low MV/BV
10 LEC PUM
SGS
WAD AQU
DEE
8
GAL
RAA
KER
US A
6
4
EUX
2 KOT
DC G
LB R
AX3
SAH
PBV
0 Rsq = 0.2355
-20 0 20 40 60 80 100 120
ROE
12
TelAzteca
10
TelNZ Vimple
8 Carlton
Teleglobe
FranceTel Cable&W
6
DeutscheTel
BritTel
TelItalia
Portugal AsiaSat
HongKong
BCE Royal
4 Hellenic
Nippon
DanmarkChinaTel
Espana Indast
Telmex
TelArgFrance
PhilTel Televisas
TelArgentina
2 TelIndo
TelPeru
APT
CallNet
Anonima GrupoCentro
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
ROE
16
BUD G
14
PFE
12
O RCL
10 MMM EBAY
PBV R atio PG
8 MDT D
UL MRK
6 WMT T SM
QCOM
FNMK MB AMAT
4
2 FRE
AOL
SC V IA/B
70 60 4
50 40 3
30 20 2
10 0 1
0 Regressio n Beta
ROE
10.00 50.00%
9.00
40.00%
8.00
30.00%
7.00
20.00%
6.00
10.00%
Return on Equity
Price to Book
5.00
0.00%
4.00
-10.00%
3.00
-20.00%
2.00
-30.00%
1.00
0.00 -40.00%
1983 1984 1985 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
Year
PBV ROE
Co effici entsa,b,c
Adjusted R
a
Mode l R R Square Squar e Std. Error of the Estimate
1 .830 b .689 .689 154.4404 7748882220
a. For r egression through the origin (the no-intercept model) , R Squar e
mea sur es the prop or tion of the va riability in the depende nt variable
about the origin explained by regression. This CA NNOT be compare d
to R Square for models which include an inter cept.
b. Predictors: ROE, Payout Ra tio, B ETA
Coefficientsa ,b,c
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 Payout Ratio 8.E-03 .002 .074 3.667 .00 0
BE TA 1.399 .114 .291 12. 279 .00 0
ROE .10 4 .004 .537 28. 148 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PB V
b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin
c. Weighted Least Squares R egre ssion - Weighted by Marke t Capitalization
The price/sales ratio is the ratio of the market value of equity to the sales.
Price/ Sales= Market Value of Equity
Total Revenues
Consistency Tests
• The price/sales ratio is internally inconsistent, since the market value of equity is
divided by the total revenues of the firm.
The price/sales ratio of a stable growth firm can be estimated beginning with a
2-stage equity valuation model:
DPS1
P0 =
r ! gn
One of the limitations of the analysis we did in these last few pages is the
focus on current margins. Stocks are priced based upon expected margins
rather than current margins.
For most firms, current margins and predicted margins are highly correlated,
making the analysis still relevant.
For firms where current margins have little or no correlation with expected
margins, regressions of price to sales ratios against current margins (or price
to book against current return on equity) will not provide much explanatory
power.
In these cases, it makes more sense to run the regression using either
predicted margins or some proxy for predicted margins.
30
PKSI
LCOS SPYG
20
INTM MMXI
SCNT
Hypothesizing that firms with higher revenue growth and higher cash
balances should have a greater chance of surviving and becoming profitable,
we ran the following regression: (The level of revenues was used to control
for size)
PS = 30.61 - 2.77 ln(Rev) + 6.42 (Rev Growth) + 5.11 (Cash/Rev)
(0.66) (2.63) (3.49)
R squared = 31.8%
Predicted PS = 30.61 - 2.77(7.1039) + 6.42(1.9946) + 5.11 (.3069) = 30.42
Actual PS = 25.63
Stock is undervalued, relative to other internet stocks.
Global Crossing lost $1.9 billion in 2001 and is expected to continue to lose money for
the next 3 years. In a discounted cashflow valuation (see notes on DCF valuation) of
Global Crossing, we estimated an expected EBITDA for Global Crossing in five years
of $ 1,371 million.
The average enterprise value/ EBITDA multiple for healthy telecomm firms is 7.2
currently.
Applying this multiple to Global Crossing’s EBITDA in year 5, yields a value in year 5
of
• Enterprise Value in year 5 = 1371 * 7.2 = $9,871 million
• Enterprise Value today = $ 9,871 million/ 1.1385 = $5,172 million
(The cost of capital for Global Crossing is 13.80%)
• The probability that Global Crossing will not make it as a going concern is 77%.
• Expected Enterprise value today = 0.23 (5172) = $1,190 million
Unstandardized Standardized
Coefficie nts Coefficie nts
Mode l B Std. Er ror Be ta t Sig.
1 Payout Ratio 5.E-03 .002 .065 2.777 .00 6
BE TA .93 7 .095 .261 9.909 .00 0
Net Margin .11 0 .004 .516 26. 153 .00 0
a. Dependent Va riable: PS
b. Linear Regr ession through the Origin
c. Weighted Least Squares R egre ssion - Weighted by Marke t Capitalization
This is usually the best way to approach this issue. While a range of values
can be obtained from a number of multiples, the “best estimate” value is
obtained using one multiple.
The multiple that is used can be chosen in one of two ways:
• Use the multiple that best fits your objective. Thus, if you want the company to be
undervalued, you pick the multiple that yields the highest value.
• Use the multiple that has the highest R-squared in the sector when regressed
against fundamentals. Thus, if you have tried PE, PBV, PS, etc. and run
regressions of these multiples against fundamentals, use the multiple that works
best at explaining differences across firms in that sector.
• Use the multiple that seems to make the most sense for that sector, given how
value is measured and created.
Aswath Damodaran
An option provides the holder with the right to buy or sell a specified
quantity of an underlying asset at a fixed price (called a strike price or an
exercise price) at or before the expiration date of the option.
There has to be a clearly defined underlying asset whose value changes over
time in unpredictable ways.
The payoffs on this asset (real option) have to be contingent on an specified
event occurring within a finite period.
Net Payoff
on Call
Strike
Price
PV of Cash Flows
from Project
Initial Investment in
Project
Net Payoff on
Extraction
Cost of Developing
Reserve
PV of Cash Flows
from Expansion
Additional Investment
to Expand
All option pricing models are built on the premise of replication and arbitrage.
Replication: The objective in creating a replicating portfolio is to use a
combination of riskfree borrowing/lending and the underlying asset to create
the same cashflows as the option being valued.
• Call = Borrowing + Buying D of the Underlying Stock
• Put = Selling Short D on Underlying Asset + Lending
• The number of shares bought or sold is called the option delta.
Arbitrage: If two assets have the same cashflows, they cannot sell at different
prices. If they do, the principles of arbitrage then apply, and the value of the
option has to be equal to the value of the replicating portfolio.
d2 = d1 - σ √t
The value of a put can also be derived:
P = K e-rt (1-N(d2)) - S e-yt (1-N(d1))
The value of a firm with a substantial number of patents can be derived using
the option pricing model.
Value of Firm = Value of commercial products (using DCF value
+ Value of existing patents (using option pricing)
+ (Value of New patents that will be obtained in the
future – Cost of obtaining these patents)
The last input measures the efficiency of the firm in converting its R&D into
commercial products. If we assume that a firm earns its cost of capital from
research, this term will become zero.
If we use this approach, we should be careful not to double count and allow
for a high growth rate in cash flows (in the DCF valuation).
· Biogen had two commercial products (a drug to treat Hepatitis B and Intron)
at the time of this valuation that it had licensed to other pharmaceutical firms.
· The license fees on these products were expected to generate $ 50 million in
after-tax cash flows each year for the next 12 years. To value these cash
flows, which were guaranteed contractually, the pre-tax cost of debt of the
guarantors (6.7%) was used:
Present Value of License Fees = $ 50 million (1 – (1.067)-12)/.067
= $ 403.56 million
· Biogen continued to fund research into new products, spending about $ 100
million on R&D in the most recent year. These R&D expenses were expected
to grow 20% a year for the next 10 years, and 5% thereafter.
· It was assumed that every dollar invested in research would create $ 1.25 in
value in patents (valued using the option pricing model described above) for
the next 10 years, and break even after that (i.e., generate $ 1 in patent value
for every $ 1 invested in R&D).
· There was a significant amount of risk associated with this component and the
cost of capital was estimated to be 15%.
The value of Biogen as a firm is the sum of all three components – the present
value of cash flows from existing products, the value of Avonex (as an
option) and the value created by new research:
Value = Existing products + Existing Patents + Value: Future R&D
= $ 403.56 million + $ 907 million + $ 318.30 million
= $1628.86 million
Since Biogen had no debt outstanding, this value was divided by the number
of shares outstanding (35.50 million) to arrive at a value per share:
Value per share = $ 1,628.86 million / 35.5 = $ 45.88
Gulf Oil was the target of a takeover in early 1984 at $70 per share (It had
165.30 million shares outstanding, and total debt of $9.9 billion).
• It had estimated reserves of 3038 million barrels of oil and the average cost of
developing these reserves was estimated to be $10 a barrel in present value dollars
(The development lag is approximately two years).
• The average relinquishment life of the reserves is 12 years.
• The price of oil was $22.38 per barrel, and the production cost, taxes and royalties
were estimated at $7 per barrel.
• The bond rate at the time of the analysis was 9.00%.
• Gulf was expected to have net production revenues each year of approximately 5%
of the value of the developed reserves. The variance in oil prices is 0.03.
In addition, Gulf Oil had free cashflows to the firm from its oil and gas
production of $915 million from already developed reserves and these
cashflows are likely to continue for ten years (the remaining lifetime of
developed reserves).
The present value of these developed reserves, discounted at the weighted
average cost of capital of 12.5%, yields:
• Value of already developed reserves = 915 (1 - 1.125-10)/.125 = $5065.83
Adding the value of the developed and undeveloped reserves
Value of undeveloped reserves = $ 13,306 million
Value of production in place = $ 5,066 million
Total value of firm = $ 18,372 million
Less Outstanding Debt = $ 9,900 million
Value of Equity = $ 8,472 million
Value per share = $ 8,472/165.3 = $51.25
Ambev is considering introducing a soft drink to the U.S. market. The drink
will initially be introduced only in the metropolitan areas of the U.S. and the
cost of this “limited introduction” is $ 500 million.
A financial analysis of the cash flows from this investment suggests that the
present value of the cash flows from this investment to Ambev will be only $
400 million. Thus, by itself, the new investment has a negative NPV of $ 100
million.
If the initial introduction works out well, Ambev could go ahead with a full-
scale introduction to the entire market with an additional investment of $
1 billion any time over the next 5 years. While the current expectation is that
the cash flows from having this investment is only $ 750 million, there is
considerable uncertainty about both the potential for the drink, leading to
significant variance in this estimate.
Assume that you have a firm whose assets are currently valued at $100
million and that the standard deviation in this asset value is 40%.
Further, assume that the face value of debt is $80 million (It is zero coupon
debt with 10 years left to maturity).
If the ten-year treasury bond rate is 10%,
• how much is the equity worth?
• What should the interest rate on debt be?
Based upon these inputs, the Black-Scholes model provides the following
value for the call:
• d1 = 1.5994 N(d1) = 0.9451
• d2 = 0.3345 N(d2) = 0.6310
Value of the call = 100 (0.9451) - 80 exp(-0.10)(10) (0.6310) = $75.94 million
Value of the outstanding debt = $100 - $75.94 = $24.06 million
Interest rate on debt = ($ 80 / $24.06)1/10 -1 = 12.77%
Assume now that a catastrophe wipes out half the value of this firm (the value
drops to $ 50 million), while the face value of the debt remains at $ 80
million. What will happen to the equity value of this firm?
It will drop in value to $ 25.94 million [ $ 50 million - market value of debt
from previous page]
It will be worth nothing since debt outstanding > Firm Value
It will be worth more than $ 25.94 million
Based upon these inputs, the Black-Scholes model provides the following
value for the call:
• d1 = 1.0515 N(d1) = 0.8534
• d2 = -0.2135 N(d2) = 0.4155
Value of the call = 50 (0.8534) - 80 exp(-0.10)(10) (0.4155) = $30.44 million
Value of the bond= $50 - $30.44 = $19.56 million
The equity in this firm drops by, because of the option characteristics of
equity.
This might explain why stock in firms, which are in Chapter 11 and
essentially bankrupt, still has value.
80
70
60
50
Value of Equity
40
30
20
10
0
100 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10
Value of Firm ($ 80 Face Value of Debt)
The examples that have been used to illustrate the use of option pricing theory
to value equity have made some simplifying assumptions. Among them are
the following:
(1) There were only two claim holders in the firm - debt and equity.
(2) There is only one issue of debt outstanding and it can be retired at face value.
(3) The debt has a zero coupon and no special features (convertibility, put clauses etc.)
(4) The value of the firm and the variance in that value can be estimated.
The value of the firm estimated using projected cashflows to the firm,
discounted at the weighted average cost of capital was £2,312 million.
This was based upon the following assumptions –
• Revenues will grow 5% a year in perpetuity.
• The COGS which is currently 85% of revenues will drop to 65% of revenues in yr
5 and stay at that level.
• Capital spending and depreciation will grow 5% a year in perpetuity.
• There are no working capital requirements.
• The debt ratio, which is currently 95.35%, will drop to 70% after year 5. The cost
of debt is 10% in high growth period and 8% after that.
• The beta for the stock will be 1.10 for the next five years, and drop to 0.8 after the
next 5 years.
• The long term bond rate is 6%.
The stock has been traded on the London Exchange, and the annualized std
deviation based upon ln (prices) is 41%.
There are Eurotunnel bonds, that have been traded; the annualized std
deviation in ln(price) for the bonds is 17%.
• The correlation between stock price and bond price changes has been 0.5. The
proportion of debt in the capital structure during the period (1992-1996) was 85%.
• Annualized variance in firm value
= (0.15)2 (0.41)2 + (0.85)2 (0.17)2 + 2 (0.15) (0.85)(0.5)(0.41)(0.17)= 0.0335
The 15-year bond rate is 6%. (I used a bond with a duration of roughly 11
years to match the life of my option)
Inputs to Model
• Value of the underlying asset = S = Value of the firm = £2,312 million
• Exercise price = K = Face Value of outstanding debt = £8,865 million
• Life of the option = t = Weighted average duration of debt = 10.93 years
• Variance in the value of the underlying asset = σ2 = Variance in firm value =
0.0335
• Riskless rate = r = Treasury bond rate corresponding to option life = 6%
Based upon these inputs, the Black-Scholes model provides the following
value for the call:
d1 = -0.8337 N(d1) = 0.2023
d2 = -1.4392 N(d2) = 0.0751
Value of the call = 2312 (0.2023) - 8,865 exp(-0.06)(10.93) (0.0751) = £122
million
Appropriate interest rate on debt = (8865/2190)(1/10.93)-1= 13.65%
The cost of equity is calculated using the risk-free rate, beta (which measures market risk), and the risk premium. For example, in the document, the cost of equity is calculated as 13.81% using a risk-free rate of 5.1%, a beta of 2.18, and a risk premium of 4% . The cost of debt includes the risk-free rate and the default spread, adjusted by the tax rate, e.g., using 6.5% plus a spread and adjusting for the tax rate .
Beta measures a company's sensitivity to market risk relative to the overall market. A higher beta indicates greater volatility and risk, thus a higher cost of equity as investors demand more return for higher risk. For instance, a beta of 2.18 reflects heightened risk, affecting the cost of equity estimation as seen with companies operating in technologically volatile or highly leveraged sectors .
The tax rate directly affects the FCFF by altering the net operating profit after tax (NOPAT) and subsequently the reinvestment levels. As the tax rate increases, the NOPAT decreases if taxable income is unchanged, reducing FCFF. This impacts firm valuation as lower FCFF equates to lower intrinsic value. For example, changes in tax rates from 0% to 35% can shift the calculated FCFF and, therefore, the firm’s valuation significantly .
Operating leverage, reflecting fixed versus variable costs, and financial leverage, reflecting debt levels, both heighten the firm's risk profile. High leverage implies increased exposure to market fluctuations and potentially amplified returns/losses due to fixed costs. This necessitates careful management to avoid disproportionate losses. A firm with high operating and financial leverage, such as one with a high debt ratio, exhibits a riskier profile, impacting valuations negatively in volatile markets and positively in stable conditions .
Operating leverage indicates the proportion of fixed costs in a company's cost structure, impacting the potential return or risk with changes in sales volume. A company with high operating leverage can significantly improve profit margins with increased sales, suggesting competitive advantages in scaling operations efficiently. For example, the ability of a firm like internet/retail to leverage fixed costs for revenue growth challenges competitive landscapes with greater return on capital percentage .
In the DCF method, the terminal value represents the value of a firm's cash flows beyond a forecast period, essentially capturing its perpetual operational value. It is calculated using the formula such as FCFFn+1/(r-g). For example, a terminal value is derived in the documents using the cash flow and growth rates, such as 1881/(.0961-.06) = 52,148, indicating the ongoing value past explicit forecast years .
Equity in troubled firms can be valued using option pricing models where equity is considered a call option on the firm's assets. Even when liabilities exceed asset values, the option to potentially recover value through volatility or future positive cash flows attributes some residual value to equity. For example, the value of equity persists due to its optionality and potential future upside seen in firms approaching bankruptcy yet retaining speculation on asset recovery .
The Black-Scholes model helps to estimate the value of equity as a call option on the firm's assets. For instance, the model is used to value equity in a troubled firm by considering the firm's asset value, debt obligations, and market volatility. The model provides a mathematical framework to derive the value of equity, considering it as an option with the given volatility and interest rates, as illustrated in the firm example where asset value is $100 million, and the resulting equity value is calculated as $75.94 million .
A negative NPV project may still be considered for investment if it provides strategic benefits such as a potential growth option. For instance, in the document, Ambev considers a $500 million investment with a negative NPV of $100 million because it could lead to a lucrative full-scale market expansion should initial market performance be positive. The expansion option, valued at $234 million, would make the investment worthwhile under favorable market conditions due to significant market potential .
Non-debt liabilities reduce the available cash flows for equity holders, affecting the overall equity value. These obligations need to be deducted from the firm's valuation, having an incremental effect on the distribution of available resources. For example, the market value of equity is lowered by the extent of non-debt liabilities, which can substantially reduce shareholder value as seen when comparing equity with and without considering such liabilities .