CELL CYCLE AND

CELL DIVISION

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01. The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome,
synthesises the other constituents of the cells and eventually divides
into two daughter cells is called
a) Cell division
b) Cell cycle
c) Karyokinesis
d) Cytokinesis
02. A typical eukaryotic cell cycle is illustrated by
a) Cyanobacteria
b) Bacteria
c) Human cells in culture
d) Both A and C
03. In the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell
division properly lasts for about
a) 23 hours
b) An hour
c) Half an hour
d) 90 minutes
04. Of the total duration of cell cycle, the interphase lasts more than
a) 95%
b) 5%
c) 90%
d) 92%
05. Identify A, B and C phases of the cell cycle.
a) A-S phase, B-G₁ phase, C-G₂ phase
b) A-G₂ phase, B-G₁ phase, C-S phase A
c) A-G₁ phase, B-G₂ phase, C-S phase
d) A-G₁ phase, B-S phase, C-G₂ phase B
C
06. The M phases starts with the nuclear division, corresponding to
the separation of daughter chromosome called ___a___ and usually
ends with division of cytoplasm called ___b___.
a) a-Cytokinesis, b-Karyokinesis
b) a-Interkinesis, b-Cytokinesis
c) a-Karyokinesis, b-Cytokinesis
d) a-Interkinesis, b-Karyokinesis
07. Which phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis and
initiation of DNA replication?
a) Gap 1 phase
b) Gap 2 phase
c) Synthesis phase
d) M phase
08. G₀ state of cell denotes
a) Permanent exit of cell from cell cycle
b) Check point before entering next phase
c) Death of cell
d) Temporary pause/suspended cell cycle
09. Centriole replicates during
a) Interphase
b) Early prophase
c) Late prophase
d) Late telophase
10. G₁, S and G₂ are stages of
a) Interphase
b) Prophase
c) Metaphase
d) Anaphase
11. If a cell possesses twice as much DNA as in the functional cell,
the cell
a) Is preparing to divide
b) Has completed division
c) Has ceased to function
d) Has reached end of its life span
12. Phase of cell cycle when DNA polymerase is active is
a) G₁
b) S
c) G₂
d) M
13. Haploid complement of chromosome of an organism is called
a) Genotype
b) Phenotype
c) Genome
d) Genetic system
14. Which of the following cells in an adult animal do not appear to
exhibit division?
a) Bone marrow cells
b) Upper layer of epidermis
c) Heart cells
d) All of the above
15. The most dramatic period of the cell cycle is
a) M Phase
b) G₁ phase
c) S phase
d) Interphase
16. Prophase is marked by
a) Complete disintegration of nuclear membrane only
b) Disappearance of ER, GB, nucleolus and nuclear envelope
c) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
d) Chromosomes aligns at the equatorial plate
17. End of prophase is marked by
a) Complete disintegration of nuclear membrane
b) Disappearance of ER, GB, nucleolus and nuclear envelope
c) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
d) Chromosomes aligns at the equatorial plate
18. The completion of prophase can be marked by
a) Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic
chromosomes
b) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
c) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle
d) Both A and C
19. Which of the following proteinaceous components of the cell
cytoplasm help in the initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle?
a) Microtubules
b) Microbodies
c) Centromere
d) Kinetochore
20. The centriole begins to move towards opposite poles of the cell in
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase
21. Which stages connecting link between Meiosis I and Meiosis II?
a) Interphase I
b) Interphase II
c) Interkinesis
d) Anaphase I
22. For viewing diakinesis which one of the following would be a
suitable material?
a) Onion root tip
b) Leaf of Dichanthium
c) Rat tail
d) Flower bud
23. The role of meiosis is
a) Formation of gametes in all organisms
b) Bringing haploid phase
c) Bringing diploid phase
d) Completing life cycle
24. Synaptonemal complex is formed during?
a) Meiosis
b) Amitosis
c) Mitosis
d) Cytokinesis
25. Recombinant nodules are found during which of the following?
a) Anaphase
b) Prophase
c) Telophase
d) Metaphase
26. Four daughter cells formed after meiosis are
a) Genetically similar
b) Genetically different
c) Anucleate
d) Multinucleate
27. The term synaptonemal complex refers to site of
a) Chromatid separation
b) Spindle attachment
c) Replication
d) Chromosome alignment and recombination
28. In pachytene stage of meiosis the chromosomes appear
a) Single stranded
b) Double stranded
c) Three stranded
d) Four stranded
29. Recombination of genes occur at
a) Prophase in mitosis
b) Prophase I in meiosis
c) Prophase II in meiosis
d) Metaphase II in meiosis
30. The second division in meiosis is
a) Equational division
b) Reduction division
c) Multiplied division
d) None of the above
31. In which stage of meiosis crossing over takes place?
a) Prophase I
b) Prophase II
c) Metaphase
d) Anaphase
32. Homologous pairing in prophase I of meiosis I is called
a) Synapsis
b) Linkage
c) Crossing over
d) Chiasmata
33. In meiosis, the centromere divides during
a) Prophase - I
b) Metaphase - I
c) Anaphase - I
d) Anaphase - II
34. Four chromatids and two centromeres which are homologous
occurs in
a) Zygote
b) Diploid
c) Diakinesis
d) Pachytene
35. The number of chromosomes at the equatorial plate in
metaphase - I of meiosis in a plant with 2n = 50 shall be
a) 50 pairs
b) 25 pairs
c) 30 pairs
d) 100 pairs
36. Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes
separate while the sister chromatids remain associated at their
centromeres.
a) Metaphase I
b) Metaphase II
c) Anaphase I
d) Anaphase II
37. Chromosome number is halved in meiosis during
a) Metaphase - I
b) Anaphase - I
c) Metaphase - II
d) Telophase - II
38. Meiosis occurs in
a) Shoot apex
b) Reproductive parts
c) Leaves bud
d) Vegetative parts
39. If a cell has a chromosome number after first meiosis equal to 48.
The chromosome number in the daughter cells after the completion of
meiosis will be
a) 48
b) 24
c) 12
d) 36
40. Chiasmata formation takes place during
a) Diplotene
b) Metaphase I
c) Anaphase II
d) Leptotene
41. During the first metaphase of meiosis the centromeres
a) Undergo division
b) Do not divide
c) Divide but do not separate
d) Are not identical
42. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates
during
a) Metaphase - I
b) Zygotene
c) Pachytene
d) Diplotene
43. Meiosis in diploid organisms results in
a) Production of gametes
b) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
c) Introduction of variation
d) All of the above
44. At which stage of meiosis does the genetic constitution of gametes
is finally decided?
a) Metaphase-I
b) Anaphase-II
c) Metaphase-II
d) Anaphase-I
45. Meiosis occurs in organisms during
a) Sexual reproduction
b) Vegetative reproduction
c) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction
d) None of these
46. During anaphase-I of meiosis
a) Homologous chromosomes separate
b) Non-homologous chromosomes separate
c) Sister chromatids chromosomes separate
d) Non-sister chromatids chromosomes separate
47. Mitosis is characterised by
a) Reduction division
b) Equal division
c) Both reduction and equal division
d) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
48. A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of
a) Two chromatids and one centromere
b) Two chromatids and two centromeres
c) Four chromatids and two centromeres
d) Four chromatids and four centromeres
49. Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at
a) G₁
b) G₂
c) G₀
d) S phase
50. Which of the events listed below is not observed during mitosis?
a) Chromatin condensation
b) Movement of centrioles to opposite poles
c) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids joined together
at the centromere
d) Crossing over
51. Identify the wrong statement about meiosis.
a) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
b) Four haploid cells are formed
c) At the end of meiosis number of chromosomes are reduced to half
d) Two cycles of DNA replication occur
52. Select the correct statement about G₁ phase.
a) Cell is metabolically inactive
b) DNA in the cell does not replicate
c) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules
d) Cell stops growing
53. The inherent capacity of a cell to regenerate a new whole
organism is called
a) Ontogeny
b) Totipotency
c) Phycogeny
d) Differentiation
54. Regarding the sequence of cell cycle, which one is correct?
a) G₁, G₂, S and M
b) S, G₁, G₂, and M
c) G₁, S, G₂ and M
d) G₂, S, G₁, and M
55. Which of the following is the shortest phase of the cell cycle?
a) S phase
b) G₁ phase
c) G₂ phase
d) M phase
56. How many times nuclear spindle will formed during formation of
32 cells from a single cell in mitosis?
a) 31
b) 32
c) 5
d) 16
57. The replication of nuclear DNA occurs in
a) G₁ phase
b) G₂ phase
c) S phase
d) M phase
58. An anaphase chromosome contains
a) 1 DNA molecule
b) 3 DNA molecule
c) 2 DNA molecule
d) 4 DNA molecule
59. The number of DNA in chromosome at G₂ stage of cell cycle is
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Eight
60. A chromosome having sub-terminal centromere is called
a) Telocentric
b) Acrocentric
c) Metacentric
d) Sub-metacentric
61. How many time meiosis will take place for the formation of 80
wheat grains?
a) 100
b) 80
c) 20
d) 40
62. The number of DNA in chromosome at G₁ stage of cell cycle is
a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Eight
63. Crossing over involves the exchange of A chromosome segments
between B chromatids during the production of gametes.
Identify A & B here.
a) A - Non homologous & B - Sister
b) A - Homologous & B - Sister
c) A - Homologous & B - Non-sister
d) A - Non homologous & B - Non-sister
64. If for a species 2n = 16, then during prophase-I and prophase-II of
meiotic division of a cell, how many tetrads and diads will be formed
respectively?
a) 4 and 4
b) 8 and 4
c) 8 and 8
d) 4 and 8
65. The points at which crossing over has taken place between
homologous chromosomes are called
a) Protein axis
b) Synaptonemal complexes
c) Chiasmata
d) Centromeres
66. In which of the following meiosis takes place?
a) Pollen grains
b) Pollen tube
c) Pollen mother cells
d) Generative cells
67. If at the end of meiosis, the 4 daughter cells have 4 chromosomes
each, how many chromosomes were in the mother cell?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 2
d) 4
68. Diploid living organism develops from zygote by repeated cell
divisions called
a) Meiosis
b) Amitosis
c) Mitosis
d) Karyochorisis
69. Bivalents in meiosis are
a) Tetrad
b) Pairs of non-homologous chromosomes
c) Pairs of several chromatids
d) Pairs of homozygous chromosomes
70. Synapsis is pairing of
a) Any two chromosomes
b) Non-homologous chromosomes
c) Acentric chromosomes
d) Homologous chromosomes
71. The missing stage in the sequence of cell cycle is

?
a) b) c) d) None
72. Which type of cell division occurs in the gonads?
a) Mitosis only
b) Meiosis
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Amitosis and meiosis
73. Identify the stage of cell division shown in the figure.
a) Anaphase
b) Telophase
c) Prophase
d) Metaphase
74. Which pf the following is true for telophase?
a) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is
lost as discrete elements.
b) Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.
c) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform.
d) All of these
75. Which part of the cell cycle is not part of interphase?
a) M phase
b) S phase
c) G₂ phase
d) G₁ phase
76. Best material for study of mitosis in laboratory is
a) leaf tip
b) shoot tip
c) root tip
d) gamete
77. Which phase is reverse of prophase in terms of nuclear changes?
a) S-phase
b) Anaphase
c) Telophase
d) Interphase
78. Zygotene of prophase is characterised by
a) chromomerels
b) synaptonemal complex
c) crossing over
d) terminalisation of chaismata
79. Best material to study meiosis is
a) root tip
b) stigma
c) young anther
d) pollen grain
80. In which of the following stages, a chromosome is minimum
coiled?
a) Interphase
b) Metaphase
c) Prophase
d) Anaphase
81. An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many PMCs must have
been there to produce them?
a) 1200
b) 300
c) 150
d) 2400
82. The given phase of the cell cycle is
a) Telophase
b) Interphase
c) Metaphase
d) Anaphase
83. In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis
as a result of which multinucleate condition arises leading to the
formation of
a) syncytium
b) cell plate
c) cell furrow
d) middle lamella
84. The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of the
a) secondary satellite
b) synaptonemal complex
c) chaismata
d) centromere
85. The final stage of meiotic prophase I is
a) leptotene
b) diakinesis
c) pachytene
d) diplotene
86. Electron micrographs of ______ stage indicate that chromosome
synapsis is accompanied by the formation of complex structure called
synaptonemal complex.
a) zygotene
b) leptotene
c) pachytene
d) none of these
87. If a cell has diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G₁, after
S phase the number of chromosomes will be
a) 2n
b) n
c) 4n
d) None of these
88. An example of syncytium is
a) liquid endosperm in coconut
b) human sperm cell
c) ootid
d) shoot tip
89. The phase before the shown phase of cell cycle is
a) Telophase
b) Interphase
c) Metaphase
d) Anaphase
90. Which stage of the cell cycle is not a part of interphase?
a) S phase
b) Cytokinesis
c) G₁
d) G₂
 ANSWERS

01. B 11. A 21. C 31. A 41. B 51. D 61. A 71. C 81. B

02. C 12. B 22. D 32. A 42. C 52. B 62. A 72. C 82. A
03. B 13. C 23. B 33. D 43. D 53. B 63. C 73. A 83. A
04. A 14. C 24. A 34. D 44. D 54. C 64. C 74. D 84. B
05. D 15. A 25. B 35. B 45. A 55. D 65. C 75. A 85. B
06. C 16. C 26. B 36. C 46. A 56. A 66. C 76. C 86. A
07. A 17. B 27. D 37. B 47. B 57. C 67. A 77. C 87. A
08. D 18. D 28. D 38. B 48. C 58. A 68. C 78. B 88. A
09. A 19. A 29. B 39. A 49. C 59. B 69. A 79. C 89. A
10. A 20. A 30. A 40. A 50. D 60. B 70. D 80. A 90. B