100% found this document useful (1 vote)
819 views9 pages

Heritage School Science Exam Paper

The document contains instructions for a science exam for class 9. It has 5 sections with a total of 39 questions covering topics in science. Section A contains 20 objective type one-mark questions. Section B contains 6 two-mark questions requiring short answers. Section C contains 7 three-mark questions requiring slightly longer answers. Section D contains 3 five-mark questions. Section E contains 3 source-based/case study-based questions worth 4 marks each.

Uploaded by

Myrah Ahluwalia
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
100% found this document useful (1 vote)
819 views9 pages

Heritage School Science Exam Paper

The document contains instructions for a science exam for class 9. It has 5 sections with a total of 39 questions covering topics in science. Section A contains 20 objective type one-mark questions. Section B contains 6 two-mark questions requiring short answers. Section C contains 7 three-mark questions requiring slightly longer answers. Section D contains 3 five-mark questions. Section E contains 3 source-based/case study-based questions worth 4 marks each.

Uploaded by

Myrah Ahluwalia
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

HERITAGE XPERIENTIAL LEARNING SCHOOL, GURGAON

FINAL EXAMINATION
SESSION- 2022-23

Subject: SCIENCE Class: IX Date:

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80 SET: Set 1

General Instructions:
1. There are total 39 questions in 5 sections. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A consist of 20 objective type questions carrying one-mark each. These are to be
answered as per instructions.
3. Section B consist of 6 two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 20 to 30 words
each.
4. Section C consist of 7 three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 30 to 50 words
each.
5. Section D consist of 3 five-mark questions. These are to be answered as per individual
instructions.
6. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case study-based questions 4 marks each.
7. Diagrams should be drawn with pencil and should be neatly labelled.
8. Internal choices are given in question paper.

Section ‘A’
[Link]. QUESTIONS Marks
Q1. In high jump competition the athlete is made to fall on a sand bed to: 1

a) to decrease the time required for him to stop and generate less force.
b) to increase the time required for him to stop and generate more force.
c) to increase the time required for him to stop and generate less force.
d) to decrease the time required for him to stop and generate more force.
Q2. Two particles are placed at some distance exerting gravitational force ‘F’ on each other. 1
If the mass of each of the two particles is doubled, keeping the distance between them
unchanged, the value of gravitational force between them will become
a) ¼ F b) 4 F c) ½ F d) 2 F
Q3. A bird would not be able to fly on moon because: 1
a) Laws of motion are not applicable outside of earth.
b) Moon has no atmosphere so it would not be able to generate the reactive force
to lift itself up.
c) Gravity on moon is lesser than that on the earth.
d) Birds cannot flap their wings on the moon.
Q4. Why is there no work done on an electron to orbit around the nucleus? 1
a) Force acting on the electron is parallel to its motion.
b) Force acting on the electron is zero.
c) Displacement of the electron inside the orbit is zero.
d) Force acting on the electron is perpendicular to its motion.
Q5. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. 1
a) Its potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases during the fall.
b) Its potential energy is equal to the kinetic energy at 5 m from ground.
c) The potential energy decreases and the kinetic energy increases during the fall.
d) Both (b) and (c)
Q6. The image shows reflection of sound by a hard surfaced wall. 1

Choose the correct response from below:


a) There would neither be any reverberation nor any echo.
b) There would not be any reverberation but only echo.
c) There would be reverberation but not any echo.
d) There would be both reverberation and echo.
Q7. What is the name of K2O? 1
a) Dipotassium monoxide b) Dipotassium oxygen
c) Potassium oxide d) Potassium oxygen
Q8. The atomicity of K2Cr2O7 is 1
a) 9 (b) 11 (c )10 (d) 12
Q9. A metal X and a nonmetal Y forms a compound having chemical formula X3Y2. The 1
valency of X and Y respectively are:
a) 3,2 b) 3,3 c) 6,4 d) 2,3
Q10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of matter? 1
a) Matter is made up of extremely small particles.
b) There is no space between particles of matter.
c) The particles of matter are continuously moving.
d) The particles of matter attract each other.
Q11. 50g of solute dissolves completely in 200mL of solvent. What amount of solute is 1
required to dissolve completely in 400mL solvent?
a) 50 g b) 25 g c) 200 g d) 100 g
Q12. Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are examples of 1
a) Micro-nutrients b) Macronutrients
c) Fertilizers d) Both I and II
Q13. Which of these contain their own DNA and ribosomes? 1
a) Mitochondria
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Plastids
d) a & c
Q14. Connective tissues are the tissues that help to bind or connect other tissues in the body. 1
They have widely spaced cells embedded in a matrix having a variety of proteins,
polysaccharides and mineral salts. Can you identify the connective tissues among the
following?
i. Ligament
ii. Epithelium
iii. Tendon
iv. Blood

a) Both (i) and (iii).


b) (i), (ii) and (iii).
c) (i), (iii) and (iv).
d) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Q15. A soil sample has adequate water holding capacity but is deficient in calcium and sulfur. 1
Which of these would improve the quality of crops grown in that field?
a) Removing weeds.
b) Applying fertilizers.
c) Modifying the irrigation system.
d) Growing two different crops at same time.
Q16. Plasmolysis in a plant cell is defined as 1
a) breakdown of plasma membrane in hypotonic medium.
b) Shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium.
c) Shrinking of nucleoplasm.
d) None of them.

Q no. 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.

These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R ). Answer these questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q17. Assertion : The value of acceleration due to gravity changes with the height, depth and 1
shape of the earth.
Reason : Acceleration due to gravity is zero at the center of the earth.

Q18. Assertion: Evaporation of water in a china dish is faster than that in a test tube. 1
Reason: Rate of evaporation increases as surface area increases.

Q19. Assertion : Non -striated muscles are involuntary in nature. 1


Reason : Non-striated muscle can be moved according to will.

Q20. Assertion : Leucoplasts perform photosynthesis. 1


Reason : chloroplasts contain the pigment chlorophyll .

Section- B

Q21. State first law of motion. Why do we say that mass is a measure of inertia? 2
OR

A force FA acting on a 3kg body produces an acceleration of 2.5m/[Link] force FB


acting on a 5kg body produces an acceleration of 2m/[Link] the ratio FB/FA.

Q22. Write chemical formula of the following using criss-cross method using following data: 2
a) Sodium carbonate
b) Magnesium chloride
Atomic number of Na=11, Mg=12, Chlorine=17, valency of carbonate=2
Q23. a) 2

Find a pair of isotopes and isobar from A, B, C and D given in the table above.

b) Write two uses of isotopes.

Q24. State the preventive and control measures used before grains are stored. 2

Q25. Identify the given plant tissue and give its function. Label the parts marked as A and B. 2

Q26. The cell membrane is an active part of the cell. It regulates the movement of materials 2
between the ordered interior of the cell and the outer environment. In plant cells, a cell
wall composed mainly of cellulose is located outside the cell membrane.

a) What role does a cell wall play in a plant cell?


b) Cell wall is also present in fungus. What is it made of?
SECTION C
Q27. Study the speed time graph of a body given below and answer the following questions - 3

a) Name the type of motion represented by OA and AB.


b) Calculate the retardation of the body during the last 6 sec of its motion.
c) Calculate the distance traveled by the body from A to B.
Q28. a) The volume of 50 g of a substance is 20 cm3. If the density of water is 1 g/cm 3, 3
will the substance float or sink?
b) A man squeezes a pin between his thumb and finger,as shown in figure.

Explain why the pin causes more pain in the man’s thumb than in his finger.
Q29. A car moving with a velocity of 20 m/s starts to decelerate and comes to rest after 3
travelling a distance of 40 m. What is the acceleration of the car in doing so? How much
time would it take to come to rest after applying the brakes.
OR
a) Define average speed.
b) If the first half of the journey is completed at speed of 40 km/h and the remaining
part with a speed of 60 km/h. Calculate the average speed during the journey.
Q 30. a) In a reaction, 25 grams of reactant AB breaks down into 10 grams of product A 3
and an unknown amount of product B. What should be the mass of B and why?
b) Calculate the molecular mass of following:
(i) Ca(OH)2 (Ca=40u, H=1u, O=16u)
(ii) KHCO3 (K=39u, H=1u, C=12u, O=16u)
Q31. a) Draw Bohr’s model for (i) an element having 13 protons and 14 neutrons. (ii) an 3
element with 6 electrons, 6 protons and 6 neutrons.
b) Explain how J.J Thomson’s model was comparable to a watermelon/plum-
pudding?

Q32. Draw a labeled diagram of the nucleus. Give one function it plays in the cell. 3
Q33. Meristematic tissue 3
The image shows the stem of a plant.

Which meristematic tissue is present at the labeled part ‘X’ and what is the function of
it?
OR
Simple plant tissues
Identify the given two slides A and B as a parenchyma or sclerenchyma.

sclerenchyma can be identified by which characteristics and what is the role of lignin?
SECTION – D
Q no. 34 to 36 are long answer type questions
Q34. a) Distinguish between Longitudinal wave and Transverse wave. 5
b) Draw a low pitched and a high-pitched sound wave.
c) Calculate the wavelength of the sound waves in air produced by a 20 kHz sound
source. Speed of sound in the air is 340 m/s.
Q35. a) Classify each case as element, compound and mixture: (2.5) 5
(i)It is made up of only one type of atom.
(ii) It can be separated by physical methods.
(iii) It is a substance that has completely different properties from its
constituents.
(iv) It can be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
(v) It can be a metal, non-metal or metalloid.

b) Differentiate between solution and suspension on the basis of (2.5)


(i) Tyndall effect
(ii) Stability
(iii) Filtration
(iv) Transparency
(v) Particle size

Q36. a) List two methods of weed control. 5


b) Differentiate between mixed cropping and intercropping.
c) What advantages do fertilizers provide over manure? (give 2)
Section E
Q’s 37 to 39 are case-based questions with sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in some cases
Q37. The following diagram shows a simple pendulum consisting of a bob of mass 100 gm. 4
Initially the bob of the pendulum is at rest at ‘O'. It is then displaced to one side at A. The
height of 'A' above ‘O' is 5 cm. (Take g = 10 m/s2 )

a) Calculate the potential energy of the bob at A.


b) State the law of conservation of energy.
c) Calculate the kinetic energy of the bob at point P.
OR
c) Where would the ball have maximum kinetic energy? Give reason. Why does the
bob eventually come to rest if the law of conservation of energy holds true?
Q38. 4

a) For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the
change of state?
b) Identify the portion of the graph depicting change of state.
c) Explain how an earthen pot is able to cool the water in the month of May when it
is hot outside?
OR
c) Mention one similarity and one dissimilarity between evaporation and
vaporization.
Q39. The figure shows a cell from the pancreatic gland of humans. These cells are adapted to 4
produce special proteins called pancreatic amylase, an important enzyme in digestion.
Use the given information and your own knowledge to answer the following questions:

c) Observe the image carefully to justify how this cell is well adapted for its
function?
d) The cell shown is a typical eukaryotic cell. Justify giving two reasons from the
diagram.

You might also like