COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS Questions :-
1. A cordless telephone using separate frequencies for transmission in base and portable units
is known as
A. duplex arrangement
B. half duplex arrangement
C. either (a) or (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: A
2. For attenuation of high frequencies we should use
A. shunt capacitance
B. series capacitance
C. inductance
D. resistance
Answer: A
3. A modem is classified as low speed if data rate handled is
A. upto 100 bps
B. upto 250 bps
C. upto 400 bps
D. upto 600 bps
Answer: D
4. VSB modulation is preferred in TV because
A. it reduces the bandwidth requirement to half
B. it avoids phase distortion at low frequencies
C. it results in better reception
D. none of the above
Answer: A
5. A woofer should be fed from the input through a
A. low pass filter
B. high pass filter
C. band pass filter
D. band stop filter
Answer: A
6. Which of the following is an indirect way of generating FM?
A. Armstrong modulator
B. Varactor diode modulator
C. Reactance FET modulator
D. Reactance bipolar transistor
Answer: A
7. When the length of antenna is a whole wavelength
A. the radiation at right angles is zero
B. the radiation at right angles is maximum
C. the radiation is zero in all directions
D. the radiation is maximum in all directions
Answer: A
8. Circular polarization
A. is useful in reducing depolarization effect on received wave
B. involves critical alignment of transmitting and receiving antenna
C. is useful in discrimination between reception of adjacent beams
D. none of the above
Answer: A
9. An FM radio receiver which is tuned to a 91.6 MHz broadcast station may receive an image
frequency of __________ MHz.
A. 102.3
B. 113
C. 70.2
D. 80.9
Answer: B
10. For telegraphy the most commonly used modulation system is
A. FSK
B. two tone modulation
C. PCM
D. single tone modulation
Answer: A
11. Commercial Frequency deviation of FM is
A. 70 kHz
B. 75 kHz
C. 80 kHz
D. 65 kHz
Answer: B
12. The colour of an object is decided by
A. the reflected colour
B. the wavelength transmitted through it
C. reflected colour for opaque object and wavelength transmitted through it for transparent
objects
D. none of the above
Answer: C
13. In Pulse Code Modulation system
A. large bandwidth is required
B. quantising noise can be overcome by companding
C. quantising noise can be reduced by decreasing the number of standard levels
D. suffers from the disadvantage of its incompatibly with TDM
Answer: A
14. If output power of a radio receiver is doubled, its volume is increased by __________ dB.
A. 2 B. 3
C. 1 D. -3
Answer: B
15. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Convex lens has positive focal power and concave lens have negative focal power
B. Convex lens has negative focal power and concave lens have positive focal power
C. All lens have positive focal power
D. All lens have negative focal power
Answer: A
16. In Modulation, “carrier” is
A. resultant wave
B. speech voltage to be transmitted
C. voltage with constant frequency, phase or amplitude
D. voltage for which frequency, phase or amplitude is varied
Answer: D
17. To eliminate ghosts in the picture
A. use a longer transmission line
B. connect a booster
C. change the antenna orientation of location
D. twist the transmission line
Answer: C
18. The frequency range of 300 kHz to 3000 kHz is known as
A. low frequency
B. medium frequency
C. high frequency
D. very high frequency
Answer: B
19. Which of the following does not cause losses in optical fiber cables?
A. Stepped index operation
B. Impurities
C. Micro bending
D. Attenuation in glass
Answer: A
20. For a low level AM system, the amplifiers modulated stage must be
A. linear devices
B. harmonic devices
C. class C amplifiers
D. non-linear devices
Answer: A
21. Assertion (A): In FM the frequency of the carrier is varied by the modulating voltage
Reason (R): FM and PM are two forms of angle modulation.
A. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R is wrong
D. A is wrong but R is correct
Answer: B
22. A telephone channel requires a bandwidth of about
A. 1 kHz
B. 3 kHz
C. 10 kHz
D. 50 kHz
Answer: B
23. For a given carrier wave, maximum undistorted power is transmitted when value of
modulation is
A. 1
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0
Answer: A
24. As per Shannon-Hartley theorem, a noise less Gaussian channel has
A. zero capacity
B. infinite capacity
C. small capacity
D. none of the above
Answer: B
25. DVD uses
A. Laser beam for both recording and playback
B. Laser beam for recording and video head for playback
C. Video head for recording and laser beam for playback
D. None of the above
Answer: A
26. Fourier analysis indicate that a square wave can be represented as
A. a fundamental sine wave and odd harmonics
B. a fundamental sine wave and even harmonics
C. a fundamental sine wave and harmonics
D. fundamental and subharmonic sine waves
Answer: A
27. FM transmitting and receiving equipment as compared to AM equipment is
A. costly
B. cheaper
C. almost equally costly
D. none of the above
Answer: A
28. An audio signal (say from 50 Hz to 10000 Hz) is frequency translated by a carrier having a
frequency of 106 Hz. The values of initial (without frequency translation) and final (after
frequency translation) fractional change in frequency from one band edge to the other are
A. 200 and 1.01
B. 200 and 10.01
C. 200 and 100.1
D. 200 and 200
Answer: A
29. If in a broadcasting studio, a 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by an audio signal of frequency
range 100-5000 kHz, the width of channel is __________ kHz.
A. 5
B. 4.9
C. 995
D. 10
Answer: D
30. Which one of the following is analog?
A. PCM
B. PWM
C. Delta modulation
D. Differential PCM
Answer: B
31. The disadvantage of FM over AM is that
A. high output power is needed
B. high modulating power is needed
C. noise is very high for high frequency
D. large bandwidth is required
Answer: D
32. Which of the following is a digital modulation technique?
A. PCM
B. PSK
C. DM
D. All
Answer: B
33. Which of the following is used to generate PDM?
A. Free running multi-vibrator
B. Monostable multi-vibrator
C. JK flip-flop
D. Schmitt trigger
Answer: B
34. SSB can be generated by
A. filter method
B. phase cancellation method
C. good attenuation characteristics
D. all of the above
Answer: D
35. A zero mean white Gaussian noise is passed through an ideal low pass filter of bandwidth
10 kHz. The output of the samples so obtained would be
A. correlated
B. statistically independent
C. uncorrelated
D. orthogonal
Answer: B
36. What is the purpose of peak clipper circuits in radio transmitters?
A. To prevent over modulation
B. To reduce bandwidth
C. To increase bandwidth
D. To regulate oscillator I/P voltage
Answer: A
37. In case of low level amplitude modulation system, the amplifiers following the modulated
stage must be
A. class C amplifiers
B. linear devices
C. non-linear devices
D. harmonic devices
Answer: B
38. Under ordinary circumstances, impulse noise can be reduced in
A. FM only
B. AM only
C. both AM and FM
D. none of the above
Answer: A
39. In case of frequency modulation, modulating voltage remains constant if the modulating
frequency is lowered, then
A. amplitude of distant sidebands decreases
B. amplitude of distant sidebands increases
C. amplitude of distant sidebands remains constant
D. amplitude of distant sidebands first increases, then decreases
Answer: B
40. If sampling is done at the rate of 10 kHz. The bandwidth required is
A. 35 kHz
B. 70 kHz
C. 10 kHz
D. 1280 kHz
Answer: A
41. It is found that a ship to ship communication suffers from fading. This can be avoided by
using
A. space diversity
B. frequency diversity
C. broad band antenna
D. directional antenna
Answer: B
42. Skip distance depends on time of day and angle of incidence.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
43. In practical commercial FM system, channel bandwidth is
A. 150 kHz
B. 100 kHz
C. 88 MHz
D. 108 MHz
Answer: A
44. In EM waves, polarization
A. is always vertical in an isotropic medium
B. is caused by reflection
C. is due to transverse nature of waves
D. results from longitudinal nature of waves
Answer: C
45. The maximum power output of a standard A earth station over the total band allocated to
satellite communication is about
A. 0.5 kW
B. 8 kW
C. 20 kW
D. 50 kW
Answer: A
46. PAM stands for
A. Pulse Analogue Modulation
B. Phase Analogue Modulation
C. Pulse Amplitude Modulation
D. Phase Amplitude Modulation
Answer: C
47. The characteristic impedance of a twin wire feeder used for TV signals is about
A. 1000 ohm
B. 500 ohm
C. 300 ohm
D. 100 ohm
Answer: C
48. In a FM receiver, amplitude limiter
A. amplifiers low frequency signals
B. reduces the amplitude of signals
C. eliminates any change in amplitude of received FM signals
D. none of the above
Answer: C
49. A buffer amplifier is
A. a double-tuned amplifier
B. a high gain D.C. amplifier
C. a cathode follower stage
D. none of the above
Answer: B
50. Leak type bias is used in plate modulated class C amplifier to
A. increase the bandwidth
B. prevent over modulation
C. prevent excessive grid current
D. prevent tuned circuit damping
Answer: C
51. The direction of rotation of a CD is
A. clockwise
B. anticlockwise
C. clockwise or anticlockwise depending on frequency of data stored
D. mostly anticlockwise but some times clockwise
Answer: B
52. One of the advantages of base modulation over collector modulation of a transistor class C
amplifier is
A. improved efficiency
B. better linearity
C. high power output per transistor
D. the lower modulating power requirement
Answer: D
53. Full duplex operation-permits transmission in both directions at the same time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
54. In a TV receiver antenna the length of reflector rod
A. is the same as that of dipole
B. is less than that of dipole
C. is more than that of dipole
D. may be equal, more or less than that of dipole
Answer: C
55. The modulation index of an FM is changed from 0 to 1. How does the transmitted power
change?
A. Gets halved
B. Gets doubled
C. Gets increased by 50 percent
D. Remains unchanged
Answer: C
56. For AM receivers the standard IF frequency is
A. 106 kHz
B. 455 kHz
C. 1.07 MHz
D. 10.7 MHz
Answer: B
57. For a plate-modulated class C amplifier the plate supply voltage is E. The maximum plate
cathode voltage could be almost high as
A. 2E
B. 3E
C. 4E
D. 6E
Answer: C
58. In TV systems, equalizing pulses are sent during
A. horizontal blanking
B. vertical blanking
C. serrations
D. horizontal retrace
Answer: A
59. A three stage telephone switching structure is to have 128 input and 128 output terminals.
There are 16 first stage and 16 third stage matrices. To avoid blocking the number of
intermediate paths required is
A. 16
B. 15
C. 8
D. 1
Answer: B
60. The main function of a balanced modulator is to
A. produce balanced modulation of a carrier wave
B. produce 100% modulation
C. suppress carrier signal in order to create a single-sideband or double sideband
D. limit noise picked by a receiver
Answer: B
CONTROL SYSTEM
1. In an open loop control system
(a) Output is independent of control input
(b) Output is dependent on control input
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
2. For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Less expensive
(b) Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
(c) Construction is simple and maintenance easy
(d) Errors are caused by disturbances
Ans: b
3. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as
(a) Closed loop system
(b) Semiclosed loop system
(c) Open system
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the
system will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) be unaffected
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
5. Which of the following is an open loop control system ?
(a) Field controlled D.C. motor
(b) Ward leonard control
(c) Metadyne
(d) Stroboscope
Ans: a
6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system ?
(a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
(b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
(c) Less expensive
(d) Generally free from problems of non-linearities
Ans: b
7. In open loop system
(a) the control action depends on the size of the system
(b) the control action depends on system variables
(c) the control action depends on the input signal
(d) the control action is independent of the output
Ans: d
8 . ___has tendency to oscillate.
(a) Open loop system
(b) Closed loop system
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
9. A good control system has all the following features except
(a) good stability
(b) slow response
(c) good accuracy
(d) sufficient power handling capacity
Ans: b
10. A car is moving at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the feedback
element for the driver ?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(d) Steering wheel
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
11. The initial response when tune output is not equal to input is called
(a) Transient response
(b) Error response
(c) Dynamic response
(d) Either of the above
Ans: a
12. A control system working under unknown random actions is called
(a) computer control system
(b) digital data system
(c) stochastic control system
(d) adaptive control system
Ans: c
13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.
(a) open
(b) closed
(c) partially closed
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
(a) feedback
(b) stimulus
(c) signal
(d) gain control
Ans: b
15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the following ?
(a) Servomechanism
(b) Feedback
(c) Output pattern
(d) Input pattern
Ans: b
16. ___ is a part of the human temperature control system.
(a) Digestive system
(b) Perspiration system
(c) Ear
(d) Leg movement
Ans: b
17. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a path ?
(a) Brain
(b) Hands
(c) Legs
(d) Eyes
Ans: d
18. ___ is a closed loop system.
(a) Auto-pilot for an aircraft
(6) Direct current generator
(c) Car starter
(d) Electric switch
Ans: a
19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors in instruments ?
(a) Vernistats
(b) Microsyns
(c) Resolvers
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
20. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable ?
(a) The gain of the system should be decreased
(b) The gain of the system should be increased
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
Ans: b
21. ___ increases the steady state accuracy.
(a) Integrator
(b) Differentiator
(c) Phase lead compensator
(d) Phase lag compensator
Ans: a
22. A.C. servomotor resembles
(a) two phase induction motor
(b) Three phase induction motor
(c) direct current series motor
(d) universal motor
Ans: a
23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease ?
(a) Band width
(b) Overall gain
(c) Distortion
(d) Instability
Ans: a
24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with
(a) oscillations
(b) step input
(c) negative sign
(d) positive sign
Ans: d
25. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of
(a) reference and output
(b) reference and input
(e) input and feedback signal
(d) output and feedback signal
Ans: a
Also Read : Open Loop and Closed Loop Animation
26. ___ is an open loop control system.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) Field controlled D.C. motor
(c) Stroboscope
(d) Metadyne
Ans: b
27. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from
(a) saturation in amplifying stages
(b) loss of gain
(c) vibrations
(d) oscillations
Ans: a
28. Zero initial condition for a system means
(a) input reference signal is zero
(b) zero stored energy
(c) ne initial movement of moving parts
(d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
Ans: d
29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the following ?
(a) The order of the system
(b) The time constant
(c) The output for any given input
(d) The steady state gain
Ans: c
30. The band width, in a feedback amplifier.
(a) remains unaffected
(b) decreases by the same amount as the gain increase
(c) increases by the same amount as the gain decrease
(d) decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease
Ans: c
31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain
changes and load disturbances depend ?
(a) Frequency
(b) Loop gain
(c) Forward gain
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
32. The transient response, with feedback system,
(a) rises slowly
(b) rises quickly
(c) decays slowly
(d) decays quickly
Ans: d
33. The second derivative input signals modify which of the following ?
(a) The time constant of the system
(b) Damping of the system
(c) The gain of the system
(d) The time constant and suppress the oscillations
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
34. Which of the following statements is correct for any closed loop system ?
(a) All the co-efficients can have zero value
(6) All the co-efficients are always non-zero
(c) Only one of the static error co-efficients has a finite non-zero value
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
35. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin close to unity or a
phase margin close to zero ?
(a) The system is relatively stable
(b) The system is highly stable
(c) The system is highly oscillatory
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control systems should be
avoided ?
(a) It leads to slow speed of response
(b) It leads to low relative stability
(c) Noise is proportional to band width
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ?
(a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
(c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d) Low-level oscillations
Ans: d
38. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ?
(a) Error detector
(b) Final control element
(c) Sensor
(d) Oscillator
Ans: d
39. In a control system the output of the controller is given to
(a) final control element
(b) amplifier
(c) comparator
(d) sensor
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
40. A controller, essentially, is a
(a) sensor
(b) clipper
(c) comparator
(d) amplifier
Ans: c
41. Which of the following is the not the ideal input to a controller ?
(a) Servo signal
(b) Desired variable value
(c) Error signal
(d) Sensed signal
Ans: a
42. The on-off controller is a _____ system.
(a) digital
(b) linear
(c) non-linear
(d) discontinuous
Ans: d
43. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to
(a) momentum
(b) velocity
(c) displacement
(d) mass
Ans: d
44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is considered analogous to
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) capacitance
(d) charge
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered analogous to
(a) velocity
(b) pressure
(c) air flow
(d) air flow rate
Ans: d
46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered analogous to
(a) head
(b) liquid flow
(c) liquid flow rate
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
47. The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to
(a) charge
(b) resistance
(c) reciprocal of inductance
(d) reciprocal of conductance
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to
(a) current
(b) charge
(c) inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
49. In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered analogous to
(a) heat flow
(b) reciprocal of heat flow
(c) reciprocal of temperature
(d) temperature
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
50. Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to
(a) charge
(b) current
(c) inductance
(d) resistance
Ans: c
Also Read : Automation Interview Questions
51. The transient response of a system is mainly due to
(a) inertia forces
(b) internal forces
(c) stored energy
(d) friction
Ans: c
52. ___ Signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal.
(a) Input
(b) Actuating
(c) Feedback
(d) Reference
Ans: b
53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value of controlled variable is
known as
(a) disturbance
(b) command
(c) control element
(d) reference input
Ans: a
54. The transfer function is applicable to which of the following ?
(a) Linear and time-in variant systems
(b) Linear and time-variant systems
(c) Linear systems
(d) Non-linear systems
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
55. From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ?
(a) Signal flow graph
(b) Analogous table
(c) Output-input ratio
(d) Standard block system
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
56. ___ is the reference input minus the primary feedback.
(a) Manipulated variable
(b) Zero sequence
(c) Actuating signal
(d) Primary feedback
Ans: c
57. The term backlash is associated with
(a) servomotors
(b) induction relays
(c) gear trains
(d) any of the above
Ans:
58. With feedback _____ increases.
(a) system stability
(b) sensitivity
(c) gain
(d) effects of disturbing signals
Ans: a
59. By which of the following the system response can be tested better ?
(a) Ramp input signal
(b) Sinusoidal input signal
(c) Unit impulse input signal
(d) Exponentially decaying signal
Ans: c
60. In a system zero initial condition means that
(a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
(b) The system is working with zero stored energy
(c) The system is working with zero reference signal
Ans: a
61. In a system low friction co-efficient facilitates
(a) reduced velocity lag error
(b) increased velocity lag error
(c) increased speed of response
(d) reduced time constant of the system
Ans: a
62. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of
(a) amplidyne set
(b) resistance-capacitance parallel circuit
(c) motor-generator set
(d) any of the above
Ans:
63. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to
(a) capacitance
(b) reciprocal of capacitance
(c) current
(d) resistance
Ans: b
64. The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following?
(a) Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral
(b) Laplace Transform
(c) Fourier Integral
(d) Either (b) or (c)
Ans: a
65. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to
(a) smaller damping ratio
(b) larger damping ratio
(c) constant damping ratio
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
66. Static error co-efficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed loop systems
for specified ________ input signal.
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
(c) position
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
67. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at
(a) low frequencies
(b) reduced values of open loop gain
(c) increased values of open loop gain
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin.
(a) no pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
69. The type 1 system has ______ at the origin.
(a) no pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: c
70. The type 2 system has at the origin.
(a) no net pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: d
71. The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are
(a) constant, constant
(b) constant, infinity
(c) zero, constant
(d) zero, zero
Ans: c
72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit
_______ function.
(a) parabolic
(b) ramp
(c) impulse
(d) step
Ans: b
73. In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is
(a) unity
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) 10
Ans: b
74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output remains below a certain
level for all the time, the system is
(a) not necessarily stable
(b) stable
(c) unstable
(d) always unstable
(e) any of the above
Ans: a
75. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient response
?
(a) Root locus
(b) Bode plot
(c) Nyquist plot
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ?
(a) Frequency response
(b) Absolute stability
(c) Relative stability
(d) Time response
Ans: c
77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ?
(a) Lead-compensation
(b) Lag-compensation
(c) Lead-lag compensation
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
78. ___ technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ?
(a) Nyquist Criterion
(b) Quasi linearization
(c) Functional analysis
(d) Phase-plane representation
Ans: a
79. In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of following
compensators may be used ?
(a) Phase-lead
(b) Phase-lag
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) and (b)
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays
(a) is independent of frequency
(b) is inverseh’proportional to frequency
(c) increases linearly with frequency
(d) decreases linearly with frequency
Ans: c
Also Read : Programmable Logic Controller Questions
81. In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following ?
(a) Low-level oscillations
(b) High-level oscillations
(c) Conditional stability
(d) Overdamping
Ans: a
82. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tacho-generator ?
(a) Acceleration
(b) Speed
(c) Speed and acceleration
(d) Displacement
(e) None of the above
Ans: b
83. ___ is not a final control element.
(a) Control valve
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Electro-pneumatic converter
(d) Servomotor
Ans: b
84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a controller ?
(a) The range of air output as measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
(b) The range of measured variables from set value
(c) The range of measured variables through which the air output chan¬ges from maximum to
minimum
(d) Any of the above
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control element converts
(a) pressure signal to electric signal
(b) pressure signal to position change
(c) electric signal to pressure signal
(d) position change to pressure signal
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
86. Pressure error can be measured by which of the following ?
(a) Differential bellows and straingauge
(b) Selsyn
(c) Strain gauge
(d) Strain gauge and potentiometer
Ans: a
87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinates ?
(a) Microsyn
(b) Selsyn
(c) Synchro-resolver
(d) Synchro-transformer
Ans: c
88. The effect of error damping is to
(a) provide larger settling lime
(b) delay the response
(c) reduce steady state error
(d) any of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
89. ___ technique gives quick transient and stability response
(a) Root locus
(b) Bode
(c) Nyquist
(d) Nichols
Ans: a
90. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output
(a) lag at all frequencies
(b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
(c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
91. Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servomotor ?
(a) Static friction
(b) Backlash
(c) Saturation
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
92. ___ can be extended to systems which are time-varying ?
(a) Bode-Nyquist stability methods
(b) Transfer functions
(c) Root locus design
(d) State model representatives
Ans: d
93. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it implies that the system is
(a) at rest without any energy stored in it
(b) working normally with reference input
(c) working normally with zero reference input
(d) at rest but stores energy
Ans: d
94. Which of the following is electromechanical device ?
(a) Induction relay
(b) Thermocouple
(c) LVDT
(d) Any of the above
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
95. A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it
(a) reduces damping
(b) reduces the gain margin
(c) increases input noise
(d) increases error
Ans: c
96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as
(a) oscillatory
(b) critically damped
(c) overdamped
(d) underdamped
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
97. In a control system integral error compensation _______ steady state error
(a) increases
(b) minimizes
(c) does not have any effect on
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
98. With feed back _____ reduces.
(a) system stability
(6) system gain
(c) system stability and gain
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
99. An amplidyne can give which of the following characteristics ?
(a) Constant current
(b) Constant voltage
(c) Constant current as well as constant voltage
(d) Constant current, constant voltage and constant power
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
100. Which of the following can be measured byLVDT?
(a) Displacement
(b) Velocity
(c) Acceleration
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
101. ___ directly converts temperature into voltage.
(a) Thermocouple
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Gear train
(d) LVDT
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
102. The transfer function technique is considered as inadequate under which of the following
conditions ?
(a) Systems having complexities and non-linearities
(b) Systems having stability problems
(c) Systems having multiple input dis¬turbances
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
103. Which of the following is the output of a thermocouple ?
(a) Alternating current
(b) Direct current
(c) A.C. voltage
(d) D.C. voltage
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
104. A.C. servomotor is basically a
(a) universal motor
(b) single phase induction motor
(c) two phase induction motor
(d) three phase induction motor
Ans: c
105. The first order control system, which is well designed, has a
(a) small bandwidth
(b) negative time constant
(c) large negative transfer function pole
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
106. Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus diagrams ?
(a) The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
(b) The bandwidth of the system
(c) The response of a system to a step input
(d) The frequency response of a system
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
