ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING b.

Tail to pivot in the direction of torque rotation

around the main rotor axis
1. The purpose of the vertical fin is to provide c. Anti-torque system to become more efficient
a. Directional stability in the hover mode
b. Longitudinal stability 10. Which statement concerning the 100-hour
c. Lateral stability inspection of an airplane equipped with a push-pull
2. A universal propeller protractor used to measure tube-type control system is true?
the degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed a. The threaded rod ends should not be adjusted
a. With the aileron in the NEUTRAL position in length for rigging purposes because the rod
b. With the aileron in the DOWN position ends have been properly positioned and staked
c. When the aircraft is in a level flight attitude during manufacture
3. Other than the manufacturer maintenance manual b. The terminal end threads of the turnbuckles
what other document could be used to determine should be visible through the safety hole in the
the primary flight control surface deflection for an barrel
imported aircraft that is reassembled after c. The threaded rod ends should be checked for
shipment? the amount of thread engagement by means of
a. Aircraft type certificate data sheet the inspection hole provided
b. Import manual for the aircraft 11. Main rotor blades that do not cone by the same
c. The certificate of airworthiness issued by the amount during rotation are said to be out of
importing country a. Balance
4. If all instructions issued by the swaging tool b. Collective pitch
manufacturer are followed when swaging a cable c. Track
terminal, the resultant swaged terminal strength 12. An airplane which has good longitudinal stability
should be should have a minimum tendency to
a. The full rated strength of the cable a. Roll
b. 80 percent of the full rated strength of the b. Pitch
cable c. Yaw
c. 70 percent of the full rated strength of the 13. Movement about the lateral axis (pitch) in a
cable helicopter is effected by movement of the
5. If control cables are adjusted properly and the a. Collective pitch control
control surfaces tend to vibrate, the probable cause b. Cyclic pitch control
is c. Tail rotor pitch control
a. Worn attachment fittings 14. The chord of a wing is measured from
b. Oil can effects on the control surfaces a. Wingtip to wingtip
c. Excessive cable tension b. Wing root to the wingtip
6. Fairleads should never deflect the alignment of a c. Leading edge to trailing edge
cable more than 15. The purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is to
a. 12° a. Assist the pilot in moving the control surfaces
b. 8° b. Contribute to the static balance of the control
c. 3° surface
7. Movement about the longitudinal axis (roll) in a c. Make in-flight trim adjustments possible
helicopter is affected by movement of the 16. Why is it generally necessary to jack an aircraft
a. Collective pitch control indoors for weighing?
b. Cyclic pitch control a. So aircraft may be placed in a level position
c. Tail rotor pitch control b. So that air currents do not destabilize the
8. What physical factors are involved in the aspect scales
ratio of airplane wings? c. So weighing scales may be calibrated to 0
a. Thickness and chord pounds
b. Span and chord 17. Which is an acceptable safety device for a castle
c. Dihedral and angle of attack nut when installed on secondary structures?
9. A reduction in anti-torque thrust will cause the a. Star washer
a. Tail pivot in the opposite direction of torque b. Lock washer
rotation around the main rotor axis c. Cotter pin
18. As the angle of attack of an airfoil increases, the trailing edge of the trim tab to move in which
center of pressure will direction?
a. Move toward the trailing edge a. Downward regardless of elevator position
b. Remain stationary because both lift and drag b. Upward regardless of elevator position
components increase proportionally to c. Downward if the elevator is in the UP position
increased angle of attack and upward if the elevator is in the DOWN
c. Move toward the leading edge position
19. During inspection of the flight control system of an 25. Where would you find precise information to
airplane equipped with differential-type aileron perform a symmetry alignment check for a
control, side-to-side movement of the control stick particular aircraft?
will cause a. Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data
a. Each aileron to have a greater up travel (from Sheet
the streamlined position) than down travel b. Manufacturer’s service bulletins
b. Each aileron to have a greater down travel c. Aircraft service or maintenance manual
(from the streamlined position) than up travel 26. If the right wing of a monoplane is improperly
c. The left aileron to move through a greater rigged to a greater angle of incidence than
number of degrees (from full up to full down) designated in the manufacturer’s specifications, it
than the right aileron will cause the
20. What nondestructive checking method is normally a. Airplane to be off balance both laterally and
used to ensure that the correct amount of swaging directionally
has taken place when installing swaged-type b. Airplane to pitch and roll about the lateral axis
terminals on aircraft control cable? c. Right wing to have both an increased lift and a
a. Check the surface of the swaged portion of the decreased drag
terminal for small cracks which indicate 27. The universal propeller protractor can be used to
incomplete swaging measure
b. Measure the finished length of the terminal a. Propeller track
barrel and compare with the beginning length b. Aspect ratio of a wing
c. Use a terminal gauge to check the diameter of c. Degrees of flap travel
the swaged portion of the terminal 28. One purpose of the freewheeling unit required
21. Aircraft flight control trim systems must be between the engine and the helicopter transmission
designed and installed so that the is to
a. Pilot can determine the relative position of the a. Automatically disengage the rotor from the
trim tab from the cockpit engine in case of an engine failure
b. Operating control and the trim tab will always b. Disconnect the rotor from the engine to relieve
move in the same direction the starter load
c. Trim system will disengage or become c. Permit practice of autorotation landings
inoperative if the primary flight control system 29. An airplane that has a tendency to gradually
fails increase a pitching moment that has been set into
22. Which statement is correct concerning torque motion has
effect on helicopters? a. Poor longitudinal stability
a. Torque direction is the same as rotor blade b. Good lateral stability
rotation c. Poor lateral stability
b. As horsepower decreases, torque increases 30. The primary purpose of stall strips is to
c. Torque direction is the opposite of rotor blade a. Provide added lift at slow speeds
rotation b. Stall the inboard portion of the wings first
23. In a hovering helicopter equipped with a tail rotor, c. Provide added lift at high angles of attack
directional control is maintained by 31. The auxiliary (tail) rotor of a helicopter permits the
a. Changing the tail rotor RPM pilot to compensate for and/or accomplish which of
b. Tilting the main rotor disk in the desired the following?
direction a. Attitude and airspeed
c. Varying the pitch of the tail rotor blades b. Lateral and yaw position
24. Movement of the cockpit control toward the c. Torque and directional control
nosedown position during a ground operational
check of the elevator trim tab system will cause the
32. If the control stick of an aircraft with properly b. Also increase
rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the c. Increase while the lift is changing but will
left, the right aileron will move return to its original value
a. Down and the elevator will move down 41. Very often, repairs to a control surface require
b. Up and the elevator will move down static rebalancing of the control surface. Generally,
c. Down and the elevator will move up flight control balance condition may be determined
33. The correct dihedral angle can be determined by by
a. Measuring the angular setting of each wing at a. Checking for equal distribution of weight
the rear spar with a bubble protractor throughout the control surface
b. Placing a straightedge and bubble protractor b. The behavior of the trailing edge when the
across the spars while the airplane is in flying surface is suspended from its hinge points
position c. Suspending the control surface from its
c. Using a dihedral board and bubble level along leading edge in the stream line position and
the front spar of each wing checking weight distribution
34. Excessive wear on both of the sides of a control 42. If a single-rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal
cable pulley groove is evidence of flight, the angle of attack of the advancing blade is
a. Pulley misalignment a. More than the retreating blade
b. Cable misalignment b. Equal to the retreating blade
c. Excessive cable tension c. Less than the retreating blade
35. What is the purpose of the free-wheeling unit in a 43. A helicopter in forward flight, cruise configuration,
helicopter drive system? changes direction by
a. It disconnects the rotor whenever the engine a. Varying the pitch of the main rotor blades
stops or slows below the equivalent of rotor b. Changing rotor RPM
RPM c. Tilting the main rotor disk in the desired
b. It releases the rotor brake for starting direction
c. It relieves bending stress on the rotor blades 44. Differential control on an aileron system means
during starting that
36. The angle of incidence is that acute angle formed a. The down travel is more than the up travel
by b. The up travel is more than the down travel
a. The angular difference between the setting of c. One aileron on one wing travels further up
the main airfoil and the auxiliary airfoil than the aileron on the opposite wing to adjust
(horizontal stabilizer) in reference to the for wash-in and wash-out
longitudinal axis of the aircraft 45. The vertical flight of a helicopter is controlled by
b. A line parallel to the wing chord and a line a. Collective pitch changes
parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft b. Cyclic pitch changes
c. A line parallel to the wing from root to tip and c. Increasing or decreasing the RPM of the main
a line parallel to the lateral axis of the aircraft rotor
37. Which should be accomplished before jacking an 46. What is the smallest size cable that may be used in
aircraft? aircraft primary control systems?
a. Install critical stress panels or plates a. ¼ inch
b. Determine that the fuel tanks are empty b. 5/16 inch
c. Make sure the aircraft is leveled laterally c. 1/8 inch
38. The acute angle formed by the chord line of a wing 47. The cable-operated control system of an all-metal
and the relative wind is known as the aircraft, not incorporating a temperature
a. Longitudinal dihedral angle compensating device, has been rigged to the
b. Angle of incidence correct tension in a heated hangar. If the aircraft is
c. Angle of attack operated in very cold weather, the cable tension
39. An airplane is controlled directionally about its will
vertical axis by the a. Decrease when the aircraft structure and cables
a. Rudder become cold
b. Elevator(s) b. Increase when the aircraft structure and cables
c. Ailerons become cold
40. When the lift of an airfoil increases, the drag will c. Be unaffected if stainless steel cable is
a. Decrease installed
48. Washing-in the left wing of a monoplane, for b. Bell cranks
purposes of rigging corrections after flight test, will c. Fairleads
have what effect on the lift and drag of that wing? 56. If the travel of an airplane’s controls is correct but
a. Both drag and lift will decrease due to the cables are rigged exceptionally tight, what
decreased angle of attack probable effect will this have when flying the
b. Both drag and lift will increase due to airplane?
increased angle of attack a. The airplane will tend to fall off on one wing
c. The drag will decrease due to the effect of the b. The airplane will be heavy on the controls
lift increase c. The pilot will be unable to fly the airplane
49. A tension regulator in the flight control cable hands-off
system of a large all-metal aircraft is used 57. The angle of incidence of an airplane at rest
primarily to a. Affects the dihedral of the wings in flight
a. Increase the cable tension in cold weather b. Is the same as the angle between the relative
b. Provide a means of changing cable tension in wind and the chord of the wing
flight c. Does not change when in flight
c. Retain a set tension 58. When a fiber or nylon insert-type, self-locking nut
50. Buffeting is the intermittent application of forces to can be threaded on a bolt or stud through the insert
a part of an airplane. It is caused by with only the fingers, it should be
a. Incorrect rigging of flaps a. Re-torqued frequently
b. An unsteady flow from turbulence b. Rejected
c. Incorrect rigging of ailerons c. Reused only in a different location
51. Wing dihedral, a rigging consideration on most 59. In rotorcraft external-loading, the ideal location of
airplanes of conventional design, contributes most the cargo release is where the line of action passes
to stability of the airplane about its a. Aft of the center of gravity at all times
a. Longitudinal axis b. Forward of the center of gravity at all times
b. Vertical axis c. Through the center of gravity at all times
c. Lateral axis 60. Where does the breakage of control cable wires
52. Where is the buttock line or buttline of an aircraft? occur most frequently?
a. A height measurement left or right of, and a. Breakage usually occurs where cables pass
perpendicular to, the horizontal centerline over pulleys and through fairleads
b. A width measurement left of, and b. Breakage sites are unpredictable and usually
perpendicular to, the vertical centerline occur randomly anywhere along the length of
c. A width measurement left or right of, and a cable
parallel to, the vertical centerline c. Breakage usually occurs where cables are
53. If a pilot reports that an airplane flies left wing swaged to turnbuckle and ball terminals
heavy, this condition may be corrected by 61. Stability about the axis which runs parallel to the
a. Increasing the angle of incidence of the left line of flight is referred to as
wing, or decreasing the angle of incidence of a. Longitudinal stability
the right wing, or both b. Lateral stability
b. Increasing the dihedral angle of the left wing, c. Directional stability
or decreasing the dihedral angle adjusting the 62. Movement of an airplane along its lateral axis (roll)
dihedral of the right wing, or both is also movement
c. Adjusting the dihedral angle of the left wing so a. Around or about the longitudinal axis
that differential pressure between the upper controlled by the elevator
and lower wing surfaces is increased b. Around or about the lateral axis controlled by
54. If the vertical fin of a single-engine, propeller- the ailerons
driven airplane is rigged properly, it will generally c. Around or about the longitudinal axis
be parallel to controlled by the ailerons
a. The longitudinal axis but not the vertical axis 63. The purpose in checking main rotor blade tracking
b. The vertical axis but not the longitudinal axis is to determine the
c. Both the longitudinal and vertical axes a. Relative position of the blades during rotation
55. How are changes in direction of a control cable b. Flight path of the blades during rotation
accomplished? c. Extent of an out of balance condition during
a. Pulleys rotation
64. Where is fuselage station No. 137 located? c. To manufacturer’s specifications
a. 137 centimeters aft of the nose or fixed 73. The purpose of wing slats is to
reference line a. Reduce stalling speed
b. 137 inches aft of the zero or fixed reference b. Decrease drag
line c. Increase speed on takeoff
c. Aft of the engine
65. The vast majority of aircraft control cables are 74. Proper wing twist in a sheet metal constructed
terminated with swaged terminals, that must be wing can usually be checked by utilizing
a. Corrosion treated to show compliance with the a. Plum bob, string, and straightedge
manufacturer’s requirements after the swaging b. Bubble level and special fixtures described by
operation the manufacturer
b. Pull tested to show compliance with the c. Straightedge, tape measure, and carpenter’s
manufacturer’s requirements after the swaging square
operation 75. Placing a piece of cloth around a stainless steel
c. Checked with a go-no-go gauge before and control cable and running it back and forth over the
after, to show compliance with manufacturer’s length of the cable is generally a satisfactory
requirements after the swaging operation method of
66. When inspecting a control cable turnbuckle for a. Applying methyl-ethyl-ketone
proper installation, determine that b. Inspecting for broken strands
a. No more than four threads are exposed on c. Inspecting for wear or corrosion
either side of the turnbuckle barrel 76. An airplane’s center of lift is usually located aft of
b. The terminal end threads are visible through its center of gravity
the safety hole in the barrel a. So that the airplane will have a tail-heavy
c. The safety wire ends are wrapped a minimum tendency
of four turns around the terminal end shanks b. So that the airplane will have a nose-heavy
67. The elevators of a conventional airplane are used to tendency
provide rotation about the c. To improve stability about the longitudinal
a. Longitudinal axis axis
b. Lateral axis 77. The dihedral angle of a wing may be measured by
c. Vertical axis placing a straightedge and level protractor on the
68. What type of flap system increase the wing area a. Front spar
and changes the wing camber? b. Wing root
a. Fowler flaps c. Wing chord
b. Slotted flaps 78. Rigging and alignment checks should not be
c. Split flaps undertaken in the open; however, if this cannot be
69. With which system is differential control avoided, the aircraft should be positioned
associated? a. Obliquely into the wind
a. Trim b. Facing any direction since it makes no
b. Aileron difference if the wind is steady (not gusting)
c. Elevator c. With the nose into the wind
70. When used in close proximity to magnetic
compasses, cotter pins are made of what material?
a. Corrosion resisting steel AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
b. Anodized aluminum alloy 1.Where electric cables must pass through holes in
c. Cadmium-plated low carbon steel bulkheads, formers, ribs, Firewalls, etc., the wires should be
71. Improper rigging of the elevator trim tab system protected from chafing by
will affect the balance of the airplane about its
a. Lateral axis a. wrapping with electrical tape.
b. using a suitable grommet.
b. Longitudinal axis
c. wrapping with plastic.
c. Vertical axis 2. Which motor would be most likely to have an armature
72. After repairing or re-covering a rudder, the surface brake?
should be rebalanced a. Starter motor.
a. To its spanwise axis b. Landing light retraction motor.
b. In its normal flight position c. lnverter drive motor.
3. What is the principal advantage of the series-wound dc a. prevent current return paths.
motor? b. allow static charge accumulation.
a. High starling torque. c. prevent development of radio frequency
b. Suitable for constant speed use. potentials.
c. Low starting torque. 14. A battery-generator system provides direct current. On
4. How can it be determined if a transformer winding has installations requiring alternating current from the battery-
some of its turns generator system, it is necessary to have
shorted together? a. a transformer.
a. Measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter. b. an inverter.
b. The output voltage will be high. c. a variable resistor between the battery and
c. The transformer will get hot in normal operation. generator.
5. If the reverse current cutout relay contact points fail to 15. Which of the following must be accomplished when
open after the installing an anti-collision light?
generator output has dropped below battery potential, a. Install a switch independent of the position light
current will flow switch.
through the generator armature b. Use shielded electrical cable to assure fail-safe
a. in the normal direction and through the shunt operation.
field opposite the normal direction. c. Connect the anticollision light to the aircraft
b. and the shunt field opposite the normal direction. position light switch.
c. opposite the normal direction and through the 16. Which of the following copper electrical cable sizes
shunt field in the normal direction. should be selected to replace a No. 6 aluminum electrical
6. What is the color and orientation of the position lights for cable?
navigation on a. No. 4.
civil airplanes? b. No.6.
a. Left side - green, right side - red, rear aft - white. c. No.8.
b. Left side - red, right side - green, rear aft - white. 17. Major adjustments on equipment such as regulators,
c. Left side - white, right side - green, rear aft – red. contactors, and inverters are best accomplished outside the
7. What is required when operating two aircraft ac airplane on test benches with necessary instruments and
generators in parallel? equipment. Adjustment procedure should be as outlined by
a. Amperes and frequency must both be equal. a. the equipment manufacturer.
b. Frequency and voltage must both be equal. b. the FAA.
c. Amperes and voltage must both be equal. c. aircraft technical orders.
8. What is the minimum bend radius for an electrical wire 18. Which of the following factors must be taken into
bundle? consideration when determining the wire size to use for an
a. Ten times the outside diameter of the bundle. aircraft installation?
b. Five times the outside diameter of the bundle. 1. Mechanical strength.
c. Fifteen times the outside diameter of the bundle. 2. Allowable power loss.
9. What is a cause of generator brush arcing? 3. Ease of installation.
a. Seating brushes with No. 000 sandpaper. 4. Resistance of current return path through the aircraft
b. Carbon dust particles. structure.
c. Low spring tension. 5. Permissible voltage drop.
10. When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical 6. Current carrying capability of the conductor.
circuit, be sure it 7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).
a. has a full charge before removing it from the a. 2,5,6,7.
circuit. b. 1,2,4,5.
b. has at least a residual charge before removing it c. 2,4, 6,7.
from the circuit. 19. Residual voltage is a result of magnetism in the
c. is fully discharged before removing it from the a. field windings.
circuit. b. field shoes.
11. The nominal rating of electrical switches refers to c. armature.
continuous 20. Electric circuits are protected from overheating by
a. current rating with the contacts open. means of
b. voltage rating with the contacts closed. a. thermocouples.
c. current rating with the contacts closed. b. shunts.
12. What is normally used to bond noncontiguous stainless- c. fuses.
steel aircraft components? 21. What is the purpose of the selection of derated switches
a. Stainless steel jumpers. for known continuous load current applications?
b. Copper jumpers. a. To calculate the voltage, drop across the circuit.
c. Aluminum jumpers. b. To prevent short circuits in the motor field
13. Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object windings.
to the primary c. To obtain reasonable switch efficiency and service
structure. One purpose of grounding is to life.
22. Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in (2) In the series motor, the field windings, consisting of
a. volts. relatively few, turns of heavy wire, are connected in series
b. ohms. with the armature winding.
c. Amperes Regarding the above statements,
23. Which of the following should be accomplished in the a. only No. 1 is true.
installation of aircraft wiring? b. only No. 2 is true.
a. Support the bundle to structure and/ or solid fluid c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
lines to prevent chafing damage. 32. Certain transport aircraft use ac electrical power for all
b. Provide adequate slack in the wire bundle to normal operation and battery furnished dc electrical power
compensate for large changes in temperature. for standby emergency use. In aircraft of this type that
c. Locate the bundle above flammable fluid lines and operate no dc generators, the batteries are kept charged by
securely clamp to structure. a. inverters which use the aircraft’s ac generators
24. If one switch is used to control all navigation lights, the as a source of power.
lights are most likely connected b. alternators which use the aircraft’s generators as
a. in series with each other and parallel to the a source of power.
switch. c. rectifiers which use the aircraft’s ac generators
b. in series with each other and in series with the as a source of power.
switch. 33. The most common method of regulating the voltage
c. parallel to each other and in series with the output of a compound dc
switch. generator is to vary the
25. The purpose of a rectifier in an electrical system is to a. current flowing through the shunt field coils.
change b. total effective field strength by changing the
a. the frequency of alternating current. reluctance of the magnetic circuit.
b. direct current to alternating current. c. resistance of the series field circuit.
c. alternating current to direct current. 34. In the American Wire Gauge (AWG) system of numbers
26. Which statement relating to electric wiring is true? used to designate
a. When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric electrical wire sizes, the number assigned to a size is related
cable, it should be determined that the strength of to its
the cable-to-terminal joint is at least twice the a. combined resistance and current-carrying
tensile strength of the cable. capacity.
b. When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric b. current-carrying capacity.
cable, it should be determined that the strength of c. cross-sectional area.
the cable-to-terminal joint is at least equal to the 35. Why are the iron cores of most induction coils
tensile strength of the cable itself. laminated?
c. All electric cable splices should be covered with a. To reduce the core reluctance.
soft insulating tubing (spaghetti) for mechanical b. To increase the core permeability.
protection against external abrasion. c. To reduce the effects of eddy currents.
27. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the 36. One advantage of using ac electrical power in aircraft is
presence of a. that ac electrical motors can be reversed while dc
a. an out-of-round commutator. motors cannot.
b. a broken field lead. b. greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down.
c. a shorted armature. c. that the effective voltage is 1 .41 times the
28. The inductor-type inverter output voltage is controlled maximum instantaneous voltage; therefore, less
by the power input is required.
a. number of poles and the speed of the motor. 37. When necessary during operation, CSD disconnect is
b. voltage regulator. usually accomplished by
c. dc stator field current. a. a switch in the cockpit.
29. If the positive field lead between a generator and a b. circuit breaker activation.
generator control panel breaks and is shorted while the c. a shear section in the input shaft.
engine is running, a voltmeter connected to generator output 38. When a diode is checked for an open circuit or a short
would indicate circuit, it should be
a. zero voltage. a. in the circuit.
b. residual voltage. b. checked with a milliamp ammeter.
c. normal voltage. c. disconnected from the circuit.
30. During ground operation, aircraft generator cooling is 39. The circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system
usually accomplished by protects the
a. auxiliary air cooled through an air/fuel heat a. lights from too much current.
exchanger. b. wiring from too much current.
b. an integral fan. c. wiring from too much voltage.
c. an external motor-driven fan. 40. The generator rating is usually found stamped on the
31. (1) There are three basic types of dc motors; series, a. firewall.
shunt, and compound. b. generator.
 c. Engine b. changes alternating current produced in the
41. Which type of dc generator is not used as an airplane armature into direct current as it is taken from the
generator? armature.
a. Externally grounded. c. reverses the current in the field coils at the proper
b. Series wound. time in order to produce direct current.
c. Compound wound. 50. What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil
42. How many cycles of ac voltage are produced in a six- winding and the secondary coil winding of a transformer
pole alternator of the revolving-field type for each designed to triple its input voltage?
revolution of the rotor? a. Primary will have one-third as many turns as its
a. Four. secondary.
b. Three. b. Primary will have twice as many turns as its
c. Six. secondary.
43. If several long lengths of electrical cable are to be c. Primary will have three times as many turns as its
installed in rigid conduit, the possibility of damage to the secondary
cable as it is pulled through the conduit will be reduced by 51. What kind of switch should you install in a single wire
a. dusting the cable with powdered graphite. circuit that required the switch to be manually held in the
b. dusting the cable with powdered soapstone. ON position?
c. applying a light coat of dielectric grease. a. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), two-position
44. If a generator is equipped with a vibrator-type voltage normally open (NO).
regulator, the actual time the voltage regulator points remain b. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), single-
open position.
a. depends on the load carried by the generator. c. Single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), single-
b. is controlled by the reverse-current cutout relay position normally open (NO).
point clearance. 52. When using the voltage drop method of checking circuit
c. is increased when the external load is greater than resistance, the
the generator output. a. input voltage must be maintained at a constant
45. What is an important factor in selecting aircraft fuses? value.
a. The current exceeds a predetermined value. b. output voltage must be maintained at a constant
b. The voltage rating should be lower than the value.
maximum circuit voltage. c. input voltage must be varied.
c. Capacity matches the needs of the circuit. 53. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft applications
46. When dc generators are operated in parallel to supply must be what type?
power for a single load, their controls include an equalizer a. Slotted.
circuit to assure that all generators share the load equally. b. Hook.
The equalizer circuit operates by c. Ring.
a. increasing the output of the low generator to 54. The major advantages of alternating current (AC) over
equal the output of the high generator. direct current (DC) is the fact that its current and voltage
b. decreasing the output of the high generator to can easily be increased or decreased
equal the output of the low generator. a. by means of an inverter.
c. increasing the output of the low generator and b. by means of a rectifier.
decreasing the output of the high generator until c. by means of a transformer.
they are equal 55. How does the magnetic brake used to stop rotation of an
47. In installations where the ammeter is in the generator or electric motor armature operate?
alternator lead, and the regulator system does not limit the a. Centrifugal force releases a rotating brake cog
maximum current that the generator or alternator can from a stationary notch when the armature
deliver, the ammeter can be redlined at what percent of the reaches a certain speed and magnetic force re-
generator or alternator rating? engages the cog when the electrical power is
a. 50 turned off.
b. 75 b. A friction brake is applied by a magnet and
c. 100 released by a spring.
48. The method most often used in overcoming the effect of c. A friction brake is applied by a spring and
armature reaction is through the use of released by a magnet.
a. interpoles. 56. What does a rectifier do?
b. shaded poles. a. Changes direct current into alternating current.
c. drum-wound armatures in combination with a b. Changes alternating current into direct current.
negatively connected series field c. Reduces voltage.
49. The commutator of a generator 57. A series-wound dc electric motor will normally require
a. changes direct current produced in the armature a. more current at high RPM than at low RPM.
into alternating current as it is taken from the b. approximately the same current throughout its
armature. operating range of speed.
c. more current at low RPM than at high RPM.
58. (Refer to Figure 18.) Which of the batteries are b. Real power is greater than apparent power.
connected together incorrectly? c. Real power equals apparent power.
67. Aluminum wire must be stripped very carefully because
a. high resistance will develop in stripping nicks.
b. stripping nicks can cause short circuits.
c. individual strands will break easily after being
View Figure(s)
nicked.
68. The voltage output of an alternator may be regulated by
a. 1
controlling the
b. 2
a. speed of the alternator.
c. 3
b. voltage output of the dc exciter.
59. The navigation lights of some aircraft consist of a single
c. resistance in the rotor windings.
circuit controlled by a single switch which has an ON
69. Bonding connections should be tested for
position and an OFF position, with no additional positions
a. resistance value.
possible. This switch is referred to as a
b. amperage value.
a. double-pole, single-throw (DPST), two-position
c. reactance.
switch.
70. The three kinds of circuit-protection devices used most
b. single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), two-position
commonly in aircraft circuits are
switch.
a. circuit breakers, resistors, and current limiters.
c. single-pole, single-throw (S PST), two-position
b. circuit breakers, fuses, and current limiters.
switch.
c. circuit breakers, capacitors, and current limiter
60. A circuit protection device called a current limiter is
plug-ins mechanical reset types.
essentially a slow blow fuse and is designed to be used in
71. CSD driven generators are usually cooled by
a. 400 cycle AC circuits.
a. oil spray.
b. heavy power circuits.
b. an integral fan.
c. starter-generator circuits.
c. both ram air and an integral fan.
61. Oil canning of the sides of aluminum or steel electrical
72. When approved, splices may be used to repair
junction boxes is considered to be
manufactured harnesses or installed wiring. The maximum
a. normal operation in vibration prone areas.
number of splices permitted between any two connectors is
b. a shorting hazard.
a. one.
c. acceptable operation.
b. two.
62. Some electric motors have two sets of field windings
c. three.
wound in opposite directions so that the
73. What is the advantage of a current limiter?
a. speed of the motor can be more closely
a. It breaks circuit quickly.
controlled.
b. It can be reset easily.
b. power output of the motor can be more closely
c. It will take overload for a short period.
controlled.
74. The pole pieces or shoes used in a dc generator are a
c. motor can be operated in either direction.
part of the
63. When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity of a
a. armature assembly.
generator field coil, the coil should
b. field assembly.
a. be removed from the generator housing.
c. brush assembly
b. show high resistance when the meter prods are
75. When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the
connected to the terminals of the coil.
light intensity, it should be connected in
c. show very low resistance if it is a series field coil.
a. parallel with the light.
64. For general electrical use in aircraft, the acceptable
b. series with the light.
method of attaching a terminal to a wire is by
c. series parallel with the light switch.
a. crimping.
76. What is the advantage of a circuit breaker when
b. soldering.
compared to a fuse?
c. crimping and soldering.
a. Never needs replacing.
65. Which of the following are the major parts of a dc
b. Always eliminates the need of a switch.
motor?
c. Resettable and reusable.
1. Armature assembly.
77. To help minimize radio interference a capacitor will
2. Field assembly.
largely eliminate and provide a steady direct current if the
3. Brush assembly.
capacitor is connected to the generator in
4. Commutator.
a. parallel.
5. Pole piece.
b. serie
6. Rheostat.
c. series/parallel.
7. End frame.
78. How is a shunt-wound dc generator connected?
a. 1, 2, 3, 7.
a. One field is shunted across the other.
b. 2,3,4,5.
b. Both fields are shunted across the armature.
c. 3,5,6,7.
c. The field and armature are shunted with a
66. In an ac circuit with no phase lead or lag, which is true?
capacitor.
a. Real power is zero.
79. Circuits that must be operated only in an emergency or b. low voltage.
whose inadvertent activation could endanger a system c. backwards.
frequently employ 90. The strength of the core of an electromagnet depends
a. guarded switches. upon the material from which it is constructed and which of
b. push-pull-type circuit breakers only (no switches). the following?
c. spring-loaded to off toggle or rocker switches. a. The number of turns of wire in the coil and the
80. If it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it applied voltage.
may be exposed to moisture, the mechanic should b. The number of turns of wire in the coil and the
a. coat the connector with grease. amount of current (amperes) passing through the
b. use a special moisture-proof type. coil.
c. spray the connector with varnish or zinc-chromate. c. The size (cross section) and the number of turns of
81. A voltage regulator controls generator output by wire in the coil and the applied voltage.
a. introducing a resistance in generator-to-battery lead 91. What type of instrument is used for measuring very high
in the event of overload. values of resistance?
b. shorting out field coil in the event of overload. a. Megohmmeter.
c. varying current flow to generator field coil. b. Shunt-type ohmmeter.
82. To test generator or motor armature windings for opens, c. Multimeter
a. place armature in a growler and connect a 110V 92. (Refer to Figure 19.) Upon completion of the landing
test light on adjacent segments; light should light. gear extension cycle, the green light illuminated and the red
b. check adjacent segments on commutator with an light remained lit. What is the probable cause?
ohmmeter on the high resistance scale. View Figure(s)
c. use a 12/24V test light between the armature core
segments and the shaft.
83. The primary considerations when selecting electric cable
size are
a. current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage
drop. a. Short in the down limit switch.
b. the voltage and amperage of the load it must b. Short in the gear safety switch.
carry. c. Short in the up limit switch.
c. the system voltage and cable length. 93. What is the voltage drop for a No. 18 copper wire 50
84. Static inverters are electronic devices that change DC to feet long to carry 12.5 amperes, continuous operation?
AC with the Use the formula VD = RLA
a. use of an oscillator. VD = Voltage drop
b. properties of an exclusive OR gate. R = Resistance per ft = .00644
c. input from an amplifier control by integrated L = Length of wire
circuits. A = Amperes
85. An aircraft electrical circuit control relay is a. 1/2V.
a. an electronically operated switch. b. 1V
b. a device which converts electrical energy to c. 4V.
kinetic energy. 94. How should a voltmeter be connected?
c. any conductor which receives electrical energy a. In series with the source.
and passes it on with little or no resistance. b. In parallel with the load.
86. How are generators rated? c. In series with the load.
a. Watts at rated voltage. 95. The poles of a generator are laminated to
b. Amperes at rated voltage. a. reduce flux losses.
c. The impedance at rated voltage. b. increase flux concentration.
87. What is the most accurate type of frequency-measuring c. reduce eddy current losses
instrument? 96. When selecting hardware for attaching bonding
a. Integrated circuit chip having a clock circuit. connections to an aircraft structure, which of the following
b. Electrodynamometers using electromagnetic fields. should be considered?
c. Electromagnets using one permanent magnet. 1. Mechanical strength.
88. When considering an alteration, the criteria upon which 2. Allowable power loss.
the selection of electric cable size should be based are 3. Ease of installation.
a. applied voltage and allowable voltage drop. 4. Permissible voltage drop.
b. current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage 5. Amount of current to be carried.
drop. 6. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).
c. current-carrying capacity and applied voltage. a. 1, 3 , 5
89. If the (+) terminal of a voltmeter is connected to the (-) b. 4, 5, 6
terminal of the source voltage and the (-) terminal of the c. 1, 3, 3
meter is connected to the (+) terminal of the source voltage, 97. An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the
the voltmeter will read purpose of indicating the
a. correctly. a. amperage available for use.
 b. total amperes being used in the airplane. a. the component has continuity and is open.
c. rate of current used to charge the battery b. either the component or the circuit is shorted.
98. The overvoltage control automatically protects the c. the component has continuity and is not open.
generator system when excessive voltage is present by 108. During inspection of the terminal strips of an aircraft
a. opening the shunt field circuit. electrical system, it should be determined that
b. opening and resetting the field control relay. a. only locknuts have been used for terminal
c. breaking a circuit to the trip coil of the field control attachment to the studs.
relay. b. the terminal studs are anchored against rotation.
99. To what depth is the mica insulation between the c. only plain nuts and lockwashers have been used
commutator bars of a dc generator undercut? for terminal attachment to the studs.
a. One-half the width of the mica. 109. The type of electric wire terminals used for most
b. Equal to twice the width of the mica. aircraft applications, in addition to providing good current
c. Equal to the width of the mica. carrying capabilities, are designed primarily
100. If anyone generator in a 24-volt dc system shows low a. To prevent circuit failure due to terminal
voltage, the most likely cause is disconnection.
a. an out-of-adjustment voltage regulator. b. for uncomplicated and rapid circuit connection
b. shorted or grounded wiring. and disconnection.
c. a defective reverse current cutout relay. c. for permanent connection to the circuit.
101. During inspection of an anti-collision light installation 110. If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact with
for condition and proper operation, it should be determined some moving parts, what protection should be given the
that wire?
a. electrical or mechanical interconnections are a. Wrap with soft wire solder into a shield.
provided so that the anti-collision light will operate b. Wrap with friction tape.
at c. Pass through conduit.
b. all times that the position light switch is in the ON 111. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of
position. interpoles in a generator?
an appropriately rated fuse is in position at the light a. Reduce field strength.
to protect the connecting wiring against electrical b. Overcome armature reaction.
faults. c. Reduce arcing at the brushes.
c. the anti-collision light can be operated 112. In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit
independently of the position lights. breakers
102. Aircraft electrical junction boxes located in a fire zone a. Should not be used as circuit protective devices.
are usually constructed of b. Are useful where only temporary overloads are
a. asbestos. normally encountered.
b. cadmium-plated steel. c. Must be used in all circuits essential to safe
c. stainless steel. operation of the aircraft.
103. What is a method used for restoring generator field 113. If the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) scavenge oil
residual magnetism? filter is contaminated with metal, you should
a. Flash the fields. a. do an oil analysis to diagnose the problem.
b. Reseat the brushes. b. remove and replace the IDG.
c. Energize the armature. c. replace the oil and filter at 25 hour intervals.
104. Integrated drive generators (IDG) employ a type of 114. Aircraft which operate only ac generators (alternators)
high output ac generator that utilizes as a primary source of electrical power normally provide
a. brushes and slip rings to carry generated dc current suitable for battery charging through the use of
exciter current to the rotating field. a. a stepdown transformer and a rectifier.
b. battery current to excite the field. b. an inverter and a voltage-dropping resistor.
c. a brushless system to produce current. c. a dyna motor with a half-wave dc output.
105. How does the routing of coaxial cables differ from the 115. A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft electrical
routing of electrical wiring? system primarily to protect the
a. Coaxial cables are routed parallel with stringers or a. circuit and should be located as close to the
ribs. source as possible.
b. Coaxial cables are routed at right angles to b. circuit and should be located as close to the unit
stringers or ribs. as possible.
c. Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible. c. electrical unit in the circuit and should be located
106 What protection to wires and cables does conduit as close to the source as possible.
provide when used in aircraft installations? 116. What is the maximum amount of time a circuit can be
a. Electromagnetic. in operation and still be an intermittent duty circuit?
b. Mechanical. a. Three minutes.
c. Structural. b. Two minutes.
107. In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if an ohmmeter c. One minute.
is properly connected across a circuit component and some
value of resistance is read,
117. The only practical method of maintaining a constant 127. Electric wiring installed in aircraft without special
voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying enclosing means (open wiring) offers the advantages of ease
conditions of speed and load is to vary the of installation, simple maintenance, and reduced weight.
a. strength of the magnetic field. When bundling open wiring, the bundles should
b. number of conductors in the armature. a. be limited as to the number of cables to
c. speed at which the armature rotates. minimize damage from a single electrical fault.
118. The pin section of an AN/MS connector is normally b. include at least one shielded cable to provide
installed on good bonding of the bundle to the airframe.
a. the power supply side of a circuit. c. be limited to a minimum bend radius of five
b. the ground side of a circuit. times the bundle diameter to avoid excessive
c. either side of a circuit (makes no difference). stresses on the cable insulation.
119. Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal 128. A CSD unit that is disconnected in flight, due to a
runaway in a nickel- cadmium battery? malfunction such as over temperature, may be reconnected
a. A high internal resistance condition. a. automatically if the temperature falls back into
b. Excessive current draw from the battery. the normal operating range.
c. Constant current charging of the battery to more b. manually by the flight crew.
than 100 percent of its capacity. c. only on the ground by maintenance personnel.
120. How can the direction of rotation of a dc electric motor 129. AN/MS electrical connectors are specifically designed
be changed? to meet
a. Interchange the wires which connect the motor a. Technical Standard Order (TSO) specifications.
to the external power source. b. military specifications.
b. Reverse the electrical connections to either the c. International Civil Aviation Organization
field or armature windings. (ICAO) standards.
c. Rotate the positive brush one commutator 130. The voltage in an ac transformer secondary that
segment. contains twice as many loops as the primary will be
121. The most common method of attaching a pin or socket a. greater and the amperage less than in the
to an individual wire in an MS electrical connector is by primary.
a. crimping. b. greater and the amperage greater than in the
b. soldering. primary.
c. crimping and soldering. c. less and the amperage greater than in the
122. What is the frequency of an alternator dependent upon? primary.
a. Voltage. 131. How should the splices be arranged if several are to be
b. RPM. located in an electrical wire bundle?
c. Current. a. Staggered along the length of the bundle.
123. In a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to b. Grouped together to facilitate inspection.
the brush guides caused by the movement of the brushes c. Enclosed in a conduit.
within the holder? 132. A CSD unit drives a generator through the use of
a. The brush pigtail. a. a synchronous electric motor.
b. Brush spring tension. b. an infinitely variable mechanical gearing system.
c. Undercutting the mica on the commutator. c. a variable hydraulic pump and hydraulic motor.
124. A certain switch is described as a single-pole, double-
throw switch (SPDT). The throw of a switch indicates the
number of AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
a. circuits each pole can complete through the
switch. 1. Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures are
b. terminals at which current can enter or leave the measured by using
switch. a. Iron/constantan thermocouples.
c. places at which the operating device (toggle, b. chromel/alumel thermocouples.
plunger, etc.) will come to rest and at the same c. Ratiometer electrical resistance
time open or close a circuit. thermometers.
125. A voltage regulator controls generator voltage by 2. Which of the following causes of aircraft magnetic
changing the compass inaccuracies may be compensated for by
a. resistance in the generator output circuit. mechanics?
b. current in the generator output circuit. a. Deviation.
c. resistance of the generator field circuit. b. Magnetic compass current.
126. The starting current of a series-wound dc motor, in c. Variation.
passing through both the field and armature windings, 3. When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS are
produces a displayed on an HSI, the indication is
a. low starting torque. a. that function is inoperative.
b. speed slightly higher when unloaded. b. that function is operating.
c. high starting torque.
 c. to call attention to deviation from the a. Dry-type vacuum pumps with carbon
desired setting, or flight path, or heading, vanes are very susceptible to damage
etc. from solid airborne particles and must
4. Which instruments are connected to an aircraft’s take in only filtered air.
static pressure system only? b. Vacuum systems are generally more
1. Vertical speed indicator. effective at high altitudes than positive
2. Cabin altimeter. pressure systems.
3. Altimeter. c. If the air inlet to each vacuum
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. instrument is connected to a common
5. Airspeed indicator. atmospheric pressure manifold, the
a. 1 and 3. system generally will be equipped with
b. 2, 4, and 5. individual instrument filters only
c. 2 and 4. 13. What marking color is used to indicate if a cover
5. Which of the following instruments will normally glass has slipped?
have range markings? a. Red.
a. Altimeter. b. White.
b. Cylinder head temperature gauge, c. Yellow.
airspeed indicator. 14. When performing the static system leakage check
c. Altimeter, airspeed indicator required by Section 91.411, the technician utilizes
6. Which instrument condition is acceptable and a. Static pressure.
would not require correction? b. Positive pressure.
1. Red line missing. c. Negative pressure.
2. Case leaking. 15. When an unpressurized aircraft’s static pressure
3. Glass cracked. system is leak checked to comply with the
4. Mounting screws loose. requirements of Section 91.411, what aircraft
5. Case paint chipped. instrument maybe used in lieu of a pitot-static
6. Leaking at line B nut. system tester?
7. Will not zero out. 1. Vertical speed indicator.
8. Fogged. 2. Cabin altimeter.
a. 1 3. Altimeter.
b. 5 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
c. None 5. Airspeed indicator.
7. The maximum altitude loss permitted during an a. 1 or 5.
unpressurized aircraft b. 2 or 4.
instrument static pressure system integrity check is c. 3
a. 50 feet in 1 minute. 16. How is a flangeless instrument case mounted in an
b. 200 feet in 1 minute. instrument panel?
c. 100 feet in 1 minute. a. By four machine screws which extend
8. A radar altimeter indicates through the instrument panel.
a. flight level (pressure) altitude. b. By an expanding-type clamp secured to
b. altitude above sea level. the back of the panel and tightened by a
c. altitude above ground level. screw from the front of the instrument
9. The operating mechanism of most hydraulic panel.
pressure gauges is c. By a metal shelf separate from and
a. a Bourdon tube. located behind the instrument panel.
b. an airtight diaphragm. 17. Which of the following instrument discrepancies
c. an evacuated bellows filled with an inert could be corrected by an aviation mechanic?
gas to which suitable arms, levers, and 1. Red line missing.
gears are attached. 2. Case leaking.
10. Which condition would be most likely to cause 3. Glass cracked.
excessive vacuum in a vacuum system? 4. Mounting screws loose.
a. Vacuum pump overspeed. 5. Case paint chipped.
b. Vacuum relief valve improperly 6. Leaking at line B nut.
adjusted. 7. Will not adjust.
c. Vacuum relief valve spring weak. 8. Fogged.
11. Data transmitted between components in an EFIS a. 1, 4, 6.
are converted into b. 3,4,5,6.
a. digital signals. c. 1,4,5,6.
b. analog signals. 18. Who is authorized to repair an aircraft instrument?
c. carrier wave signals. 1. A certified mechanic with an airframe rating.
12. Which statement regarding an aircraft instrument 2. A certificated repairman with an airframe rating.
vacuum system is true? 3. A certificated repair station approved for that
 class instrument. a. Bonding straps must be installed
4. A certificated airframe repair station. across the instrument mounts as a
a. 1,2,3 and 4 current path.
b. 3 and 4 b. The instrument mounts must be
c. 3 grounded to the aircraft structure as a
19. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to current path.
indicate c. The instrument mounts must be
1. pressure. tightened to the specified torque
2. temperature. required by the maintenance manual.
3. position. 28. What does a reciprocating engine manifold
a. 1 and 2. pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not
b. 1 operating?
c. 2 and 3 a. Zero pressure.
20. How would an airspeed indicator be marked to b. The differential between the manifold
show the best rate-of-climb speed (one engine pressure and the atmospheric pressure.
inoperative)? c. The existing atmospheric pressure.
a. A red radial line. 29. Fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit
b. A blue radial line. data
c. A green arc. a. mechanically.
21. The requirements for testing and inspection of b. electrically.
instrument static systems required by Section 91 c. utilizing fluid power.
.411 are contained in 30. The function of a symbol generator (SG) in an [FIS
a. Type Certificate Data Sheets. is to
b. AC 43.13-lA. a. display alphanumeric data and
c. Part 43, appendix E. representations of aircraft instruments.
22. When an aircraft altimeter is set at 29.92” Hg on b. allow the pilot to select the appropriate
the ground, the altimeter will read system configuration for the current
a. pressure altitude. flight situation.
b. density altitude. c. receive and process input signals from
c. field elevation. aircraft and engine sensors and send the
23. Cases for electrically operated instruments are data to the appropriate display.
made of 31. The maximum deviation (during level flight)
a. Aluminum or composite cases. permitted in a compensated
b. Iron or steel cases. magnetic direction indicator installed on an aircraft
c. Bakelite or plastic cases. certificated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part
24. A certificated mechanic with airframe and 23 is
powerplant ratings may a. 6 degrees
a. perform minor repairs to aircraft b. 8 degrees
instruments. c. 10 degrees
b. perform minor repairs and minor 32. The function of a CRT in an EFIS is to
alterations to aircraft instruments. a. allow the pilot to select the
c. not perform repairs to aircraft instruments. appropriate system configuration for
25. How many of the following are controlled by the current flight situation.
gyroscopes? b. display alphanumeric data and
1. Attitude indicator. representations of aircraft instruments.
2. Heading indicator. c. receive and process input signals from
3. Turn needle of the turn-and-slip indicator. aircraft and engine sensors and send
a. Three. the data to the appropriate display.
b. Two. 33. Which instruments are connected to an aircraft’s
c. One. pitot-static system?
26. What will be the result if the instrument static 1. Vertical speed indicator.
pressure line becomes 2. Cabin altimeter.
disconnected inside a pressurized cabin during 3. Altimeter.
cruising flight? 4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator.
a. The altimeter and airspeed indicator 5. Airspeed indicator.
will both read low. a. 1,2,3,4, and 5.
b. The altimeter and airspeed indicator b. 1,2, and 4.
will both read high. c. 1,3, and 5.
c. The altimeter will read low and the 34. When installing an instrument in an aircraft, who
airspeed indicator will read high. is responsible for making sure it is properly
27. What must be done to an instrument panel that is marked?
supported by shock mounts? a. The aircraft owner.
 b. The instrument installer. specified by Title 14 of the Code of Federal
c. The instrument manufacturer. Regulations but are standardized by aircraft
35. If a static pressure system check reveals excessive manufacturers.
leakage, the leak(s) maybe located by Regarding the above statements,
a. pressurizing the system and adding leak a. only No. 1 is true.
detection dye. b. only No. 2 is true.
b. isolating portions of the line and testing c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
each portion systematically starting at 43. The operation of an angle-of-attack indicating
the instrument connections. system is based on detectionof differential pressure
c. removing and visually inspecting the at a point where the airstream flows in a direction
line segments. a. not parallel to the true angle of attack
36. A turn coordinator instrument indicates of the aircraft.
a. the longitudinal attitude of the aircraft b. parallel to the angle of attack of the
during climb and descent. aircraft.
b. the need for corrections in pitch and c. parallel to the longitudinal axis of the
bank. aircraft.
c. both roll and yaw. 44. Resistance-type temperature indicators using
37. A radar altimeter determines altitude by Wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuits may be
a. transmitting a signal and receiving back used to indicate the temperatures of which of the
a reflected signal. fo1lowing?
b. receiving signals transmitted from 1. Free air.
ground radar stations. 2. Exhaust gas temperature.
c. means of transponder interrogation. 3. Carburetor air.
38. Where may a person look for the information 4. Coolant (engine).
necessary to determine the 5. Oil temperature.
required markings on an engine instrument? 6. Cylinder head temperature.
1. Engine manufacturer’s specifications. a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.
2. Aircraft flight manual. b. 1,3, 4,and 5.
3. Instrument manufacturer’s specifications. c. 1,2,3 and 6.
4. Aircraft maintenance manual. 45. Instrument panel shock mounts absorb
a. 2 or 4. a. high energy impact shocks caused by
b. 1 or 4. hard landings.
c. 2 or 3. b. low frequency, high-amplitude shocks.
39. Aircraft temperature thermocouple leads may c. high G shock loads imposed by
a. not be altered and are designed for a turbulent air.
specific installation. 46. Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid to
b. be installed with either lead to either a. retard precession of the float.
post of the indicator. b. reduce deviation errors.
c. be repaired using solderless connectors. c. dampen the oscillation of the float.
40. What is the fixed line mark attached to the compass 47. The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge
bowl of a magnetic indicates
compass called? a. the instrument is not calibrated.
a. Reeder line. b. the desirable temperature range.
b. Lubber line. c. a low, unsafe temperature range.
c. Reference line. 48. Which of the following instrument discrepancies
41. Instrument static system leakage can be detected by would require replacement of the instrument?
observing the rate of change in indication of the 1. Red line missing.
a. airspeed indicator after suction has been 2. Case leaking.
applied to the static system to cause a 3. Glass cracked.
prescribed equivalent airspeed to be 4. Mounting screws loose.
indicated. 5. Case paint chipped.
b. altimeter after pressure has been 6. Leaking at line B nut.
applied to the static system to cause a 7. Will not zero out.
prescribed equivalent altitude to be 8. Fogged.
indicated. a. 2,3,7,8.
c. altimeter after suction has been applied b. 1,4,6,7.
to the static system to cause a c. 1, 3,5,8.
prescribed equivalent altitude to be 49. Aircraft instrument value should be marked and
indicated. graduated in accordance with
42. (1) Aircraft instruments are color-coded to direct a. the instrument manufacturer’s
attention to operational ranges and limitations. specifications.
(2) Aircraft instruments range markings are not
 b. both the aircraft and engine c. receive and process input signals from
manufacturers’ specifications. aircraft and engine sensors and send
c. the specific aircraft maintenance or the data to the appropriate display.
flight manual. 60. The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to
50. When swinging a magnetic compass, the a. represent the nose of the aircraft.
compensators are adjusted to correct for b. align the instrument glass in the case.
a. magnetic influence deviation. c. represent the wings of the aircraft.
b. compass card oscillations. 61. Aircraft instrument panels are generally shock-
c. magnetic variations. mounted to absorb
51. Which procedure should you use if you find a a. all vibration.
vacuum-operated instrument glass loose? b. low-frequency, high-amplitude shocks.
a. Mark the case and glass with a slippage c. high-frequency, high-ampl itude
mark. shocks.
b. Replace the glass.
c. Install another instrument. ENGINE INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
52. An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded
to the aircraft structure to 1. On a twin engine aircraft with fuel-injected
a. Act as a restraint strap.
reciprocating engines, one fuel-flow indicator reads
b. provide current return paths
c. Aid in the panel installation. considerably higher than the other in all engine
53. A certificated mechanic may perform operating configurations. What is the probable
a. minor repairs to instruments. cause of this indication?
b. 100-hour inspections of instruments. a. Carburetor icing
c. instrument overhaul. b. One more fuel nozzles are clogged
54. A synchro transmitter is connected to a synchro
c. Alternate air door stuck open
receiver
2. The principal fault in the pressure type fuel
a. mechanically through linkage.
b. electromagnetically without wires. flowmeter indicating system, installed on a
c. electrically with wires. horizontally opposed continuous-flow fuel injected
55. The red radial lines on the face of an engine oil aircraft reciprocating engine, is that a plugged fuel
pressure gauge indicates injection nozzle will cause a
a. minimum engine safe RPM operating a. Normal operation indication
range. b. Lower than normal fuel flow indication
b. minimum precautionary safe operating
c. Higher than normal fuel flow indication
range.
c. minimum and! or maximum safe 3. A manifold pressure gauge is designed to
operating limits. a. Maintain constant pressure in the intake
56. A barometric altimeter indicates pressure altitude manifold
when the barometric scale is set at b. Indicate differential pressure between the
a. 29.92” Hg. intake manifold and atmospheric pressure
b. 14.7” Hg. c. Indicate absolute pressure in the intake
c. field elevation.
57. The method of mounting aircraft instruments in manifold
their respective panels 4. A complete break in the line between the manifold
depends on the pressure gauge and the induction system will be
a. instrument manufacturer. indicated by the gauge registering
b. design of the instrument case. a. Prevailing atmospheric pressure
c. design of the instrument panel. b. Zero
58. An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to up-date
c. Lower than normal for conditions prevailing
the compass correction card when
a. an annual inspection is accomplished 5. Thermocouple leads
on the aircraft. a. May be installed with either lead to either post
b. the compass is serviced. of the indicator
c. equipment is added that could effect b. Are designed for a specific installation and
compass deviation. may not be altered
59. The function of a display controller in an EFIS is to c. May be repaired using solderless connectors
a. display alphanumeric data and
6. The EGT gauge used with reciprocating engines is
representations of aircraft instruments.
b. allow the pilot to select the primarily used to furnish temperature readings in
appropriate system configuration for order to
the current flight situation. a. Obtain the best mixture setting for fuel
efficiency
 b. Obtain the best mixture setting for engine a. An electrical signal
cooling b. Direct coupling to the motor shaft
c. Prevent engine over temperature c. A mechanical gear train
7. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the 15. (1) Powerplant instrument range markings show
temperature of the oil whether the current state of powerplant operation is
a. Entering the oil cooler normal, acceptable for a limited time, or
b. Entering the engine unauthorized.
c. In the oil storage tank (2) Powerplant instrument range makings are based
8. Basically, the indicator of a tachometer system is are based on installed engine operating limits
responsive to change in which may not exceed (but necessarily equal to)
a. Current flow those limits shown on the engine Type Certificate
b. Frequency Data Sheet.
c. voltage Regarding the above statements,
9. The purpose of an exhaust gas analyzer is to a. Both No. 1 & No. 2 are true
indicate the b. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 Is true
a. Brake specific fuel consumption c. Only No. 1 is true
b. Fuel/air ratio being burned in the cylinders 16. A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine
c. Temperature of the exhaust gases in the instrument face or glass indicates
exhaust manifold a. The maximum operating limit of all normal
10. Instruments that provide readings of low or operations
negative pressure, such as manifold pressure b. The maximum limit for high transients such as
gauges, are usually what type? starting
a. Vane with calibrated spring c. A restricted operating range
b. Bourdon tube 17. The exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator on a
c. Diaphragm or bellows gas turbine engine provides a relative indication of
11. Engine pressure ratio is determined by the
a. Multiplying engine inlet total pressure by a. Exhaust temperature
turbine outlet total pressure b. Temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass
b. Dividing turbine outlet total pressure by the exhaust con
engine inlet total pressure c. Turbine inlet temperature
c. Dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine 18. In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge
outlet total pressure pressure indicator sensor located?
12. Which of the following instrument discrepancies a. At the aft end of the compressor section
require replacement of the instrument? b. At a location in the exhaust cone that is
1. Red line missing from glass determined to be subjected to the highest
2. Glass cracked pressures
3. Case paint chipped c. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage
4. Will not zero out 19. An indication of unregulated power changes that
5. Pointer loose on shaft result in continual drift of manifold pressure
6. Mounting screw loose indication on a turbosupercharged aircraft engine is
7. Leaking at line B nut known as
8. Fogged a. Overshoot
a. 2,3,7,8 b. Waste gate fluctuation
b. 2,4,5,8 c. Bootstrapping
c. 1,2,4,7 20. (1) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the
13. On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a exhaust gas pressure to the engine inlet air
constant power, the application of engine anti-icing pressure, and indicates the thrust produced.
will result in (2) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the
a. Noticeable shift in EPR exhaust gas pressure in the engine inlet air
b. A false EPR reading pressure, and indicates volumetric efficiency.
c. An increase in EPR Regarding the above statements,
14. The fuel-flow indicator rotor and needle for a a. Only No. 1 is true
motor-impeller and turbine indicating system is b. Only No. 2 is true
driven by c. Bothe No. 1 & No. 2 are true
21. Which unit most accurately indicates fuel c. Frequency
consumption of reciprocating engine? 31. A bourdon-tube instrument may be used to indicate
a. Fuel flowmeter 1. Pressure
b. Fuel pressure gauge 2. Temperature
c. Electronic fuel quantity indicator 3. Position
22. What basic meter is used to indicate cylinder head 4. Quantity
temperature in most aircraft? a. 1 and 2
a. Electrodynamometer b. 1 and 3
b. Galvanometer c. 2 and 4
c. Thermocouple-type meter 32. A complete break in the line between the manifold
23. What instrument indicates the thrust of a gas pressure gauge and the induction system will be
turbine engine? indicated by the gauge registering
a. Exhaust gas temperature indicator a. Prevailing atmospheric pressure
b. Turbine inlet temperature indicator b. Zero
c. Engine pressure ratio indicator c. Lower than normal for conditions prevailing
24. What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on 33. Instruments that measure relatively high fluid
an axial-compressor turbine engine? pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually
a. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions what type?
b. It is the most accurate instrument for a. Vane with calibrated spring
establishing thrust settings under all conditions b. Bourdon tube
c. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to c. Diaphragm or bellows
indicate overspeed conditions 34. The fuel-flow indication system used with many
25. In an aircraft equipped with a pressure-drop type fuel-injected opposed engine airplanes utilizes a
fuel-flow indicating system, if one of the injector measure of
nozzles becomes restricted, this would cause a a. Fuel flow volume
decrease in fuel flow with b. Fuel pressure
a. A decreased fuel flow indication on the gauge c. Fuel flow mass
b. An increased fuel flow indication on the gauge 35. The fuel flowmeter used with a continuous-fuel
c. No change in fuel flow indication on the gauge injection system installed on an aircraft
26. If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently horizontally opposed reciprocating engines
crossed at installation, what would the cylinder measures the fuel pressure drop across the
temperature gauge pointer indicate? a. manifold valve
a. Normal temperature for prevailing condition b. fuel nozzles
b. Moves off-scale on the zero side of the meter c. metering valve
c. Moves off-scale on the high side of the meter 36. What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be
27. A common type of electrically operated oil monitored to minimize the possibility of a “hot”
temperature gauge utilizes start?
a. Either wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit a. RPM indicator
b. A thermocouple type circuit b. Turbine inlet temperature
c. Vapor pressure and pressure switches c. Torquemeter
28. Jet engine thermocouples are usually constructed 37. Where are the hot and cold junctions located in an
of engine cylinder temperature indicating system?
a. Chromel-alumel a. Both junctions are located at the instrument
b. Iron-constantan b. Both junctions are located at the cylinder
c. Alumel-constantan c. The hot junction is located at the cylinder and
29. Which of the following is a primary engine the cold junction is located at the instrument
instrument? 38. The engine pressure ratio (ERP) indicator is a
a. Tachometer direct indication of
b. Fuel flowmeter a. Engine thrust being produced
c. Airspeed indicator b. Pressure ratio between the font and aft end of
30. The RPM indication of a synchronous ac motor- the compressor
tachometer is governed by the generator c. Ratio of engine RPM to compressor pressure
a. Voltage 39. What unit in a tachometer system sends
b. Current information to the indicator?
 a. The three-phase ac generator 47. A change in engine manifold pressure has a direct
b. The two-phase ac generator effect on the
c. The synchronous motor a. Piston displacement
40. In regard to using a turbine engine oil analysis b. Compression ratio
program, which of the following is NOT true? c. Mean effective cylinder pressure
a. Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be 48. Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio
made after an engine’s first oil sample analysis between the
b. It is best to start an oil analysis program on an a. Aft end of the compressor and the aft end of
engine when it is new the turbine
c. A successful oil analysis program should be b. Front of the compressor and the rear of the
run over an engine’s total operating life so that turbine
normal trends can be established c. Front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the
41. Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow compressor
transmitters are designed to transmit data 49. Which of the following instrument conditions is
a. Using aircraft electrical system power acceptable and does not require immediate
b. Mechanically correction?
c. By fuel pressure 1. Red line missing
42. The fuel-flow indication data sent from motor 2. Pointer loose on shaft
driven impeller and turbine, and motorless type 3. Glass cracked
fuel flow transmitters is a measure of 4. Mounting screws loose
a. Fuel mass-flow 5. Case paint chipped
b. Fuel volume-flow 6. Leaking at line B nut
c. Engine burner pressure drop 7. Will not zero out
43. What would be the possible cause if a gas turbine 8. Fogged
engine has high exhaust gas temperature, high fuel a. 1
flow, and low RPM at all engine power settings? b. 4
a. Fuel control out of adjustment c. 5
b. Loose or corroded thermocouple 50. Which statement is correct concerning a
c. Turbine damage or loss of turbine efficiency thermocouple-type temperature indicating
44. Why do helicopters require a minimum of two instrument system?
synchronous tachometer systems? a. It is a balanced-type, variable resistor circuit
a. One indicates engine RPM and the other tail b. It requires no external power source
rotor RPM c. It usually contains a balancing circuit in the
b. One indicates main rotor RPM and the other instrument case to prevent fluctuations of the
tail rotor RPM system voltage from affecting the temperature
c. One indicates engine RPM and the other main reading
rotor RPM 51. The indication on a thermocouple-type cylinder
45. (1) Generally, when a turbine engine indicates high head temperature indicator is produced by
EGT for a particular EPR (when there is no a. Resistance changes in two dissimilar metals
significant damage), it means that the engine is out b. A difference in the voltage between two
of trim dissimilar metals
(2) Some turbine-powered aircraft use RPM as the c. A current generated by the temperature
primary indicator of thrust produced, others use difference between dissimilar metal hot and
EPR as the primary indicator cold junctions
Regarding the above statements, 52. Which statement is true regarding a thermocouple-
a. Only No. 1 is true type cylinder head temperature measuring system?
b. Only No. 2 is true a. The resistance required for cylinder head
c. Both No. 1 and No.2 is true temperature indicators is measured in farads
46. In what units are turbine engine tachometers b. The voltage output of a thermocouple system
calibrated? is determined by the temperature difference
a. Percent of engine RPM between the two ends of the thermocouple
b. Actual engine RPM c. When the master switch is turned on, a
c. Percent of engine pressure ratio thermocouple indicator will move off-scale to
the low side
 53. Which of the following types of electric motors are c. 52-1/2 inches
commonly used in electric tachometers? 6. Which statement (s) about Military Standard (MS)
a. Direct current, series-wound motors flareless fittings is/are correct?
b. Synchronous motors 1. During installation, MS flareless fittings are
c. Direct current, shunt-wound motors normally tightened by turning the nut a
54. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel specified amount, rather than being torqued
system (CFS) with a totalizer-indicator provides 2. New MS flareless tubing/fittings should be
indication of how many of the following? assembled clean and dry without lubrication
1. Fuel flow rate 3. During installation, MS flareless fittings are
2. Fuel used since reset or initial start-up normally tightened by applying a specified
3. Fuel time remaining at current power setting torque to the nut
4. Fuel temperature a. 1
a. Two b. 1 and 2
b. Three c. 3
c. Four 7. Which statement is true regarding flattening of
tubing in bends?
a. Flattening by a maximum of 20 percent of the
FLUID LINES & FITTINGS original diameter is permissible
b. Flattening by not more than 25 percent of the
1. Flexible lines must be installed with original diameter is permissible
a. A slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length c. The small diameter portion in the bend cannot
b. A slack of at least 10 to 12 percent of the exceed more than 75 percent of the diameter of
length straight tubing
c. Enough slack to allow maximum flexing 8. From the following sequences of steps, indicate the
during operation proper order you would use to make a single flare
2. Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a localized on a piece of tubing
area to such an extent that repair is necessary, may 1. Place the tube in the proper size hole in the
be repaired flaring block
a. By cutting out the damaged area and utilizing 2. Project the end of the tube slightly from the
a swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends top of the flaring tool, about the thickness of a
b. Only by replacing the tubing section run dime
(connection to connection) using the same 3. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the tube
size and material as the original 4. Strike the plunger several light blows with a
c. By cutting out the damaged section and lightweight hammer or mallet and turn the
soldering in a replacement section of tubing plunger one-half turn after each blow
3. Rolling-type flaring Tools are used to flare X, X, 5. Tightened the clamp bar securely to prevent
and X tubing slippage
a. Stainless steel, hard copper, mild steel 6. Center the plunger or flaring pin over the tube
b. Titanium, soft copper, corrosion resistant steel a. 1,3,5,2,4,6
c. Soft copper, aluminum, brass b. 3,1,6,2,5,4
4. If a flared tube coupling nut is overtightened, c. 3,1,2,6,5,4
where is the tube most likely to be 9. A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN
weakened/damaged? is
a. Along the entire length of the sleeve and tube a. A dual-purpose pneumatic and/or hydraulic
interface line for normal and emergency system use
b. At the edge of the sleeve and straight portion b. Used to carry a hazardous substance
of the tube c. A pneumatic or hydraulic system drain or
c. At the sleeve and flare junction discharge line
5. The maximum distance between end fittings to 10. Which coupling nut should be selected for use with
which a straight hose assembly is to be connected ½ -inch aluminum oil lines which are to be
is 50 inches. The minimum hose length to make assembled using flared tube ends and standard AN
such a connection should be nuts, sleeves, and fittings?
a. 54-1/2 inches a. AN-818-5
b. 51-1/2 inches b. AN-818-16
 c. AN-818-8 a. Outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments
11. Which statement concerning Bernoulli’s principle b. Inside diameter in 1/16 inch increments
is true? c. Outside diameter in 1/32 inch increments
a. The pressure of a fluid increases at points 19. (1) Bonded clamps are used for support when
where the velocity of the fluid increases installing metal tubing
b. The pressure of a fluid decreases at points (2) Unbonded clamps are used for support when
where the velocity of the fluid increases installing wiring
c. It applies only to gases and vaporized liquids Regarding the above statements,
12. In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two-piece tube a. Only No.1 is true
connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used b. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
when a tubing flare is required. The use of this type c. Neither o.1 nor No.2 is true
connector eliminates 20. What is an advantage of a double flare on
a. The flaring operation prior to assembly aluminum tubing?
b. The possibility of reducing the flare thickness a. Ease of construction
by wiping or ironing during the tightening b. More resistant to damage when the joint is
process tightened
c. Wrench damage to the tubing during the c. Can be applied to any size and wall-thickness
tightening process of tubing
13. Which of the following hose materials are 21. A 3/8 aircraft high pressure flexible hose as
compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic compared to 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same
fluids? system will
1. Butyl a. Have higher flow capabilities
2. Teflon b. Have equivalent flow characteristics
3. Buna-N c. Usually have interchangeable applications
4. Neoprene 22. When flaring aluminum tubing for use AN fittings,
a. 1 and 2 the flare angle must be
b. 2 and 4 a. 37°
c. 1 and 3 b. 39°
14. The primary purpose of providing suitable bends in c. 45°
fluid and pneumatic metal tubing runs is to 23. Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of
a. Clear obstacle and make turns in aircraft aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are
structures no deeper than
b. Provides for access within aircraft structures a. 20 percent of the wall thickness
c. Prevent excessing stress on the tubing b. 1/32 inch or 20 percent of wall thickness,
15. What is the color of an AN steel flared-tube fitting whichever is less
a. Black c. 10 percent of the wall thickness
b. Blue 24. When installing bonded clamps to support metal
c. Red tubing
16. The material specifications for a certain aircraft a. Paint removal from tube is not recommended
require that a replacement oil line be fabricated as it will inhibit corrosion
from 3/4 –inch 0.072 5052-0 aluminum alloy b. Paint clamp and tube after clamp installation
tubing. What is the inside dimension of this tubing? to prevent corrosion
a. 0.606 inch c. Remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp
b. 0.688 inch location
c. 0.750 inch 25. Which of the following statements is true regarding
17. Which tubings have the characteristics (high minimum allowable bend radii for 1.5 inches OD
strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for use in a or less aluminum alloy and steel tubing of the same
high-pressure (3,000 PSI) hydraulic system for size?
operation of landing gear and flaps? a. The minimum radius for steel is greater than
a. 2024-T or 5052-0 aluminum alloy for aluminum
b. Corrosion-resistant steel annealed or 1/4H b. The minimum radius for steel is less than for
c. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2 H aluminum alloy aluminum
18. Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness c. The minimum radius is the same both steel and
and aluminum
26. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing c. Exceed 10 percent of the tube OD on a straight
caused by expansion and contraction due to section
temperature changes can best be avoided by 32. A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible
a. Using short, straight sections of tubing hose during installation because, when under
between fixed parts of the aircraft pressure, it
b. Using tubing of the same material as the a. Expands in length and diameter
majority of the adjoining structure b. Expands in length and contracts in diameter
c. Providing bends in the tubing c. Contracts in length and expands in diameter
27. Which statement is true regarding the variety of 33. In a metal tubing installation,
symbols utilized on the identifying color-code a. Rigid straight line runs are preferable
bands that are currently used on aircraft plumbing b. Tension is undesirable because pressurization
lines will cause it to expand and shift
a. symbols are composed of various single colors c. A tube may be pulled in line if the nut will
according to line content start on the threaded coupling
b. symbols are always black against a white 34. The best tool to use when cutting aluminum tubing,
background regardless of line content or any tubing of moderately soft metal is a
c. symbols are composed of one to three a. Hand operated wheel-type cutter
contrasting colors according to line content b. Fine-tooth hacksaw
28. Which of the following statements is/are correct in c. Circular-saw equipped with an abrasive
reference to flare fittings? cutting wheel
1. AN fittings have an identifying shoulder 35. Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified
between the end of the threads and the flare in size according to the
cone a. Outside diameter
2. AC and AN fittings are considered identical b. Wall thickness
except for material composition and c. Inside diameter
identifying colors
3. AN fittings are generally interchangeable with
AC fittings of compatible material
AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
composition
a. 1 1. Fuel is normally supplied to an APU form
b. 1 and 3 a. Its own independent fuel supply
c. 1,2 and 3 b. The airplane’s reserve fuel supply
29. The term ‘cold flow’ is generally associated with c. The airplane’s main fuel syste
a. The effects of low temperature gasses or 2. Fuel scheduling during APU start under varying
liquids flowing in hose or tubing pneumatic bleed and electrical loads is maintained
b. Impressions left in natural or synthetic rubber a. Manually through power control lever position.
hose material b. Automatically by the APU fuel control system.
c. Flexibility characteristics of various hose c. Automatically by an aircraft main engine fuel control
materials at low ambient temperatures unit.
30. When a Teflon hose has been in service for a time, 3. Usually, most of the load placed on an APU occurs when
what condition may have occurred and/or what a. An electrical load is placed on the generator(s).
precautions should be taken when it is temporarily b. The bleed air valve is opened.
removed from the aircraft? c. The bleed air valve is closed.
a. The hose interior must be kept wet with fluid 4. When in operation, the speed of an APU
carried to prevent embrittlement/deterioration a. Is controlled by a cockpit power lever.
b. The hose may become stiff and brittle if not b. Remains at idle and automatically accelerates to rated
flexed or moved regularly speed when placed under load.
c. The hose may have developed a set, or have c. Remains at or near rated speed regardless of the load
been manufactured with a pre-set shape, and condition
must be supported to maintain its shape 5. Frequently, an aircraft’s auxiliary power unit (APU)
31. A scratch or nick in aluminum tubing can be generator
repaired provided it does not a. Is identical to the engine-driven generators.
a. Appear in the heel of a bend b. Supplements the aircraft’s engine- driven generators
b. Appear on the inside of a bend during peak loads.
 c. Has a higher load capacity than the engine-driven alignment of the next slot with the cotter pin
generators. hole
6. An APU is usually rotated during start by b. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the
a. A turbine impingement system. material thickness
b. A pneumatic starter. c. Alloy steel bolts smaller than ¼ -inch diameter
c. An electric starter. should not be used in primary structure
7. Generally, when maximum APU shaft output power is 4. How many of these factors are considered essential
being used in conjunction with pneumatic power knowledge for x-ray exposure?
a. Pneumatic loading will be automatically modulated to 1. Processing of the film
maintain a safe EGT. 2. Material thickness and density
b. Electrical loading will be automatically modulated to 3. Exposure distance and angle
maintain a safe EGT. 4. Film characteristics
c. Temperature limits and loads must be carefully a. One
monitored by the operator to maintain a safe EGT. b. Three
8. When necessary, APU engine cooling before shutdown c. Four
may be accomplished by 5. On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement
a. Unloading the generator(s). includes what percentage(s) of the base metal
b. Closing the bleed air valve. thickness?
c. Opening the bleed air valve. a. 100 percent
9. The function of an APU air inlet plenum is to b. 25 – 50 percent
a. Increase the velocity of the air before entering the c. 60 – 80 percent
compressor. 6. What is descriptive of the annealing process of
b. Decrease the pressure of the air before entering the steel during after it has been annealed?
compressor. a. Rapid cooling; high strength
c. Stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the b. Slow cooling; low strength
compressor. c. Slow cooling; increased resistance to wear
10. On APU’s equipped with a free turbine and load 7. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a
compressor, the primary function of the load compressor a. Class 1 fit for the threads
is to b. Class 2 fit for the threads
a. Provide air for combustion and cooling in the engine c. Class 3 fit for the threads
gas path. 8. Which tool can be used to determine piston pin
b. Provide bleed air for aircraft pneumatic systems. out-of-round wear?
c. Supply the turning force for operation of the APU a. Telescopic gauge
generator(s). b. Micrometer caliper
c. Dial indicator
9. In examining and evaluating a welded joint, a
mechanic should be familiar with
MATERIALS AND PROCESSES
a. Likely ambient exposure conditions
1. What two types of indicating mediums are and intended use of the part, along
available for magnetic particle inspection? with type of weld and original part
a. Iron and ferric oxides material composition
b. Wet and dry process materials b. The welding technique, filler material,
c. High retentivity and low permeability material and temperature range used
2. What precision measuring tool is used for c. The parts, proportions, and formation
measuring crankpin and main bearing journals for of a weld
out-of-round wear? 10. What nondestructive testing method requires
a. Dial gauge little or no part preparation, is used to detect
b. Micrometer caliper surface or near-surface defects in most metals,
c. Depth gauge and may also be used to separate metals or
3. Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct? alloys and their heat-treat conditions?
a. When tightening castellated nuts on drilled a. Eddy current inspection
bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not line up, it is b. Ultrasonic inspection
permissible to overtighten the nut to permit c. Magnetic particle inspection
 11. Which of the following is a main determinant c. Was not thoroughly washed before the
of the dwell time to use when conducting a developer was applied
dye r fluorescent penetrant inspection? 17. Which heat-treating operation would be performed
a. The size and shape of the discontinuities when the surface of the metal is changed
being looked for chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride
b. The size and shape of the part being content?
inspected a. Tempering
c. The type and/or density of the part b. Normalizing
material c. Case hardening
12. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to 18. (1) In nondestructive testing a discontinuity may
detect which defects? be defined as an interruption in the normal physical
a. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part structure or configuration of a part
b. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of (2) A discontinuity may or may not affect the
the part usefulness of a part
c. Defects perpendicular to the concentric Regarding the above statements,
circles of magnetic force within the part a. Only No.1 is true
13. If it is necessary to accurately measure the b. Only No.2 is true
diameter of a hole approximately ¼ inch in c. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
diameter, the mechanic should use a 19. Unless otherwise specified, torque values for
a. Telescoping gauge and determine the size tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to
of the hole by taking a micrometer reading a. Clean, dry threads
of the adjustable end of the telescoping b. Clean, lightly oiled threads
gauge c. Both dry and lightly oiled threads
b. 0 - to 1-inch inside micrometer and read the 20. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type locknut
measurement directly from the micrometer obtained?
c. Small-hole gauge and determine the size of the a. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking
hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball insert
end of the gauge b. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the
14. Which statement relating to the residual base of the load carrying section
magnetizing inspection method is true? c. By making the threads in the fiber insert
a. Subsurface discontinuities are made readily slightly smaller than those in the load carrying
apparent section
b. It is used in practically all circular and 21. When the specific torque value for nuts is not
longitudinal magnetizing procedures given, where can the recommended torque value be
c. It may be used with steels which have been found?
heat treated for stressed applications a. AC 43. 13-1B
15. Which of the following defects are not acceptable b. Technical Standard Order
for metal lines? c. AC43. 13-2A
1. Cracked flare 22. Which of the following occurs when a mechanical
2. Seams force is repeatedly applied to most metals at room
3. Dents in the heel of a bend less than 20% of temperature, such as rolling, hammering, or
the diameter bending?
4. Scratches/nicks on the inside of a bend less 1. The metals become artificially aged.
than 10% of wall thickness 2. The metals become stress corrosion cracked
5. Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube 3. The metals become cold worked, strain or
diameter work hardened
a. 1,2,3,4 and 5 a. 2
b. 1,2 and 3 b. 1 and 3
c. 1,2,3 and 5 c. 3.
16. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not 23. In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the
sharp and clear, the most cause is that part developer
a. Was not correctly degaussed before the a. Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the
developer was applied presence of a defect
b. Has no appreciable damage b. Acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication
 c. Thoroughly cleans the surface prior to (2) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by
inspection subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct
24. A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is current that is alternately reversed in direction
classified as an and gradually reduced in strength
a. NAS standard aircraft bolt Regarding the above statements,
b. NAS close tolerance bolt a. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true
c. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt b. Only No.2 is true
25. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a c. Only No.1 is true
hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough 32. What aluminum alloy designations indicate
core? that the metal has received no hardening or
a. Case hardening tempering treatment
b. Annealing a. 3003-F
c. Tempering b. 5052-H36
26. Alclad is a metal consisting of c. 6061-O
a. Aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure 33. What is steel tempered after being hardened
aluminum core a. To increase its hardness and ductility
b. Pure aluminum surface layers on an b. To increase its strength and decrease its
aluminum alloy core internal stresses
c. A homogeneous mixture of pure c. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce
aluminum and aluminum alloy its brittleness
27. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft 34. Identify the correct statement
bolts should be installed so that the bolthead is a. An outside micrometer is limited to
a. Upward, or in rearward direction measuring diameters
b. Upward, or in a forward direction b. Tools used on certificated aircraft must be
c. Downward, or in a forward direction an approved type
28. The society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) c. Dividers do not provide a reading when
and the American Iron and Steel Institute use a used as measuring device
numerical index system to identify the 35. Which condition indicates a part has cooled
composition of various steels. In the number too quickly after being welded?
‘4130’ designating chromium molybdenum a. Cracking adjacent to the weld
steel, the first digit indicates the b. Discoloration of the base metal
a. Percentage of the basic element in the c. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions
alloy 36. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type
b. Percentage of carbon in the alloy in locknut obtained?
hundredths of a percent a. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking
c. Basic alloying element insert
29. Which of the following describe the effects of b. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the
annealing steel and aluminum alloys? base of the load carrying section
1. Decrease in internal stress c. By making the threads in the fiber insert
2. Softening of the metal slightly smaller than those in the load
3. Improved corrosion resistance carrying section
a. 1,2 37. Which number represents the Vernier scale
b. 1,3 graduation of a micrometer?
c. 2,3 a. .00001
30. What method of magnetic particle inspection b. .001
is used most often to inspect aircraft parts for c. .0001
invisible cracks and other defects? 38. One characteristics of a good weld is that no
a. Residual oxide should be formed on the base metal at a
b. Inductance distance from the weld of more than
c. Continuous a. ½ inch
31. (1) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by b. 1 inch
subjecting it to a magnetizing force from c. ¼ inch
alternating current that is gradually reduced in 39. Which material cannot be heat treated
strength repeatedly without harmful effects?
 a. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form 46. What is generally used in the construction of
b. 6061-T9 aircraft engine firewalls?
c. Clad aluminum alloy a. Stainless steel
40. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a b. Chrome-molybdenum alloy steel
a. Class 1 fit for the threads c. Titanium nickel alloy
b. Class 2 fit for the threads 47. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies
c. Class 3 fit for the threads what type of aluminum
41. Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should a. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent
be copper
a. Equal to the thickness of the material b. Aluminum alloy containing zinc
which is fastened together, plus c. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum
approximately one diameter 48. What tool is generally used to set a divider to
b. Equal to the thickness of the material an exact dimension?
which is fastened together a. Machinist scale
c. One and one half times the thickness of b. Surface gauge
the material which is fastened together c. Dial indicator
42. Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is 49. The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is
correct? a. Heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the
a. When tightening castellated nuts on surface material is commercially pure
drilled bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not aluminum
line up, it is permissible to overtighten the b. Commercially pure aluminum, and the
nut to permit alignment of the next slot surface material is heat-treated aluminum
with the cotter pin hole alloy
b. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal c. Strain- hardened aluminum alloy, and the
the material thickness surface material is commercially pure
c. Alloy steel bolts smaller than ¼-inch aluminum
diameter should not be used in primary 50. The clearance between the piston rings and
structure the ring lands is measured with a
43. A mechanic has completed a bonded a. Micrometer caliper
honeycomb repair using the potted compound b. Thickness gauge
repair technique. What nondestructive testing c. Depth gauge
method is used to determine the soundness of 51. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant
the repair after the repair has cured? inspection usually requires
a. Eddy current test a. That the developer be applied to a flat
b. Metallic ring test surface
c. Ultrasonic test b. A longer-than-normal penetrating time
44. Which of the following materials may be c. The surface to be highly polished
inspected using the magnetic particle 52. Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily
inspection method? to detect
1. Magnesium alloys a. Distortion
2. Aluminum alloys b. Deep surface flaws
3. Iron alloys c. Flaws on or near the surface
4. Copper alloys 53. Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked
5. Zinc alloys on the bolthead are
a. 1,2,3 a. Made of aluminum alloy
b. 1,2,3,4 b. Close tolerance bolts
c. 3 c. Standard steel bolts
45. Why is it considered good practice to 54. Select a characteristics of a good gas weld
normalize a part after welding? a. The depth of penetration shall be
a. To relieve internal stresses developed sufficient to ensure fusion of the filler rod
within the base metal b. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8
b. To increase the hardness of the weld inch above the base metal
c. To remove the surface scale formed c. The weld should taper off smoothly into
during welding the base metal
55. What defects will be detected by magnetizing a. 45*
a part using continuous longitudinal b. Longitudinal
magnetization with a cable? c. Transverse
a. Defects perpendicular to the axis of the 63. A particular component is attached to the
part aircraft structure by the use of an aircraft bolt
b. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part and a castle tension nut combination. If the
c. Defects parallel to the concentric circles cotter pin hole does not align within the
of magnetic force within the part recommended torque range, the acceptable
56. Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane practice is to
a. For tension and shear load conditions a. Exceed the recommended torque range by
b. Where external tension loads are applied no more than 10 percent
c. Only for shear load applications b. Tighten below the torque range
57. When checking an item with the magnetic c. Change washers and try again
particle inspection method, circular and 64. In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is
longitudinal magnetization should be used to perpendicular to the magnetic field flux lines
a. Reveal all possible defects generally causes
b. Evenly magnetize the entire part a. A large disruption in the magnetic field
c. Ensure uniform current flow b. A minimal disruption in the magnetic
58. One way a part may be demagnetized after field
magnetic particle inspection is by c. No disruption in the magnetic field
a. Subjecting the part to high voltage, low 65. Which of the following methods may be
amperage ac suitable to use to detect cracks open to the
b. Slowly moving the part out of an ac surface in aluminum forgings and castings?
magnetic field of sufficient strength 1. Dye penetrant inspection
c. Slowly moving the part into an ac 2. Magnetic particle inspection
magnetic field of sufficient strength 3. Metallic ring (coin tap) inspection
59. How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable 4. Eddy current inspection
terminal secured? 5. Ultrasonic inspection
a. With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, 6. Visual inspection
but with no strain imposed on the fork and a. 1,4,5,6
safe tied with a cotter pin b. 1,2,4,5,6
b. With a castle nut tightened until slight c. 1,2,3,4,5,6
binding occurs between the fork and the 66. Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft
fitting to which it is being attached or other cylindrical work
c. With a shear nut and cotter pin or thin a. Combination set
self-locking nut tightened enough to b. Dial indicator
prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork c. Micrometer caliper
60. A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be 67. A part which is being prepared for dye
used on an aircraft if the bolt is penetrant inspection should be clean with
a. Under shear loading a. A volatile petroleum-based solvent
b. Under tension loading b. The penetrant developer
c. Subject to rotation c. Water-base solvents only
61. Why should an aircraft maintenance technician 68. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is
be familiar with weld nomenclature? classified as an
a. So that accurate visual (pictorial) a. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
comparisons can be made b. NAS standard aircraft bolt
b. In order to gain familiarity with the c. NAS close tolerance bolt
welding technique, filler material and 69. Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be
temperature range used used on which of the following?
c. In order to compare welds with written 1. Porous plastics
(non-pictorial) description standards 2. Ferrous metals
62. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic 3. Nonferrous metals
particle inspection using either circular or 4. Smooth primer-sealed wood
longitudinal magnetization 5. Nonporous plastics
 a. 2,3,4 78. Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will
b. 1,2,3 be identified as having a fatigue crack under
c. 2,3,5 which condition?
70. What tool is generally used to calibrate a a. The discontinuity pattern is straight
micrometer or check its accuracy? b. The discontinuity is found in a
a. Gauge block nonstressed area of the part
b. Dial indicator c. The discontinuity is found in a highly
c. Machinist scale stressed area of the part
71. In the four-digit aluminum index system 79. What may be used to check the stem on a
number 2024, the first digit indicates poppet-type valve for stretch?
a. The major alloying element a. Dial indicator
b. The number of major alloying elements b. Micrometer
used in the metal c. Telescoping gauge
c. The percent of alloying metal added 80. Which of these nondestructive testing methods
72. Select a characteristics of a good gas weld is suitable for the inspection of most metals,
a. The depth of penetration shall be plastics and ceramics for surface and
sufficient to ensure fusion off the filler rod subsurface defects?
b. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 a. Eddy current inspection
inch above the base metal b. Magnetic particle inspection
c. The weld should taper off smoothly into c. Ultrasonic inspection
the base metal 81. What metal has special short-time heat
73. The twist of a connecting rod is checked by properties and is used in the construction of
installing push-fit arbors in both ends, aircraft firewalls?
supported by parallel steel bars on a surface a. Stainless steel
plate. Measurements are taken between the b. Chrome molybdenum alloy steel
arbor and the parallel bar with a c. Titanium alloy
a. Dial gauge 82. How can the dimensional inspection of a
b. Height gauge bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished?
c. Thickness gauge a. Depth gauge and micrometer
74. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic b. Thickness gauge and push-fit arbor
particle build up forming c. Telescopic gauge and micrometer
a. A fernlike pattern 83. The reheating of het treated metal, such as
b. A single line with a welding torch
c. Parallel lines a. Has little or no effect on a metal’s heat
75. Which tool can be used to measure the treated characteristics
alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of b. Has a cumulative enhancement effect on
rotation of a disk? the original heat treatment
a. Dial indicator c. Can significantly alter a metal’s properties
b. Shaft gauge in the reheated area
c. Protractor 84. Holes and a few projecting globules are found
76. What type of corrosion may attack the grain in a weld. What action should be taken?
boundaries of aluminum alloys when the heat a. Reweld the defective portions
treatment process has been improperly b. Remove all the old weld, and Reweld the
accomplished joint
a. Concentration cell c. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect,
b. Intergranular and Reweld all gaps/holes
c. Fretting 85. Normalizing is a process of heat treating
77. Which tool is used to measure the clearance a. Aluminum alloys only
between a surface plate and a relatively narrow b. Iron-base metal only
surface being checked for flatness? c. Both aluminum alloys and iron-base
a. Depth gauge metals
b. Thickness gauge 86. The testing medium that is generally used in
c. Dial indicator magnetic particle inspection utilizes a
ferromagnetic material that has
 a. High permeability and low retentivity 6. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be
b. Low permeability and high retentivity bent in a cornice or box brake is measured and
c. High permeability and high retentivity marked
a. One-half radius from either bend tangent line
b. One radius from either bend tangent line
c. One radius from the bend tangent line that is
SHEETMETAL & NON-SHEETMETALIC STRUCTURE
placed under the brake
1. (1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test on 7. On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single bend,
composite structure, a change in sound may be due allow for stretching by
to damage or to transition to a different internal a. Adding the setback to each leg
structure b. Subtracting the setback from one leg
(2) The extent of separation damage in composite c. Subtracting the setback from both legs
structures is most accurately measured by a ring 8. When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is
(coin tap) test usually acceptable for machining composite
Regarding the above statements, laminates?
a. Both No.1 and No.2 are true a. Water soluble oil
b. Only No.1 is true b. Water displacing oil
c. Only No.2 is true c. Water only
2. Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because 9. What is indicated by a black ‘smoky’ residue
they streaming back from some of the rivets on an
a. Can be heat treated much easier than the other aircraft?
forms of aluminum a. The rivets were excessively work hardened
b. Are less subject to corrosion than uncoated during installation
aluminum alloys b. Exfoliation corrosion is occurring inside the
c. Are stronger than unclad aluminum alloys structure
3. A well-designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to c. Fretting corrosion is occurring between the
a. Compressive loads rivets and the skin
b. Shear loads 10. What type of bit should be used to drill holes in
c. Tension loads Plexiglas?
4. If a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed a. A standard twist drill
using a form block, a piece of dead soft aluminum b. A specially modified twist drill
should first be placed over the hollow portion of c. A dulled twist drill
the mold and securely fastened in place. The 11. What precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent
bumping operation should be corrosion inside a repaired metal honeycomb
a. Distributed evenly over the face of the structure?
aluminum at all times rather than being started a. Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor and
at the edges or center. seal from the atmosphere
b. Started by tapping the aluminum lightly b. Paint the outside area with several coats of
around the edges and gradually working down exterior paint
into the center c. None. Honeycomb is usually made from a
c. Started by tapping the aluminum in the center man-made or fibrous material which is not
until it touches the bottom of the mold and susceptible to corrosion
then working out in all directions 12. Mild steel rivets are used for riveting
5. If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance a. Nickel-steel parts
problem and bend allowance tables are not b. Magnesium parts
available, the neutral axis of the bend can be c. Steel parts
a. Represented by the actual length of the 13. A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt
required material for the bend tension and shear fasteners (other than their
b. Found by adding approximately one-half of application) is in the
the thickness to the bend radius a. Number of locking collar grooves
c. Found by subtracting the stock thickness from b. Shape of the head
the bend radius c. Method of installation
14. What is the minimum spacing for a single row of
aircraft rivets?
 a. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank c. That the bond between the patch and the skin
b. Three times the length of the rivet shank is sufficient to prevent dissimilar metal
c. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank corrosion
15. The coefficient of expansion of most plastic 24. A factor which determines the minimum space
enclosure materials is between rivets is the
a. Greater than both steel and aluminum a. Length of the rivets being used
b. Greater than steel but less than aluminum b. Diameter of the rivets being used
c. Less than either steel or aluminum c. Thickness of the material being riveted
16. What should be the included angle of a twist drill 25. What is the material layer used within the vacuum
for soft metals? bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during
a. 118° curing called?
b. 90° a. Bleeder
c. 65° b. Breather
17. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy c. Release
designation indicates the primary alloying agent 26. If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft,
used in its manufacture? the belt must conform to the strength requirements
a. 2 in which documents?
b. 17 a. STC 1282
c. 20 b. 14 CFR Part 39
18. Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance c. TSO C22
between the 27. What is one of the determining factors which
a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows permit machine countersinking when flush
b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row riveting?
c. Heads of rivets in the same row a. Thickness of the material and rivet diameter
19. Which statement is true regarding a cantilever are the same
wing? b. Thickness of the material is less than the
a. It has nonadjustable lift struts thickness of the rivet head
b. No external bracing is needed c. Thickness of the material is greater than the
c. It requires only one lift strut on each side thickness of the rivet head
20. Fiberglass damage that extends completely through 28. When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged
a laminated sandwich structure honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that
a. May be repaired a. The grain is parallel to the skin
b. Must be filled with resin to eliminate b. It is about 1/8 inch undersize to allow
dangerous stress concentrations sufficient bonding material to be applied
c. May be filled with putty which is compatible c. The grain is perpendicular to the skin
with resin 29. Under certain conditions, type a rivets are not used
21. Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to because of their
a. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal where a. Low strength characteristics
shear strength is desired b. High alloy content
b. Attach parts or components with screws to c. Tendency toward embrittlement when
sheet metal subjected to vibration
c. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal where 30. Which rivet may be used as received without
bearing strength is desired further treatment?
22. What should be the included angle of a twist drill a. 2024-T4
for hard metal? b. 2117-T3
a. 118° c. 2017-T3
b. 100° 31. Cabin upholstery materials installed in current
c. 90° standard category airplanes must
23. When repairing a small hole on a metal stressed a. Be fireproof
skin, the major consideration in the design of the b. Be at least flame resistant
patch should be c. Meet the requirements prescribed in Part 43
a. The shear strength of the riveted joint 32. A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should
b. To use rivet spacing similar to a seam in the a. Have the same radius as the rivet head
skin
 b. Have a slightly greater radius than the rivet a. Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only,
head except when filing very soft metals such as
c. Be nearly flat on the end, with a slight radius lead or aluminum
on the edge to prevent damage to the sheet b. A smoother finish can be obtained by using a
being riveted double-cut file than by using a single-cut file
33. The general rule for finding the proper rivet c. The terms ’double-cut’ and ‘second-cut’ have
dimeter is the same meaning in reference to files
a. Three times the thickness of the materials to be 41. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud,
joined grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is
b. Two times the rivet length measured in
c. Three times the thickness of the thickest sheet a. Tenths of an inch
34. MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet b. Hundredths of an inch
which has c. Sixteenths of an inch
a. A shank length of 5/16 inch (excluding head) 42. Heat-treated rivets in the D and DD series that are
b. A shank length 5/32 inch (excluding head) not driven within the prescribed time after heat
c. An overall length of 5/16 inch treatment or removal from refrigeration
35. Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or a. Must be reheat treated before use
rain erosion on fiberglass laminates can generally b. Must be discarded
be repaired by applying c. May be returned to refrigeration and used later
a. A piece of resin-impregnated glass fabric without reheat treatment
facing 43. Parts fabricated from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum
b. One or more coats of suitable resin (room- sheet stock must have all
temperature catalyzed) to the surface a. Bends made with a small radius to develop
c. A sheet of polyethylene over the abraded maximum strength
surface and one or more coats of resin cured b. Bends 90° to the grain
with infrared heat lamps c. Scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must
36. Fiberglass laminate damage that extends be held to a minimum
completely through one facing and into the core 44. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite
a. Cannot be repaired composite structures
b. Requires the replacement of the damaged core a. May be constructed of any of the metals
and facing commonly used in aircraft fasteners
c. Can be repaired by using a typical metal facing b. Must be constructed of material such as
patch titanium or corrosion resistant steel
37. When straightening members made of 2024-T4, c. Must be constructed of high strength
you should aluminum-lithium alloy
a. Straighten cold and reinforce 45. The part of a replacement honeycomb core that
b. Straighten cold and anneal to remove stress must line up with the adjacent original is the
c. Apply heat to the inside of the bend a. Cell side
38. The classification for high tensile strength b. Ribbon direction
fiberglass used in aircraft structure is c. Cell edge
a. E-glass 46. Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a
b. S-glass semi-monocoque fuselage are called
c. G-glass a. Spars and ribs
39. Repairs o splices involving stringers on the lower b. Longerons and stringers
surface of stressed skin metal wings are usually c. Spars and stringers
a. Not permitted 47. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should
b. Permitted only if the damage does not exceed have an included angle of
6 inches in any direction a. 90° and turn at a low speed
c. Permitted but are normally more critical in b. 118° and turn at a high speed
reference to strength in tension than similar c. 140° and turn at a low speed
repairs to the upper surface 48. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft
40. Which is correct concerning the use of a file? rivets?
a. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank
b. Two times the diameter of the rivet head
 c. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank 58. The purpose of a joggle is to
49. The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum a. Allow clearance for a sheet an extrusion
alloy rivets indicate the b. Increase obstruction for a sheet or an extrusion
a. Degree of dimensional and process control c. Decrease the weight of the part and still retain
observed during manufacture the necessary strength
b. Head shape, shank size, material used, and 59. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024
specifications adhered to during manufacture aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment?
c. Specific alloy used in the manufacture of the a. To accelerate age hardening
rivets b. To relieve internal stresses
50. A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. c. To retard age hardening
The curvature of the bend is referred to as the 60. Which fiber to resin (percent) ration for advanced
a. Bend allowance composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the
b. Neutral line best for strength?
c. Bend radius a. 40:60
51. The installation of Cherrymax and Olympic-lok b. 50:50
rivets is accomplished by utilizing c. 60:40
a. Rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking bar 61. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb
b. A pulling tool construction ae used on modern aircraft because
c. Ordinary hand tools this type of construction
52. Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic a. Has a high strength to weight ratio
plastics? b. May be repaired by gluing replacement skin to
a. Zinc chloride will have no effect the inner core material with thermoplastic
b. Acrylic has a yellowish tint when viewed from resin
the edge c. Is lighter than single sheet skin of the same
c. Acetone will soften plastic, but will change its strength and is more corrosion resistant
color 62. Which statement is true regarding the inspection of
53. The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of a stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have
metal without critically weakening the part is been critically loaded?
called the a. If rivets show no visible distortion, further
a. Bend allowance investigation is unnecessary
b. Minimum radius of bend b. If bearing failure has occurred, the rivet shanks
c. Maximum radius of bend will be joggled
54. What is the most common method of cementing c. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of
transparent plastics? consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in the
a. Heat method same direction
b. Soak method 63. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud,
c. Bevel method grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is
55. Which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel alloys? measured in
a. 2024-aluminum a. Hundredths of an inch
b. Mild steel b. Tenths of an inch
c. Monel c. Sixteenth of an inch
56. If an aircraft’s transparent plastic enclosures 64. A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed
exhibit fine cracks which may extend in a network angle of 15° must be bent through an angle of
over or under the surface or through the plastic, the a. 165°
plastic is said to be b. 105°
a. Hazing c. 90°
b. Brinelling 65. What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used
c. Crazing in the construction and repair of aircraft structures?
57. Which of the following drill bit types work best a. To hold structural members in position
when drilling an aramid fiber (Kevlar©) composite temporarily until the permanent attachment
laminate? has been completed
a. Tool steel with standard grind b. To provide access for inspection of structural
b. Diamond dust coated attachments
c. Carbide W-point
 c. To join and reinforce intersecting structural 73. One of the best ways to assure that a properly
members prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is
66. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces to
of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet a. Perform a chemical composition analysis
holes are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of b. Have mixed enough for a test sample
the rivets to be used will be c. Test the viscosity of the resin immediately
a. 5/32 inch after mixing
b. 3/16 inch 74. If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic
c. 5/16 inch enclosure materials have been cleaned, their
67. When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the surfaces should be
area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The a. Polished with rubbing compound applied with
final cleaning should be made using a damp cloth
a. MEK (methyl ethyl ketone) b. Buffed with a clean, soft, dry cloth
b. Soap, water, and a scrub brush c. Covered with a thin coat of wax
c. A thixotropic agent 75. The length of time that a catalyzed resin will
68. What type loads cause the most rivet failures? remain in a workable state is called the
a. Shear a. Pot life
b. Bearing b. Shelf life
c. Head c. Service life
69. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine 76. Which is considered good practice concerning the
supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet installation of acrylic plastics?
metal, are normally a. When nuts and bolts are used, the plastic
a. Repairable, using approved methods should be installed hot and tightened to a firm
b. Repairable, except when subjected to fit before the plastic cools
compressive loads b. When rivets are used, adequate spacer or other
c. Not repairable, but must be replaced when satisfactory means to prevent excessive
damaged or deteriorated tightening of the frame to the plastic should be
70. Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 provided
rivets) should not be used in composite structures c. When rivets or nuts and bolts are used, slotted
primarily because of the holes are not recommended
a. Possibility of causing delamination 77. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T3 is indicated
b. Increased possibility of fretting corrosion in by the number
the fastener a. 2
c. Difficulty in forming a proper shop head b. 20
71. When comparing the machining techniques for c. 24
stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminum 78. How many of the following are benefits of using
alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice microballoons when making repairs to laminated
to drill the stainless steel at a honeycomb panels?
a. Higher speed with less pressure applied to the 1. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and
drill corners
b. Lower speed with more pressure applied to the 2. Improved strength to weight ratio
drill 3. Less density
c. Lower speed with less pressure applied to the 4. Lower stress concentrations
drill a. 2,3, and 4
72. How does acoustic emission testing detect defects b. 1,2 and 4
in composite materials? c. All of the above
a. By picking up the ‘noise’ of any deterioration 79. Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated
that may be present a. By the manufacturer and do not require heat
b. By analyzing ultrasonic signals transmitted treatment before being driven
into the parts being inspected b. By the manufacturer but require reheat
c. By creating sonogram pictures of the areas treatment before being driven
being inspected c. To a temperature of 910 to 930°F and
quenched in cold water
80. One look of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type 89. When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal
fasteners over earlier generations is that faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the
a. They can be removed and reused again doubler should be tapered to
b. The squeezed can be installed with ordinary a. Two times the thickness of the metal
hand tools b. 100 times the thickness of the metal
c. They can be installed with ordinary hand tools c. Whatever is desired for a neat, clean
81. The most important Factors needed to make a flat Appearance
pattern layout are 90. Fiberglass laminate damage out exceeding the first
a. Radius, thickness, and mold line layer or play can be repaired by
b. Radius, thickness, and degree of bend a. filling with a putty consisting of a compatible
c. The lengths of the legs (flat sections) resin and clean, short glass fibers.
82. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can b. Sanding the damaged area until aerodynamic
usually be made on damages less than smoothness is obtained
a. 4 inches in diameter c. Trimming the rough edges and sealing with
b. 2 inches in diameter paint
c. 1 inch in diameter 91. Most rivets used in aircraft construction have
83. Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired a. Dimples
by b. Smooth heads without markings
a. Burnishing c. A raised dot
b. Buffling 92. Composite fabric material is considered to be the
c. Stop drilling strongest in what direction?
84. The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the a. Fill
strength of b. Warp
a. Longerons and formers c. Bias
b. Skin or covering 93. The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener
c. Bulkheads and longerons identify the
85. You can distinguish between aluminum and a. Body diameter, type of head, and length of the
aluminum alloy by fastener
a. Filing the metal b. Body type, head diameter, and type of material
b. Testing with an acetic solution. c. Manufacturer and type of material
c. Testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic 94. The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed
soda composite buildup depends primarily on
86. When bending metal, the material on the outside of a. A 60 percent matrix to 40 percent fiber ratio
the curve stretches while the material on the inside b. The orientation of the plies to the load
of the curve compresses. That part of the material direction
which is not affected by either stress is the c. The ability of the fibers to transfer stress to the
a. Mold line matrix
b. Bend tangent line 95. When riveting dissimilar metals together, what
c. Neutral line precautions must be taken to prevent an electrolytic
87. How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be action?
required to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a single a. Treat the surfaces to be riveted together with a
row of rivets, minimum edge distance and 4D process called anodic treatment
spacing? b. Place a protective separator between areas of
a. 56 potential electrical difference
b. 54 c. Avoid the use of dissimilar metals by
c. 52 redesigning the unit according to the
88. When installing transparent plastic enclosures recommendations outlined in AC 43.13-1A
which are retained by bolts extending through the 96. A DD rivet is heat treated before use to
plastic material and self-locking nuts, the nuts a. Harden and increase strength
should be b. Relieve internal stresses
a. Tightened to a firm fit, plus one full turn. c. Soften to facilitate riveting
b. Tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one 97. When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be bent using
full turn minimum radius for the type and thickness of
c. Tightened to a firm material
 a. The piece should be bent slowly to eliminate 105. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to
cracking finish a drilled hole to the correct size?
b. The layout should be made so that the bend a. Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when
will be 90° to the grain of the sheet enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction
c. Less pressure than usual should be applied to remove from the hole
with the movable (upper) clamping bar b. Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction
98. Which of the following are generally characteristic c. Apply considerable pressure on the reamer
of carbon/graphite fiber composites? when starting the cut and reduce the pressure
1. Flexibility when finishing the cut
2. Stiffness 106. Which part (s) of a semi-monocoque fuselage
3. High compressive strength prevents (s) tension and compression from bending
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum the fuselage?
5. Ability to conduct electricity a. The fuselage covering
a. 1 and 3 b. Longerons and stringers
b. 2,3 and 4 c. Bulkhead and skin
c. 1,3 and 5 107. What is generally the best procedure to use when
99. The classification for fiberglass reinforcement removing a solid shank rivet?
material that has high resistivity and is the most a. Drill through the manufactured head and shank
common is with a shank size drill and remove the rivet with
a. E-glass a punch
b. S-glass b. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head
c. G-glass with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank
100. When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester and remove the rivet with a punch
resins, warping of the surface is likely to occur. One c. Drill through the manufactured head and shank
method of reducing the amount of warpage is to with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and
a. Add an extra amount of catalyst to the resin remove the rivet with a punch
b. Use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded 108. What is the minimum edge distance allowed for
repair aluminum alloy single lap sheet splices containing a
c. Use less catalyst than normal so the repair will single row of rivets as compared to a joint with
be more flexible multiple rows, all rivets being equal I diameter?
101. Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate a. The minimum edge distance for the single row
partial is greater than that for the multiple row
a. Bearing failure b. The minimum edge distance for the single row
b. Torsion failure is less than that for the multiple row
c. Shear failure c. The minimum edge distance for the single row
102. The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are is equal to that for the multiple row
a. 1/8 inch in diameter and ¼ inch long 109. When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear
b. 1/8 inch in diameter and1/2 inch long strength is obtained
c. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long a. Only after a period of age hardening
103. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring b. By the cold working of the rivet metal in
test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate forming a shop head
a. Less than full strength curing of the matrix c. By heat treating just prior to being driven
b. Separation of the laminates 110. A single-lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a
c. An area of too much matrix between fiber section of damaged aluminum skin. If a double row
layers of 1/8-inch rivets is used, the minimum allowable
104. Which of the following, when added to wet resins, overlap will be
provide strength for the repair of damaged fastener a. ½ inch
holes in composite panels? b. ¾ inch
1. Microballoons c. 13/16 inch
2. Flox 111. The length of rivet to be chosen when making a
3. Chapped fibers structural repair that involves the joining of 0.032-
a. 2 and 3 sheet, drilled with a No. 30 drill, is
b. 1 and 3 a. 7/16 inch
c. 1,2, and 3 b. 5/16 inch
 c. ¼ inch b. 2, 3 and 4
112. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces c. 1, 3 and 5
of 0.040-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet 120. One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass
holes are drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of structure that has been subjected to damage is to
the rivets to be used will be a. Strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a
a. 1/8 inch strong light through the structure
b. ¼ inch b. Use dye-penetrant inspection procedures,
c. 5/16 inch exposing the entire damaged area to the
113. Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is penetrant solution.
the c. Use an eddy current probe on both sides of the
a. Inside radius of the metal being formed damaged are
b. Inside radius plus one-half the thickness of the 121. The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of
metal being formed .032- inch and .064-inch aluminum alloy should be
c. Radius of the metal axis plus one-half the equal to
thickness of the metal being formed a. Two times the rivet diameter plus .064 inch
114. Which of the following need not be considered b. One and one-half times the rivet diameter plus
when determining minimum rivet spacing? .096 inch
a. Rivet diameter c. Three times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch
b. Rivet length 122. Rivet pitch is the distance between the
c. Type of material being riveted a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows
115. The preferred way to make permanent repairs on b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row
composites is by c. Heads of rivets in the same row
a. Bonding on metal or cured composite patches 123. A category of plastic material that is capable of
b. Riveting on metal or cured composite patches softening or flowing when reheated is described as a
c. Laminating on new repair plies a. Thermoplastic
116. Which of these methods may be used to inspect b. Thermocure
fiberglass/ honeycomb structures for entrapped c. Thermoset
water? 124. Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy
1. Acoustic emission monitoring structures?
2. X-ray a. Mild steel
3. Backlighting b. 5056 aluminum
a. 1 and 2 c. Monel
b. 1 and 3 125. Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is
c. 2 and 3 generally accomplished by
117. Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of 1. Applying external heat
.032-inch aluminum? 2. Room temperature exposure
a. MS20425D-4-3 3. Adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin
b. MS20470AD-4-4 4. Applying pressure
c. MS20455DD-5-3 a. 2 and 3
118. Select the alternative which best describes the b. 1 and 4
function of the flute section of a twist drill c. 1, 2, and 4
a. Provides a method for cooling oil to be 126. The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal
delivered to the cutting surface from which a simple L-shaped bracket 3 inches by 1
b. Forms the area where the drill bit attaches to the inch is to be bent depends upon the radius of the
drill motor desired bend. The bracket which will require the
c. Forms the cutting edges of the drill point greatest amount of material is one which has a bend
119. Which of the following are generally characteristic radius of
of aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites? a. 1/8 inch
1. High tensile strength b. ½ inch
2. Flexibility c. ¼ inch
3. Stiffness 127. What reference tool is used to determine how the
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum fiber is to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric?
5. Ability to conduct electricity a. Fill clock (or compass)
a. 1 and 2 b. Bias clock (or compass)
 c. Warp clock (or compass) c. contain acetone
128. Repairing advanced composites using materials and 7. Which of the following can normally be welded
techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs is without adversely affecting strength?
likely to result in 1. Aircraft bolts
a. Restored strength and flexibility 2. SAE 4130 chrome/molybdenum tubing
b. Improved wear resistance to the structure 3. Spring steel struts
c. An unairworthy repair 4. Most heat-treated steel/nickel alloy
129. The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction components
are usually hardened by which method? a. 2 and 4
a. Cold-working b. 1 and 3
b. Aging c. 2
c. Heat treatment 8. Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made of
130. The shop head of a rivet should be a. Seamless aluminum
a. One and one-half times the diameter of the rivet b. Steel
shank c. Bronze
b. One-half times the diameter of the rivet shank 9. Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals
c. One and one-half times the diameter of the are hot. It is important, therefore, when welding
manufactured head of the rivet aluminum to use a
a. Solvent
WELDING b. Filler
c. Flux
1. In gas welding, the amount of heat applied to the
10. When a butt welded joint is visually inspected for
material being welded is controlled by the
penetration
a. Amount of gas pressure used
a. The penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of
b. Size of the tip opening
the thickness of the base metal
c. Distance the tip is held from the work
b. The penetration should be 100 percent of the
2. Where should the flux be applied when
thickness of the base metal
oxyacetylene welding aluminum?
c. Look for evidence of excessive heat in the
a. Painted only on the surface to be welded
form of a very high bead
b. Painted on the surface to be welded and
11. In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding , a stream of
applied to the welding rod
inert gas is used to
c. Applied only to the welding rod
a. Prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle
3. A welding torch backfire may be caused by
b. Concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its
a. A loose tip
dissipation
b. Using too much acetylene
c. Lower the temperature required to properly
c. A tip temperature that is too cool
fuse the metal
4. If too much acetylene is used in the welding of
12. The oxyacetylene flame used for aluminum
stainless steel
welding should
a. A porous weld will result
a. Be neutral and soft
b. The metal will absorb carbon and lose its
b. Be slightly oxidizing
resistance to corrosion
c. Contain an excess of acetylene and leave the
c. Oxide will be formed on the base metal close
tip at a relatively low speed
to the weld
13. High pressure cylinders used to transport and store
5. The shielding gases generally used in the Gas
acetylene must
Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding of aluminum
a. Be pressure tested to 3,000 PSI
consists of
b. Be green in color
a. a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide
c. Contain acetone
b. nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of nitrogen
14. How should a welding torch flame be adjusted to
and hydrogen
weld stainless steel?
c. helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and
a. Slightly carburizing
argon
b. Slightly oxidizing
6. Cylinders used to prevent to transport and store
c. Neutral
acetylene
15. Which statement concerning soldering is correct?
a. are pressure tested to 3,000 PSI
b. are green in color
 a. Joints in electric wire to be soldered should be metal tool of the proper material held in the
mechanically secure prior to soldering arc
b. Changeable shades of blue can be observed on c. In the oxyacetylene welding process, the filler
the surface of a copper soldering tip when the rod used for steel is covered with a thin
proper temperature for soldering has been coating of flux
reached 24. Welding over brazed or soldered joint is
c. If the soldering temperature is too high, the a. Not permitted
solder will form in lumps and not produce a b. Permissible for mild steel
positive bond c. Permissible for most metals or alloys that are
16. The most important consideration (s) when not heat treated
selecting welding rod is 25. Why should a carburizing flame be avoided when
a. Current setting or flame temperature welding steel?
b. Material compatibility a. It removes the carbon content
c. Ambient conditions b. It hardens the surface
17. In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the c. A cold weld will result
size of the tip opening determines the 26. Which statement best describes magnesium
a. Amount of heat applied the work welding?
b. Temperature of the flame a. Magnesium can be welded to other metals
c. Melting point of the filler metal b. Filler rod should be nickel-steel
18. Engine mount members should preferably be c. Filler rod should be the same composition as a
repaired by using a base metal
a. Larger diameter tube with fishmouth and no 27. Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver
rosette welds soldering operations?
b. Larger diameter tube with fishmouth and a. To chemically clean the base metal of oxide
rosette welds film
c. Smaller diameter tube with fishmouth and b. To prevent overheating of the base metal
rosette welds c. To increase heat conductivity
19. A very thin and pointed tip on a soldering copper is 28. Edge notching is generally recommended in butt
undesirable because it will welding above a certain thickness of aluminum
a. Transfer too much heat to the work because it
b. Have tendency to overheat and become brittle a. Helps hold the metal in alignment during
c. Cool too rapidly welding
20. What method of repair is recommended for a steel b. Aids in the removal or penetration of oxides o
tube longeron dented at a cluster the metal surface
a. Welded split sleeve c. Aids in getting full penetration of the metal
b. Welded outer sleeve and prevents local distortion
c. Welded patch plate 29. Filing or grinding a weld bead is considered to be
21. Acetylene at a line pressure above 15 PSI is a. An acceptable means t7o achieve a smoother
a. Dangerously unstable surface
b. Used when a reducing flame is necessary b. A way to bring about strength reduction in
c. Usually necessary when welding metal over joint
3/8-imch thick c. Frequently necessary to avoid adding excess
22. The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should weight to a weld joint
be 30. What purpose does flux serve in welding
a. Oxidizing aluminum?
b. Neutral a. Removes dirt, grease, and oil
c. Carburizing b. Minimizes or prevents oxidation
23. Which statement concerning a welding process is c. Ensures proper distribution
true? 31. A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used
a. The inert-arc welding process uses an inert gas effectively until after the working face has been
to protect the weld zone from the atmosphere a. Fluxed
b. In the metallic-arc welding process, filler b. Polished
material, if needed, is provided by a separate c. Tinned
 32. Which statement is true in regard to welding heat- b. Material is being applied too fast
treated magnesium? c. Low atmospheric humidity
a. The welded section does not have the strength 6. Which properly applied finish topcoat is the
of the original metal most durable and chemical resistant?
b. Flux should not be used because it is very a. Synthetic enamel
difficult to remove and is likely to cause b. Acrylic lacquer
corrosion c. Polyurethane
c. Magnesium cannot be repaired by fusion 7. Which type of coating typically includes
welding because of the high probability of phosphoric acid as one of its components at
igniting the metal the time of application?
33. Annealing of aluminum a. Wash primer
a. Increases the tensile strength b. Epoxy primer
b. Makes the material brittle c. Zinc chromate primer
c. Removes stresses caused by forming 8. Aluminum-pigment in dope is used primarily
34. Why are aluminum plates ¼ inch or more thick to
usually preheated before welding? a. Provide a silver color
a. Reduces internal stresses and assures more b. Aid in sealing out moisture from the
complete penetration fabric
b. Reduces welding time c. Reflect ultraviolet from the fabric
c. Prevents corrosion and ensures proper 9. Fungicidal dopes are used in aircraft finishing
distribution of flux as the
a. First, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to
prevent fungus damage
b. First coat to prevent fabric rotting and are
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
applied thin enough to saturate the fabric
1. Which of the following is a hazard associated c. Final, full-bodied, brushed-on coat to
with sanding on fabric covered surfaces during reduce blushing
the finishing process? 10. Which statement is true regarding paint system
a. Overheating of the fabric/finish especially compatibility?
with the use of power tools a. Old-type zinc chromate primer may not be
b. Static electricity buildup used directly for touchup of bare metal
c. Embedding of particles in the finish surfaces
2. What is likely to occur if hydrated wash b. Acrylic nitrocellulose lacquers may be
primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and used old nitrocellulose finishes
then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish c. Old wash primer coats may be overcoated
topcoat, when the humidity is low? directly with epoxy finishes
a. Corrosion 11. A correct use for acetone is to
b. A glossy, blush-free finish a. Thin zinc chromate primer
c. A dull finish due to the topcoat ‘sinking b. Remove grease from fabric
in’ to primer that is still too soft c. Thin dope
3. Which defect in aircraft finishes may be 12. Before applying a protective coating to any
caused by adverse humidity, drafts, or sudden unpainted clean aluminum, you should
changes in temperature? a. Wipe the surface with avgas or kerosene
a. Orange peel b. Remove any conversion coating film
b. Blushing c. Avoid touching the surface with bare
c. Pinholes hands
4. What is used to slow the drying time of some 13. If registration numbers are to be applied to an
finishes and to prevent blush? aircraft with a letter height of 12 inches, what
a. Reducer is the minimum space required for the
b. Retarder registration mark N1683C?
c. Rejuvenator Note:
5. What is the usual cause of runs and sags in 2/3 x height = character width
aircraft finishes? 1/6 x height = width for 1
a. Too much material applied in one coat ¼ x 2/3 height = spacing
 1/6 x height = stroke or line width
a. 52 inches
b. 48 inches
c. 57 inches
14. What is likely to occur if unhydrated wash
primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and
then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish
topcoat, when the humidity is low?
a. Corrosion
b. A glossy, blush-free finish
c. A dull finish due to the topcoat ‘sinking
in’ to primer that is still too soft
15. If masking tape is applied to an aircraft such as
for trim spraying, and is left on for several
days and/or exposed to heat, it is likely that the
tape will
a. Not seal out the finishing material if the
delay or heating occurs before spraying
b. Be weakened in its ability to adhere to the
surface
c. Cure to the finish and be very difficult to
remove