RADSCI MRI, CT, UTZ, NUCMED, RADTHERA

1. Which of the following shows MRI disadvantage over other imaging modalities?
a. Time consuming
b. Does not produce ionizing radiation
c. Tissue discrimination is higher
d. Even without IV contrast it still shows more details
2. Which of the following is the limitation of MRI over CT scan?
I. Bone
II. Air
III. Muscle
IV. Fats

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 3
[Link] discovered NMR (Nuclear Magnetic Resonance) in the late 1930s, but
considered it to be an artefact of his apparatus?

a. Joseph Larmor
b. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
c. Paul Lauterbur
d. Isidor Rabi

[Link] is the element that is in our body that is very important in MR imaging?

a. Oxygen
b. Hydrogen
c. Potassium
d. Lead
5. Who is the Father of MRI?
a. Joseph Larmor
b. Paul Lauterbur
c. Raymond Damadian
d. Isidor Rabi
[Link] is the maximum strength of magnet approved for medical imaging of
patient?
a. 3.0 tesla
b. 1.5 tesla
c. 7.0 tesla
d. 0.3 tesla
[Link] that extends across the axis of the body from side to side, dividing the
body part into upper and lower portions
a. Oblique
b. Transverse
c. Coronal
d. Sagittal
[Link] electromagnetic energy is needed to rotate the hydrogen nuclei in our
body?
a. X-ray
b. Gamma ray
c. Magnetic energy
d. Radiowave/RF
[Link] RF energy to be transferred and absorbed by hydrogen nuclei, both must
have the same:
a. Resonant frequency
b. Energy
c. Atomic mass
d. Magnetic energy

10. The variation in the magnetic field permits localization of image slices as well
as phase encoding and frequency encoding. What do you call the set of gradient
coils for the z axis?
*
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a. Saddle coil
b. Helmholtz coil
c. Torso coil
d. Bow tie coil

11. This type of magnet is the most commonly used in machines today , giving
the highest quality if images in machines of all 3 types
*
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a. Superconducting magnet

b. Resistive magnet
c. Permanent magnet
d. Gradient magnet

12. Describe the unusual state of electrical current without any loss from
resistance
*
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a. Superconduction

b. Conduction
c. Superinsulation
d. Insulation

13. What is the name of the gradient coil for the x and y axis?
*
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a. Saddle coil

b. Helmholtz coil
c. Torso coil
d. Bow tie coil

14. It is an MRI technique used to suppress the signal from normal adipose tissue
to reduce chemical shift artifact, improve visualization of uptake of contrast
material and tissue characterization
*
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a. Saturation band
b. Fat saturation

c. Spin technique
d. Inversion recovery

15. What is the atomic number of Hydrogen?

*
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a. 1

b. 2
c. 6
d. 8

16. What positively charged particle is very important in Hydrogen atom that is
beneficial for MR imaging?
*
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a. Electron
b. Positron
c. Neutron
d. Proton
17. What is the natural state of our protons specifically that of hydrogen atom?
*
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a. Directly pointing at the north pole
b. Directly pointing at the south pole
c. In a parallel state
d. Spinning in a hap hazard fashion

18. Which of the following statement is true regarding magnets?

i. Every magnet has a north pole and a south pole.
ii. Magnets attracted only on the positive side
iii. Like poles repel; unlike poles attract
iv. Like poles attract, unlike poles repel
*
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a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3

c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4

19. Which of the following principles manifest electromagnetic force?

i. Electrostatics
ii. Magnetism
iii. Electron absorption
iv. Radiofrequency
*
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a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 4

20. How do you neutralize a magnetic field created by an electron spin?

*
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a. Proton density
b. Ion pair
c. Electron density
d. Electron pair

21. The proton in a hydrogen nucleus spins on its axis and creates a nuclear
magnetic dipole called a ________.
*
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a. Magnetic domain
b. Magnetic moment

c. Magnetic resonance
d. Magnetic permeability

22. What do you call the ability of a material to attract the lines of magnetic field
intensity?
*
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a. Magnetic domain
b. Magnetic moment
c. Magnetic resonance

d. Magnetic permeability
23. Which of the following magnetic state of matter can be strongly magnetized?
*
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a. Non magnetic
b. Diamagnetic
c. paramagnetic
d. ferromagnetic

24. Which of the following magnetic state of matter is unaffected by a magnetic

field?
*
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a. Non magnetic

b. Diamagnetic
c. paramagnetic
d. ferromagnetic

25. Which of the following magnetic state of matter is weakly repelled to both
poles of magnetic field?
*
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a. Non magnetic
b. Diamagnetic

c. paramagnetic
d. ferromagnetic

26. Which of the following magnetic state of matter is weakly attracted to both
poles of magnetic field?
*
1/1
a. Non magnetic
b. Diamagnetic
c. paramagnetic

d. ferromagnetic

27. Which of the following statement is true regarding the hydrogen atom?
i. It has an atomic number of 1
ii. It has an atomic weight of 1
iii. When in ionic state (H+), it is nothing but a proton
*
···/1
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

No correct answers

28. Which of the following have the strongest magnet?

*
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a. Earth’s Magnet (gravity)
b. MRI magnet

c. Door latch magnet

d. Magnetic cards (ATM)

29. Which of the following is the major component of your MRI system?
*
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a. Magnet

b. Radiofrequency
c. Gantry
d. Coils

30. Antennas are typically wound in the shape of a positioning device for a
particular body part. What are these antennas referred to as?
*
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a. MR Antennas
b. RF Cables
c. RF Coils

d. Gantry

31. What type of magnet needs cryogen to cool down their wire loops at very low
temperature to reduce electrical resistance?
*
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a. Permanent magnet
b. Superconducting magnet

c. Resistive magnet
d. All of the above

32. What do you call the area on which the magnet could affect nearby electronic
equipments?
*
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a. Magnet field
b. Quench field
c. Fringe field

d. Radiation field

33. Which of the following is the former name of MRI?

*
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a. Magnetic Resistance Imaging
b. Nuclear Magnetic Resistance
c. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

d. Computed Resonance Imaging

34. Which of the following colors represent a weak signal in MRI?

*
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a. White
b. Black

c. Grey
d. Red

35. Which of the following colors represent a strong signal in MRI?

*
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a. White

b. Black
c. Grey
d. Red
36. One determinant of signal strength is the number of precessing nuclei (spin
density) in a given volume of tissue. Which of the following statement is true
regarding the signal produced?
*
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a. The signal produced by the excited nuclei is proportional to the number of nuclei
present

b. The signal produced by the excited nuclei is more than the number of nuclei
present
c. The signal produced by the excited nuclei is less than the number of nuclei
present
d. The signal produced by the excited nuclei has nothing to do with the nuclei
number

37. Which of the following describes spin-lattice relaxation?

*
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a. T1

b. T2
c. T3
d. T4

38. Which of the following is known as spin-spin relaxation?

*
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a. T1
b. T2

c. T3
d. T4
39. Which of the following describes radio frequency?
i. High energy
ii. Low energy
iii. Long wavelength
iv. Short wavelength
*
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a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 3

40. Which of the following statement is true regarding gadolinium?

*
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a. Gadolinium is therefore known as a T1 enhancement agent.
b. Gadolinium is a heavy metal and binds to certain elements in the body such as
membranes and the osseous matrix.
c. Gadolinium cannot be excreted unless it is attached to a chelate.
d. All of the above

41. Which of the following positive contrast agent is used for MR liver imaging?
*
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a. Iodine
b. Manganese

c. Helium
d. Barium Sulfate
42. Which of the following part of MRI system is responsible for initiating the
appropriate radio-wave transmissions and then receives and analyzes the data?
*
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a. Control Console

b. Magnet
c. Gantry
d. Coil

43. Which of the following statement is true regarding slice thickness?

i. More MRI signal is available from a thicker slice than a thinner slice
ii. Thicker slices provide images that are less grainy
iii. Lesions are best visualized using a thicker slice
*
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a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2

c. 3 only
d. All statement is true

44. MAXWELL’S FIELD THEORY OF ELECTROMAGNETIC RADIATION states that:

1. If the distance between two bar magnets is halved, the magnetic force
increases by four times.
2. Inverse Square Law
3. d x 2 = I/4
4. d/2 = I x 4
*
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a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1,2,3 and 4
Correct answer
d. 1,2,3 and 4

45. One tesla (T) is equivalent to

*
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a. 10 Gauss
b. 100 Gauss
c. 1 000 Gauss
d. 10 000 Gauss

46. What is the effect of too much production of heat in the case of the resistive
magnet?
*
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a. No electrical resistance effect
b. Limits the maximum magnetic field strength of the MRI

c. Too much heat in the scan room

d. Too much noise in the scan room

47. Unit of magnetism:

*
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a. Tesla
b. Gauss
c. Both A and B

d. Neither
48. The heat produced is conducted away from the magnet by a cooling system
through a pipe called:
*
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a. Fringe pipe
b. Quench pipe

c. Helium pipe
d. Exhaust pipe

49. A substance used to maintain a super cooled temperature in a

superconducting magnet:
*
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a. Hydrogen
b. Cryogen

c. Frozen H2O
d. Freon

50. The stronger the magnetic field, the faster the precession:
*
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a. The higher the precessional frequency

b. The lower the precessional frequency

c. No effect in frequency
d. No change in frequency

51. It disturbs and excites the precessing proton:

*
1/1
a. Magnet

b. RF pulse
c. Radiation
d. Sound

52. He described the Billiard Ball Model of Atom

*
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a. E. Rutherford
b. J. Dalton

c. D. Mendeleev
d. N. Bohr

53. He described the Nuclear Model of atom

*
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a. E. Rutherford

b. J. Dalton
c. D. Mendeleev
d. N. Bohr

54. It allows the nuclei to absorb and re – emit energy from the RF pulse:
*
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a. Resonance

b. Vector
c. Reconstruction
d. attenuation

55. T2 is also called:

*
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a. Longitudinal relaxation
b. Transverse relaxation

c. Time constant
d. Magnetic field strength

56. T1 is also called:

*
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a. Longitudinal relaxation

b. Transverse relaxation
c. Time constant
d. Magnetic field strength

57. What Nuclear arrangement have same atomic mass number, different atomic
and neutron number?
*
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a. Isomer
b. Isotone
c. Isobar

d. Isotope
58. It is the length of the time that takes the nuclei to return to its original state:
*
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a. Relaxation time

b. Time constant
c. Spin factor
d. decay

59. What will happen to the precessional frequency if the magnetic field
increases?
*
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a. Decrease
b. Increase

c. The same
d. Decrease by 4

60. Which nuclear arrangement have same atomic mass number, atomic number
and neutron number?
*
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a. Isotope
b. Isobar
c. Isotone
d. Isomer

61. What nuclear arrangement have same neutron number but have different
atomic mass and atomic number?
*
1/1
a. Isotope
b. Isobar
c. Isotone

d. Isomer

62. The process in which the nuclei gives off its energy to its surrounding:*
1/1
a. Lattice

b. Precession
c. Larmor
d. Spin

63. The time from the beginning of one RF pulse to the start of new cycle of
pulses:
*
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a. Relaxation time
b. Repetition time

c. Time constant
d. Resonant time

64. TI images of fat tissue appear:

*
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a. Dark/Black
b. Bright
c. Light Gray
d. Dark gray

65. One determinant of signal strength is the number of precessing nuclei in a

given volume of tissue. The term that describes this phenomena is
*
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a. Spin spin
b. Spin lattice
c. Spin density

d. Spinning Nuclei

66. Temperature of a super – cooled, cryogenic environment should be

maintained as low as:
*
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a. – 452 F

b. – 269 C
c. Both
d. None
Correct answer
c. Both

67. Low proton density would result in:

*
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a. Weak RF Signal

b. Strong RF signal
c. Bright Images
d. White Images

68. The ability to differentiate anatomical density with respect to the surrounding
anatomic regions:
*
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a. Spatial resolution
b. Contrast resolution

c. Artifact reduction
d. Attenuation

69. Contraindication in MRI

*
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a. Claustrophobic px
b. Metallic clips

c. Pacemaker
d. AOTA
Correct answer
d. AOTA

70. Which of the following is least energetic?

*
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a. X-ray
b. Visible light
c. Microwave
d. Radiowave
71. A special type of spin echo pulse sequence that can collect both T1 and T2
weighted images within the echo scan:
*
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a. Variable echo
b. Echo time
c. Repetition time
d. Relaxation time

Correct answer
a. Variable echo

72. Which of the following step comes first?

*
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a. RF Transmit coil

b. RF Receive by patient
c. Receiver coil: capture signal from patient
d. Signal move along channel

73. MRI parameter with long TR and TE:

*
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a. Spin – spin relaxation
b. T2
c. T1
d. A and B
74. Spin Density:
*
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a. Nuclear Density
b. Proton Density
c. Both A and B

d. Neither

75. Surface coil in MR imaging serves as:

*
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a. Immobilizer
b. Antenna

c. Emitter
d. Converter

76. What do you call a Volume coils that both transmit and receive radio-
frequency (RF) pulses?
*
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a. Transmitter
b. Receiver
c. Transceiver

d. Remitter

77. MRI is dependent on:

*
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a. Nuclear magnetism

b. Atomic magnetism
c. X – ray emission
d. Fluoroscopic signal

78. Clear opacification of contrast agent:

*
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a. 5 -15 minutes

b. 20 – 30 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 24 hours

79. Type of magnet used in MRI:

*
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a. Resistive magnet
b. Permanent magnet
c. Superconducting
d. All of the abov

80. A type of magnet that maintain its magnetic field strength through a super
cooled temperature:
*
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a. Superconducting magnet
b. Permanent magnet
c. Resistive magnet
d. Endoscopic magnet

81. MRI operates with the use of

*
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a. Ionizing radiation
b. Magnets

c. Gamma Ray
d. Infrared

82. What is the most common positive contrast media used in MRI?
*
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a. Barium Sulfate
b. Gadolinium

c. Manganese
d. Helium

83. MR is initial procedures of choice for detecting tumors and abnormalities

except
*
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a. Craniopharynxgioma
b. Calcified granulomas

c. Hepatocarcinoma
d. Liver Lesion
84. Which of the following provide similar information in subacute and chronic
strokes
i. CT
ii. MRI
iii. Xray
iv. Ultrasound
*
1/1
a. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

85. It is known as T1 enhancement contrast agent.

*
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a. BaSO4
b. Gadolinium

c. Manganese
d. Helium

86. Calcification in a certain tumors is more difficult to detect in

*
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a. MRI

b. CT
c. Both
d. None
87. Chest and cardiac imaging are more difficult in MRI because of
*
1/1
a. Involuntary motion
b. Respiratory motion
c. A and b

d. None

88. Detecting fracture in the cranium can be the best to demonstrate in

*
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a. CT
b. MRI
c. X-ray
d. A and C

89. Diethylene triaminepentaacetic acid (DTPA) is an example of?

*
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a. MRI Contrast agent
b. MRI Negative Contrast agent
c. MRI positive contrast agent
d. MRI Chelate

90. MR in musculoskeletal imaging is particularly valuable in studying of

*
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a. Joints disease
b. Ligaments
c. Arthritis
d. AOTA

91. A form of element Which is abundant in the body, therefore ideal in FMR
imaging:
*
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a. Hydrogen

b. Cryogen
c. Oxygen
d. Carbon
Correct answer
c. Oxygen

92. How do we introduce Gadolinium in our body?

i. Intravenously
ii. Orally
iii. Rectal
iv. Intra Osseous
*
1/1
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 1,2,3 and 4

93. It is known as T2 enhancement agent

*
1/1
a. Barium sulfate
b. ‘Gadolinium
c. Manganese

d. Helium

94. In MR imaging RF pulse are absorbed and reemitted, this phenomenon is

known as:
*
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a. Precession
b. Resonance

c. Irradiation
d. Ionization

95. The stronger the magnetic field the faster the precessional rate and it
produces:
*
1/1
a. Low processional frequency
b. High processional frequency

c. No change
d. Depends on body habitus

96. Magnetic moment can be presented by a vector that describe

*
1/1
a. Magnetic field strength
b. Direction
c. Both
d. NOTA
[Link] field can caused the nuclei to:
a. Precess
b. Wobble
c. Spin
d. AOTA
[Link] of the following statement is true?
a. MRI images can be obtained in sagittal, Transverse, oblique and coronal plane
b. In CT scan, data can only be obtained Transverse plane
c. There is a loss in resolution if you reformat CT images
d. All statement is true
99. How do you acquire a 3D image in MRI?
a. Series of slices
b. Block of tissue
c. Pixel series
d. Matrix
100.T1 images sometimes called:
a. Longitudinal relaxation time
b. Transverse relaxation time
c. Spin Spin
d. None

1. All of the following nuclei are said to be MR active, except:

*
1/1
A. Hydrogen-1
B. Carbon-13
C. Sodium-22
D. Fluorine-19

2. Alignment of the magnetic moment in the opposite direction to the external

magnetic field have:
1. Low energy state
2. High energy state
3. Anti-parallel alignment
4. Parallel alignment
*
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A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3

D. 2 and 4

3. At 1.5 Tesla, what would be the precessional frequency of a hydrogen nuclei?

*
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A. 21.23 MHz
B. 42.57 MHz
C. 63.86 MHz

D. None of the choices

4. Which of the following tissue compositions is most efficient in receiving

energy from spins?
*
1/1
A. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Fat

C. Grey matter
D. White matter

5. Which of the following external parameters will produce a T1-weighted

image?
1. short TR
2. short TE
3. long TR
4. long TE
*
1/1
A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

6. Which of the following images will best demonstrate pathology?

*
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A. T1-weighted image
B. T2-weighted image

C. Proton density image

D. None of the choices

7. There were 9 protons pointing up. After the RF pulse is sent, 2 point down.
What is the net nuclear magnetization vector?
*
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A. 3
B. 5

C. 6
D. 7

8. Which of the following happens after a radiowave is sent to the precessing

protons?
1. Increase longitudinal magnetization
2. Decrease longitudinal magnetization
3. Increase transverse magnetization
4. Decrease transverse magnetization
*
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A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3

D. 2 and 4

9. T1 is also called:
*
1/1
A. Longitudinal magnetization
B. Spin-lattice relaxation

C. Spin-spin relaxation
D. Both A and B

10. Which of the following has the longest T2 decay time?

*
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A. Water

B. Fat
C. CSF
D. White matter
11. Which of the following has the shortest T1 decay time?
*
1/1
A. Water
B. Fat

C. CSF
D. White matter

12. Which of the following best describes T1?

*
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A. The time it takes for 63% of the longitudinal magnetization to recover in tissue.

B. The time it takes for 37% of the longitudinal magnetization to recover in tissue.
C. The time it takes for 63% of the transverse magnetization to recover in tissue.
D. The time it takes for 37% of the transverse magnetization to recover in tissue

13. Which of the following extrinsic contrast parameters is primarily used to

control T2?
*
1/1
A. TE

B. TR
C. Flip angle
D. Turbo factor

14. What is the appearance of water in a T2-weighted image?

*
1/1
A. hypointense
B. hyperintense

C. isointense
D. undetermined

15. Which of the following external parameters will produce a proton density-
weighted image?
1. short TR
2. short TE
3. long TR
4. long TE
*
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A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3

D. 2 and 4

16. The time it takes for 63% of the transverse magnetization to be lost is called?
*
1/1
A. T1
B. T2

C. TE
D. TR

17. A long TE and long TR will present fat to appear:

*
1/1
A. white
B. black

C. gray
D. yellow

18. When the RF is turned off:

*
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A. The protons remains in equilibrium
B. Phase coherence is established
C. The protons loses phase coherence

D. Both A and C

19. Which of the following will produce the highest magnetic field intensity?
*
1/1
A. Permanent Magnets
B. Electromagnets
C. Superconducting magnets

D. Resistive magnets

20. When a body is placed in a strong external magnetic field:

*
1/1
A. the neutrons are stabilized
B. the protons get in the way of the external magnetic field
C. the protons align themselves to oppose the external magnetic field
D. Both B and C

21. What is precession?

*
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A. the rotation of a proton around its axis in the Earth’s magnetic field
B. the rotation of a proton around its axis in the magnetic field of the scanner
C. wobbling type of motion of a non-moving proton
D. wobbling type of motion of a proton rotating in its axis

22. Which of the following best describes precession frequency?

*
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A. It is dependent on the number of parallel protons
B. It is dependent on the number of anti-parallel protons
C. It increases with increasing external magnetic field strength

D. It decreases with increasing external magnetic field strength

23. Which of the following best describes longitudinal magnetization?

*
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A. It corresponds to a sum vector of all stationary protons
B. It corresponds to the sum vector of all precessing protons

C. It is weakest at the end of relaxation

D. It describes the magnetic field along the outside of the MR scanner
24. To establish resonance, the RF pulse should:
*
1/1
A. Cause transversal magnetization to disappear
B. Be sent in at half the transversal magnetization time
C. Be twice as high as the precession frequency
D. Match the Larmor frequency of protons

25. How can dephasing protons be rephased?

*
1/1
A. send 180 degree RF pulse

B. administer contrast media

C. send 90 degree RF pulse
D. administer gadolinium DTPA

26. All of the following are true regarding the use of short TE, except:
*
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A. It will produce T1 weighted image
B. It will produce T2 weighted image

C. It will produce a proton density image

D. Both A and C

27. All of the following are the advantages of MRI over other diagnostic imaging
modalities, except:
*
1/1
A. Best low contrast resolution
B. No radiation

C. Totally non-invasive
D. None of the choices

28. Which of the following coils provides the best SNR?

*
1/1
A. Body
B. Head
C. Surface

D. Shim

29. The MRI signal emitted by the patient during relaxation is called .
*
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A. RF emission
B. magnetic field
C. electric current
D. free induction decay

30. When the RF is turned off:

1. Increase longitudinal magnetization
2. Decrease longitudinal magnetization
3. Increase transverse magnetization
4. Decrease transverse magnetization
*
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A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4

C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

31. Which of the following NMR parameters is an indication of hydrogen

concentration?
*
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A. T1 relaxation
B. T2 relaxation
C. spin density
D. All of the choices

Correct answer
C. spin density

32. The regrowth of magnetization along the z-axis

*
1/1
A. longitudinal relaxation time

B. transverse relaxation time

C. external magnetic field
D. free induction decay

33. Dephasing of the net magnetization in the xy plane is defined as

*
1/1
A. longitudinal relaxation time
B. transverse relaxation time
C. phase coherence
D. out of phase

34. If the TE is equal to 30 ms and the TR is equal to 500 ms, what would be the
resultant image?
*
1/1
A. T1 weighted image

B. T2 weighted image
C. Proton density image
D. Both A and C

35. Which of the following parameters will produce high contrast?

1. short TE
2. long TE
3. short TR
4. long TR
*
1/1
A. 1 and 3
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3

D. 2 and 4

36. Substances containing unpaired electrons within the atom that induce small
magnetic field.
*
1/1
A. Non magnetic substances
B. Paramagnetic substances
C. Diamagnetic substances
D. Ferromagnetic substances

37. In slice selection, which of the following gradients will be energized to

produce coronal cuts?
*
1/1
A. X
B. Y

C. Z
D. isocenter

38. In a superconducting magnet, what is the temperature of liquid helium?

*
1/1
A. 77 Kelvin
B. 4 Kelvin

C. 77 degree Celsius
D. 4 degree Celsius

39. What is the principal disadvantage of resistive electromagnets?

*
1/1
A. High capital cost
B. High operational cost

C. Intense fringe fields

D. Low power consumption
40. Which of the following are screened prior to MRI examination?
*
1/1
A. pacemaker
B. prosthesis
C. aneurysm clip
D. All of the above

41. This is the area where patients are typically screened and history is taken.
*
1/1
A. Zone I
B. Zone II

C. Zone III
D. Zone IV

42. The Magnet is Always On signage is usually located in?

*
1/1
A. Zone I
B. Zone II
C. Zone III
D. Zone IV

43. Which of the following will increase SNR?

1. increased TR
2. decreased TR
3. increased TE
4. decreased TE
*
1/1
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4

C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

44. An increase in all of the following will improve spatial resolution in MRI,
except:
1. matrix size
2. FOV
3. Slice thickness
*
1/1
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3

D. None of the choices

45. Increasing the TR will significantly increase the following parameters, except:
*
1/1
A. T1-weighting

B. SNR
C. scan time
D. Both B and C
 46. What artifact has bright or dark lines that run parallel and adjacent to borders
of abrupt intensity change?
*
1/1
A. Susceptibility
B. Gibbs

C. Chemical shift
D. Aliasing

47. What is the solution of aliasing artifact in MRI?

*
1/1
A. increase FOV

B. decrease FOV
C. increase slice thickness
D. increase slice thickness

48. Which of the following artifacts can be resolved by increasing the bandwidth?
1. Susceptibility
2. Chemical shift
3. Partial volume
*
1/1
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2

C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3

49. Patient movement during MRI scanning will result to this kind of artifact.
*
1/1
A. Susceptibility
B. Ghosting

C. Wrap Around
D. Truncation

50. Who among the following scientist proposed that a changing magnetic field
will induce current?
*
1/1
A. Hans Christian Oersted
B. Michael Faraday

C. Felix Bloch
D. Edward Purcell

51. All of the following statements are true regarding law of induction, except:
*
0/1
A. The induced EMF is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic field
B. The induced EMF is proportional to the number of turns
C. The induced EMF is in the direction of the changing magnetic field that causes it.
D. None of the choices

Correct answer
C. The induced EMF is in the direction of the changing magnetic field that causes it.

52. Stray magnetic field that exits outside the MRI system
*
1/1
A. external magnetic field
B. fringe magnetic field

C. gradient magnetic field

D. scattered magnetic field

53. What is the main potential biologic response from RF?

*
1/1
A. carcinogenesis
B. tissue heating

C. electric induction
D. polarization

54. The principal hazard to patients and personnel in an MRI facility is .

*
1/1
A. main magnetic field
B. fringe magnetic field
C. ferromagnetic projectiles

D. RF field

55. Which of the following is suppressed by the FLAIR pulse sequence?

*
1/1
A. fat
B. bone
C. air
D. water
56. Which of the following is suppressed by the STIR pulse sequence?
*
1/1
A. fat

B. bone
C. air
D. water

57. Long TR will result to:

*
1/1
A. Accelerated T1
B. Accelerated T2
C. Longitudinal magnetization that is close to equilibrium

D. Transverse magnetization that is close to equilibrium

58. Regardless of the type of magnet, the z-axis is always:

*
0/1
A. perpendicular with the magnetic field
B. vertical

C. horizontal
D. parallel with the magnetic field
Correct answer
D. parallel with the magnetic field
59. Which of the following terms best describes an MR image?
*
0/1
A. characteristic
B. dynamic
C. representational
D. static

Correct answer
C. representational

60. Which of the following serves as an image receptor in MRI?

*
1/1
A. magnet
B. coils

C. detector
D. shim coils

61. What is the principal mechanism for producing an MRI signal?

*
1/1
A. electromagnetic induction

B. relaxation time
C. proton density
D. spin

62. Which of the following is not a principal MRI parameter?

*
1/1
A. T1
B. T2
C. Larmor frequency

D. spin density

63. Which of the following is the principal advantage of MRI over other imaging
modalities?
*
1/1
A. Spatial resolution
B. Contrast resolution

C. Temporal resolution
D. Resolution

64. A partial saturation image made with a short repetition time is most likely:
*
1/1
A. T1-weighted image

B. T2-weighted image
C. Proton density weighted image
D. Spin density weighted

65. The joint prosthesis of a patient who will undergo MRI will:
*
0/1
A. degrade the image
B. be pulled from the patient
C. always be contraindicated
D. heat
Correct answer
A. degrade the image

66. When the Y gradient is identified as the slice selection gradient, what is the
image plane?
*
1/1
A. coronal

B. sagittal
C. transverse
D. oblique

67. In an MR image, a pixel emitting an intense signal would be rendered what?

*
1/1
A. black
B. dark gray
C. white

D. light gray

68. In the absence of external magnetic, what is the orientation of the protons in
the patient’s body?
*
1/1
A. parallel
B. anti-parallel
C. random

D. spinning

69. What happens to spin-up nuclei after the introduction of RF pulse?

*
1/1
A. it moves from high energy to low energy

B. it moves from low energy to high energy

C. it aligns parallel to the magnetic field
D. it aligns anti-parallel to the magnetic field

70. What do you call a low MR signal?

*
1/1
A. hyperintense
B. hyperdense
C. hypointense

D. hypodense

71. Which of the following will absorb energy efficiently?

*
1/1
A. water
B. fat

C. air
D. bone
72. What best describes the decrease of nuclear magnetization vector in the
transverse plane?
*
1/1
A. equilibrium
B. relaxation

C. magnetization
D. spin

73. How long is the spin-lattice relaxation time?

*
1/1
A. 300 – 2000 microseconds
B. 300 – 2000 milliseconds

C. 30 – 150 microseconds
D. 30 – 150 milliseconds

74. Which of the following is longest in terms of time?

*
0/1
A. T1
B. T2
C. TR

D. TE
Correct answer
A. T1
75. Which of the following will exhibit a short scale of contrast?
1. short TE
2. long TE
3. short TR
4. long TR
*
1/1
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3

D. 2 and 4

76. Which of the following will generate the highest noise?

*
1/1
A. short TE
B. long TE

C. short TR
D. long TR

77. Which of the following will generate the highest SNR?

1. short TE
2. long TE
3. short TR
4. long TR
*
1/1
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4

C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
78. What is the appearance of a short T2 relaxation time in MRI?
*
1/1
A. white
B. black

C. gray
D. Undertermined

79. Low proton density in an MRI appears:

*
1/1
A. white
B. black

C. gray
D. undetermined

80. In proton density weighted image, which of the following should not be used?
*
1/1
A. short TR

B. long TR
C. short TE
D. None of the choices

81. A narrow bandwidth will result to:

*
1/1
A. high spatial resolution

B. low spatial resolution

C. thick slices
D. None of the choices

82. Which of the following will enhance T2 relaxation time

*
1/1
A. gadolinium-DTPA
B. iron oxide

C. gadolinium
D. iron sulfide

83. To reduce scan time, the matrix size should be:

*
1/1
A. increased
B. decreased

C. Neither A or B
D. No relationship

84. All of the following will appear dark in T1-weighted image, except:
*
1/1
A. Neoplasm
B. Edema
C. CSF
D. Proteinogenous fluids
85. All of the following will appear bright in T2-weighted image, except:
*
1/1
A. Neoplasm
B. Edema
C. CSF
D. Proteinogenous fluids

86. All of the following comprise a permanent magnet used in MRI, except:
*
1/1
A. Nickel
B. Aluminum
C. Copper

D. Cobalt

87. Which of the following magnets employed in MRI will have no significant
fringe fields?
*
1/1
A. Permanent magnet

B. Resistive electromagnet
C. Superconducting electromagnet
D. None of the choices
88. It is a type of container that houses the superconducting wires and cryogens.
*
1/1
A. Dewar
B. Cryostat

C. Helostat
D. Nitrostat

89. A type of shield wherein ferromagnetic materials are placed in the walls of
the room.
*
1/1
A. Active shielding
B. Passive shielding

C. Shim shielding
D. Fringe shield

90. What type of coils varies the external magnetic field?

*
1/1
A. Gradient coils

B. RF coils
C. Surface coil
D. Head coils

91. What type of coil transmits and receives the signal?

*
1/1
A. Gradient coils
B. RF coils

C. Helmholtz coil
D. Maxwell coil

92. Which type of gradient coils is positioned across the patient laterally?
*
1/1
A. X

B. Y
C. Z
D. Combined

93. Simultaneous energizing of the XYZ coils will result to

____________________slice.
*
1/1
A. coronal
B. sagittal
C. transverse
D. oblique

94. What is the slew rate for gradient coils?

*
0/1
A. 30 mT/m
B. 40 mT/m
C. 50 mT/m
D. 60 mT/m
Correct answer
B. 40 mT/m

95. In permanent magnets, what is used to uniformalize the external magnetic

field?
*
0/1
A. Shim coils
B. Pole face
C. Gradient coils

D. RF coils
Correct answer
B. Pole face

96. It allows flow of electricity with no resistance at temperature near absolute

zero.

A. Paramagnetism
B. Superparamagnetism
C. Semiconductivity
D. Superconductivity
97. All of the following are characteristics of a proton making it suitable for MR
imaging, except?
A. Possess electrical charge
B. Possess a spin
C. Possess a mass
D. All of the above
98. It is defined as the specific frequency of resonance.
A. Precession frequency
B. Larmor frequency
C. speed of precession
D. All of the choices

[Link] of the following magnets employed in MRI is usually an open architecture?

A. Permanent
B. Resistive
C. Superconducting
D. Electromagnets
[Link] is the critical temperature of niobium-titanium?
A. 4 Kelvin- Helium
B. 9 Kelvin- Niobium-Titanium
C. 7 Kelvin
D. 77 Kelvin- Nitrogen (Liquid) Cryogen
CT SCAN
1. Which of the following is the major shortcoming of radiography?
A. image blur due to tube motion
B. superimposition of structures
C. ghost images due to detector movement
D. contrast degradation due to low kVp
[Link] of the following are goals of CT scan, except:
A. Minimal superimposition
B. Improved image contrast
C. Qualitative measurement of differences in tissue contrast
D. Quantitative measurement of differences in tissue contrast
3. Data acquisition in CT refers to:
A. acquiring information from the CT detectors
B. acquiring information from the computer
C. acquiring data from the patient through systematic motion of the x-ray tube and
detector
D. All of the choices
4. Which of the following is used to calculate relative transmission measurements?
A. Io/I
B. I/Io
C. log Io/I
D. log I/Io
5. All of the following depends on attenuation in CT, except:
A. electrons per gram
B. atomic number
C. tissue density
D. type of radiation
6. Conversion of the attenuation readings into a CT image is accomplished by a
mathematical procedure known as .
A. CT number
B. logarithm
C. convolution
D. algorithm
7. Which of the following controls image brightness?
A. Window width
B. Window level
C. Window center
D. Both B and C
[Link] is the arbitrary number assigned by a computer to indicate relative density
of a given tissue in CT scan?
A. Heat units
B. CT number
C. CT index
D. Hounsfield index
[Link] many pixels comprise the first clinical CT image?
A. 4900 pixels
B. 6400 pixels
C. 65, 536 pixels
D. 262, 144 pixels
[Link] region from which the transmission measurements are recorded during
scanning.

A. field of view
B. reconstruction circle
C. scan FOV
D. All of the above

11. Which of the following is used to compute for voxel size?

1. pixel size
2. slice thickness
3. FOV
4. matrix size
*
0/1
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

12. Which of the following terms refers to the size, shape, motion and path
traced by the x-ray beam in CT scanning?
*
1/1
A. Detector tracing
B. Beam geometry
C. Generation
D. Data acquisition

13. Which of the following scanner, the apex of the fan beam originates in the
detector?
*
1/1
A. Second generation
B. Third generation
C. Fourth generation

D. Fifth generation

14. Which of the following scanner uses no x-ray tubes?

*
1/1
A. Second generation
B. Third generation
C. Fourth generation
D. Fifth generation

15. Electromechanical devices consisting of circular electrical conductive rings

and brushes that transmit electrical energy across a rotating interface.
*
0/1
A. target rings
B. spiral rings
C. slip rings
D. Both B and C
16. What is the purpose of employing filtration in CT scanners?
*
0/1
A. To remove short wavelength x-rays
B. To remove low energy x-rays
C. To increase beam attenuation
D. All of the choices

17. Which of the following determines the slice thickness and the amount of
patient dose?
*
0/1
A. Collimation
B. Pre-patient collimation

C. Pre detector collimation

D. Post-patient collimation

18. The ratio of the largest signal to the smallest signal to be measured by a CT
detector is referred to as the:
*
1/1
A. efficiency
B. stability
C. dynamic range

D. response time

19. The CT number of water is

*
1/1
. A. -1000
B. 0

C. 100
D. 1000

20. What is the term used to refer to the opening of the gantry through which
patient passes during scan?
*
1/1
A. Window
B. Bore
C. Door
D. Aperture

21. The patient support table is capable of maximum weight of:

*
1/1
A. 400 lbs
B. 450 lbs
C. 500 lbs
D. 600 lbs

22. When the field of view increases and the matrix size remains unchanged, the
contrast resolution will be
*
1/1
A. improve
B. degraded
C. unchanged
D. doubled
Option 5

23. Increasing the window width of the CT image display window will most likely:
*
1/1
A. increase display

B. decrease display contrast

C. increase brightness
D. decrease brightness

24. Increasing the CT image matrix from 256 x 256 to 512 x 512 will likely
improve:
*
1/1
A. Patient dose
B. Contrast Resolution
C. Spatial resolution

D. Noise

25. It is the assignment of appropriate gray level to each pixel in an image.

*
1/1
A. Mapping
B. Windowing
C. Plotting
D. Both A and B

26. A 24 cm FOV is imaged using a 512 x 512 matrix, what is the pixel size?
*
1/1
A. 0.5 mm

B. 2.13 mm
C. 0.05 mm
D. 1.25 mm

27. Two principal demands placed on a CT x-ray tube is:

*
1/1
A. high x-ray intensity and rotation speed
B. heat dissipation and beam filtration
C. high x-ray intensity and heat

D. line focus principle and rotating anode

28. What is the image distortion caused by combination of table indexing and
respiration which may cause anatomy to be scanned more than once or at all?
*
1/1
A. Image registration
B. Image misregistration

C. Streak artifact
D. Stair step artifact
29. Which of the following CT artifacts is a characteristic of third generation CT
scan machine?
*
1/1
A. Beam hardening artifacts
B. Motion artifacts
C. Ring artifact

D. Partial volume effect artifact

30. The ability of CT scanner to demonstrate differences in tissue density.

*
1/1
A. Contrast resolution

B. Spatial resolution
C. Density
D. Contrast

31. One troublesome result of using high kVp during CT imaging is .

*
1/1
A. increase in x-ray tube loading

B. reduction in image time

C. reduction in reconstruction time
D. increase in radiation intensity in image receptor

32. Which of the following describes the CT x-ray tube?

*
1/1
A. The rotor speed is fixed at 3600 rpm
B. It has a heat capacity of atleast 1 MHU
C. It is positioned with the anode-cathode axis parallel with patient axis.
D. It is positioned with the anode-cathode axis perpendicular with patient axis.

33. What is the pitch when the x-ray beam width is 40mm and table moves
60mm per x-ray tube rotation?
*
1/1
A. 0.67
B. 2.5
C. 1.5

D. 2.0

34. CT collimation is most likely used to change the x-ray beam:

*
1/1
A. energy
B. width

C. intensity
D. isocenter

35. Which of the following is a characteristic of fourth generation CT scanners?

1. Wide fan beam
2. Tungsten target rings
3. Curvilinear detector array
*
1/1
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2

C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3

36. Which of the following CT generations uses a detector ring?

*
1/1
A. 4th generation
B. 4th and 5th generation

C. 4th, 5th, 6th, and 7th generation

D. 3rd generation

37. Which of the following best describes an image projection?

*
1/1
A. image encoded in the remnant x-ray beam
B. signal acquired by each detector

C. latent image in computer space

D. reconstructed image

38. Compared to projection radiography, conventional tomography will improve

which of the following?
1. patient dose
2. contrast resolution
3. superimposition of tissues
4. spatial resolution
*
1/1
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

39. A mathematical technique used to estimate the value of a function from

known values on either side of the function.
*
1/1
A. Convolution
B. Interpolation

C. Fourier transform
D. Algorithm

40. Which of the following reconstruction algorithms is related to summation

method?
*
1/1
A. Back projection

B. Iterative method
C. Analytic method
D. Filtered back projection

41. Which of the following characteristics contributes to heat dissipation in a CT

x-ray tube?
*
1/1
A. high speed rotor
B. small focal spot
C. high frequency generator
D. increased beam filtration

42. Which of the following are the result of preprocessed scan data and are
subjected to the image reconstruction algorithm used by the scanner?
*
1/1
A. measurement data
B. raw data

C. convolved data
D. image data

43. Which of the following depends radiation measurement and conversion

through excitation?
*
1/1
A. Gas-filled detectors
B. Semiconductor detectors
C. C. Solid state detectors

D. None of the choices

44. A 40cm FOV is images using 512 matrix and 5mm slice thickness, what is the
voxel size?
*
1/1
A. 4 mm
B. 4 mm3

C. 3 mm
D. 3 mm3
45. The following are characteristics of 3rd generation CT scanner, except:
*
1/1
A. narrow fan beam

B. rotate-rotate geometry
C. thin tungsten septa
D. curvilinear array of detectors

46. Gray level mapping is also referred to as all of the following except;
*
1/1
A. contrast stretching
B. image enhancement

C. windowing
D. histogram modification

47. Which of the following kernels will most likely be used for edge
enhancement?
1. high-pass filter
2. low-pass filter
3. high frequency convolution filter
4. low frequency convolution filter
*
1/1
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4

C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
Option 5
48. Which of the following kernels will most likely be used to reduce noise and
brightness, and produce a long-scale of contrast?
1. high-pass filter
2. low-pass filter
3. high frequency convolution filter
4. low frequency convolution filter
*
1/1
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3

D. 2 and 4

49. Employing collimation in CT scan will help:

1. reduce patient dose
2. improve spatial resolution
3. improve contrast resolution
*
1/1
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3

50. The use of small focal spot size produces:

*
1/1
A. low patient dose
B. increase contrast
C. increase spatial resolution
D. more x-rays

51. The following affects the amount of patient dose, except:

*
1/1
A. voltage
B. current
C. pre-patient collimator
D. pre-detector collimator

52. What is the advantage of solid state detector over gas filled detectors?
*
1/1
A. large dynamic range
B. excellent stability
C. high quantum efficiency

D. low conversion efficiency

53. It refers to the movement of the patient couch.

*
1/1
A. table indexing
B. table movement
C. table increment
D. all of the above
54. It determines the midpoint of the range of the gray levels to be displayed on
the monitor
*
0/1
A. Window width
B. Window level
C. Grayscale

D. Mapping

55. All of CT scanners are rotating anode bremsstrahlung x-ray tube except:
*
1/1
A. Turbo charged spiral CT
B. Ultrafast CT

C. Volumetric CT
D. Multislice spiral

56. The following are features of seventh generation CT scanners:

[Link] beam
[Link] detector array
[Link] motion artifact
*
1/1
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
57. A device that absorbs radiation and converts absorbed energy into a small
electrical signal proportional to the radiation intensity
*
1/1
A. Detector

B. X-ray tube
C. Analog to Digital converter
D. Crystal

58. During CT contrast administration, what is the ideal phase for scanning the
chest?
*
1/1
A. Arterial
B. Venous

C. 2 minutes delayed
D. 5 minutes delayed

59. Which of the following photoreactive crystal is widely used for most modern
CT scanners?
*
1/1
A. bismuth germanate oxide
B. cadmium tungstate

C. cesium iodide
D. sodium iodide

60. Which of the following is most likely the CT number for fat?
*
1/1
A. 100
B. -100

C. 200
D. -200

61. Which of the following reconstruction algorithm is widely used for most
modern CT scanners?
*
1/1
A. Back projection
B. Filtered back projection
C. Iterative

D. Fourier transform

62. Which is not a synonym for the preliminary image taken at the start of a CT
examination?
*
1/1
A. topogram
B. surview
C. scanogram
D. spiral

63. Which of the following terms can be describe by counting the number of line
pair per centimeter
*
1/1
A. Spatial resolution
B. Contrast resolution
C. Temporal resolution
D. Resolution

64. What should be done to reduce noise?

*
1/1
A. Reduce the slice thickness
B. Reduce x-ray quantity
C. Increase beam quality
D. Increase the slice thickness

65. Which of the following CT artifacts can be resolved through increasing mA, kV
and slice thickness?
*
0/1
A. Partial volume effect

B. Beam hardening
C. Photon starvation
D. Ring artifact

66. Motion artifact from involuntary movements can be best resolved through:
*
1/1
A. good communication
B. immobilization
C. reduction of kVp
D. reduction of mAs
67. Streaking in CT scan image is caused by .
*
1/1
A. high kVp
B. low mAs
C. longer scan time
D. metals

68. Which of the following MPR algorithms will virtual colonoscopy be best
applied?
*
1/1
A. Shaded surface display
B. Volume rendering

C. MIP
D. 3D reconstruction

69. Which of the following principally influences the section sensitivity profile?
*
1/1
A. DAS
B. Pre-patient collimator
C. Post-patient collimator

D. Detector response time

70. Filtration on the x-ray beam in CT results in:
*
1/1
A. Increased beam energy

B. Increased beam intensity

C. Decreased beam energy
D. Decreased beam intensity

71. A beam shaping filter is useful in CT imaging to:

*
1/1
A. Allow smaller focal spot size
B. Reduce imaging time
C. Reduce patient dose
D. Equalize xray intensity

72. Slip ring technology allows:

1. No interscan delay
2. Continuous data acquisition
3. Improved contrast resolution
*
1/1
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

73. The formula for computing the value of CT number is based on the .
*
1/1
A. linear attenuation coefficient of water

B. mass density of water

C. predetermined by the manufacturer
D. mass attenuation coefficient of water

74. The principal application of quantitative CT is .

*
1/1
A. bone mineral assay

B. CTA
C. Colonoscopy
D. Fracture

75. What kind of artifact will be produced in scanning the posterior cranial fossa?
*
1/1
A. Partial volume

B. Beam hardening
C. Undersampling
D. Stair step

76. Which generation of CT scan machine will cardiac scanning is best suitable?
*
1/1
A. 3rd generation
B. 4th generation
C. 5th generation

D. 6th generation

77. In second generation CT scan, how many translation are necessary in order to
create a single slice?
*
1/1
A. 18

B. 36
C. 180
D. 360

78. What is the significant shortcoming of fourth generation CT scanners?

*
1/1
A. presence of ring artifact
B. increased scatter radiation
C. increased entrance skin dose

D. longer scan time

79. An increase in the following will significantly improve spatial resolution in CT

scan, except:
1. detector size
2. pixel size
3. slice thickness

4. matrix size
*
1/1
A. 2 and 3
B. 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

80. Which of the following image quality parameters, CT excels in?

*
1/1
A. Spatial Resolution
B. Contrast Resolution

C. Temporal Resolution
D. All of the choices

81. An increase in all of the following will degrade contrast resolution, except:
1. pixel size
2. mAs
3. slice thickness
*
1/1
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3

82. It refers to the ability to faithfully reproduce small objects having high subject
contrast.
*
1/1
A. Spatial Resolution
B. Contrast Resolution
C. Detail
D. Both A and C

83. Which of the following will limit contrast resolution?

*
1/1
A. Noise
B. Scatter radiation
C. Fog
D. All of the choices

84. To improve spatial resolution, which of the following should be increased?

*
1/1
A. mAs
B. matrix size

C. pixel size
D. slice thickness

85. It refers to the ability of the CT scanner to assign the correct Hounsfield unit
to a given tissue.
*
1/1
A. Noise reduction
B. Uniformity
C. Linearity

D. Resolution
86. Which of the following terms is described as the reduction of the CT number
toward the middle of a uniform test object?
*
1/1
A. Peaking
B. Cupping

C. Increased uniformity
D. Decreased uniformity

87. Contrast resolution is improved most easily by:

*
1/1
A. increasing the mAs

B. increasing the kVp

C. decreasing the ROI
D. decreasing the FOV

88. During CT examination, what is the principal x-ray interaction?

*
1/1
A. Compton effect

B. Photoelectric effect
C. Coherent scattering
D. Absorption

89. To improve spatial resolution, which of the following combination of FOV and
matrix size would be most effective?
*
1/1
A. 10 cm FOV, 256 x 256
B. 10 cm FOV, 512 x 512

C. 15 cm FOV, 256 x 256

D. 15 cm FOV, 256 x 256

90. Which type of reconstruction filter would best improve spatial resolution?
1. high frequency convolution filter
2. low frequency convolution filter
3. high pass filter
4. low pass filter
*
1/1
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3

D. 2 and 4

91. Contrast resolution is superior with CT examination principally because of:

*
1/1
A. high mAs
B. high kVp
C. collimation

D. high matrix size

92. Which of the following will significantly be reduced by using thinner slices?
*
1/1
A. Spatial resolution
B. Contrast resolution

C. Patient dose
D. Both B and C

93. Pixel size will have the greatest effect on which CT image property?
*
1/1
A. CT number and noise
B. Spatial resolution and noise

C. CT number and spatial resolution

D. linearity and spatial resolution

94. Which of the following artifact appears as a step-like pattern at high contrast
edges?
*
1/1
A. Motion artifact

B. Metal artifact
C. Partial volume artifact
D. Beam hardening artifact

95. All of the following will resolve photon starvation artifact, except:
1. decrease mAs
2. increase kVp
3. thin slices
*
1/1
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3

96. What should be reduced to lower the possibility of partial volume artifact?
*
1/1
A. slice thickness

B. matrix size
C. pixel size
D. voxel size

97. Which of the following are likely to cause a motion artifact on a CT image?
1. voluntary movements
2. involuntary movements
3. long scan time

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
98. What is the appearance of metal artifacts on a CT Image?
A. streak
B. star
C. step-like
D. Both A and C

99. What is the reason why beam hardening artifact is evident on a CT image?
A. thinner slice
B. thicker slice
C. increased beam quality
D. increased beam quantity
100. What happens to patient dose if the pitch is increased?
A. increases proportionally
B. decreases proportionally
C. increases but not proportional
D. decreases but not proportional

NUCMED

1. Nuclear medicine images best portray the following aspects of the organ being
studied except:
A. Physiology
B. Biodistribution
C. Anatomy
D. Pathology
2. The following are true about radiopharmaceuticals, except:
A. Radiopharmaceuticals are combinations of radionuclide and pharmaceutical
B. Radiopharmaceuticals mimic the physiology of a certain organ.
C. Radiopharmaceuticals are also called tracers.
D. Radiopharmaceuticals affect the biodistribution and metabolism of a certain
organ
3. 37 MBq is equal to how many mCi? *
A. 0.001
B. 0.01
C. 1.00
D. 10.00
4. Which of the following subatomic particles is the heaviest? *
A. Proton
B. Electron
C. Neutron
D. Positron

5. Radionuclide produced in a nuclear reactor will most likely to decay by:

A. beta minus
B. beta plus
C. alpha
D. electron capture

6. The following are by products of beta minus decay, except:

1. electron
2. neutrino
3. anti-neutrino
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
7. What happens to the atomic number of a certain element after undergoing
positron emission? *
A. Increase by 2
B. Increase by 1
C. Decrease by 1
D. No change.
8. Positive beta decay will most likely occur if the neutron to proton ratio is: *
A. High
B. Low
C. Same
D. Undetermined
9. The most common radionuclide used in nuclear medicine imaging is . *
A. Fluorine-18
B. Technetium-99
C. Thallium-99m
D. Technetium-99m
10. What type of electromagnetic energy is released after electron capture
occurs?
A. bremsstrahlung radiation
B. characteristic radiation
C. gamma rays
D. ultraviolet rays

11. The atomic mass of a certain element after negatron emission will . *
1/1
A. Increase by 1
B. Decrease by 1
C. Remain unchanged

D. Increase by a factor of 10

12. It is defined as the time required for the body to eliminate half of the
administered dosage of any substance.*
0/1
A. Half-life
B. Physical half-life

C. Biological half-life
D. Effective half-life
Correct answer
C. Biological half-life

13. After ten half lives, the fraction of activity remaining is: *
0/1
A. 1/10
B. (1/10)2

C. (1/10)10
D. (1/2)10
Correct answer
D. (1/2)10

14. Circular devices in which charged particles such as protons and alpha particles
are accelerated in a spiral path in a vacuum *
1/1
A. nuclear reactor
B. generator
C. cyclotron

D. linear accelerator

15. The parent nuclide of Tc-99m *

1/1
A. Mb-99
B. Mo-99

C. Ru-99
D. Rt-99

16. After fast neutrons are produced in a nuclear reactor, what device is used to
slow down these fast neutrons into thermal neutrons *
0/1
A. Deflector
B. Moderator
C. dees

D. fuel rods
Correct answer
B. Moderator

17. The ideal radionuclide in nuclear medicine imaging should be:

1. pure gamma emitter
2. minutes to hours half-life
3. 100 – 200 keV
*
1/1
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

18. The similarities between beta plus, beta minus and electron capture. *
1/1
A. All undergo isomeric transition
B. All undergo isotonic transition
C. All undergo isobaric transition

D. All undergo internal conversion

19. Which of the following collimators will produce a magnified image only? *
1/1
A. Parallel hole
B. Pin-hole
C. Converging

D. Diverging

20. Placing the converging collimator as close as possible to the source will:
1. magnify the image
2. minify the image
3. increase the FOV
4. decrease the FOV
*
0/1
A. 1 and 3

B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
Correct answer
B. 1 and 4

21. Which type of radiation detector depends the measurement of radioactivity

through excitation? *
0/1
A. Basic Ionization chamber
B. Proportional counters
C. Geiger-Mueller counter

D. Scintillation camera
Correct answer
D. Scintillation camera
22. He was credited for the invention and development of Gamma Camera in 1958.
*
0/1
A. Georg de Hevesy
B. Hal Anger

C. Benedict Cassen
D. Enrico Fermi
Correct answer
A. Georg de Hevesy

23. Located at the face of the detector that functions to separate the parallel
gamma rays and keep scattered rays from reaching the crystal. *
0/1
A. Collimator
B. Pulse Height Analyzer
C. Variable aperture collimator
D. Both A and C

Correct answer
A. Collimator

24. A source of iodine-131 (t1/2 = 8 days) is delivered to the nuclear medicine

department calibrated for 100 mCi at 8AM on Monday. If this radioactivity is injected
to the patient at noon on the following Tuesday, what radioactivity will the patient
receive? *
0/1
A. 80 mCi
B. 85 mCi

C. 90 mCi
D. 95 mCi
Correct answer
C. 90 mCi

25. A source of F-18 (t1/2 = 110 minutes) is noted to contain 3 mCi at noon. What
was the radioactivity at 8AM the same day? *
0/1
A. 24 mCi

B. 18 mCi
C. 12 mCi
D. 6 mCi
Correct answer
C. 12 mCi

26. In a typical collimator assembly, the holes of the lead collimator is separated
from one another by this structure. *
0/1
A. Dees
B. Septum
C. Divider

D. Hole separator
Correct answer
B. Septum

27. What type of x-ray interaction with matter will allow photopeak to occur during
gamma ray detection in the crystal? *
0/1
A. Classical Scattering
B. Compton effect
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Pair production

Correct answer
C. Photoelectric effect

28. This phenomenon happens when an inner shell electron is ionized resulting to
the production of characteristic xrays, happened to ionize adjacent electron in the
orbital shell resulting to ionization of that electron. *
0/1
A. Photoelectric effect

B. Compton effect
C. Space charge effect
D. Auger effect
Correct answer
D. Auger effect

29. Higher resolution is achieved if the collimator has: *

1/1
A. smaller holes

B. at lesser distance from the source

C. thicker septa
D. All of the above

30. Sensitivity of the detector increases with: *

0/1
A. thicker septa
B. larger holes
C. smaller holes
D. high resolution
Correct answer
B. larger holes

31. High crystal thickness results to . *

1/1
A. High sensitivity
B. Low sensitivity
C. Low resolution
D. Both A and C

32. Approximately, how many PMTs are found in a single detector assembly? *
1/1
A. 40 – 60
B. 60 – 80
C. 80 – 100

D. 100 – 120

33. Optically transparent material that directs light from the crystal to the PMT. *
1/1
A. light pipe
B. light guide
C. Both A and B

D. cathode ray tube

34. Eliminates z signals that are not within the desired preset energy range *
0/1
A. Positioning circuit

B. Pulse Height Analyzer

C. Photomultiplier tube
D. Algorithm
Correct answer
B. Pulse Height Analyzer

35. An imaging method or technique in which detector heads rotate 360 degrees
around the patient to collect projection data. *
0/1
A. PET
B. SPECT
C. PET/CT
D. SPECT/CT

Correct answer
B. SPECT

36. An imaging method or technique which displays radiopharmaceutical

distribution over specific period. *
0/1
A. Static
B. Whole Body
C. Dynamic
D. SPECT

Correct answer
C. Dynamic

37. It is the radiopharmaceutical used for bone imaging *

1/1
A. Methylene Diphosphonate
B. Tc-99m Sestamibi
C. Diethylene Pentaacetic acid
D. Tc-99m MDP

38. At what time should bone imaging be started if the radiopharmaceutical was
injected at 8AM? *
1/1
A. 9AM
B. 10AM
C. 11AM

D. Immediately after injection

39. After how many minutes post injection should a PET imaging be started? *
0/1
A. 60 minutes
B. 110 minutes

C. 1 hour
D. 2 hours
Correct answer
A. 60 minutes
40. Imaging patients with the use of radiopharmaceuticals and gamma camera is an
example of what type of nuclear medicine procedure? *
0/1
A. In vitro
B. In vivo
C. therapeutic

D. palliative
Correct answer
B. In vivo

41. The source of ionizing radiation exposure in every nuclear medicine imaging
procedure is the . *
0/1
A. Sealed sources
B. Unsealed sources

C. Gamma camera
D. Patient
Correct answer
D. Patient

42. Beta plus decay will most likely occur in radionuclides with: *
1/1
A. proton-poor, neutron rich nuclei
B. neutron-poor, proton rich nuclei

C. high energy state nuclei

D. none of the above
43. It is used to measure the radioactivity of a given sample. *
0/1
A. Cutie pie

B. Dose calibrator
C. Survey meter
D. Proportional counter
Correct answer
B. Dose calibrator

44. The by-product of alpha decay is the emission of what particle? *

1/1
A. 2 protons
B. 2 neutron
C. Helium nucleus

D. alpha rays

45. It is where radioactive materials and pharmaceuticals are stored to protect

people from the possible hazards of radiation *
1/1
A. RIA
B. Cold lab
C. Radiation lab
D. Hot lab

46. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used exclusively for renal cortical
imaging? *
0/1
A. Tc-99m Diethylenetriamine Pentaacetic Acid

B. Tc-99m Dimercaptosuccinic Acid

C. Tc-99m Methylene Diphosphonate
D. Tc-99m Pertechnetate
Correct answer
B. Tc-99m Dimercaptosuccinic Acid

47. Which of the following collimators below will most likely be used for bone
imaging? *
0/1
A. Low Energy All Purpose
B. Low Energy High Resolution
C. Medium Energy All Purpose
D. High Energy All Purpose

Correct answer
B. Low Energy High Resolution

48. In a Tc-99m generator system, the molybdenum together with the alumina
column is collectively referred to as the . *
0/1
A. Pig

B. Cow
C. goat
D. horse
Correct answer
B. Cow
49. What happens to the atomic mass of a certain element after undergoing
positron emission? *
1/1
A. Increase by 2
B. Increase by 1
C. Decrease by 1
D. No change.

50. In which of the following nuclear medicine procedures imaging will Tc-99m
magcroaggregated albumin be used. *
1/1
A. Bone Scintigraphy
B. Bone Marrow Scintigraphy
C. Cardiac Scintigraphy
D. Lung Perfusion Scintigraphy

51. Which of the following nuclear medicine imaging procedures will Tc-99m sulfur
colloid is most likely used? *
0/1
A. Meckel’s diverticulum scan

B. Lymphoscintigraphy
C. Myocardial Perfusion
D. Cerebral Perfusion
Correct answer
B. Lymphoscintigraphy

52. Which of the following diagnostic applications will I-123 MIBG is most likely
used? *
1/1
A. Adrenal medullary tumor imaging

B. Somatostatin receptor tumor imaging

C. Thyroid imaging
D. B-cell lymphoma imaging

53. Sestamibi means: *

0/1
A. Hexakis Methoxyisobutyl isonitrile
B. Hexakis Methyleneisobutyl isonitrile
C. Hexakis Methoxyisobenzyl isonitrate

D. Hexakis Metheyleneisobenzyl isonitrate

Correct answer
A. Hexakis Methoxyisobutyl isonitrile

54. Which of the following quality control procedures for radionuclides will ensure
that the presence of Al2O3 in the eluate is as low as possible? *
0/1
A. Radionuclidic purity
B. Chemical purity
C. Radiochemical purity
D. Apyrogenecity

Correct answer
B. Chemical purity

55. The following are radiopharmaceuticals can used for myocardial perfusion
imaging:
1. Tc-99m sestamibi
2. Tc-99m tetrofosmin
3. Thallium-201 chloride
*
1/1
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

56. How many minutes should scanning for cardiac stress imaging be started if Tl-
201 is used? *
0/1
A. As soon as the cardiac stress test is finished
B. After 15 minutes

C. After 30 minutes
D. After 45 minutes
Correct answer
A. As soon as the cardiac stress test is finished

57. Which of the following would be the best alternative drug to use for cardiac
stress if the patient is unable to run in a treadmill? *
0/1
A. Heparin
B. Pyrophosphate
C. Tetrofosmin

D. Persantin
Correct answer
D. Persantin

58. Route of administration of radiopharmaceutical in lung ventilation imaging *

0/1
A. intravenous
B. intraarterial
C. inhalation through the nose

D. inhalation through the mouth

Correct answer
D. inhalation through the mouth

59. Nuclear medicine imaging procedure that demonstrates the flow of blood from
the coronary arteries to the heart muscles. *
1/1
A. Multigated Acquisition
B. Myocardial Perfusion Imaging

C. Percutaneous Coronary Angiography

D. Radionuclide Ventriculography

60. The gamma camera detectors will most likely be positioned ant *
1/1
A. Horseshoe kidney
B. Kidney transplant
C. Renal allograft
D. All of the above
61. How many hour/s should scanning be started to visualize the
radiopharmaceutical in the renal cortex? *
0/1
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct answer
B. 2

62. The best view or projection to evaluate the heart chambers. *

1/1
A. LPO
B. LAO

C. RPO
D. RAO

63. Which of the following steps is most likely the first step to undertake in MUGA
scanning? *
1/1
A. Injection of Tc-99m pertechnetate
B. Injection of stannous pyrophosphate

C. Blood extraction
D. Blood infusion

64. Which of the following gamma camera detector placement is most likely to be
used in liver scintigraphy? *
0/1
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. lateral

D. oblique
Correct answer
B. Posterior

65. Tc-99m sulfur colloid is phagocytosized by these cells found in the liver,
essential for liver scintigraphy. *
1/1
A. Hepatocytes
B. Acini
C. Brownian cells
D. Kupffer cells

66. Which of the following will stimulate gall bladder contraction necessary for the
evaluation of its ejection fraction? *
0/1
A. Give the patient fatty meal before the examination
B. Administer cholecystokinin intravenously
C. Administer morphine sulfate intravenously
D. Both A and B

Correct answer
B. Administer cholecystokinin intravenously

67. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is least likely to be used in

cholecystoscintigraphy? *
0/1
A. Tc-99m DISIDA
B. Tc-99m mebrofenin

C. Tc-99m iminodiacetic acid

D. Tc-99m sulfur colloid
Correct answer
D. Tc-99m sulfur colloid

68. Non-visualization of the gall bladder in cholecystoscintigraphy will most likely

suggest the existence of this GB pathology. *
0/1
A. cholecystitis
B. cholelithiasis
C. Phyrigian cup deformity

D. Jaundice
Correct answer
A. cholecystitis

69. What is the best reason why morphine sulfate is administered in HIDA scan? *
1/1
A. It stimulates gall bladder contraction
B. It stimulates sphincter of Oddi contraction
C. It increases pressure in CBD and cystic duct
D. Both B and C

70. Nuclear medicine imaging procedure that is used in the evaluation of blood flow
to the lungs *
0/1
A. Lung Perfusion
B. Lung Ventilation
C. Lung V/Q
D. Both A and C

Correct answer
A. Lung Perfusion

71. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals/ radionuclide is least likely to be

used in the evaluation of lung physiology?*
0/1
A. Tc-99m DTPA
B. Tc-99m MAA
C. Xe-123 gas
D. Kr-81m gas

Correct answer
C. Xe-123 gas

72. The following radiopharmaceuticals are used exclusively in the evaluation and
diagnosis of thyroid disorders, except: *
1/1
A. Tc-99m pertechnetate
B. I-123 sodium iodide
C. I-131 sodium iodide
D. I-123 methaiodobenzylguanidine

73. Which of the following statements is not true about thyroid scintigraphy using
Tc-99m pertechnetate? *
1/1
A. Thyroid scan is performed 20 minutes postadministration of radiopharmaceutical.
B. Thyroid scan is performed 24 hours post

administration of the radiopharmaceutical.

C. LEHR and pinhole collimators are used.
D. None of the above

74. Which of the following collimators will most likely be used in thyroid scintigraphy
using I-131?:
1. LEHR
2. Pinhole
3. HEAP
*
0/1
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct answer
C. 2 and 3 only

75. Which of the following statements is true about lung scintigraphy? *

0/1
A. Lung Ventilation is performed first before Lung Perfusion.
B. Lung Perfusion is performed first before Lung Ventilation.

C. Lung Ventilation and Perfusion must be performed simultaneously.

D. Lung Perfusion and Ventilation is never performed on the same day.
Correct answer
A. Lung Ventilation is performed first before Lung Perfusion.

76. The following organs have a normal uptake activity in PET imaging, except: *
0/1
A. Brain

B. gall bladder
C. heart
D. urinary bladder
Correct answer
B. gall bladder

77. Which of the following statements is false about PET imaging? *

1/1
A. Cancer cells perform high rate of metabolism than normal cells.
B. Normal cells consume more sugar than malignant cells.

C. F-18 FDG is a radioactive sugar.

D. Areas of intense uptake activity in PET is tantamount also to areas of high
metabolic activity.

78. In thyroid scintigraphy, the patient is injected with technetium pertechnetate at

9:15 am, what time should the patient be scanned? *
1/1
A. 9:15 am on the following day
B. 9:15 am on the same day
C. 9:30 am on the same day

D. 9:30 am on the following day

79. Which of the following statements about parathyroid scintigraphy is not true? *
0/1
A. Normal parathyroid tissue will accumulate sestamibi
B. Parathyroid adenoma will accumulate sestamibi
C. Thyroid gland will accumulate pertechnetate
D. None of the choices

Correct answer
A. Normal parathyroid tissue will accumulate sestamibi

80. What is the position of the patient when administering the radiopharmaceutical
to evaluate pulmonary blood flow into the lungs?
1. Supine
2. Prone
3. Orthostatic
4. Dorsal Decubitus
*
1/1
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 4 only

81. What is the position of the camera in parathyroid scintigraphy? *

0/1
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. anterior oblique
D. posterior oblique
Correct answer
A. Anterior

82. Tl-201 as thallous chloride at neutral pH is considered to behave similarly to: *

0/1
A. Sodium

B. Potassium
C. calcium
D. gallium
Correct answer
B. Potassium

83. Tc-99m and I-123 are the most common agents for thyroid imaging. Thyroid
imaging with technetium administration: *
0/1
A. cannot be performed with pinhole collimator
B. requires 6 hour delay in evaluation
C. does not require anti-thyroid medication withholding

D. does not evaluate true thyroid function

Correct answer
D. does not evaluate true thyroid function

84. Where does Tc-99m MDP localize within the bone? *

1/1
A. Osteoblast
B. Osteoclast
C. osteocyte
D. calcium hydroxyapatite

85. I-131 destroys the thyroid follicular cells by what emission during its radioactive
decay? *
1/1
A. Alpha
B. Beta

C. gamma
D. positron

86. What is the half-life of I-131? *

1/1
A. 13 hours
B. 2.8 days
C. 8.1 days

D. 13.2 days

87. Tc-99m red blood cells is utilized in all of the following nuclear medicine
imaging procedures, except: *
0/1
A. Gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Pulmonary perfusion imaging
C. Radionuclide ventriculography
D. Hepatic hemangioma imaging

Correct answer
B. Pulmonary perfusion imaging
88. The following are true about crystal used in a gamma camera assembly,
except: *
0/1
A. It is fragile and easily damaged
B. It is hygroscopic

C. It is sensitive to temperature which in turn damages the crystal

D. It is sensitive to radiation which in turn damages the crystal
Correct answer
D. It is sensitive to radiation which in turn damages the crystal

89. In RBC tagging procedure, to increase the affinity of red blood cells with
technetium, hence better tagging, what drug is administered to the patient prior to
blood extraction? *
1/1
A. Tetrofosmin
B. Sestamibi
C. Pyrophosphate

D. Diphosphonate

90. Where should the detector be placed during a GFR procedure? *

0/1
A. Anterior

B. Posterior
C. Lateral
D. Oblique
Correct answer
B. Posterior
91. What is the best reason why morphine sulfate is administered in HIDA scan? *
1/1
A. It stimulates GB contraction
B. It stimulates sphincter of Oddi contraction
C. It increases pressure in CBD and cystic duct
D. Both B and C

92. What is the route of administration of I-131 when performing thyroid

scintigraphy? *
1/1
A. Intravenous
B. Intraarterial
C. Oral

D. Rectal

93. What is the instruction to the patient before, during, and after the
administration of Tc-99m HMPAO for the evaluation of cerebral perfusion? *
1/1
A. Think colorful objects
B. Listen to calm music
C. Talk to a companion for 5 minutes
D. Close both eyes

94. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals in PET imaging will be more likely
used in staging and detection of malignant diseases in the body? *
1/1
A. O-15 water
B. F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose

C. F-18 fluoride
D. N-13 ammonia

95. Which of the following is the main indication of ventilation perfusion

scintigraphy? *
0/1
A. Evaluation of pulmonary embolism
B. Evaluation of pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Evaluation of bronchogenic carcinoma
D. Evaluation of ischemic heart disease

Correct answer
A. Evaluation of pulmonary embolism

96. Using a dual head gamma camera, which of the following positions is most likely
instructed to the patient? *
0/1
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Lateral

D. Decubitus
Correct answer
A. Supine

97. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used exclusively for renal cortical
imaging? *
0/1
A. Tc-99m Diethylenetriamine Pentaacetic Acid
B. Tc-99m Dimercaptosuccinic Acid
C. Tc-99m Methylene Diphosphonate
D. Tc-99m Pertechnetate
Correct answer
B. Tc-99m Dimercaptosuccinic Acid

98. Which of the following radionuclide is used both in diagnosis and treatment of
diseases *
0/1
A. Tc-99m

B. I-131
C. F-18
D. O-15
Correct answer
B. I-131

99. How many hours does it take for Tc-99m to reduce its activity to 12.5% of its
original value? *
1/1
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours

D. 24 hours

100. The change in atomic mass after electron capture. *

1/1
A. +1
B. -1
C. 0
D. -2
RECALL EXAM NI SIR ILANO 😊

1. What is the meaning of the Greek word “Tomos”? *

1/1
a) Describe
b) Record
c) Slice

d) Draw

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Data acquisition is the process of creating an image of a 2D distribution from

estimates of its line integrals along a finite number of lines of known locations

II. Image reconstruction is the systematic collection of x-ray transmission from the
patients
*
1/1
a) First statement is correct, second statement is incorrect
b) First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct
d) Both statements are incorrect

3. What is the correct process in acquiring images from the patient using the CT
scan modality *
1/1
a) Xray tube– Patient– ADC– DAC- Display monitor

b) Patient- Xray tube-DAC-ADC-Display monitor

c) Xray tube- Dispay monitor-Patient-DAC- ADC
d) Xray tube-ADC-Patient-DAC- Display monitor

4. The following are advantages of using a CT scan modality, except: *

1/1
a) It is used to overcome superimposition of anatomical structures
b) It is used to improve the contrast
c) It is used to record and measure small differences in tissue
d) It his superior in terms of spatial resolution than other modalities

5. It is the combination of pixel size and slice thickness which shows a three -
dimensional representation of an area *
1/1
a) Matrix
b) Slice
c) Voxel

d) Volume

6. It refers to the movement of source -detector assembly across the patient *

0/1
a) Translation

b) Projection
c) Sweep
d) A and C
Correct answer
d) A and C

7. An intensity profile, it represents the attenuation pattern of the patient profile *

1/1
a) Translation
b) Projection

c) Sweep
d) A and C

8. Computer -adapted mathematical calculation applied to raw data during image

reconstruction *
1/1
a) Reconstruction
b) Algorithm

c) Projection
d) Translation

9. It is the time between the end of imaging and the appearance of an image *
1/1
a) Reconstruction time

b) Algorithm time
c) Projection time
d) Translation time

10. It is the time needed for the computer to present a digital image after an
examination has been computed *
1/1
a) Reconstruction time

b) Algorithm time
c) Projection time
d) Translation time

11. What CT scan generation uses a wide fan bean with 750 -1000 curvilinear
array? *
1/1
a)1st
b)2nd
c)3rd

d)4th

12. What CT scan generation produces a ring artifact when the detectors and x -ray
tube are misaligned and not calibrated *
1/1
a)1st
b)2nd
c)3rd

d)4th

13. What is the geometry of the first generation of CT scan modality? *

1/1
a) Rotate-stationary
b) Rotate-rotate
c) Translate-rotate
d) Translate-translate

14. What is the imaging time and beam used in the first generation of CT scan
modality? *
1/1
a) Less than 1 sec and wide fan beam,respectively
b) 0.35 -10sec and curvilinear array, respectively
c) 3-5 mins and narrow fan beam, respectively
d) 3 -5 mins and pencil beam, respectively

15. Increased scatter radiation is one of the major disadvantages in second

generations CT scan modalities, what filter is used to equalize the radiation
intensity that reaches the detector array? *
1/1
a) Compensating filter
b) Trough filter
c) Bow-tie filter

d) Ferlic filter

16. What is the geometry used in fourth generation CT scan modalities? *

1/1
a) Translate-rotate
b) Rotate-rotate
c) Rotate-stationary

d) Stationary-stationary

17. What is the geometry used in fifth generation CT scan modalities? *

1/1
a) Translate-rotate
b) Rotate-rotate
c) Rotate-stationary
d) Stationary-stationary

18. The following are features of fifth generation CT scan modality, except *
1/1
a) Electron Gun (130 kV)
b) Detector ring (216° arc)
c) 10 tungsten target rings

d) Used in cardiac imaging

19. Who developed the fifth generation CT scan modalities? *

1/1
a) Kazuhiro Katada
b) Willi Kalender
c) Andrew Castagnini

d) A and B

20. Who developed the sixth generation CT scan modality? *

1/1
a) Kazuhiro Katada
b) Willi Kalender
c) Andrew Castagnini
d) A and B
21. It is a device in CT scan which generates the x -ray beam *
0/1
a) Gantry

b) Detectors
c) X-ray tube
d) Collimators
Correct answer
c) X-ray tube

22. Which of the following is/are true?

I. Gantry is the largest component of the Computed Tomography installation
II. The opening of the gantry is called the aperture
*
1/1
a) First statement is true, second statement is false
b) First statement is false, second statement is true
c) Both statements are true

d) Both statements are false

23. Collimator assembly is used to restrict useful x -ray beam to improves quality of
image and to lessen the patient dose. Which of the following statements is/are true
regarding the collimator assembly?
I. The pre -patient collimator functions to decrease the dose received by the
patient
II. The post -patient collimator is used to improve image contrast by absorbing
scatter radiation
III. Pre -detector collimator is the same with pre -patient collimator
IV. Pre -detector collimator is the same with post -patient collimator
*
1/1
a) I, II, and III
b) I, II, and IV

c) I and II
d) All of the above

24. It is the area of the detector sensitive to radiation as a fraction of total exposed
area *
1/1
a) Geometric efficiency

b) Quantum efficiency
c) Conversion efficiency
d) Over-all efficiency

25. It is the fraction of the incident x -ray that are absorbed and contributed to the
measured signal *
1/1
a. Geometric efficiency
b. Quantum efficiency

c. Conversion efficiency
d. Over-all efficiency

26. It refers to the ratio of the largest signal to be measured to the precision of the
smallest signal to be discriminated *
1/1
a) Response time
b) Dynamic range
c) No after glow
d) Stability

27. The patient couch in CT scan must composed of materials with high atomic
number to prevent the absorption of remnant radiation *
1/1
a) True
b) False

c) Depends
d) None of the above

28. What is the difference between patient table indexing and pitch?
I. Indexing is the movement of the patient couch and it only refers to 6th to 7th
generation of CT scan machines II. Pitch is the movement of the patient table and it
is applicable only to spiral or helical scans
*
1/1
a) First statement is true, second statement is false
b) First statement is false, second statement is true

c) Both statements are true

d) Both statements are false

29. Which of the following statements correctly describes pitch?

I. The movement of the patient table and pitch has an inverse relationship
II. Faster pitch must have a value lesser than 1
III. Higher pitch results to better image quality
IV. Higher pitch means slower table movement
*
1/1
a) I and II
b) III and IV
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

30. Kernels are convolution filters that are used to overcome the star pattern
artifact. Which of the following correctly describes the low frequency and high
frequency convolution filters.
I. Low frequency convolution filters suppresses low frequency signals, increases
spatial resolution, and better to be used in small structure imaging
II. High frequency convolution filters suppress high frequency signals, increase
spatial resolution, and better to be used in organ imaging
*
1/1
a) First statement is true, second statement is false

b) First statement is false, second statement is true

c) Both statements are true
d) Both statements are false

31. It is the path of the x -ray beam from the x -ray tube to the detector *
1/1
a) Ray

b) Ray sum
c) View
d) Projection

32. Complete set of ray sums *

1/1
a) Ray
b) Ray sum
c) View

d) Projection

33. What is the Hounsfield unit of water *

1/1
a) 0

b) 15
c) 20
d) 45

34. Which if the following increases the spatial resolution?

I. Increase matrix size
II. Increase pixel size
III. Decrease FOV
IV. Decrease collimation
*
1/1
a) I only
b) I and III

c) I, III, and IV
d) All of the above

35. Which if the following increases the contrast resolution?

I. Increase matrix size
II. Increase pixel size
III. Decrease FOV
IV. Increase voxel size
*
1/1
a) I only
b) II and IV

c) I, III and IV
d) All of the above

36. It is an imaging modality which uses magnetic fields and radiowaves in order to
obtain a mathematically reconstructed image *
1/1
a) Computed tomography
b) Ultrasound
c) Magnetic resonance imaging

d) Nuclear medicine

37. What is the correct order in acquiring images from a patient using an MRI
modality
I. Radiowave is sent in
II. Patient emits a signal
III. Radiowave is turned off
IV. Image reconstruction starts
V. Patient is placed in a magnet
*
0/1
a) V, III, IV, I, II
b) V, IV, III, II, I
c) V, I, III, II, IV
d) V, I, IV, III, II

Correct answer
c) V, I, III, II, IV

38. Who used an excise rat tissue to conclude that there were significant difference
in nuclear magnetic resonance parameters on normal and tumor tissues *
1/1
a) Edward Purcell
b) Raymond Damadian

c) Paul Lauterbur
d) Otto Stern

39. Magnetic Resonance Imaging modality doesn’t use any radiation *

0/1
a) True

b) False
c) Maybe
d) It depends
Correct answer
b) False

40. The following are advantages of using MRI modality, except *

0/1
a) Uses ionizing radiation
b) Improved sensitivity and specificity
c) Non-invasive
d) Best low contrast resolution

Correct answer
a) Uses ionizing radiation

41. Who discovered protons *

1/1
a) Raymond Damadian
b) Eugene Goldstein

c) James Chadwick
d) JJ Thompson

42. 1 tesla is equal to ______ gauss *

1/1
a) 100
b) 1,000
c) 10,000

d) 100,000

43. Wobbling type of motion *

1/1
a) Frequency
b) Precession

c) Spin
d) Polarization
44. What is the larmor frequency in a 3 tesla MRI machine? *
1/1
a) 21 MHz
b) 42 MHz
c) 127 MHz

d) 150 MHz

45. Magnetic moments are at the same places on the precessional path at a
moment in time
I. In phase
II. Out of phase
III. Coherent iv. Incoherent
*
1/1
a) I and III

b) II and IV
c) I only
d) II only

46. Magnetic moments are at the same places on the precessional path at a
moment in time
I. In phase
II. Out of phase
III. Coherent
IV. Incoherent
*
0/1
a) I and III
b) II and IV
c) I only
d) II only
Correct answer
b) II and IV

47. It is a device used in MRI that collects signals from the patient. It also transmit
and receives signals (transceiver). *
1/1
a) Gantry
b) Patient table
c) RF coils

d) Detectors

48. Which of the following correctly describes FAT?

I. It comprises hydrogen atoms mainly linked to carbon II. It comprises hydrogen
atoms mainly linked to oxygen III. It has a high inherent energy which means they
are not able to absorb energy efficiently
IV. It has a low inherent energy which means they are able to absorb energy
efficiently
*
1/1
a) I and II
b) I and IV

c) III and IV
d) II and III

49. Which of the following correctly describes WATER?

I. It comprises hydrogen atoms mainly linked to carbon II. It comprises hydrogen
atoms mainly linked to oxygen III. It has a high inherent energy which means they
are not able to absorb energy efficiently
IV. It has a low inherent energy which means they are able to absorb energy
efficiently
*
1/1
a) I and II
b) I and IV
c) III and IV
d) II and III

50. If the signal is measured and shows a large transverse component of

magnetization exhibiting a white appearance, it is called _______ *
1/1
a) Hyper-intense

b) Hypo-intense
c) Iso-intense
d) None of the above

51. If the signal is measured and shows a small transverse component of

magnetization exhibiting a black appearance, it is called _______ *
1/1
a) Hyper-intense
b) Hypo-intense

c) Iso-intense
d) None of the above
52. If the signal is measured and shows a medium transverse component of
magnetization exhibiting a gray appearance, it is called _______ *
1/1
a) Hyper-intense
b) Hypo-intense
c) Iso-intense

d) None of the above

53. Which of the following is controlled by the operator *

1/1
a) Intrinsic contrast parameters
b) Extrinsic contrast parameters

c) External parameters
d) Internal parameters

54. Which of the following are inherent to the tissue and not controlled by the
operator *
1/1
a) Intrinsic contrast parameters

b) Extrinsic contrast parameters

c) External parameters
d) Internal parameters

55. The following are extrinsic contrast parameters in MRI, except *

1/1
a) Time to repeat
b) Time to echo
c) T1 / T2

d) Flip angle

56. Time from the application of one radiofrequency to the next radiofrequency *
1/1
a) Time to repeat

b) Time to echo
c) T1 / T2
d) Flip angle

57. Time between a radiofrequency and collection of signals *

1/1
a) Time to repeat
b) Time to echo

c) T1 / T2
d) Flip angle

58. Measure of the time taken to realign with the external magnetic field. Time it
takes for 63% of longitudinal magnetization to recover *
1/1
a) T1

b) T2
c) PD
d) Mixed

59. Controlled by Repetition Time – T1 *

1/1
a) T1

b) T2
c) PD
d) Mixed

60. Short TE, Short TR *

1/1
a) T1

b) T2
c) PD
d) Mixed

61. Measure of the time for protons to exchange energy with nearby nuclei. Time it
takes for 37% of transverse magnetization to recover *
1/1
a) T1
b) T2

c) PD
d) Mixed

62. Controlled by Echo Time *

1/1
a) T1
b) T2

c) PD
d) Mixed

63. Long TE, Long TR *

1/1
a) T1
b) T2

c) PD
d) Mixed

64. Short TE, Long TR *

1/1
a) T1
b) T2
c) PD

d) Mixed

65. Controlled by hydrogen concentration *

1/1
a) T1
b) T2
c) PD

d) Mixed

66. Appearance of fats in T1 *

1/1
a) Bright
b) Dark
c) Gray
d) Pitch black

67. Appearance of edema and CSF in T1 *

1/1
a) Bright
b) Dark

c) Gray
d) Pitch black

68. Appearance of edema and CSF in T2 *

1/1
a) Bright

b) Dark
c) Gray
d) Pitch black

69. Which of the following sequences are examples of inversion recovery

I. FLAIR
II. GRE
III. STIR
IV. DWI
*
1/1
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) II and III
d) II and IV

70. What are the respective cuts or slices produce by X, Y, and Z gradient coils *
1/1
a. X for sagittal, Y for coronal, and Z for transverse cuts

b. X for coronal, Y for sagittal, and Z for transverse cuts

c. X for sagittal, Y for transverse, and Z for coronal cuts
d. X for sagittal, Y for coronal or transverse, and Z for oblique cuts

71. What is the unit “Z” that is describes how the particles of that substance behave
when subjected to pressure wave? *
1/1
a) Lead zirconate titanate
b) Density
c) Acoustic impedance

d) Zirconium

72. How many Hertz (Hz) or cycles per seconds (cps) for audible sound? *
1/1
a) Less than 20 Hz
b) 20-20,000 Hz

c) 20,000 Hz
d) Greater than 20,000 Hz

73. How many Hertz (Hz) or cycles per seconds (cps) for ultrasound or
suprasonic? *
0/1
a) Less than 20 Hz
b) 20-20,000 Hz

c) 20,000 Hz
d) Greater than 20,000 Hz
Correct answer
d) Greater than 20,000 Hz

74. How many Hertz (Hz) or cycles per seconds (cps) for infrasound or subsonic? *
1/1
a) Less than 20 Hz

b) 20-20,000 Hz
c) 20,000 Hz
d) Greater than 20,000 Hz

75. The following are disadvantages of using an ultrasound, except: *

0/1
a) Unable to penetrate bone
b) Depth of penetration is limited
c) Operator-dependent

d) Patient-dependent
Correct answer
d) Patient-dependent

76. What biological effect of ultrasound refers to the elevation of tissue temperature
and structural changes in macromolecules and membranes *
1/1
a) Thermal effects

b) Cavitation
c) Viscous stress
d) Burn

77. What biological effect of ultrasound refers to the disruption of molecular bonds
and production of free radicals *
1/1
a) Thermal effects
b) Cavitation

c) Viscous stress
d) Burn

78. What biological effect of ultrasound refers to the resulting force which occurs
when there is differences in tissue viscosity *
1/1
a) Thermal effects
b) Cavitation
c) Viscous stress

d) Burn

79. Liver is used as an _________ in order to visualize the ____ kidney *

1/1
a) Acoustic enhancement; right
b) Acoustic enhancement; left
c) Acoustic window; right
d) Acoustic window; left

80. It is the change in magnitude in physical entity or particle density *

1/1
a) Wavelength
b) Amplitude

c) Period
d) Frequency

81. The ______ the frequency; the _____ the wavelength *

1/1
a) High; low
b) High; high
c) Low; high
d) A or C

82. It is the fractional decrease In volume when pressure is applied *

1/1
a) Density
b) Compressibility

c) Velocity
d) Impedance

83. It is the mass of medium or unit volume. The unit is kg/m *

1/1
a) Density
b) Compressibility
c) Velocity
d) Impedance

84. What is the velocity of ultrasound in air? *

1/1
a) 348 m/s

b) 3360 m/s
c) 1540 m/s
d) 1480 m/s

85. What is the velocity of ultrasound in bone? *

1/1
a) 348 m/s
b) 3360 m/s

c) 1540 m/s
d) 1480 m/s

86. What is the velocity of ultrasound in soft tissue? *

1/1
a) 348 m/s
b) 3360 m/s
c) 1540 m/s

d) 1480 m/s

87. What is the velocity of ultrasound in water? *

1/1
a) 348 m/s
b) 3360 m/s
c) 1540 m/s
d) 1480 m/s

88. It is the bending away of transmitted sound wave *

1/1
a) Reflection
b) Refraction

c) Diffraction
d) Inteference

89. This causes the beam to diverge or spread out from the source of sound *
1/1
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Diffraction

d) Inteference

90. It is the universal piezoelectric crystal *

1/1
a) Quartz
b) Lead zirconate titanate

c) Rochelle salt
d) Lithium sulfate
91. What is the relationship of transducer frequency and size of piezoelectric
crystals? *
1/1
a) Directly proportional
b) Indirectly proportional

c) Depends
d) None of the above

92. This are used to provide changing polarity of the crystals wherein this will cause
vibrations to the crystals. This is made of thin foil of gold or thin foil of silver. *
1/1
a) Damping block
b) Electrodes

c) Acoustic insulator
d) Matching layer

93. This material is used to enhance the transmission of soundwaves to and from
the patient. It is placed in the outer portion of the probe. *
1/1
a) Epoxy resin
b) Tungsten powder
c) Acoustic coupling gel

d) Cork

94. Inadequate amount of acoustic coupling medium was used during an abdominal
sonography. Which of the following changes can occur as a result of it? *
1/1
a) A decrease in the amplitude of the returning echo
b) An increase in amplitude of the returning echo
c) The transducer will slide down on the skin easier
d) No effect on the image

95. What are the characteristics of the Near zone (Fresnel zone *
1/1
a) Highly collimated, increase divergence, decrease variation of ultrasound beam
intensity
b) Highly collimated, decrease divergence, increase variation of ultrasound beam
intensity

c) Less collimated, increase divergence, decrease variation of ultrasound beam

intensity
d) Highly collimated, increase divergence,increase variation of ultrasound beam
Option 12

96. What are the characteristics of the Far Zone (Fraunhofer zone) *
1/1
a) Highly collimated, increase divergence,decrease variation of ultrasound beam
intensity
b) Highly collimated, decrease divergence, increase variation of ultrasound beam
intensity
c) Less collimated, increase divergence, decrease variation of ultrasound beam
intensity

d) Highly collimated, increase divergence, increase variation of ultrasound beam

97. It is the ability to image small details; Thus, increasing contrast. The best
modality for this is mammography *
1/1
a) Spatial resolution
b) Contrast resolution
c) Temporal resolution
d) Energy resolution

98. Measure of the ability of the ultrasound system to identify closely separated
interfaces that lie on the axis of the beam *
1/1
a) Axial resolution
b) Range resolution
c) Depth resolution
d) All of the above

99. This refers the resolution of objects in a plane perpendicular to the axis of the
beam *
1/1
a) Azimuthal resolution
b) Transverse resolution
c) Lateral resolution
d) All of the above

100. It is the fraction of time that ultrasound is actually emitted *

1/1
a) Spatial pulse length (SPL)
b) Duty factor

c) Pulse duration
d) Pulse Repetition Period (PRP)
101. This ultrasound operational mode is used for measuring the depth of interfaces
and to detect their separation accurately. This is also used measuring midline shifts
in the brain. *
1/1
a) A-mode display

b) B-mode display
c) M-mode display
d) Doppler

102. This ultrasound operational mode is most widely used to depict brightness of
reflected wave will be equivalent to the intensity. This is also used for abdominal
imaging. *
1/1
a) A-mode display
b) B-mode display

c) M-mode display
d) Doppler

103. This ultrasound artifact is caused by excessive refraction and commonly occurs
from the edges vessels, cystic structures, and bones *
1/1
a) Acoustic shadowing
b) Edge shadowing

c) Acoustic enhancement
d) Mirror image artifact

104. This occurs when the ultrasound waves cause oscillation within fluid trapped
by a tetrahedron of gas bubbles *
1/1
a) Reverberation artifact
b) Ring-down artifact

c) Dirty shadowing artifact

d) Comet tail artifact

105. This is the result of a marked reduction in the intensity of the ultrasound deep
to a strong reflector, attenuator, or refractor *
0/1
a) Acoustic shadowing
b) Edge shadowing

c) Acoustic enhancement
d) Mirror image artifact
Correct answer
a) Acoustic shadowing

106. It is a combination of a radioactive material (detection) and a pharmaceutical

(carrier *
1/1
a) Radioisotopes
b) Radiopharmaceuticals

c) Contrast media
d) Lead pig

107. This is the place where the radiopharmaceuticals are delivered, stored, and
prepared for dispensing *
1/1
a) Nuclear laboratory
b) Pharmaceutical laboratory
c) Hot laboratory

d) Dispensing laboratory

108. In nuclear medicine, the radiation is emitted by the ______ *

1/1
a) Gantry
b) Detectors
c) Patient

d) Radiopharmaceuticals

109. Who is the father of radioactivity? *

1/1
a) Pierre Curie
b) Georg De Hevesy
c) Ernest Orlando Lawrence
d) Antoine Henri Becquere

110. Who is the Father of Nuclear Medicine? *

1/1
a) Pierre Curie
b) Georg De Hevesy

c) Ernest Orlando Lawrence

d) Antoine Henri Becquere

111. Who is the father of Positron Emission Tomography (PET)? *

0/1
a) Hal Anger

b) David Kuhl
c) Dr. Benedict Cassen
d) Enrico Fermi
Correct answer
b) David Kuhl

112. It has the same atomic number but different atomic mass and number of
neutrons *
1/1
a) Isotopes

b) Isobars
c) Isotones
d) Isomer

113. It is the process by which an unstable atomic nucleus spontaneously emits

particles and energy and transforms itself to another atom to attain stability *
1/1
a) Radionuclides
b) Radioactivity

c) Radiopharmaceuticals
d) Radiofrequency

114. This decay mode emits a particle consisting of 2 neutrons and 2 protons *
1/1
a) Alpha decay
b) Beta minus
c) Beta plus
d) Gamma decay

115. Based on the previous question, what must be the atomic number and atomic
mass for that decay mode *
1/1
a) Less than 82 and greater than 150, respectively
b) Less than 82 and less than 150, respectively
c) greater than 82 and greater than 150, respectively

d) greater than 82 and less than 150,

116. A radionuclide converts a neutron into a proton wherein the excess energy is
released as a negatron and anit-neutrino *
1/1
a) Alpha decay
b) Beta minus

c) Beta plus
d) Gamma decay

117. Based on the previous question, what must be the charge and mass of the
“particle” of that decay mode *
1/1
a) Negative and heavier than electron
b) Positive and heavier than electron
c) Negative and same with electron

d) Positive and same with electron

118. In beta plus decay, the radionuclide converts ____ into a ____ wherein the
excess energy is released as a positron *
1/1
a) Neutron and positron, respectively
b) Proton and neutron, respectively

c) Neutron and proton, respectively

d) Electron and positron, respectively

119. Based on the previous question, what must be the charge and mass of the
“particle” of that decay mode *
1/1
a) Negative and heavier than electron
b) Positive and heavier than electron
c) Negative and same with electron
d) Positive and same with electron

120. What must be the conditions in electron capture

decay mode?*
1/1
a) Too many protons and too few neutrons

b) Too many protons and too many neutrons

c) Too few protons and too few neutrons
d) Too many protons and too few electrons

121. The ejected electron by a gamma ray during gamma decay is called? *
1/1
a) Gammatron
b) Betatron
c) Positron
d) Internal conversion electron

122. What must be the condition of a gamma decay? *

1/1
a) Too many neutrons, too few protons
b) Too many protons, too few neutrons
c) Atomic number greater than 82
d) High energy state atom

123. Time required to reduce the initial activity to one half *

1/1
a) Half-life

b) Physical half-life
c) Biological half-life
d) Effective half-life

124. Time required for a radioactive elimination in the body to be diminished 50%
as a result of the combined action of the radioactive decay and biological
elimination *
1/1
a) Half-life
b) Physical half-life
c) Biological half-life
d) Effective half-life
125. Time required so that the activity of the radionuclide is reduced to 50% *
0/1
a) Half-life

b) Physical half-life
c) Biological half-life
d) Effective half-life
Correct answer
b) Physical half-life

126. Time required for the body to eliminate half of an administered dosage of any
substance. It is the body’s response to excrete thru micturition or defecation *
1/1
a) Half-life
b) Physical half-life
c) Biological half-life

d) Effective half-life

127. It is one of the artificial radionuclide production wherein the nucleus of an

atom splits into two or more smaller nuclei *
1/1
a) Nuclear fission

b) Radionuclide Generator System

c) Charged particle bombardment
d) Neutron bombardment

128. What artificial radionuclide production uses cyclotron and nuclear reactor? *
1/1
a) Radionuclide Generator System only
b) Charged particle bombardment only
c) Neutron bombardment only
d) Charged particle bombardment and neutron bombardment, respectively

129. What is the half-life of Mo-99? *

1/1
a) 666 hrs
b) 66 hrs

c) 6 hrs
d) 0.6 hrs

130. What is the half-life of Tc-99m? *

1/1
a) 666 hrs
b) 66 hrs
c) 6 hrs

d) 0.6 hrs

131. It is a circular device in which charged particles such as protons and alpha
particles are accelerated in a spiral path in a vacuum *
1/1
a) Cyclotron

b) Betatron
c) Nuclear reactor
d) None of the above

132. It is a fraction of total activity in the form of desired radionuclide. There should
be less Mo-99 in the eluant in a Tc-99m generator *
1/1
a) Radionuclidic Purity
b) Parent breakthrough
c) Chemical purity
d) A and B

133. It is a fraction of total radioactivity in desired chemical form. It ensures that the
expected valence state is +7 *
1/1
a) Radionuclidic Purity
b) Parent breakthrough
c) Radiochemical purity

d) A and B

134. What is the standard used in chemical purity? *

1/1
a) <5 ug/mL
b) <10 ug/mL

c) <15 ug/mL
d) <20 ug/mL

135. What localization mechanism is used during lung scan using

macroaggregates *
0/1
a) Diffusion
b) Capillary blockade
c) Cell sequestration
d) Active transport

Correct answer
b) Capillary blockade

136. What localization mechanism is used during thyroid uptake scanning with
iodine *
1/1
a) Diffusion
b) Capillary blockade
c) Cell sequestration
d) Active transport

137. Tc-99m Sodium Pertechnate is used to the following

procedures/examinations, except *
1/1
a) Meckel’s diverticulum
b) Salivary gland imaging
c) Thyroid imaging
d) Gastric emptying

138. What radiopharmaceutical is used for lung perfusion? *

1/1
a) Xe-133 gas
b) Kr-81m gas
c) Macroaggregated Albumin

d) Xe-127 gas

139. It is a gamma imaging technique that uses radiotracers that emit positrons *
1/1
a) CT
b) MRI
c) PET

d) NUCMED

140. This type of imaging method uses snapshot imaging dictated by time or
counts. It is also an acquisition of single image of particular structure. *
1/1
a) Whole body imaging
b) Static imaging

c) Dynamic imaging
d) Semi-dynamic imaging

141. It is a deficiency and imperfection of the formation of osseous tissue, skin,

sclera, inner ear, and teeth. This is also known as “brittle bone disease” *
1/1
a) Clubfoot
b) Polydactyly
c) Osteogenesis imperfecta

d) Achondroplasia
 142. The clinical signs of this pathology are bulky forehead, very short limbs, bulky
forehead, genu varum “bowlegs”, and maximum height of 4 ft. *
1/1
a) Clubfoot
b) Polydactyly
c) Osteogenesis imperfecta
d) Achondroplasia

143. It is a congenital malformation of the foot that prevents normal weight

bearing *
1/1
a) Clubfoot

b) Polydactyly
c) Osteogenesis imperfecta
d) Achondroplasia

144. Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine towards to the right *

1/1
a) Levoscoliosis
b) Dextroscoliosis

c) Lordosis
d) Kyphosis

145. It is an incomplete closure of the vertebral canal that is particularly common

in the lumbosacral area. One of the causes of this pathology is lack of folic acid. *
1/1
a) Transitional vertebra
b) Spina bifida
c) Anencephaly
d) Ankylosing spondylitis

146. What is the radiographic sign of ankylosing spondylitis? *

1/1
a) Marie-strumpell disease
b) Curvature spine
c) Bamboo spine

d) Worm eaten appearance

147. It is an infection of the bone and bone marrow caused by a pathogenic

microorganism *
1/1
a) Osteophytes
b) Osteomyelitis

c) Osteoarthritis
d) Osteogenesis

148. Tuberculosis of the spine *

1/1
a) Osteoarthritis
b) Pott’s disease

c) Marie-strumpell disease
d) Brittle bone disease

149. What is the other term for osteoarthritis? *

1/1
a) Gouty arthritis
b) Degenerative bone disease

c) Brittle bone disease

d) Spondylosis

150. Fracture in lower cervical and upper thoracic regions *

1/1
a) Jefferson’s fracture
b) Hangman fracture
c) Clay shoveler fracture

d) Odontoid fracture

151. Radial fracture with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint *

1/1
a) Monteggia fracture
b) Galeazzi fracture

c) Smith fracture
d) Colle fracture

152. Fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement *

1/1
a) Monteggia fracture
b) Galeazzi fracture
c) Smith fracture

d) Colle fracture
 153. Patellar fracture with broken glass appearance *
1/1
a) Pott’s fracture
b) Jones fracture
c) Stellate fracture

d) Stellar fracture

154. What is the radiographic appearance of endochondroma? *

1/1
a) Mushroom appearance
b) Cauliflower appearance
c) Bubbly lesion appearance

d) Sunray appearance

155. What is the radiographic appearance of Osteosarcoma? *

1/1
a) Mushroom appearance
b) Cauliflower appearance
c) Bubbly lesion appearance
d) Sunray appearance

156. Based on the previous question, it is one of the example of _____ tumor *
1/1
a) Benign
b) Malignant
c) Depends
d) None of the above

157. What is the radiographic sign of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis? *

1/1
a) Olive sign
b) String sign

c) Sphincter sign
d) Cobra sign

158. It is the absence of neurons in the bowel wall, specifically in the sigmoid
colon. *
1/1
a) Malrotation
b) Hirschsprung disease
c) Aganglionic megacolon
d) B and C

159. Radiographic appearance of peptic ulcer *

1/1
a) String sign
b) Spike wheel appearance

c) Olive sign
d) Target sign

160. Inflammation of the vermiform appendix *

1/1
a) Appendicitis

b) Tertiary peristalsis
c) Regional enteritis
d) GERD

161. It uses anti-cancer drugs (cytotoxic) or hormonal agents to cure, palliate,

maintain remission or prophylactic measure *
1/1
a) Surgery
b) Chemotherapy

c) Radiation therapy
d) Brachytherapy

162. The aim of radiotherapy is to deliver a ____ measure dose of radiation to a

_______ tumor volume with _____ dose to surrounding critical and normal tissues *
1/1
a) Precise, defined, and maximum,respectively
b) Precise, defined, and minimum,respectively

c) Excess, defined, and minimum,respectively

d) Precise, undefined, and minimum,
Option 8

163. It is one of the kilovoltage therapy units which operates on 5-15 kV with only
low depth penetration *
1/1
a) Orthovoltage
b) Superficial
c) Contact
d) Grenz

164. It is one of the kilovoltage therapy units which operates on 40-50 kV and 2
mA, with a penetration of less than 1.2 mm *
0/1
a) Orthovoltage
b) Superficial
c) Contact

d) Grenz
Correct answer
d) Grenz

165. All of the following are examples of megavoltage x-ray generators, except *
1/1
a) Van de Graaf generators
b) LINAC
c) Cyclotron

d) Microtron

166. All of the following are examples of telecurie beam units, except *
1/1
a) Radium-226
b) Synchrocyclotron

c) Cesium-137
d) Cobalt-60
 167. The following conditions are a good candidate in telecurie, except *
1/1
a) Long half-life
b) High specific activity
c) High average energy
d) Short half-life

168. Who invented Linear Accelerator (LINAC) *

1/1
a) Robert Van de Graaf
b) William Kerst
c) Rolf Wilderoe

d) Harold E. Johns

169. Who invented Cobalt-60 *

1/1
a) Robert Van de Graaf
b) William Kerst
c) Rolf Wilderoe
d) Harold E. Johns

170. It is one of the internal components of LINAC which it is use to amplify the
radiofrequecy or microwave. It is located in the drive stand of LINAC. *
1/1
a. Magnetron
b. Cystron
c. Wave guide system
d. Isolator or circulator

171. It is one of the internal components of LINAC. It is the source of microwave *

1/1
a) Magnetron

b) Cystron
c) Wave guide system
d) Isolator or circulator

172. It is one of the internal components of LINAC. It is used to prevent backflow of

radiofrequency and microwaves *
0/1
a) Magnetron
b) Cystron
c) Wave guide system

d) Isolator or circulator
Correct answer
d) Isolator or circulator

173. Who invented cyclotron? *

1/1
a) George de Hevesy
b) Pierre Curie
c) Ernest Lawrence

d) James Chadwick
 174. It is used to generate higher energy charged particles such as Deuterons,
Protons, and Alpha particle. *
1/1
a) Cyclotron
b) Synchrotron
c) Synchrocyclotron

d) Microtron

175. During _____, the location of the isocenter is determine. Patient positioning is
done and tattooing is placed in the patient’s body as landmarks. *
0/1
a) Treatment planning
b) Verification process
c) Simulation
d) Localization

Correct answer
c) Simulation

176. During _____, outlining of organs is done. Delineation of the treatment target
and placement of isocenter relative to the target is established. *
0/1
a) Treatment planning
b) Verification process
c) Simulation

d) Localization
Correct answer
d) Localization
 177. Recommendations for target delineation in which the target volume is
separated into 3 distinct regions (GTV, CTV, PTV *
1/1
a) ICU REPORTS 50/60
b) ICU REPORTS 50/62

c) ICU REPORTS 52/60

d) ICU REPORTS 52/62

178. Gross palpable, visible and demonstrable extent and location of malignant
growth *
1/1
a) GTV

b) CTV
c) ITV
d) PTV

179. Tissue volume that contains GTV and subclinical microscopic disease *
1/1
a) GTV
b) CTV

c) ITV
d) PTV

180. Denotes the CTV an includes margins for geometric or position uncertainties.
It is 0.5-1.5cm physical margin around CTV *
0/1
a) GTV
b) CTV
c) ITV

d) PTV
Correct answer
d) PTV

181. It is a mechanical device that could inject a large bolus of radiopaque

contrast medium over a short period of time. It also has an Ability to deliver a
specific flow rate for a given time period *
1/1
a) Electromechanical injectors

b) Hand bolus injectors

c) General injectors
d) None of the above

182. The following are factors affecting flow rate, except *

1/1
a) Radius of catheter
b) Pressure
c) Length of catheter and connector
d) Radius of needle

183. A drug that works as an anticoagulant *

a) Heparin
b) Dopamine
c) Antibiotic
d) Fentanyl
 184. These are substances that has a higher or lower atomic numbers compared
to adjacent structures. There are used to differentiate densities inside the body and
to enhance the visibility of blood vessels and gastrointestinal tract *
a) Contrast media
b) Water
c) Lead powder
d) Lead zirconate titanate
185. It is the measure of the total number of particles dissolved in one kilogram of
water *
a) Iodine concentration
b) Osmolality
c) Viscosity
d) Toxicity

186. These are designed to allow the safe introduction

of the catheter into th vessel and selective
positioning of catheters within the vascular system
a) Guidewires
b) Vascular catheters
c) T-tube
d) Syringe
187. These are used in transcatheter endovascular
aortic repair (EVAR) procedures to seal aortic
aneurysm*
a) Embolic protection devices
b) Stent grafts
c) Self-expanding grafts
d) Balloon mounted stent

188. These devices are designed to capture and

remove debris that may be dislodged during
procedures such as cardiac procedures wherein it
reduces the number of complications due to debris
being released into the bloodstream and causing
blockages in smaller vessels
a) Embolic protection devices
b) Stent grafts
c) Self-expanding grafts
d) Balloon mounted stent
189. He described a procedure used to obtain safe
access to blood vessels by introducing a catheter
into the vascular system following needle access*
a) Stephen Van Seldinger
b) Steph Ivan Seldinger
c) Sven Ivar Seldinger
d) Svenivar Seldinger
190. What is the first step of seldinger technique
a) Insertion of needle
b) Insertion of guidewire
c) Insertion of catheter
d) Insertion of cannula

191. What is the last step of seldinger technique*

1/1
a) Removal of needle
b) Removal of guidewire

c) Removal of catheter
d) Removal of cannula

192. It is the oldest cardiac interventional procedure

wherein a narrowed portion of the artery is
enlarged selectively to restore blood flow without
resulting to surgery*
1/1
a) Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty

b) Directional Coronary Atherectomy

c) Blade Septostomy
d) Embolization

193. It is the improvement of the PTCA wherein it

involves the removal or extraction of the plaque in
the vesswl. It casuses less injury to the artery and
has longer period of success than angioplasty
a) Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty
b) Directional Coronary Atherectomy
c) Blade Septostomy
d) Embolization

194. It is a procedure wherein a hole is created in the

interatrial septum. The opening allows the
oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to mix,
improving circulation*
1/1
a) Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty
b) Directional Coronary Atherectomy
c) Blade Septostomy

d) Embolization

195. It is a minimally invasive treatment that blocks one

or more blood vessels or abnormal vascular
channels. It is used to control or prevent abnormal
bleeding*
a) Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty
b) Directional Coronary Atherectomy
c) Blade Septostomy
d) Embolization
196. It is an endovascular device that is used to remove
foreign bodies from inside arteries and veins. It is
consist of several radiopaque loops of wire inside
a catheter.*
a) Vascular catheter
b) Vascular guidewires
c) Vascular snare
d) Vascular stent
197. It is a small device that can stop blood clots from
going up into the lungs. It also helps to reduce the
risk of pulmonary embolism by trapping large clots
and preventing them from reaching the heart and
lungs*
a) Lung filters
b) Inferior vena cava filters
c) Guidewires
d) Nephrostomy tube

198. This procedure is done mainly to relieve angina

symptoms because it helps to improve blood flow
to the heart muscle
a) Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG)
b) Balloon angioplasty
c) Stent implantation
d) Atherectomy
199. Who introduced the radiographic examination of
blood vessels supplying the head area which is
called cerebral angiography in the year 1927?*
a) Sven Ivar Seldinger
b) Egas Monis
c) Andreas Gruentzig
d) Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen
200. It is a small and extremely sharp bladed
instrument which is used to cut tissue with less
trauma than any other instrument*
a) Knife
b) Scalpel
c) Stopcocks
d) Adapter